5/9 Mixed Flashcards

1
Q

Acute rejection of endomyocardial biopsy (cardiac transplant rejection)

A

Dense infiltrate of mononuclear cells, usually composed primarily of T lymphocytes

Primarily cell-mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Autosomal recessive inheritance (if both parents are carriers)

A

25% chance of inheriting 2 normal alleles (AA)
50% chance of inheriting one normal and one mutant allele (Aa or aA)
25% chance of inheriting 2 mutant alleles
75% chance of inheriting one or more mutant alleles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Treatment of Bulimia nervosa

A

SSRI (fluoxetine)
Nutritional rehab
Cognitive-behavioral therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Bacteroides

A

Gram negative anaeroic rods
Produce B lactamase
Rx: piperacillin-tazobactam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Class III antiarrhythmic drugs (amiodarone, sotalol, dofetilide)

A

Block K channels, inhibit the outward K currents during phase 3 of cardiac action potential, prolonging repolarization and total action potential duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Location of the AV node

A

Endocardial surface of the right atrium, near the insertion of the septal leaflet of the tricuspid valve and the orifice of the coronary sinus

Radiofrequency ablation of AV node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Parvovirus B19 infection

A

Nonspecific viral syndrome
erythema infectiosum (fifth disease) in children
Acute arthropathy in adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Precipiating factors to hepatic encephalopathy

A

Drugs (sedatives, narcotics)
Hypovolemia (diarrhea, vomiting)
Excessive nitrogen load (GI bleeding, constipation)
Metabolic disturbances (hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, hypoglycemia)
Infections (pneumonia, urinary tract infection, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis)
Portosystemic shunting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Rx hepatic encephalopathy

A

Lower blood ammonia levels
Oral administration of disaccharide (lactulose)
Converts absorbable ammonia into nonabsorbable ammonium ions, trapping ammonia in the stool and increasing nitrogen excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Fourth heart sound (S4)

A

Atrial gallop sound (before S1)

Heard immediately after atrial contraction phase as blood is forced into a stiff ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Dermatomyositis as a paraneoplastic syndrome

A

(can occur alone or as pn syndrom)

Most commonly associated cancers include ovarian, lung, colorectal, non-Hodgkin lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Final common pathway for HCL section

A

H/K ATPase proton pump on parietal cells
Stimulated by Ach, histamine, gastrin
Proton pump inhibitors= lansoprazole, omeprazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Bacterial vaginosis

A
Grayish-white vaginal discharge with "fishy" odor
Overgrowth of gardnerella vaginalis, an anaerobic gram-variable rod 
Clue cells (squamous epithelial cells covered with bacterial organisms) seen on wet mount microscopy or cytology
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Beta-endorphin

A

Endogenous opioid peptide that is derived from proopiomelanocortin (POMC)
POMC= polypeptide percursor that goes through enzymatic cleavage and modification to produce beta-endorphins, ACTH, MSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Primary anti-ischemic effect of nitrates

A

Systemic vasodilation with a decrease in left ventricular end-diastolic volume/wall stress, results in decreased myocardial oxygen demand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Drug induced lupus erythematosus

A

Abrupt onset: fever, fatigue, arthralgia, arthritis, rash, serositis
Predilection for slow acetylators
Anti-histone antibodies
Implicated drugs: procainamide, hydralazine, isoniazid, minocycline, TNF-a inhibitors (etanercept)

17
Q

MI scar

A

Type I collagen

Also seen in: dermis, bone, tendons, ligmanets, dentin, cornea, blood vessels, scar tissue

18
Q

Leukotriene B4

A

Stimulates chemotaxis of neutrophils to sites of inflammation

Other important chemotactic agents include 5-HETE (leukotriene precursor), complement component C5a, and IL-8

19
Q

Osteocytes remain connected to each other by

A

Gap junctions

20
Q

Trendelenburg gait

A

Hip drops down as the ipsilateral foot is lifted off the ground
Observed when there is injury to the contralateral superior gluteal nerve
Injections to the superomedial quadrant of the buttock have a high probability of injuring the superior gluteal nerve

21
Q

Obstructive sleep apnea

A

Due to neuromuscular weakness of the oropharnyx

Rx: Electrical stimulation of the hypoglossal nerve increases the diameter of the oropharyngeal airway and decreases the frequency of apneic events

22
Q

Epistaxis

A

Commonly caused by irritation of the highly vascular mucosa at the anterior nasal septum

Anterior nasal septum contains the Kiesselbach plexus

The anterior ethmoidal, sphenopalatine, and superior labial arteries anastomose in this region

23
Q

Dubin-Johnson Syndrome

A

Benign AR disorder characterized by defective hepatic excretion of bilirubin glucuronides due to a mutation in the canalicular membrane transport protein

Episodes of jaundice, otherwise asymtomatic

Grossly, the liver appears black due to impaired excretion of EPI metabolites, which histologically appear as dense pigments within lysosomes

24
Q

Selective proteinuria

A

Albumin loss with minimal loss of more bulky proteins (such as IgG and macroglobulin)

25
Q

Crossover study

A

Subjects are randomly allocated to a sequence of 2 or more treatments given consecutively. A washout (no treatment) period is often added between treatment intervals to limit the confounding effects of prior treatment.

26
Q

Highest osmolarity in the nephron

A

At the bottom of the loop of Henle

27
Q

Postpartum Ovarian Vein Thrombosis

A

Persistent fever after delivery, localized abdominal/flank pain, no response to ABX

Left ovarian vein drains into the left renal vein and the right ovarian vein drains directly into the IVC

Most thrombosis is right sided

28
Q

Neural tube defects

A

Failure of fusion of neural tube during 4th week of fetal development
Occurs in the region of the neuropores
If neuropore does not fuse, opening exists between the neural tube and the ambiotic cavitiy
AFP, achetylcholinesterase appear in the amniotic fluid (due to CSF leakage)= prenatal dx of NTDs

29
Q

Hepatic abscess

A

Undeveloped countries: Entamoeba hisolytica
Developed countries: bacterial infection (ex. Staph aureus via hematogenous seeding of the liver)

Enteric bacteria (E. coli, Klebsiella, enterococci) can cause hepatic abscesses by ascending the biliary tract (ascending cholangitis), portal vein pyemia, or direct invasion from an adjacent area (cholecystitis).

30
Q

Giant Cell Arteritis

A

Cell-mediated immunity is primary mechanism
Production of cytokines, in particular Interleukin-6 is an important driver of this process and closely correlates with severity of symptoms

Rx: Monoclonal Ab against IL-6 (tocilizumab)

31
Q

B-blockers lower BP via 2 mechanisms:

A

Reducing myocardial contractility and heart rate

Decreasing renin release by the kidney

32
Q

Trimethoprim (in bacteria)
Methotrexate (in human cells)
Pyrimethamine (in some protozoa)

A

All prevent the reduction of folic acid to tetrahydrofolate (THF) by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR)

33
Q

Clostridium tetani

A

Prevents release of inhibitory neurotransmitters glycine and gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

34
Q

Rx for cerebral vascular spasm following SAH

A

Calcium channel blockers, specifically Nimodipine

35
Q

What should be assessed prior to initiation of metformin therapy?

A

Renal function by serum creatinine measurement

Increased risk of lactic acidosis

36
Q

Nitrate Administration

A

Must provide nitrate-free interval every day in pts using long acting nitrates to avoid the development of tolerance