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FSHN 485 > 485 tests > Flashcards

485 tests Flashcards

1
Q

Most human enzymes are synthesized intracellularyl and function _________
A. within the same cell
B. in another location after secretion from the cell
C. in the bloodstream due to leakage from the synthesizing cell
D. in the interstitial fluid surrounding the cell

A

A

why would it be any of the others

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2
Q 
The net energy transformation when nutrients are systematically oxidized to carbon dioxide and water is
A. reversible
B. anabolic
C. endothermic
D. exothermic
A

D

to give off energy to the cells. as oxidation means some sort of breakdown via cellular respiration

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3
Q 
The polysaccharide component of a cell membrane is generally located \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. on the inner cell membrane surface
B. within the lipid bilayer
C. on the external cell membrane surface
D. Both A and B are correct.
A

C

polysaccharides are usually receptors. receptors aren’t required on the inside

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4
Q

The cellular process called transcription is the process of ________?

A. assembling amino acids into proteins
B. DNA replication
C. Producing messenger RNA
D. responding to hormonal receptors

A

C

transcribing from DNA to mRNA language
then translation into protein form from mRNA to tRNA

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5
Q

Glucose symport form the small intestinal lumen into an enterocyte involves ________

A. co-transport with sodium via facilitated diffusion
B. an active transport carrier of glucose into the enterocyte
C. an active transport carrier of glucose from enterocyte into interstitial fluid
D. facilitated diffusion of sodium from the enterocyte into interstitial fluid

A

A

sodium primes the transporter and two(?) glucose molecules are allowed on. then conformation change allows molecules into the enterocyte, removal then conformation changes back to the intestinal lumen

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6
Q

In which part of a cell does anaerobic metabolism take place?

A. mitochondria
B. ribosome
C. cytoplasm
D. nucleus

A

C

glycolysis

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7
Q

The volume of a normal stomach ranges from 50mL (~2 oz) when empty to _____ when full

A. 100 mL (~4 oz)
B. 250 mL (~1 cup)
C. 750 mL (~3 cups)
D. 1.5 L (~6 cups)

A

D

Cause it expands big time

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8
Q

Approximately how much chyme per minute is typically allowed to enter the duodenum from the stomach?

A. about 2 teaspoons (10 mL) or less per minute
B. About one fluid ounce (30 mL) per minute
C. about one fourth cup (60 mL) per minute
D. about one half cup (120 mL) per minute

A

A

think smallest amount!

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9
Q

Which general type of enzyme best describes digestive enzymes?

A. oxidoreductases
B. transferases
C. hydrolases
D. lyases

A

C

splitting apart things by using water to add H- to each break

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10
Q

Which of the following is not directly involved in the digestion of protein

A. water
B. trypsin
C. cholecystokinin
D. HCL

A

C

signals bile duct to release bile —-> emulsifies fat

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11
Q

Which of the following is a major action of gastrin?

A. stimulate acid secretion in the stomach
B. inhibit acid secretion in the stomach
C. stimulate gastric emptying
D. inhibit gastric motility

A

A

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12
Q

The pancreas is a digestive system accessory organ with two types of active tissue, the ductless endocrine tissue that secretes insulin and glucagon and the ____________.

A. liver-like tissue that produces bile.
B. ductless absorptive tissue that controls bicarbonate.
C. ducted exocrine tissue that produces digestive enzymes.
D. ducted erythropoietic tissue that produces red blood cells

A

C

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13
Q

The hormone primarily responsible for stimulating contraction of the gallbladder and release of bile into the duodenum is ________.

A. gastrin
B. secretin
C. cholecystokinin
D. GRP

A

C

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14
Q

Bile is produced in the _______ and is released into the ________.

A. Liver / small intestine
B. liver / pancreas
C. gall bladder / small intestine
D. gall bladder / pancreas

A

A

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15
Q

Some of the primary components of micelles formed in the small intestine include ________.

A. triglycerides and cholesterol on the outside and bile salts and phospholipids on the inside
B. triglycerides and phospholipids on the outside and bile salts and cholesterol on the inside
C. fatty acids and cholesterol on the outside and bile salts and phospholipids on the inside
D. bile salts and phospholipids on the outside and fatty acids and cholesterol on the inside.

A

D

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16
Q

Which statement about water absorption is correct?

