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1-50 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Two kilogram of gas is confined in a 1m^3 tank 200kpa and 88degC. What type of gas is in the tank?

a). Helium
b). Ethane
c). Methane
d). Ethane

A

b). Ethane

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2
Q
  1. In Refrigeration, how do you call a heat exchanger in which low-pressure refrigerant boils or vaporizes, thus absorbing heat that was removed from the refrigerated area by the cooling medium (water)?

a) Evaporator
b) Chiller
c) Cooler
d) Flooded Evaporator

A

b) Chiller

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3
Q
  1. It is a type of refrigeration system where only part of the circulated refrigerant is evaporated, with the remainder being separated from the vapor and then recirculated. How do you call this system?

a) Absorption refrigeration system
b) Vacuum refrigeration system
c) Vapor-compression refrigeration system
d) Flooded refrigeration system

A

d) Flooded refrigeration system

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4
Q
  1. How do you call the mixtures or substances that are used in laboratory methods of producing a drop in temperature? The most common example is the mixture of ice and salt.

a) Calorific mixture
b) Water-ammonia mixture
c) Frigorific mixture
d) Hygroscopic mixture

A

c) Frigorific mixture

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following is a scale of temperature in which the melting point of ice is taken as 0 o and the boiling point of water is 800?

a) Reaumur Scale
b) Carrene Scale
c) Genetron Scale
d) Frigorie Scale

A

a) Reaumur Scale

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6
Q
  1. What is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit? It is 1/180 of the heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water from 32 to 212 oF at constant atmospheric pressure of 14,696 psi absolute.

a) Specifc heat
b) British thermal unit
c) Calorie
d) Sensible heat

A

b) British thermal unit

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7
Q
  1. It the maximum temperature of any gas or vapor at which it may be condensed into a liquid; above this temperature, it is impossible to condense regardless of the pressure applied.

a) Saturation temperature
b) Superheated temperature
c) Critical temperature
d) Dew point temperature

A

c) Critical temperature

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8
Q
  1. Any refrigerant that exists as a liquid under normal atmospheric pressure and temperature must be vaporized in an evaporator under a pressure below atmospheric. This is sometimes referred to as:

a) Halogenated refrigerant
b) Freon refrigerant
c) Vacuum refrigerant
d) Halocarbon refrigerant

A

c) Vacuum refrigerant

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9
Q
  1. It is any one of a group of refrigerants that have been developed since about 1925 to overcome the irritating or toxic effects of refrigerants, such as ammonia and sulfur dioxide and the high condensing pressures required with carbon dioxide. How do you call these refrigerants?

a) Halogenated refrigerants
b) Freon refrigerants
c) Vacuum refrigerants
d) Halocarbon refrigerants

A

a) Halogenated refrigerants

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10
Q
  1. This refrigeration system component combines the functions of a cooling tower and a condenser. It consists of a casing enclosing a fan or blower section, water eliminators, refrigerant condensing coil, water pan, float valve, and spray pump outside the casing. How do you call this component?

a) Water-cooled condenser
b) Evaporative condenser
c) Atmospheric condenser
d) Chiller

A

b) Evaporative condenser

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11
Q
  1. It refers to a factor used in calculating the over- all heat transfer through the tube walls of a condenser tube or other heating surface. It includes the sum of the heat transfer rate of the layer of dirt and foreign material that builds up on the water side of the tube. What is this factor?

a) Cooling factor
b) Contact factor
c) By-pass factor
d) Fouling factor

A

d) Fouling factor

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12
Q
  1. It is a refrigeration system evaporator which is arranged with a with a tank or tank or a single drum (accumulator) located above the coil so that the inside of the evaporator is full of refrigerant. How do you call this type of evaporator?

a) Flooded evaporator
b) Dry evaporator
c) Cooing coil evaporator
d) Headered coil evaporator

A

a) Flooded evaporator

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13
Q
  1. What is the standardized term used by the industry to describe any device that meters or regulates the flow of liquid refrigerant to an evaporator?

a) Refrigerant control
b) Expansion valve
c) Throttling valve
d) Capillary tube

A

b) Expansion valve

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14
Q
  1. Define a ā€œcontrol valveā€.

a) The value set on the scale of the control system in order to obtain the required condition
b) The quantity or condition of the controlled medium
c) The flow or pressure of the steam (or fluid) being manipulated
d) The valve of the controlled condition actually maintained under steady state conditions

A

d) The valve of the controlled condition actually maintained under steady state conditions

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15
Q
  1. A pneumatic temperature control is used on the steam supply to a non-storage heat exchanger that heats water serving an office heating system. What is referred to as manipulated variableā€?

a) The water being heated
b) The air signal from the controller to the valve actuator
c) The steam supplies
d) The temperature of the air being heated

A

b) The air signal from the controller to the valve actuator

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16
Q
  1. How do you classify a solenoid valve?

a) A thermal valve
b) A magnetic stop valves
c) A bellows valves
d) A bi-metallic valve

