4th year mucosal disease Flashcards

1
Q

Define leukoplakia

A

A white patch plaque of questionable risk with no other histological diagnosis

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2
Q

What is the prevalence of leukoplakia?

A

1-2%

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3
Q

In smokers, how much does the prevalence of leukoplakia increase?

A

x6

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4
Q

Define erythroplakia

A

Red patch that cannot be classified as any other disease and is associated with an increased risk of malignancy

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5
Q

What is the malignant transformation rate of erythroplakia?

A

Greater than 80%

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6
Q

List the 8 risk factors for progression of red/white patches

A

Female gender
Long duration of leukoplakia
Leukoplakia in non-smokers/drinkers
Located on the tongue or floor of the mouth
Greater than 200 mm²
Non-homogeneous type
Presence of Candida
Presence of epithelial dysplasia

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7
Q

Define an ulcer

A

A break in the oral mucosa

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8
Q

What should be done if an ulcer is not healing?

A

Create red flag referral to be seen within 2 weeks

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9
Q

What are the 2 common locations for ulcers?

A

Edge of tongue
Buccal mucosa

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10
Q

Name the 4 classifications of ulcers based on size

A

Minor (<1cm)
Major (>1cm)
Herpetiform (pin point ulcers)
Large erosive areas

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11
Q

List 5 topical treatments for ulcers

A

Corsydyl
Difflam
Topical steroids
Antibiotics
Triple mouthwash

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12
Q

What are 7 features of suspicious oro-mucosal lesions?

A

Solitary ulcer present for longer than 3 weeks
Rolled margins
Bleeding on light touch
Firm
Numbness
Red or speckled
Extensive ulceration

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13
Q

What are 6 potential causes of oral ulceration?

A

Neoplasia (SCC)
Trauma
Recurrent aphthous stomatitis
Oral infection
Drugs
Systemic disease

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14
Q

What is recurrent aphthous stomatitis (RAS)?

A

A condition characterised by recurrent, painful ulcers in the oral cavity

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15
Q

Give 3 epidemiological features of oral lichen planus

A

Affects 2% of the population
More common in females
More common in older adults

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16
Q

What are the 6 clinical forms of lichen planus?

A

Reticular
Papular
Plaque-like
Atrophic
Erosive
Bullous

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17
Q

Describe the appearance of reticular oral lichen planus

A

Fine net-like lines

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18
Q

Describe the appearance of papular oral lichen planus

A

Small elevated nodules

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19
Q

Describe the appearance of plaque oral lichen planus

A

Broad area of mucosal thickening

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20
Q

Describe the appearance of atrophic oral lichen planus

A

Reddened/hypervascular mucosa

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21
Q

Describe the appearance of bullous oral lichen planus

A

Sub-epithelial fluid-filled blisters

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22
Q

Describe the appearance of erosive oral lichen planus

A

Broad shallow ulcers covered by fibrinous slough

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23
Q

What percentage of oral lichen planus cases transform to become malignant

A

1%

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24
Q

What are the 4 treatment options for oral lichen planus?

A

No active treatment
Remove trigger
Sympomatic management
Immunomodulatory agents

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25
Q

What are 6 risk factors for OSCC?

A

Tobacco
Alcohol
UV-light/sun exposure
Malnutrition
Infections: syphilis, candida, HPV
Immunosuppression

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26
Q

What are 3 clinical features of OSCC?

A

Firm, not very mobile lump
Thickened warty white plaque
Ulcer with raised, rolled, everted edge

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27
Q

What is the survival rate for early-stage and late-stage OSCC?

A

Early: 80% three-year survival
Late: 50% three-year survival

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28
Q

What are 7 important features requiring referral?

A

Ulcer with granular floor
Traumatic ulcer unhealed after 3 weeks
Indurated swelling
Thickened white patch esp. if speckled
Spontaneously loosed teeth
Non-healing socket
Neurological symptoms

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29
Q

Define potentially malignant oral lesions

A

Lesions that are not malignant but have a risk of developing into OSCC

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30
Q

What are the 2 classifications of leukoplakia and their associated risk of OSCC?

