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NCE > 51-100 > Flashcards

51-100 Flashcards

1
Q

The disadvantage of closed-ended questions is that the client usually fails to:
A. Disclose personal information
B. come up with an answer to the question
C. continue to dialogue with the counselor
D. Both A and C

A

D. Both A and C

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2
Q

Rational-emotive behavior therapy follows a 5-step system using ABCDE, where D stands for:
A. The affect
B. The effect
C. The external event
D. Disputing the irrational belief

A

D. Disputing the irrational belief

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3
Q

The goals of this type of therapy include gaining knowledge about the self and recognizing and integrating the self:
A. Adlerian
B. Jungian
C. Existential
D. Freudian

A

B. Jungian

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4
Q

In order to elicit a conditioned response, the neutral stimulus that will become the conditioned stimulus must _____ the unconditioned stimulus.
A. Follow
B. Precede
C. Occur at the same time as
D. Randomly occur sometime near

A

B. Precede

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5
Q

In contrast to feeling sorry for the client, the counselor uses all of the following strategies EXCEPT:
A. Confrontation
B. Reflection
C. Abandonment
D. Interpretation

A

C. Abandonment

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6
Q

A(n) _______ schedule of reinforcement is the most difficult to extinguish.
A. Intermittent
B. Consistent
C. Systematic
D. Ratio

A

A. Intermittent

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7
Q

The primary distinction between reinforcement and punishment is that reinforcement ______ the likelihood of the behavior to occur again, while punishment ______ the likelihood of the behavior to occur again.
A. Increases; increases
B. Decreases; increases
C. Increases; decreases
D. Decreases; decreases

A

C. Increases; decreases

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8
Q

Negative reinforcement ______ the behavior by ___________ a reinforcer; positive reinforcement ______ the behavior by _______ a reinforcer.
A. Increases, taking away; increases, adding
B. Increases, adding; increasing, taking away
C. Decreases, adding; increases, adding
D. Decreases, taking away; increases, taking away

A

A. Increases, taking away; increases, adding

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9
Q

There are long silences, several members of the group are acting out, and it seems like all the group members are expressing frustrations with both the structure of the group and the way the group leader is functioning. Most likely the group is in the _____ state of the group process.
A. Working
B. Initial
C. Transition
D. Closing

A

C. Transition

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10
Q

From this perspective the group goals are to enable members to pay close attention to their here-and-now experiences so they can recognize and integrate disowned aspects of themselves.
A. Gestalt
B. Psychodynamic
C. Reality
D. Existential

A

A. Gestalt

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11
Q

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of group counseling>
A. Cost-effectiveness
B. Focus on individual needs
C. Opportunities for feedback
D. Structured practice

A

B. Focus on individual needs

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12
Q

As a leader of group, Barb is very structured. She sets and directs all of the group’s goals and activities and hardly ever asks the participants for input. Most likely, Barb has a(n) ________ style of leadership.
A. Laissez-faire
B. Democratic
C. Authoritative
D. Authoritarian

A

D. Authoritarian

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13
Q

What is likely to happen in a group when the leader is authoritarian?
A. Members become depended on the leader
B. Members become more motivated to achieved goals
C. Members lose focus on goals
D. Members have high morale

A

A. Members become depended on the leader

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14
Q

All of the following are characteristics of an open group EXCEPT:
A. Members can join and leave at any time
B. The number of sessions is undetermined
C. There is a good cohesion
D. Group meetings are usually held in a hospital setting

A

C. There is a good cohesion

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15
Q

In contrast to a homogeneous group, a heterogeneous group:
A. Is more cohesive and supportive
B. Has members with greater awareness of themselves and others
C. Has less conflict among participates
D. Focuses on one specific problem

A

B. Has members with greater awareness of themselves and others

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16
Q

All of the following as assumptions of groups EXCPET:
A. The leader is a member of the group
B. Trust is a must
C. Much of the growth in groups occurs through observations, modeling, and social learning
D. There are often discrepancies among participants expectations, hopes, and desires

