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E817 PDG > #5 C2 > Flashcards

#5 C2 Flashcards

1
Q

Officially sanctioned beliefs, war fighting principles, and terminology that describes and guides the proper use of air, space, and cyberspace power in military operations

A

Doctrine

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2
Q

A common frame of reference on the best way to prepare and employee Air Force forces

A

Doctrine

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3
Q

As doctrine is the commanders intent but should not be blindly followed we must strive above all else to be doctrinally sound, not doctrinally

A

Bound

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4
Q

What are the different levels and depth of detail in Air Force AirPower doctrine

A

Basic, operational, and tactical

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5
Q

This doctrine describes the elemental properties of air power and provides the Airmans perspective

A

Basic doctrine

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6
Q

Applies the principles of basic doctrine to military actions. Provides the focus for developing the missions and tasks that must be executed through tactical doctrine

A

Operational doctrine

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7
Q

Air Force doctrine that is codified as tactics, techniques, and procedures in 3-series manuals

A

Tactical doctrine

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8
Q

Unity of command, objective, mass, maneuver, economy of force, Security, surprise, simplicity are all

A

Principles of war

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9
Q

Ensures concentration of effort for every objective under one responsible commander

A

Unity of command

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10
Q

Principal to direct military operations toward a defined and attainable objective that contributes to strategic, operational, and tactical aims

A

Objective

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11
Q

Concentrate the effects of combat power at the most advantageous place and time to achieve decisive results

A

Mass

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12
Q

Places the enemy in a position of disadvantage through the flexible application of combat power in a multidimensional combat space

A

Maneuver

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13
Q

The judicious employment and distribution of forces

A

Economy of force

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14
Q

Purpose is never to permit the enemy to acquire unexpected advantage

A

Security

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15
Q

Leverages the Security principal by attacking the enemy at a time, place, or in a manner for which they are not prepared

A

Surprise

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16
Q

Calls for avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning, and conducting military operations

A

Simplicity

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17
Q

Centralized control and decentralized execution, flexibility and versatility, synergistic affects, persistence, concentration, priority, and balance are all

A

Tenets of AirPower

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18
Q

Fundamental guiding truths that refine the application of AirPower

A

Tenets of AirPower

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19
Q

Strategic attack, counter air, land, and sea, air space control, space operations, air mobility, special operations, homeland operations, nuclear operations, irregular warfare, foreign internal defense, targeting, information operations, electronic warfare, and personnel recovery are all

A

Air Force operations

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20
Q

Air parity, air superiority, and air supremacy are all components of which Air Force operation

A

Counter air

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21
Q

Airlift, Air Refueling, air mobility support, and aeromedical evacuation are all components of which Air Force operation

A

Air mobility

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22
Q

A collection of beliefs, distilled through experience and passed on from one generation of Airmen to the next that guide how we operate

A

AEF doctrine

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23
Q

Readily available force, in place support, enabler force, institutional force, and AEF battle rhythm are all

A

Expeditionary Capabilities

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24
Q

Although these organizations do not represent a war fighting capability, the individuals assigned to these organizations are deployable

A

Institutional force

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25
Q

The AEF operates on a ___ month lifecycle

A

24 month

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26
Q

The process the secretary defense and the chairman of the joint Chiefs of staff use to assign forces to combatant commanders for mission accomplishment and allocate additional forces in the event of contingency operations

A

Global force management

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27
Q

How frequently is a new 24 month AEF schedule established

A

Every 12 months

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28
Q

The posturing code that indicates the minimum number of unit type codes required to accomplish the units assigned missions deployable or in place

A

DP

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29
Q

The posturing code which represents the minimum number of unit type codes required to support critical home station operations

A

DX

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30
Q

The posturing code which indicates the maximum number of unit type code requirements available to support combatant commanders rotational mission

A

DW

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31
Q

Within how many days of arriving on station will and airman receive their AEF indicator

A

15 days

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32
Q

System of joint policies, procedures, and reporting structure supported by communications and computer systems

A

JOPES

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33
Q

System which consists of five volumes and associated databases and is the air forces supporting document to the joint strategic capabilities plan