A. the majority of the water consumed in foods and beverages is absorbed in the small intestine.
B. the majority of the water consumed in foods and beverages is absorbed in the stomach.
C. the majority of the water consumed in foods and beverages is absorbed in the colon.
D. the stomach, small intestine, and colon each absorb about the same amount of water.

A

A

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17
Q

What is the name of the digestive enzyme that digests the product of amylase action on amylose?

A. glucase
B. isomaltase
C. maltase
D. sucrase

A

C

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18
Q

The pancreas secretes pancreatic juice which contains digestive enzymes and ______.

A. bicarbonate ions
B. bile
C. CCK
D. chyme

A

A

to increase the pH since the intestines do not have the same mucosal lining as the stomach

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19
Q

The absorption of nutrients by simple diffusion requires _______________.

A. a carrier molecule
B. energy
C. a concentration gradient
D a carrier molecule and a concentration gradient

A

C

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20
Q

Formation of glycogen occurs in the

A. cytoplasm
B. mitochondria
C. nucleus

A

A

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21
Q

Synthesis of pyruvate occurs in the

A. cytoplasm
B. mitochondria
C. nucleus

A

A

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22
Q

Lactate dehydrogenase occurs in the

A. cytoplasm
B. mitochondria
C. nucleus

A

A

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23
Q

mRNA transcription occurs in the

A. cytoplasm
B. mitochondria
C. nucleus

A

C

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24
Q

Electron transport chain occurs in the

A. cytoplasm
B. mitochondria
C. nucleus

A

B

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25
Q

mRNA translation occurs in the

A. cytoplasm
B. mitochondria
C. nucleus

A

A

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26
Q

Citric acid cycle occurs in the

A. cytoplasm
B. mitochondria
C. nucleus

A

B

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27
Q

In which part of the GI tract is glucose digested

A. stomach
B. small intestine
C. large intestine
D. A, B, and C are all incorrect

A

D

glucose does not need to be digested (broken down) as it is in its simplest form.

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28
Q

When diagnosing lactose intolerance, ______ is measured in the breath following oral consumption of 50 g lactose.

A. methane
B. hydrogen
C. carbon dioxide
D. sulfer

A

B

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29
Q

What is the most common digestible homopolysaccharide existing as both amylose and amylopectin?

A. glycogen
B. cellulose
C. hemicellulose
D. starch

A

D

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30
Q

Glycolysis is a metabolic process involving ______________.

A. ATP production via substrate level phosphorylation
B. ATP production via oxidative phosphorylation
C. ATP production via phosphocreatine
D. ATP production via gluconeogenesis

A

A

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31
Q

What is the key enzyme in digestion of polysaccharides in the human digestive system?

A. B-dextranase
B. B-amylase
C. a-dextranase
D. a-amylase

A

D

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32
Q

Why can ingestion of large quantities of fructose cause lower intestinal discomfort similar to lactose intolerance?

A. ATP supply for active transport of fructose can be inadequate.
B. facilitated diffusion uptake of fructose can be too slow for large amounts of fructose.
C. fructose digestion can be too slow to handle in a large amount of fructose.
D. small intestinal bacteria can metabolize fructose before it is absorbed and cause symptoms.

A

B

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33
Q

The glucose transporter that is sensitive to insulin is ____________?

A. GLUT1
B. GLUT2
C. GLUT4
D. SGLT1

A

C

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34
Q

Due to a lack of the enzyme glucose 6-phosphatase, which tissue capable of significant glycogen storage cannot directly contribute to blood glucose levels between meals?

A. liver
B. muscle
C. brain
D. kidney

A

B

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35
Q

Aerobic metabolism and fatty acid synthesis is most prominent in _______

A. RBC
B. brain cell
C. muscle cell
D. liver parenchymal cell

A

D

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36
Q

Anaerobic glycolysis only is most prominent in _________

A. RBC
B. brain cell
C. muscle cell
D. liver parenchymal cell

A

A

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37
Q

Glycolysis and krebs cycle is most prominent in _________

A. RBC
B. brain cell
C. muscle cell
D. liver parenchymal cell

A

B

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38
Q

Anaerobic glycolysis to lactate and aerobic metabolism is most prominent in ________.

A. RBC
B. brain cell
C. muscle cell
D. liver parenchymal cell

A

C

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39
Q

During the end reaction of the electron transport chain, molecular oxygen becomes _______.