A

Homogeneous leukoplakia: lowest risk of OSCC
Non-homogeneous leukoplakia: higher risk of OSCC

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31
Q

What are 3 causes of white patches in the oral cavity?

A

Thicker keratin
Thicker epithelium
Fibrosis in the lamina propria

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32
Q

What is dysplasia?

A

Architectural and cytological changes in epithelium resembling cancer without invasion

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33
Q

What is frictional keratosis?

A

A condition characterised by a thickening of the epithelium due to chronic friction or irritation

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34
Q

What is a candidal infection?

A

An infection caused by the overgrowth of Candida species, most commonly Candida albicans

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35
Q

Describe the appearance of homogeneous leukoplakia

A

Flat, possibly fissured

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36
Q

Describe the appearance of non-homogeneous leukoplakia

A

Nodular, speckled or both

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37
Q

What are 3 types of laboratory investigations for oral lesions?

A

Microbiological
Haematological
Histopathological

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38
Q

Define dysplasia

A

Architectural and cytological changes in epithelium resembling cancer but without invasion of tissues

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39
Q

What are 6 features of epithelial dysplasia?

A

Distorted rete peg architecture
Dyskeratosis
Basal cell hyperplasia
Loss of adherence
Hyperchromatism
Abnormal mitotic figures

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40
Q

What is the risk factor increase for OSCC with the presence of dysplasia?

A

Increases the risk by a factor of 10

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41
Q

What are the 3 grades of dysplasia and their associated risks of OSCC?

A

Mild: less than 5%
Moderate: 10-20%
Severe: 15-50%

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42
Q

What are the 5 types of surgical treatments for dysplasia?

A

Scalpel excision
Laser excision
CO2 laser ablation
Photodynamic therapy
Cryotherapy

These methods aim to remove or destroy abnormal tissues.

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43
Q

1 advantage of surgical treatment approaches for dysplasia?

A

The most abnormal-looking tissue can be removed or destroyed

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44
Q

What is 1 advantage of medical treatment approaches for dysplasia?

A

Topical drugs can be directed at abnormal tissues less overall destruction

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45
Q

What are 4 medical treatments for dysplasia?

A

Retinoids
EGFR inhibitors/antagonists
COX2 antagonists
p53 modulators

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46
Q

What are the 3 disadvantages of treatment for dysplasia?

A

Local side effects: pain, infection, slow healing
Systemic side effects
Do not prevent new lesions or OSCC

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47
Q

Define fibrous hyperplastic nodules

A

Overgrowth of tissue

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48
Q

2 potential causes of fibrous hyperplastic nodules?

A

Chronic minor trauma
Chronic low-grade infection

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49
Q

3 common presentations of fibrous hyperplastic nodules

A

Fibroepithelial polyp (FEP)
Fibrous epulis at gingiva
Denture induced hyperplasia

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50
Q

What are 3 clinical features of papilloma?

A

Outwards growth with cauliflower-like appearance due to keratin
Usually painless
Occur at any oral site

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51
Q

2 managements of papilloma

A

Excision
Cryotherapy

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52
Q

What are the 3 clinical features of pyogenic granuloma?

A

Pedunculated lesion
Painless
Red and inflamed

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53
Q

Common site of pyogenic granuloma

A

Gingiva

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54
Q

3 causes of pyogenic granuloma

A

Local low-grade irritation
Hormonal changes
Trauma

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55
Q

3 managements of pyogenic granuloma

A

Excision
Remove causative factors
Improve oral hygiene as often calculus/plaque causative

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56
Q

Define giant cell granuloma

A

Uncommon benign lesion commonly at tooth bearing areas of unknown aetiology

57
Q

2 classifications of giant cell granulomas and where they are found

A

Central: within bone
Peripheral: on gingiva

58
Q

What are 4 clinical features of central giant cell granuloma?

