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E817 PDG > #1 D1 > Flashcards

#1 D1 Flashcards

1
Q

Who responds to a major accident involving DOD material or activities that is serious enough to warrant response

A

Installation disaster response force

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2
Q

Four things to do if witness a major accident after alerting security forces the fire department or the installation command and control

A
  1. Stay uphill upwind
  2. Attempt rescue or care for casualties
  3. Avoid handling material
  4. Evacuate the area
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3
Q

What is one natural disaster that is commonly overlooked

A

Epidemics

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4
Q

3 to 5 minute steady tone

A

Disaster warning. Tornadoes, flash floods, hazardous material release, wildfire

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5
Q

3 to 5 minute wavering tone

A

Attack warning

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6
Q

Lockdown, Lockdown, Lockdown

A

Shooter warning

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7
Q

The vehicle for installation preparation and response

A

Installation emergency management plan 10–2

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8
Q

Ways to prepare for and cope with natural disasters

A

Protective measures

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9
Q

The most effective individual protective equipment for conventional attack

A

Helmet and body armor

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10
Q

Along with the emergency operation center and unit control centers this implements operational plans and priorities, controls and monitors mission generation capabilities, and ensures installation survivability

A

Installation command and control

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11
Q

Alarm condition levels

A

Green, yellow, Red air, red ground, black

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12
Q

During attack recovery and reconnaissance which base entity disseminate information to forces and report status of resources to hire headquarters

A

Emergency operation center

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13
Q

All individual protective equipment and feel gear stored

A

Mop level ready

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14
Q

Helmet and web belt worn

A

Mop level zero

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15
Q

Overgarment and field gear worn

A

Mop level one

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16
Q

Overgarment over boots and field gear worn

A

Mopp level two

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17
Q

Overgarment, protective mask, over boots and field gear worn

A

Mop level three

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18
Q

All individual protective equipment and field gear worn

A

Mopp level four

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19
Q

Regardless of the type of agent, concentration, or method of chemical attack what is the best immediate protective equipment?

A

Groundcrew ensemble

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20
Q

What are P tabs used to protect against

A

Nerve agents

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21
Q

SALUTE Reporting

A 
Size
Activity
Location
Unit
Time
Equipment
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22
Q

The part of international law that regulates conduct of armed hostilities

A

Law of armed conflict

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23
Q

A treaty obligation of the United States under provisions of the 1949 Geneva conventions

A

Law of armed conflict training

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24
Q

The five important principles that govern armed conflict; military necessity, distinction, proportionality, humanity, and chivalry are all found where?

A

The law of armed conflict principles

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25
Q

The LOAC principle says to only use the degree of regulated force necessary to obtain submission of the enemy

A

Military necessity

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26
Q

This LOAC principle states that attacks must be limited to military objectives

A

Military necessity

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27
Q

The LOAC principle imposes a requirement to distinguish between civilians and combatant forces

A

Distinction

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28
Q

The LOAC principle that states damages and casualties must be consistent with mission accomplishment and allowable risk to the attacking force

A

Proportionality

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29
Q

The LOAC principle also referred to as the principle of unnecessary suffering

A

Humanity

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30
Q

The LOAC principle that forbids treacherous acts to injure the enemy

A

Chivalry

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31
Q

In accordance with AFPD 51–4 any member who knows of a LOAC violation must report it to who

A

Their commander or next higher authority

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32
Q

These exist to ensure use of force, in an operation, occurs according to national policy goals, mission requirements, and the rule of law

A

Rules of engagement

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33
Q

These four elements must be considered prior to invoking the standing rules of engagement use of force in self defense

A

De-escalation
Necessity
Proportionality
Pursuit

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34
Q

Standards of conduct based on values

A

Ethics

35
Q

Within how many days must a commander reply to a complaint of financial responsibility when received for one of their members

A

15 days

36
Q

What is the primary source of military law

A

The constitution of the United States

37
Q

The fifth amendment of the Constitution and article 31 of the UCMJ prevent an individual from what?

A

Involuntary self-incrimination

38
Q

Which organization works to protect a clients individual interests and ensure the independent and zealous representation of a client facing military justice action or other adverse actions?

