201-250 Flashcards

1
Q

201.What is the effect of CO2 in a steam system?

a) The formation of scale
b) The formation of sludge
c) Corrosion
d) Acidity

A

c) Corrosion

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following forms soft scale or sludge?

a) Magnesium sulphate
b) Sodium carbonate
c) Sodium bicarbonate
d) Calcium bicarbonate

A

d) Calcium bicarbonate

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following are principal dissolved solids that are scale forming?

a) Carbonates and sulphates of sodium
b) Calcium bicarbonate
c) Carbonates and sulphates of magnesium
d) Bicarbonate of sodium and magnesium

A

c) Carbonates and sulphates of magnesium

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4
Q
  1. What is the effect of temperature on calcium and magnesium sulphates?

a) They separate out as soft scale and sludge
b) They precipitate out solution and form hard scale
c) Foaming and carryover occurs
d) The TDS is increased

A

b) They precipitate out solution and form hard scale

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5
Q
  1. What is the treatment for scale forming salts in boiler feedwater?

a) They are chemically treated to modify the pH
b) The feedwater tank is raised to at least 85OC
c) They are chemically treated to produce suspended solids
d) They are removed by filtration means

A

c) They are chemically treated to produce suspended solids

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following types of alcohol is the most frequently considered as fuel for internal combustion engine?

a) Methyl alcohol
b) Isopropyl alcohol
c) Ethyl alcohol
d) Alcogas

A

c) Ethyl alcohol

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7
Q
  1. In a thermal plant, name the components of a self-acting temperature control system.

a) Control valve and actuator
b) Control valve, actuator and sensor
c) Control valve, actuator, capillary tube and sensor
d) Control valve, actuator and capillary tube

A

c) Control valve, actuator, capillary tube and sensor

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8
Q
  1. What is the purpose of over temperature protection within the self-acting control system?

a) To protect the valve from high temperature steam
b) To protect the liquid fall in the capillary from boiling
c) To protect the control system from irreversible damage
d) To protect the application from overtemperature

A

c) To protect the control system from irreversible damage

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9
Q
  1. Why are three-port self-acting control valves used in an industrial steam of a thermal system?

a) To mix or divert liquids especially water
b) To dump steam to waste under fault conditions
c) Where cooling applications are required
d) When large valves are required to meet large capacities

A

a) To mix or divert liquids especially water

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10
Q

210.How do you call a process in which superheated steam is either restored to its saturated state, or its superheated temperature is reduced?

a) Superheating
b) Reheating
c) Regenerative heating
d) Desuperheating

A

d) Desuperheating

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11
Q

211.What does MAWP stand for?

a) Maximum attenuated working pressure
b) Maximum allowable working pressure
c) Maximum allowable with pressure
d) Minimum allowable working pressure

A

b) Maximum allowable working pressure

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12
Q

212.Name one disadvantage of a direct acting pressure reducing valve.

a) It only has proportional control
b) It has proportional and integral control but no derivative control
c) It operates in an on/off fashion
d) An external power source is required for it
to operate

A

a) It only has proportional control

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13
Q

213.In order to avoid cavitation in a centrifugal pump, which of the following is true?

a) Installation NPSH ≥ pump NPSH
b) Installation NPSH ≤ pump NPSH
c) Installation NPSH < pump NPSH
d) Installation NPSH should be negative

A

a) Installation NPSH ≥ pump NPSH

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14
Q

214.It is dust removal equipment that consists of a cylindrical tank structure provided with a tangential opening at one end for gas passage and a spray manifold at the center which is made of a vertical pipe attached with spray nozzles where water is introduced at the bottom of this spray pipe. The gas revolves around the cylindrical body as it enters the scrubber, and comes in contact with the water spray, the dust fly ash is then wetted and hence separated from the gas leaves the scrubber at the top.

a) Cinder trap or catcher
b) Cyclonic Spray Scrubber
c) Cyclone Separator
d) Electrostatic Precipitator

A

b) Cyclonic Spray Scrubber

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15
Q
  1. What is a heat exchanger that allows cross contact between two media? This heat exchanger allows the cooling water to flow by gravity over the outside of tubes or plates.