A

Bony swelling
Loosening of teeth
Purple gingival swelling
Inflammation of overlying mucosa

Diagnosed through radiographic imaging

59
Q

What are the 4 radiographic features of central giant cell granuloma?

A

Large radiolucency, may have areas of trabeculation
Soap bubble appearance
Ill defined edges
May perforate alveolar bone, extend into the mouth and resorb/displace adjacent roots

60
Q

3 management strategies for giant cell granuloma

A

Excision of soft tissue lesion and curettage underlying bone
Resection may be required in larger lesions
Corticosteroids, calcitonin, interferon alpha and bisphosphonates in children and patients unable to carry out surgery

61
Q

Define hyperparathyroidism

A

Parathyroid hormone overproduction

62
Q

3 epidemiological features of hyperparathyroidism

A

Uncommon
More common in females
Usually elderly

63
Q

What is the management for hyperparathyroidism-related lesions?

A

Correction of the underlying lesion

64
Q

Define vascular malformation

A

An abnormal growth and development of a vessel

65
Q

What are 4 clinical features of vascular malformations?

A

Raised or flat
Soft but can become firm
Deep red/bluish color
Usually blanch with pressure

66
Q

5 management strategies for vascular malformations

A

Excision if small
Laser surgery
Cryotherapy
Radiation therapy
Corticosteroids

67
Q

Define haemangioma

A

A benign vascular tumour that usually presents in the first few months of life

68
Q

3 management strategies for haemangioma

A

Leave as can regress with time
Cryotherapy
Excision

69
Q

Define purpura

A

Small blood vessels bleeding into skin or mucous membranes

70
Q

Causes of purpura

A

Underlying platelet or vascular disorders

71
Q

Define herpes group viruses

A

DNA viruses characterised by latency

72
Q

Define HHV-1

A

A herpes simplex virus that causes primary herpetic gingivostomatitis and may become latent and recur as a cold sore

73
Q

Define HHV-3

A

Varicella-zoster virus that causes the primary infection chickenpox and the secondary reactivation herpes zoster

74
Q

Define HHV-4

A

Epstein-Barr virus that causes infectious mononucleosis and oral hairy leukoplakia

75
Q

What are the 3 clinical features of herpes simplex virus infections?

A

Ulcers
Cervical lymphadenopathy
Pyrexia

76
Q

What is the 4 managements for herpes simplex virus infections?

A

Maintain fluid intake
Analgesic therapy
Systemic acyclovir for severe cases
Mouthwash therapy

Preventive measures are crucial to limit spread.

77
Q

4 clinical features of herpes labialis

A

Initial prodrome
Clusters of tiny blisters, which ulcerate
Crusting and healing
Usually effects function vermillion border lip

78
Q

3 management strategies for herpes labialis

A

Preventive measures
Warn patients of infectivity of the lesion
Topical 5% acyclovir cream in prodromal phase

79
Q

Clinical features of shingles

A

Unilateral painful vesicular eruption localised to a single dermatome

80
Q

Management of shingles

A

High dose systemic acyclovir for 7-10 days, 800mg x5 day

81
Q

What are the 5 clinical features of measles virus infections?

A

Respiratory symptoms: cough, runny nose
Inflamed eyes
Pyrexia
Rash
Koplik spots: intra-oral may form before skin rash

82
Q

What are the 2 clinical features of mumps virus infections?

A

Enlarged salivary glands
Flu-like symptoms

Complications can include meningitis and deafness.

83
Q

Define hand foot and mouth disease

A

A common infection that usually effects children causes mouth ulcers plus spots and blisters on the hands and feet

84
Q

What are the 3 transmission methods for herpes simplex virus

A

Direct contact with infective lesion
Contact with infected saliva from individual shedding the virus
Transfer via inanimate objects

85
Q

Define actinomycosis

A

A rare, chronic suppurative granulomatous disease caused by filamentous anaerobic Gram-positive bacilli

It is often linked to poor oral hygiene and trauma.