A

a) A thermal valve

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17
Q
  1. What is a thermostat?

a) A temperature-operated switch
b) A pressure-operated switch
c) A superheat-operated switch
d) A back pressure-operated switch

A

d) A back pressure-operated switch

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following is the one of the main purposes of refractory in a boiler furnace?

a) Help preheat the air for the furnace
b) Help preheat the feed water
c) Protect economizer from excessive heat
d) Prevent excessive furnace heat losses

A

c) Protect economizer from excessive heat

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19
Q
  1. Balance pressure traps are what type of steam trap?

a) Thermodynamic
b) Mechanical
c) Thermostatic
d) They do not belong to any specific type of trap family

A

b) Mechanical

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20
Q
  1. What is a characteristic feature of thermodynamic steam traps?

a) They pass condensate at steam temperature
b) They operate by holding back condensate until it has cooled
c) They cannot be fitted outside
d) They can only be fitted on low pressure steam systems

A

b) They operate by holding back condensate until it has cooled

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21
Q
  1. What are the main considerations for steam trap selection?

a) Price
b) Air venting, plant performance, flow capacity and reliability
c) Connections
d) The trap must be the same size as the condensate drain line

A

b) Air venting, plant performance, flow capacity and reliability

22
Q
  1. Can temperature-controlled applications be trapped?

a) Traps should not be fitted under any circumstances
b) Only if there is no lift after the trap
c) If the pressure on the trap is always higher than backpressure
d.) Pumps should always be fitted to remove condensate

A

c) If the pressure on the trap is always higher than backpressure

23
Q
  1. What are the main considerations for steam trap selection?

a) Price
b) Air venting, plant performance, flow capacity and reliability
c) Connections
d) The trap must be the same size as the condensate drain line

A

b) Air venting, plant performance, flow capacity and reliability

24
Q
  1. Can temperature-controlled applications be trapped?

a) Traps should not be fitted under any circumstances
b) Only if there is no lift after the trap
c) If the pressure on the trap is always higher than backpressure
d) Pumps should always be fitted to remove condensate

A

c) If the pressure on the trap is always higher than backpressure

25
Q
  1. Unless they are designed to flood, what is the important when removing condensate from heat exchangers?

a) Condensate is allowed to sub-cool before reaching the trap
b) Condensate is removed at steam temperature
c) Condensate should back-up into the steam pipe
d) That the trap is fatted level with or above the heater outlet

A

b) Condensate is removed at steam temperature

26
Q
  1. How is flash steam produced?

a) From condensate passing from high to low pressure systems
b) From saturated steam
c) From superheated steam
d) From steam mixed with high temperature air

A

a) From condensate passing from high to low pressure systems

27
Q
  1. Are steam traps required to pass air?

a) Steam traps should not pass air under any circumstances
b) Only when the trap has passed all the condensate
c) Air should be removed as soon as it reaches the trap
d) Only on high pressure steam system

A

c) Air should be removed as soon as it reaches the trap

28
Q
  1. How do you call a system employing open sprinklers attached to a piping system connected to a water supply through which is opened by the operation of a fire detection system installed in the same areas as the sprinklers?

a) Mechanical sprinkler
b) Automatic system
c) Wet pipe system
d) Deluge system

A

d) Deluge system

29
Q
  1. What is probably the first consideration when selecting a control system?

a) What degree of accuracy is required?
b) Is the control for heating or cooling?
c) Is a two or three port valve required?
d) In the event of power failure, must the valve fail-open or fail-closed?

A

d) In the event of power failure, must the valve fail-open or fail-closed?

30
Q
  1. When adding the refrigerant in a refrigeration system, it shall be charge into which of the following parts of the system?

a) High pressure side
b) Low pressure side
c) low- and high-pressure side
d) Compressor discharge line

A

b) Low pressure side

31
Q
  1. Why is a boiler feed tank heated to approximately 85degC?

a) To reduce the energy required to raise steam
b) To reduce the content of total dissolved solids in the water supplied to the boiler
c) To reduce the gas content of the water
d) To reduce the content of suspended solids in the water

A

c) To reduce the gas content of the water

32
Q
  1. What is used to dry air?

a) A separator
b) A strainer
c) A steam traps
d) A tee pieces

A

a) A separator

33
Q
  1. What causes water hammer in the boiler?

a) Suspended water droplets
b) An air/water mixture
c) Strainers fitted on their sides
d) Slugs of water in the steam

A

d) Slugs of water in the steam

34
Q
  1. How does air enter a steam system?

a) Through joints, on shut down of the steam system
b) With make-up water to the boiler feed tank
c) With condensate entering the boiler feed tank
d) All items a, b, & c

A

d) All items a, b, & c

35
Q
  1. Why should strainers installed on steam lines be fitted on their sides?

a) To prevent the build-up of water in the strainer body
b) To trap more dirt
c) To reduce the frequency of cleaning
d) To provide maximum screening area for the steam

A

a) To prevent the build-up of water in the strainer body

36
Q
  1. What is the result of using a heat exchanger rating to calculate its steam consumption?

a) The true connected heat load may be different from the rated figure.
b) The rating does not take account of the temperature of the secondary medium
c) The rating is based on a steam pressure of 1.0 bar
d) The rating does not allow for condensate forming in the heat exchanger

A

a) The true connected heat load may be different from the rated figure.