a) Single-pass heat exchanger
b) Double-pass heat exchanger
c) Baudelot heat exchanger
d) Shell-and-tube heat exchanger

A

c) Baudelot heat exchanger

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16
Q
  1. What is the recommended weight of the machine foundation?

a) 3 to 5 times the machine weight
b) 4 to 6 times the machine weight
c) 2 to 4 times the machine weight
d) 2 to 4 times the machine weight

A

a) 3 to 5 times the machine weight

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17
Q

217.It is a bituminous coal that contains plenty of hydrocarbons, forming lumped masses when burned. This coal is ideal for forming carbonaceous gases for reduction of ore. What do you call this coal?

a) Coking or coking coal
b) Free burning coal
c) Peat coal
d) lignite coal

A

a) Coking or coking coal

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18
Q

218.It is an engine in which the connecting rod is directly connected to the piston wristpin. The side thrust caused by the angularity of the connecting rod is taken by the piston bearing against the cylinder wall.

a) Opposed-piston engine
b) Trunk piston engine
c) Crosshead engine
d) 2-stroke engine

A

b) Trunk piston engine

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19
Q

219.It is an internal combustion engine wherein the ignition of the fuel is not accomplished solely by the heat developed from the compression of the combustion air supplied but partly or entirely by other heat sources, such as an uncooled tube, plate, bulb or an electric resistance coil.

a) Spark-ignition engine
b) Compression-ignition engine
c) Surface-ignition engine
d) Dual combustion engine

A

c) Surface-ignition engine

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20
Q

220.This is the condition in a geothermal plant wherein the ground surface where the drilled well is depressed or subsides due to depleting. What do you call this?

a) Ground subsidence
b) Thermal pollution
c) Chemical pollution
d) Dissolved solids

A

a) Ground subsidence

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21
Q

221.In the critical thickness of insulator concept for a cylinder, what does the Biot number indicate if its value is less than 1?

a) Condition for optimum heat flow
b) Addition of insulation will increase heat transfer rate
c) Additional insulation will decrease the heat transfer rate
d)Heat transfer rate reaches a maximum

A

b) Addition of insulation will increase heat transfer rate

22
Q

222.How do you call the ratio of the product of a convective heat transfer coefficient and the critical radius of the insulator to that of the thermal conductivity of the insulator?

a) Biot number
b) Prandtl number
c) Nusselt number
d) Reynolds number

A

a) Biot number

23
Q

223.This is a type of dryer that consists of a vertical shaft in which the wet feed is introduced at the top and falls downward over baffles while coming in contact with the hot air that rises and exhaust at the top. This dryer is used for drying palay, wheat, and grains.

a) Rotary dryer
b) Hearth dryer
c) Tower dryer
d) Tray dryer

A

c) Tower dryer

24
Q

224.How do you call those substances that are particularly variable in the moisture content that they can possess at different times?

a) Wet materials
b) Hygroscopic materials
c) Gross materials
d) Bone-dry-weight material

A

b) Hygroscopic materials

25
Q
  1. The bottom blows down on a boiler is used to:

a) Remove mud drum water impurities
b) Increase boiler priming
c) Reduce steam pressure in the header
d) Increase the boiler water level

A

a) Remove mud drum water impurities

26
Q

226.In a Brayton cycle or gas turbine cycle, what do you call the heat exchanger that passes exhaust heat to the compressed air, prior to combustion?

a) Reheater
b) Recuperator
c) Heater
d) Heat exchanger

A

b) Recuperator

27
Q

227.The heat rejected by the working substance to the regenerator in the Stirling cycle is:

a) Equal to the heat absorbed by the working substance from the regenerator
b) Not equal to the heat absorbed by the working substance from the regenerator
c) Dependent on the value of temperature in the heat addition process
d) Measured during the constant temperature heat rejection process

A

a) Equal to the heat absorbed by the working substance from the regenerator

28
Q

228.How do you call a device that converts liquid refrigerant to vapor, with the held of the surrounding heat?

a) Condenser
b) Expansion valve
c) Compressor
d) Evaporator

A

d) Evaporator

29
Q

229.In gas compressor, when the volumetric efficiency increases, the piston displacement has:

a) Not been changed
b) Been decreased
c) Been increased
d) Been insufficient data