A

War and mobilization plan

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34
Q

The air forces war planning system that provides an Air Force feed to joint operations planning and execution systems

A

Deliberate and crisis action planning and execution segment

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35
Q

Document prepared by parent Major command that outlines each measured units capabilities and contains the units identification, mission tasking narrative, mission specifics, and measurable resources

A

Designed operational capabilities statement

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36
Q

A short paragraph describing the mission capabilities that higher headquarters planners expect of a specific unit type code

A

Mission capability statement

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37
Q

Time phased force and deployment data is used when developing or executing plans to

A

coordinate the movement of forces into their operational locations

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38
Q

Centralized function aligned under the LRS commander responsible for identifying, validating, and distributing deployment tasking‘s and information.

A

Installation deployment readiness cell

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39
Q

The chain of command from the president to the secretary of defense to the secretaries of the military departments to the service Chiefs, exercises what

A

Administrative control Authority

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40
Q

The chain of command from the president through the secretary of defense to the combatant commander exercises what 3 types of command authorities

A

Operational control
Tactical control
Support relationship

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41
Q

Includes authoritative direction over all aspects of military operations and joint training necessary to accomplish missions assigned to the command

A

Operational control

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42
Q

This is inherent in operational control and may be delegated to and exercised by commanders at any echelon at or below the level of combatant command

A

Tactical control

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43
Q

These are established at three levels: unified command, subordinate unified command, and joint task forces

A

Joint forces

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44
Q

This transformers national strategic objectives into activities by development of operational products that include mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, redeployment, and demobilization of joint forces

A

Joint operation planning

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45
Q

This is normally published by the chairman of the joint Chiefs of staff during planning which establishes command relationships and provides the mission, objectives, and known constraints

A

The warning order

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46
Q

What can the chairman of the joint Chiefs of staff send to supported commanders to direct execution planning before a course of action is formally approved by the secretary of defense and the President

A

The planning order

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47
Q

When does the headquarters commander prepare a time phased force deployment plan in deliberate and crisis action planning and execution segment for the Air Force portion of the supported commanders joint operations planning and execution system

A

When a planning order is issued

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48
Q

What is approved and transmitted by the secretary of defense to the supporting commander and joint planning and execution community announcing the selected course of action

A

The alert order

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49
Q

This is issued by the authority and direction of the secretary of defense and directs the deployment and or employment of forces

A

Execute order

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50
Q

This was a good example of joint and combined operations providing one of the greatest uses of joint and Coalition capabilities in recent history

A

Operation odyssey dawn over Libya in 2011

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51
Q

Represents The minimum level of code of conduct understanding needed for all members of the Armed Forces

A

Level A- entry level training

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52
Q

The minimum level of code of conduct understanding needed for service members who’s military jobs, specialties, or assignments entail moderate risk of capture, such as members of ground combat units

A

Level B - training after assumption of duty eligibility

53
Q

Code of conduct level of training for high risk or higher rank members such as aircrew, special mission forces, para rescue teams

A

Level C – training upon assumption of duties or responsibilities

54
Q

I am an American, fighting in the forces which guard my country and our way of life. I am prepared to give my life in their defense

A

Article I of the Code Of Conduct

55
Q

I will never surrender of my own free will. If in command, I will never surrender the members of my command while they still have the means resist.

A

Article II

56
Q

If I am captured, I will continue to resist by all means available. I will make every effort to escape and aid others to escape. I will except neither parole nor special favors from the enemy

A

Article III

57
Q

If I become a prisoner of war, I will keep faith with my fellow prisoners. I will give no information or take part in any action which might be harmful to my comrades. If I am senior, I will take command. If not, I will obey the lawful orders of those appointed over me and will back them up in every way

A

Article IV

58
Q

When questioned, should I become a prisoner of war, I’m required to give name, rank, service number, and date of birth. I will evade answering further questions to the utmost of my ability. I will make no oral or written statements disloyal to my country and its allies or harmful to their cause

A

Article V

59
Q

I will never forget that I am an American, fighting for freedom, responsible for my actions, and dedicated to the principles which made my country free. I will trust in my God and in the United States of America