A. oxidized to carbon dioxide
B. reduced to water
C. NADH + H+
D. FADH2

A

B

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40
Q

In what part of the cell does the krebs cycle function

A. golgi apparatus
B. nucleus
C. microsomes
D. mitochondria

A

D

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41
Q

Coenzyme Q is involved in which metabolic pathway?

A. glycolgenolysis
B. glycolysis
C. Krebs cycle
D. electron transport chain

A

D

42
Q

Based on rate of digestion, which form of carbohydrate would most likely have the highest glycemic index

A. amylose
B. amylopectin
C. fructose
D. glycerol

A

B

43
Q

What is the importance of thehexomonosphosphate shunt

A. it forms the heptose sugars used in nucleic acid synthesis
B. it forms the triose sugars used for fatty acid synthesis
C. it forms the hexose sugars needed for formation of the nuclear membrane.
D. it produces NADPH that is needed for fatty acid synthesis

A

D

44
Q

All of the following are substrates for gluconeogenesis EXCEPT ________.

A. most fatty acids
B. lactate
C. glycerol
D. gluconeogenic amino acids

A

A

45
Q

Muscle lactate is converted to glucose in the liver and returned to the musle by means of the ______

A. malate shuttle
B. electron transport chain
C. cori cycle
D. hexose monophosphate shunt

A

C

pathway used when glucose cannot be oxidized quickly enough for energy required.

lactate can quickly be formed from pyruvate, give energy, and get sent off to the liver to reform into a glucose unit.

46
Q

Two hormones that stimulate glycogenolysis in the muscle and liver are _____.

A. CCK and epinephrine
B. insulin and epinephrine
C. glucagon and insulin
D. epinephrine and glucagon

A

D

47
Q

Which of the following describes a metabolic role of lipoic acid?

A. it is formed by muscle cells in the anaerobic metabolism of glucose
B. it is involved in the production of acetyl CoA
C. it is a co-factor in the krebs cycle
D. it is a component of the electrone transport chain.

A

B

In the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex before entering the CAC. it converts pyruvate to acetyl CoA

48
Q

Malate dehydrogenase is a ____________.

A. cytosolic enzyme involved in gluconeogenesis
B. mitochondrial enzyme in the TCA cycle
C. glycolytic enzyme in liver cells
D. lipogenic enzyme in fat cells

A

B

49
Q

Pyruvate dehydrogenase ___________.

A. uses ascorbic acid as a cofactor
B. is a muscle enzyme that produces lactic acid
C. is a krebs cycle enzyme
D. uses lipoic acid as a cofactor

A

D

50
Q

During conditions that drive glycogenolysis, __________________.

A. glycogen synthase is active and phosphorylase is inactive
B. both glycogen synthase and phosphorylase are active
C. glycogen synthase is inactive and phosphorylase is active
both glycogen synthase and phosphorylase are inactive

A

C

51
Q

Peptide bods between amino acids in proteins are formed between ________ of consecutive amino acids.

A. the side chains
B. the acid groups
C. the acid groups and amino groups
D. the amino groups and side chains

A

C. acid and amino groups

COO and NH2

52
Q

Which of the following amino acids is classified as an aromatic amino acid?

A. threonine
B asparagine
C. tyrosine
D. methionine

A

C. tyrosine

53
Q

Which compound is a branched chain amino acid?

A. valine
B. histidine
C. lysine
D. threonine

A

A. valine

54
Q

Which of the following amino acis all contain more than one nitrogen atom?

A. glutamine, histidine, leucine
B. histidine, isoleucine, lysine
C. isoleucine, leucine, valine
D. glutamine, histidine, lysine

A

D. glutamine, histidine, lysine

55
Q

Which amino acid has an aliphatic side chain

A. threonine
B. lysine
C. isoleucine
D. glutamate

A

C. isoleucine

aliphatic group:
gly, ala, val, leu, ile

56
Q

A function of hydrochloric acid in gastric juice during protein digestion is

A. to neutralize the acidity of the stomach
B. to inactivate pepsinogen by suppressing pepsin formation
C. to denature the quaternary, tertiary and secondary structures of protein
D. to cleave peptide bonds

A

C. to denature the quaternary, tertiary and secondary structures of protein

57
Q

A particular amino acid is very important for several metabolic pathways in enterocytes and so it is sometimes added to nutritional mixtures used for hospitalized patients. The important amino acid is