A

b) Been decreased

30
Q
  1. The ratio of its radiating power to that of a black body at same temperature.

a) Transmissivity
b) Reflectivity
c) Absorptivity
d) Emissivity

A

d) Emissivity

31
Q

231.Fans used to withdraw air under suction, that is, the resistance to gas flow is imposed primarily upon the inlet.

a) Blowers
b) Exhauster
c) industrial fans
d) Domestic fans

A

b) Exhauster

32
Q

232.The phenomenon of rising water in the tube of small diameter is called what?

a) Surface tension
b) Capillary rise
c) Water gage rise
d) Fluid column rise

A

b) Capillary rise

33
Q

233.Pitot tube is used to measure.

a) Height
b) Velocity
c) Viscosity
d) Density

A

b) Velocity

34
Q
  1. During engine operation, to vary the air quantity and also to vary the air fuel mixture, this is used to pen and closed the inlet manifold.

a) Throttle valve
b) Check valve
c) Choke valve
d) Gate valve

A

a) Throttle valve

35
Q
  1. It deals only with the motion of bodies without reference to the forces that cause them.

a) Kinetics
b) Motion
c) Kinematics
d) Acceleration

A

c) Kinematics

36
Q
  1. Progressive change in position of a body is called:

a) Acceleration
b) Motion
c) Force
d) Momentum

A

b) Motion

37
Q
  1. Cam in general maybe divided into two classes; uniform motion and ________ motion cam.

a) Reverse
b) gravity
c) decelerated
d) accelerated

A

d) accelerated

38
Q
  1. Product of mass and linear velocity is known as:

a) Impulse
b) Linear momentum
c) Angular momentum
d) Impact

A

b) Linear momentum

39
Q
  1. It is the motion of an object diminished/decreased speed.

a) Deceleration
b) Retarded motion
c) Negative impulse
d) All of these

A

b) Retarded motion

40
Q
  1. It is a property of matter, which causes it to resist any change in its motion or state of rest.

a) Brake
b) Friction
c) Inertia
d) Impulse

A

c) Inertia

41
Q
  1. If the velocity of mass is the same all the time during which motion takes place is called:

a) Deceleration
b) Uniform motion
c) Acceleration
d) None of these

A

b) Uniform motion

42
Q
  1. Statement that a given body is in static equilibrium means that the body cannot

a) have any type of motion
b) be acted upon by more than one force
c) undergo any displacement
d) have any type of acceleration

A

a) have any type of motion

43
Q
  1. It is a science of motion that can be solved in terms of scalar or vector algebra.

a) Kinematics
b) Curvilinear translation
c) Projectile
d) Acceleration

A

a) Kinematics

44
Q
  1. An object thrown upward will return to earth the magnitude of the terminal velocity equal to

a) zero
b) one-half the initial velocity
c) twice the initial velocity
d) initial velocity

A

d) initial velocity

45
Q
  1. The follower reciprocates or oscillates in a plane perpendicular to the axis of rotation of the cam.

a) Radial cam
b) Cylindrical cam
c) Cam curves
d) Tangential cam

A

a) Radial cam

46
Q
  1. The follower reciprocates or oscillates in a plane parallel to the axis of rotation.

a) cam curves
b) cylindrical cam
c) tangential cam
d) Radial cam

A

b) cylindrical cam

47
Q
  1. A cone formed by elements, which are perpendicular to the elements of the pitch cone at the large end.

a) cone distance
b) back cone
c) root cone
d) cone center

A

b) back cone

48
Q
  1. The ability of moving body to perform work is called:

a) Internal energy
b) potential energy
c) kinetic energy
d) flow work

A

c) kinetic energy

49
Q
  1. A slider crank chain is made up of

a) one turning and one sliding pair
b) one turning and two sliding pairs
c) two turning and one sliding pair
d) three turning and one sliding pair

A

d) three turning and one sliding pair

50
Q
  1. A Scott-Russell mechanism is made

a) rotating pair only
b) sliding and turning pairs
c) turning and rotary pairs
d) turning pair only

A

b) sliding and turning pairs