A

Article VI

60
Q

Respect for Amn, self-awareness, cultural awareness, empathy, and credibility are all qualities demonstrated by effective ___

A

Counselors

61
Q

Nondirective, directive, combined are approaches to what

A

Counseling

62
Q

The four stages of the counseling process are

A

Identify the need
prepare
conduct the session
follow up

63
Q

To Model, Empathize, Nurture, Teach, Organize, Respond, Inspire, Network, Goal-Set is…

A

MENTORING

64
Q

Core values, competencies, and actions at the tactical, operational, and strategic level are everyday components of

A

Strategic leadership

65
Q

This program applies CCAF credits toward BA degrees requiring no more than 60 additional semester hours for completion.

A

AU-ABC program

66
Q

Trust, ethical behavior, sharing of information, critical judgment, and cooperation are all traits of what

A

A Healthy team

67
Q

Within the resource management system these individuals analyze subordinate organizational plans, identify imbalances in resource distribution, analyze alternative actions, and balance programs

A

Responsibility center managers

68
Q

In the resource management system this is the basic production flight for work center

A

Cost center

69
Q

This board reviews and approves or disapproves recommendations made by the financial working group to ensure balanced, valid financial programs and to consider all known or anticipated requirements

A

Financial management board

70
Q

This group provides technical guidance to base activities on using their primary responsibility resources

A

The financial working group

71
Q

covers costs associated with the operation of all Air Force organizations

A

Operating Budget

72
Q

a unique process for implementing the planning, programming, budgeting, and execution

A

Air Force corporate structure

73
Q

The planning, programming, budgeting, and execution process

A

The DoD resource allocation system

74
Q

A key part of budget execution is the major command’s

A

Operations and Maintenance Operation Plan

75
Q

AF program execution reviews are in which three months?

A

February, April, and July

76
Q

What is the minimum rank for the commander assigned facility manager for each of their facilities?

A

E-5

77
Q

When programming facility requirements CE customer service must consider O&M thresholds which are?

A

$1M for minor military construction

$4M for laboratory revitalization

78
Q

Compliance with energy management policy is assessed by taking measurements in two areas:

A

mobility energy and facility (utility) energy

79
Q

The authorized daily average of enlisted members on active duty (other than for training) in pay grades E-8 and E-9 in a fiscal year may not be more than

A

2.5 percent and 1.25, respectively.

80
Q

TIG/TIS for promotion to SrA

A

N/A & 1 year

81
Q

TIG/TIS for promotion to SSgt

A

6 mo & 3 years

82
Q

TIG/TIS for promotion to TSgt

A

23 mo & 5 years

83
Q

TIG/TIS for promotion to MSgt

A

24 mos & 8 years

84
Q

TIG/TIS for promotion to SMSgt

A

20 mos & 11 years

85
Q

TIG/TIS for promotion to CMSgt

A

21 mos & 14 years

86
Q

What % of TSgt’s will move forward from Phase I promotion selection to Phase II (Board)?

A

60%

87
Q

The purpose of this program is to equip senior leaders with objective, fact-based information about AF occupations and civilian occupational series

A

Occupational Analysis Program

88
Q

This document displays current and projected requirements and can be configured to display desired fields in various formats

A

UMD

89
Q

A statement of manpower needed to accomplish a job, workload, mission, or program

A

Manpower requirement

90
Q

What are the two types of manpower requirements?

A

Funded and Unfunded

91
Q

Funded manpower requirements are ___

A

Manpower Authorizations

92
Q

This can be used to request a change to the UMD for AFSC, position realignment, redistribution of funding, grade conversions

A

Authorization Change Request (ACR)

93
Q

What are the 3 primary sources of civilian training?

A

Agency (Air Force), Inter-agency, and non-government

94
Q

Where can you find a civilian employee’s description of duties and responsibilities, and the supervisor’s performance expectations?

A

Their Core Personnel Document

95
Q

What is the basis for civilian personnel actions to ID and correct work performance problems, reward quality performance, improve productivity, and grant periodic pay increases?