86
Q

What are 6 predisposing factors for Actinomycosis?

A

Poor oral hygiene
Trauma
Poorly controlled diabetes mellitus
Immunosuppressed
Alcoholism
Malnutrition

87
Q

What are 4 common clinical presentation of Actinomycosis?

A

Cervicofacial slow growing painless, indurated swelling
Abscesses with sinus discharge to oral mucosa or skin
Discharge contains visible sulphur like granules
Pain and trismus in advanced stages

88
Q

What are 3 diagnostic methods for Actinomycosis?

A

Imaging
Aspiration and culture
Histopathology

89
Q

3 management strategies for Actinomycosis

A

Removal of dental focus
Antimicrobials
Surgical debridement

90
Q

Define Cat Scratch Disease

A

Regional lymphadenopathy and fever resulting from the scratch or bite of an infected cat caused by Bartonella henselae

91
Q

What are 4 clinical features of Cat Scratch Disease?

A

Papule/pustule at site of inoculation
Regional lymphadenopathy
Surrounding tissue changes
Suppuration

92
Q

Define impetigo

A

Common contagious superficial bacterial skin infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes

93
Q

What is the most common form of impetigo?

A

Non-bullous impetigo

94
Q

4 clinical features of non-bullous impetigo

A

Erythematous macule/papule
Becomes pustuler before rupture
“Honey-coloured” yellow crust on skin after rupture
Lesions expand and coalesce

95
Q

4 clinical features of bullous impetigo

A

Vesicles or bullae
Blister formation
Rupture and shed to produce an erythematous moist base that oozes serum
Systemic symptoms

96
Q

Management of impetigo

A

Spontaneous resolution
Antimicrobial agents

97
Q

Define Lyme disease

A

Bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi

98
Q

What is the characteristic rash of Lyme disease called?

A

Erythema migrans, a red rash that increases in size may have a central clearing and presents at site of bite

99
Q

Define Syphilis

A

Common sexually transmitted infection caused by Treponema pallidum

100
Q

What are the four main clinical stages of Syphilis?

A

Primary syphilis
Secondary syphilis
Latent syphilis
Tertiary syphilis

101
Q

What is a common manifestation of primary syphilis?

A

Solitary chancre that develops at site of inoculation, usually lips which heals within 8 weeks

102
Q

What are the symptoms of secondary syphilis?

A

‘Flu-like’ constitutional symptoms
Mucocutaneous manifestations: skin rash, mucous patches
Generalised lymphadenopathy

103
Q

What is a common manifestation of tertiary syphilis?

A

Gummata, an indurated, nodular or ulcerated lesion that may produce tissue destruction, often found at multiple sites

104
Q

Common site of tertiary syphilis

A

Hard palate

105
Q

What are common complications of tertiary syphilis?

A

Cardiovascular syphilis
Neurosyphilis

106
Q

What are 3 dental manifestations in the primary dentition associated with Congenital Syphilis?

A

Mulberry molars
Hutchinson’s incisors
Anterior open bite

107
Q

Define Tuberculosis

A

Chronic communicable infectious disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis

108
Q

What is the oral manifestations of Tuberculosis?

A

Single, painful ulcers on the dorsum of the tongue

109
Q

Describe the management of tuberculosis

A

Quadruple antimicrobial therapy

110
Q

Define oral candidosis

A

Infection of the oral/perioral tissue with candida fungal species

111
Q

What is the most common species causing oral candidosis?

A

C. albicans

112
Q

4 local predisposing factors to oral candidosis

A

Xerostomia
Broad spectrum antimicrobials
Corticosteroids
Dental appliances

113
Q

Classification of oral candidosis

A

Primary: confirmed to oral and perioral tissues
Secondary: distributed in other parts of the body as well as the oral cavity

114
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Pseudomembranous candidosis?