37
Q
  1. A heat exchanger has a design rating based on a working pressure of 7 bar g. What would be the effect of supplying the exchanger with steam at 3 bar g?

a) The heat output would be greater because the enthalpy of evaporation at 3 bar g is higher than at 7 bar g.
b) The heat output would be greater because steam at 3bar g has a greater volume than steam at 7 bar g.
c) less weight of steam would be required because steam at 3 bar g has a higher enthalpy of evaporation than 7 bar g.
d) The output would be reduced because the difference in temperature between the steam and product is reduced.

A

d) The output would be reduced because the difference in temperature between the steam and product is reduced.

38
Q
  1. For any particular tank temperature how does the heat loss from the lid of a closed tank compare with that of bottom?

a) They are approximately double those from the bottom
b) Losses from the top are approximately double those from the bottom
c) losses from the bottom are approximately double those from the top
d) losses from the top are approximately 4 times those from the bottom

A

b) Losses from the top are approximately double those from the bottom

39
Q
  1. What is the disadvantage of heating a tank by direct steam injection?

a) It agitates the solution
b) Some of the enthalpy of water is used
c) Steam traps are not required
d) It dilutes the tank content

A

d) It dilutes the tank content

40
Q
  1. you are assigned as Engineer, must be replaced. Which of the following types most likely to be installed?

a) Screw chiller
b) Scroll Chiller
c) Reciprocating chiller
d) Centrifugal chiller

A

d) Centrifugal chiller

Note: Centrifugal chillers are generally selected for their high coefficient of performance, good part-load performance, and cooling capacity. The economics of large-scale applications (such as hospital) generally favor more efficient machines such centrifugal chillers. In this case, a centrifugal chiller is also the only one of the types listed that can provide the needed capacity.

41
Q
  1. Refrigeration condensers are rated based upon their ability to reject the total heat that comes from which of the following?

a) Compressor work and net refrigeration effect
b) Superheating
c) Subcooling
d) Compressor work

A

a) Compressor work and net refrigeration effect

42
Q
  1. A published ā€˜Uā€™ value from a steam coil to a water-based solution is given as 550 1300 W/m^2-degC. When would be figure near the lower end of the range be used?

a) When the steam is known to be of good quality
b) For short coils
c) For small diameter coils
d) When scaling or fouling of the coil takes place

A

d) When scaling or fouling of the coil takes place

43
Q
  1. Steam coils should enter and leave the top of a tank when:

a) The tank contains a corrosive solution
b) When agitation of the tank solution is required
c) When steam locking the trap draining a base coil could occur
d) When good heat distribution is required

A

a) The tank contains a corrosive solution

44
Q
  1. A tank is to be heated by direct steam injection. How will the quantity of heat required compare with steam coil heating?

a) It depends on the temperature of the water being heated
b) More heat will be required
c) The same amount of heat will be required
d) less heat will be required

A

c) The same amount of heat will be required

45
Q
  1. Which of the following parameters has the greatest? limiting effect on the thermal performance of an open, evaporative cooling tower?

a) Wet-Bulb temperature
b) Dry-Bulb temperature
c)Range
d) Approach

A

a) Wet-Bulb temperature

46
Q
  1. It is a space, or several rooms, or units of space having some sort of coincident loads or similar operating characteristics. It may or may not be an enclosed space, or it may consist of many partitioned rooms. How do you call this?

a) Zone
b) Room
c) Space
d) Plenum

A

a) Zone

47
Q
  1. In air conditioning, it indicates either a volume or a site without a partition or a partitioned room or group of rooms. How do you call this?

a) Zone
b) Room
c) Space
d) Plenum

A

c) Space

48
Q
  1. It is an enclosed or partitioned space that is usually treated as a single load. If conditioned, it often has an individual control system. What is this?

a) Zone
b) Room
c) Space
d) Plenum

A

b) Room

49
Q
  1. It represents the rate, in Btu/hr or W, at which heat enters a conditioned space from an external source or is released to the space from an internal source during a given time interval.

a) Space heat gain
b) Space cooling load
c) Space heating load
d) Space heat extraction rate

A

a) Space heat gain

50
Q
  1. It is the rate, in Btu/hr or W, at which heat must be removed from a conditioned space so as to maintain a constant temperature and acceptable relative humidity. Its sensible load component is equal to the sum of the convective heat transfer from the surfaces of the building envelope, furnishings, occupants, appliances, and equipment. How do you call this?

a) Space heat gain
b) Space cooling load
c) Space heating load
d) Space heat extraction rate

A

b) Space cooling load

Elements per 50 items (8 decks)

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