A

A. The leader is a member of the group

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17
Q

During the working stage of the group, the leader’s role is to:
A. Establish a trusting climate
B. Provide a role model
C. Deal with feelings
D. Support risks

A

D. Support risks

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18
Q

The emphasis for this type of group is on prevention and development of healthy behaviors.
A. Secondary
B. Tertiary
C. Primary
D. Homogeneous

A

C. Primary

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19
Q

There is a distinction between group content and group process. An example of group process would be:
A. Sara monopolizes the group by continuously talking and doesn’t allow other participants to contribute to the discussion
B. Joe says, “i think todays topic should be what to do on a first date.”
C. Randy rolls his eyes every time Karen says something.
D. Both A and C

A

D. Both A and C

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20
Q

Greg seems to make light of everything that goes on in the group. If someone is late, for example he makes sure to make a humorous remark about calling for a search party. Greg would be described as the _________ of the group.
A. Joker
B. Dominator
C. Placater
D. Scapegoat

A

A. Joker

21
Q

A counselor is conducting the initial screening of individuals who may be included in a bereavement group. An appropriate candidate for the group would be one who:
A. Has a severe mental illness
B. Lasos cognitive and thinking abilities
C. Is free from the use of alcohol and other drugs
D. Has a history of violence and uncontrollable anger

A

C. Is free from the use of alcohol and other drugs

22
Q

A group has co-leaders. That is, there are two trained counselors ek are facilitating the group together. All of the following are advantages of co-leadership groups EXCEPT:
A. More support and attention are provided to group participants
B. There is less time observing patients
C. Effective modeling of appropriate behavior is provided to the participants
D. Participants often view co leaders as parents

A

B. There is less time observing patients

23
Q

The group leader points out defenses, resistances, and transferences as they occur in this type of group.
A. Client-centered group
B. Psychoanalytic group
C. Encounter group
D. Transactional analysis group

A

B. Psychoanalytic group

24
Q

Premature termination of participation in a group usually occurs when an individual is:
A. Not very motivated
B. Highly intelligent
C. Open to experiences
D. Empathetic

A

A. Not very motivated

25
Q

Career orientated, successful ethnic minority women:
A. Face racial but not gender discrimination
B. Rarely receive support from other women
C. Tend to have mothers who had low expectations for them
D. Often display unusually high self efficacy

A

D. Often display unusually high self efficacy

26
Q

The group that is most affected by the “glass ceiling phenomenon” consists of:
A. Women who are in careers most often populated by men
B. Men in middle management
C. Blue-collar workers
D. Stay at home mothers

A

A. Women who are in careers most often populated by men

27
Q

Which group of students would be least likely to seek out career counseling?
A. Students in high school
B. None
C. Students entering college
D. Students who were taking college prep courses

A

B. None

28
Q

In dual caterer families the woman typically:
A. Starts a family before entering the work force
B. Decided not to have children
C. Has an established career before having children.
D. None of the above

A

C. Has an established career before having children

29
Q

Compared with high school students who enter the workforce right after graduation, students who go to college can expect to:
A. Be hired at lower wages
B. Earn about $10,000 more per year
C. Work longer hours
D. Be hired to fill more unskilled positions

A

B. Earn about $10,000 more per year

30
Q

Leisure activities are those activities that a professional career counselor:
A. May also refer to as avocations
B. Never discuss with clients
C. Describes as relaxing and done at work
D. Describes as involving going on vacations

A

A. May also refer to as avocations

31
Q

Dual career families engage in leisure time:
A. More often than families with one wager
B. That is more costly than that of families with one wager earner
C. Less often than families with one wager earner
D. None of the above

A

C. Less often than families with one wager earner

32
Q

The role of the professional career counselor involves all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Facilitating self awareness
B. Teaching decision making skills
C. Teaching employability skills
D. None of the above

A

D. None of the above

33
Q

Career choices as expressions of one’s personality are to ________ as career choices are influenced by genetic endowment, environmental factors, and previous learning experiences are to _________.
A. Krumboltz; Holland
B. Holland; Krumboltz
C. Roe; Krumboltz
D. Holland; Roe