A

Semi adherent white/creamy patches, wiped off to reveal an erythematous base, with a tendency to recur

115
Q

3 common sites of acute pseudomembranous candidosis

A

Palate
Dorsum of tongue
Buccal mucosa

116
Q

What is the clinical presentation of erythematous candidosis?

A

Painful, localised erythematous areas

117
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Candidal leukoplakia?

A

Persistent, adherent white/speckled lesions

118
Q

What is the clinical presentation of Angular cheilitis?

A

Inflammation, fissuring and pain of the skin at commissure caused by candida or staph

119
Q

What is the clinical presentation of median rhomboid glossitis

A

Elliptical or rhomboid papillary atrophy at midline of tongue

120
Q

What is the clinical presentation of denture associated erythematous candidosis?

A

Erythema and oedema of oral mucosa in contact with a dental prosthesis

121
Q

Define chronic mucocutaneous candidosis

A

Rare, heterogeneous group of syndromes causing persistent, severe, and diffuse mucocutaneous candidal infections affecting skin, nails and mucous membranes

122
Q

5 diagnostic investigations for oral candidosis

A

Swabs
Oral rinse
Smear
Tissue biopsy
Blood tests

123
Q

What is the management for oral candidosis?

A

Anti-fungal therapy
Topical: Nystatin, Chlorohexidine
Systemic: Fluconazole, Miconazole

124
Q

What are the two forms of Candida as a dimorphic yeast-like fungus?

A

Blastospore
Hyphae

125
Q

What is the risk associated with Azole antifungal drugs like Miconazole and Fluconazole?

A

Significant drug interactions

126
Q

Define white sponge naevus

A

Hereditary condition present from birth/early childhood causing thick bilateral symmetrical white plaques mainly on the buccal mucosa

127
Q

Define lichen planus

A

A clinically distinctive maculopapular mucocutaneous rash with a characteristic distribution that eventually heals without scar but may leave hyperpigmented macules with a tendency to develop at sites of trauma

128
Q

Define lichenoid reaction

A

Something that resembles lichen planus clinically and histologically but is caused by an identifiable agent, e.g. a drug

129
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of lichen planus

A

1.Something alters the protein signature of the basal keratinocyte
2.Langerhans’ cells detect the new antigen(s)
3.Antigen(s) presented by Langerhans’ cells to T-cells
4.Cell mediated immunity develops
5.Activated T-cells infiltrate back to the altered epithelium and kill individual basal cells
6.The epithelium reacts by proliferating

130
Q

5 conditions that mimic oral lichen planus/lichenoid reaction

A

Frictional keratosis
Lupus erythematosus
Tobacco-related keratosis
Potentially malignant oral lesion
Chronic graft-versus-host disease

131
Q

3 common sites for OSCC

A

Tongue: lateral border and ventral surface
Floor of mouth
Lower gum including retromolar pad

132
Q

3 treatment options for OSCC

A

Surgery: remove all tumour with a 5mm periphery of non-tumour tissue
Radiotherapy
Chemotherapy

133
Q

Define leukoplakia

A

White patch that cannot be classified as any other disease and is associated with an increased risk of malignancy

134
Q

What are 3 causes of red patches

A

Thinner keratin
Thinner epithelium (atrophy)
Vascularity in the lamina propria

135
Q

3 classifications of potentially malignant oral lesions

A

Homogeneous leukoplakia: lowest risk of OSCC
Non-homogeneous leukoplakia: higher risk of OSCC
Erythroplakia: highest risk of OSCC

136
Q

What are the 3 clinical features of fibrous hyperplastic nodules

A

Usually well circumscribed
Solid and raised
Can form on mucosa close to line of occlusion

137
Q

2 management strategies for fibrous hyperplastic nodules

A

Remove stimulus
Excisional biopsy under LA, can recur if causative factor not removed

138
Q

3 epidemiological features OSCC

A

1-2% of all cancers worldwide
80% of patients aged 40+ years
2M:1F