A

Area defence counselI

39
Q

The act of taking a person into custody

A

Apprehension

40
Q

Moral or physical restrictions on a person’s Liberty leading up to prosecution.

A

Pretrial restraint

41
Q

These are imposed directing a person to do or refrain from doing specific acts

A

Conditions on Liberty

42
Q

Imposes restraint on a person to remain within specified limits but is less severe than arrest

A

Restrictions in lieu of arrest

43
Q

Limiting of a persons Liberty

A

Arrest

44
Q

Physical restraint such as imprisonment or confinement in a facility

A

Confinement

45
Q

What is nonjudicial punishment most often referred to as

A

Article 15

46
Q

Used to postpone application of all or part of a punishment for a specific probationary period.

A

Suspension

47
Q

An action whereby any portion of the unexecuted punishment is canceled

A

Remission

48
Q

Reduction in either the quantity or quality of punishment

A

Mitigation

49
Q

An action where by the punishment, whether executed or not, is set aside and any property, privileges, or rights affected by the portion of the punishment are restored.

A

Set aside

50
Q

Type of court-martial used to try minor offenses

A

Summary court-martial

51
Q

Intermediate level court in the military system

A

Special court-martial

52
Q

Court Marshall which tries the most serious offenses

A

General court Marshall

53
Q

Who is authorized to access a members UIF?

A

The member, commander, first sergeant, EPR officials, FSS, IG, inspection team, legal office, MEO, law-enforcement and substance abuse counselors

54
Q

This is a rehabilitative tool commanders may use to establish a six-month observation period Of individuals whose duty performance is substandard

A

Control roster

55
Q

What are the three leadership and development levels in the Air Force

A

Tactical, operational, and strategic

56
Q

What are the domains of comprehensive airman fitness

A

Social, physical, mental, spiritual

57
Q

NCO in charge of a work center or element

A

Noncommissioned Officer in Charge

58
Q

NCO’s in charge of a section with at least two subordinate workcenters or elements

A

Section Chief

59
Q

NCO’s Who are the enlisted leaders of a flight

A

Flight Chief

60
Q

Enlisted leader of a squadron

A

Squadron superintendent

61
Q

SNCO in charge of a group or Wing level function

A

Superintendent

62
Q

This position is located at headquarters and is responsible for organizing and managing one or more enlisted career field.

A

Career field manager

63
Q

First Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force who tackled personal retention

A

Airhey

64
Q

Second chief Master sergeant of the Air Force fought for equal Perdiem for enlisted and officers

A

Harlow

65
Q

Third Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force who pushed for the NCO Academy

A

Kisling

66
Q

Fourth Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force who worked to ensure equality among the ranks and races

A

Barnes

67
Q

Fifth Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force who addressed low morale and weak public image addressing substance abuse

A

Gaylor

68
Q

Sixth Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force who confronted lowest recruiting rates

A

McCoy

69
Q

Seventh Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force who felt it was time for Airmen to think “we instead of me me me”

A

“Bud” Andrews

70
Q

Eighth chief master sergeant of the Air Force who made it possible for SRA to be promoted during their first enlistment

A

Parish

71
Q

Ninth Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force who tackled the aging performance report

A

Binnicker

72
Q

10th Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force who faced downsizing after desert storm

A

Pfingston

73
Q

11th Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force who launched the new Tricare health program

A

Campanale

74
Q

12th Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force who championed warrior week at basic training

A

Benken

75
Q

13th Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force transitioned from the Cold War to expeditionary mindset

A

Finch

76
Q

14th Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force who brought back higher tenure for four enlisted grades

A

Murray

77
Q

15th Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force who opened the door for the Airmans creed

A

McKinley

78
Q

16th Chief master sergeant of the Air Force who focused on joint and coallition development

A

Roy

79
Q

17th and current chief master in the Air Force

A

Cody

80
Q

Two force recruitment programs

A

We are all recruiters WEAR
Recruiter assistance program
RAP

81
Q

According to Dr. James H. Toner military ethics are rooted in 3 0’s

A

Owing, ordering, oughting

82
Q

Toners ordering refers to

A

Moral structuring and ethical priorities

83
Q

One of the telltale signs of a military professional is

A

Preparation

E817 PDG (10 decks)

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