A

B. Holland; Krumboltz

34
Q

One of the main premises of _______ theory is that individuals chose occupations that will permit them to use their competencies.
A. Caplow’s
B. Super’s
C. Roe’s
D. Hoppock’s

A

B. Super’s

35
Q

Super describes four stages of career development, beginning in adolescence with the _______ stage, in which a person fantasizes and role-plays in order to clarify the emerging self concept. In the ________ stage the self concept adjust to fit the stabilized career choice and the person tries out various options.
A. Maintenance; establishment
B. Establishment; maintence
C. Establishment; exploratory
D. Exploratory; establishment

A

D. Exploratory; establishment

36
Q

All of the following are assumptions of John Holland’s theory of career choice EXCEPT:
A. individuals can be categorized into six personality types
B. People search for work environments in which their personality types can be expressed without much interference
C. Environment has very little to do with career choice
D. The behaviors of an individual is determined by the interaction between the environment and the persons unique personality characteristics

A

C. Environment has very little to do with career choices

37
Q

A career counselor who adheres to Holland’s theory of career choice may have his clients take the _______ to help determine personality types.
A. MMPI
B. KOIS
C. SDS
D. SCII

A

C. SDS

38
Q

Which of the following are postulates of Hoppock’s theory?
A. Everyone has basic needs, a person’s reaction to these influences occupational choice
B. People tend to move toward careers that serve their needs
C. Self awareness and understanding are the bases upon which a person chooses an occupation
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

39
Q

Which pair seems to go together?
A. Roe and holland
B. Holland and krumboltz
C. Roe and hoppock
D. Roe and krumboltz

A

C. Roe and hoppock

40
Q

According to Roe, career choice is influenced by:
A. Genetics
B. Parent-child interactions
C. Unconscious motivators
D. All of the above

A

B. Parent-child interactions

41
Q

Gender bias would be aroused by which of the following?
A. A man who is studying to be a nurse
B. A woman who is studying to be a nurse
C. A woman who drives a semi truck
D. Both A and C

A

D. Both A and C

42
Q

You are a career counselor who is interested in keeping up with trends in the job market so that you can better assist your clients. One of the best ways to keep up with the trends in the job market is to consult the:
A. OOH
B. DOT
C. Wall Street journal
D. SOC

A

A. OOH

43
Q

A 42 year old woman returns to her career as an HR manager after her children start to attend school all day this is an example of:
A. Reentry woman
B. A displaced homemaker
C. Gender bias
D. Wage discrimination

A

A. Reentry woman

44
Q

A receptionist at a dental office is not allowed to sing or hum at the office, but when she gets home, she turns on the radio and sings her favorite songs as loudly as she can. This is an example of:
A. The contrast effect
B. Spill over
C. The compensatory effect
D. The recency effect

A

C. The compensatory effect

45
Q

The 20th percentile represents:
A. The score at or below which 80% of the scores in the distribution fall
B. That the examiner correctly answered 80% of the questions on the test
C. The score at or below which 20% of the scores in the distribution fall
D. That the examiner correctly answered 20% of the questions on the test

A

C. The score at or below which 20% of the scores in the distribution fall

46
Q

A test is considered “standardized” if it includes:
A. Clearly specified procedures for administration
B. Clearly specified procedures for scoring
C. Normative data
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

47
Q

Which of the following sources of information about tests would probably provide the best information about sources and trends in testing and assessments?
A. Test critiques
B. Journal articles
C. Test manuals
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

48
Q

Which of the following best describes norms?
A. They give meaning to a behavior sample
B. They provide a parallel form for comparison
C. They indicate whether a test is reliable
D. They tell whether a distribution of scores is normally distributed

A

A. They give meaning to a behavior sample

49
Q

Which of the following describes a “good” test?
A. It is reliable
B. It has norms
C. It is valid
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

NCE (4 decks)

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