A

Performance Appraisal

96
Q

Approximately what percent of civilian employees are covered by labor agreements between unions and installations?

A

70%

97
Q

Class mishap totaling $2M +, destruction of Acft, Fatality or total disability

A

Class A

98
Q

Class mishap totaling $50K, Non-fatal injury or illness resulting in one or more days away from work

A

Class C

99
Q

Class mishap totaling $500K, Permanent or Partial disability of 3 or more personnel

A

Class B

100
Q

Class mishap totaling $20K, or record-able injury or illness not otherwise classified

A

Class D

101
Q

4 levels to determine root cause of mishap dealing with Human Factors Analysis and Classification System

A

Organizational Influences
Supervision
Preconditions
Acts

102
Q

What are the two categories of “Acts” that are active failures or actions committed by the operator which complete the mishap event sequence?

A

Violations and Errors

103
Q

Errors are commonly understood human factors and fall into what three areas?

A

Skill Based
Judgement and Decision making
Perception (visual illusion)

104
Q

Air Force Form used to report a safety hazard

A

457

105
Q

a decision-making process to systematically evaluate possible courses of action, identify risks and benefits, and determine the best course of action for any given situation.

A

Risk Management

106
Q

Which 5 step process includes ID Hazards, Assess Hazards, Develop Controls/Make Decisions, Implement Controls, Supervise & Evaluate

A

Risk Management Process

107
Q

What are the four components of the Real-Time Risk Management or ABCD Model?

A

Assess the situation
Balance controls
Communicate
Decide and Debrief the decision

108
Q

Only SARC, Victim Advocates, Volunteer Victim Adviocates, and Healthcare Personnel can receive this type of report

A

Restricted Report

109
Q

Within how many hours must the installation or host wing CC be notified of a restricted report?

A

24 Hrs

110
Q

Planning, Time Management, Overload Avoidance, Relaxation, Exercise and good nutrition are all

A

Individual Stress Management Methods

111
Q

Job design, improving the work environment, improving organizational communication, and personnel selection and job placement are all examples of

A

organizational stress management methods

112
Q

If the task is not needed, work to eliminate it from the task load. Is one way to manage organizational stress using ___

A

Job Design

113
Q

Signatures, Associations, Profiles, Contrasts, Exposure are sources of what?

A

Operations Security Indicators

114
Q

The characteristics of an indicator that make it identifiable or cases it to stand out

A

Signature

115
Q

the relationship of an indicator to other information or activities.

A

Associations

116
Q

each functional activity generates its own set of more-or-less unique signatures and associations. The sum of these signatures and associations is the activity’s?

A

Profile

117
Q

any differences observed between an activity’s standard profile and most recent or current actions.

A

Contrasts

118
Q

Refers to when and for how long an indicator is observed

A

Exposure

119
Q

(TS) for Top Secret, (S) for Secret, and (C) for Confidential are symbols used to indicate the highest classification level in the portion are

A

Portion Marks

120
Q

The goal of this program is to neutralize security threats throughout the base boundary in order to ensure unhindered Air Force operations.

A

Integrated Defense

121
Q

Anticipate, Deter, Detect, Assess, Warn, Defeat, Delay, Defend, Recover are what?

A

Integrated Defense Effects

122
Q

Protection Level Assigned to resources that would result in great harm to strategic capabilities. Nuclear Weapons, C2 facilities, Presidential Acft

A

PL1

123
Q

Protection Level Assigned to resources that would result in harm to war-fighting capability. Nonnuclear alert forces, space launch systems, one of a kind assets, and intel gathering systems

A

PL2

124
Q

Protection Level Assigned to resources that would damage war-fighting capability. Non-alert ready to gen, F-16’s, comm facilities, non-unique space launch facilities.

A

PL3

125
Q

Protection Level Assigned to resources that would adversely affect operational capability. arms, munitions, explosives, fuels, lox, vaults

A

PL4

126
Q

Position, Task, Personal, Relationship, Knowledge are all ___ of ____

A

Types of Power

127
Q

Stems from being good at a particular task

A

Task Power

128
Q

Having expertise in an area

A

Knowledge Power

E817 PDG (10 decks)

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