A. tryptopham
B. glutamine
C. glycine
D. asparagine

A

B. glutamine

good for GI tract

58
Q

threonine is considered a “totally indispensable” amino acid because

A. it is typically present in low amounts in most common foods
B. its alpha-keto acid can participate in transamination reactions in the human body
C. once it is deaminated, its alpha-keto acid does not participate in transamination reactions
D. it can only be formed in the body by transamination of its alpha-keto acid

A

C. once it is deaminated, its alpha-keto acid does not participate in transamination reactions

59
Q

Valine is considered a “carbon skeleton indispensable” amino acid because

A. its transamination reaction is reversible
B. it is essential for carbon deposition in bone
C. its alpha-keto acid can meet the body’s needs when total protein intake is adequate
D. it cannot be catabolized in the human body
E. A and C are both correct

A

E. A and C are both correct

60
Q

If a diet is provided no lysine and threonine,

A. proteins would be synthesized without these two amino acids
B. the body will synthesize these amino acids
C. protein synthesis will require endogenous sources of these amino acids
D. another amino acid will be substituted so that protein synthesis is uninterrupted

A

C. protein synthesis will require endogenous sources of these amino acids

61
Q

Which three amino acids cannot undergo transaminationto an appreciable amount, making them totally indispensable? (and not just “carbon skeleton indispensable”)

A. leucine, isoleucine, valine
B. lysine, threonine, histidine
C. valine, tryptophan, phenylalanine
D. methionine, cysteine, phenylalanine

A

B. lysine, threonine, histidine

62
Q

In a transamination reaction starting with alanine and alpha-ketogluterate, what are the products of the reaction?

A. pyruvate and glutamate
B. lactate and glutamine
C. aspartate and oxaloacetate
D. aspartate and glutamate

A

A. pyruvate and glutamate

63
Q

What effect would a diet have on a child if the diet was completely lacking the amino acid glutamate

A. depress growth
B. decrease protein synthesis
C. both a & b are correct
D. there would likely be no effect

A

C. both a & b are correct

64
Q

Which of the following groups of compounds are all nitrogen containing compounds that are not amino acids (but they are synthesized in the body from amino acids)?

A. glutathione, glutamate, glucosamine
B. HMB, creatine, choline
C. carnitine, creatine, creatinine
D. glutathione, carnitine, chlorine

A

C. carnitine, creatine, creatinine

65
Q

Which of the following are pairs of amino acids that include a conditionally indispensable amino acid and its usual precursor

A. cysteine and methionine
B. valine and isoleucine
C. asparagine and glutamate
D. tyrosine and tryptophan

A

A. cysteine and methionine

66
Q

A genetic defect diminishing branched-chain alpha keto acid dehydrogenase complex activity results in

A. phenylketouria
B. homocysteinuria
C. cystathioniuria
D. maple syrup urine disease

A

D. maple syrup urine disease

67
Q

If a woman is consuming 50 grams of protein per day and maintaining nitrogen balance, about how many grams of nitrogen are being lost daily from her body

A. 3.12
B. 6.25
C. 0.8
D. 8

A

D. 8

6.25 is a factor

divide by it when given the protein and looking for nitrogen loss
multiply by it if given the nitrogen loss and looking for protein

68
Q

Which nitrogen containing compounds are catabolized to uric acid, the compound that accumulates in joints of people with gout

A. purines
B. ascorbic acid
C. proline & phenylalanine
D. aspartate

A

A. purines

69
Q

When the body uses amino acids for energy production, what products are formed that can no longer be used and must be eliminated from the body

A. carbon dioxide
B. ammonia
C. amino acid carbon skeletons
D. both a & b are correct

A

D. both a & b are correct

70
Q

Which of the following vitamins serves as a coenzyme in transamination reactions

A. thiamine
B. riboflavin
C. niacin
D. pyridoxine

A

D. pyridoxine

B6

71
Q

phenylalanine can serve as a precursor for the synthesis of

A. tyrosine
B. epinephrine
C. norepinephrine
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

72
Q

which of these amino acids is utilized he most as an energy source in muscle tissue

A. leucine
B. glutamine
C. lysine
D. tryptophan

A

A. leucine

73
Q

Which amino acid breakdown product is measured in the urine as an indicator of the rate of catabolism of body protein

A. all alpha keto acids
B. creatine
C. 3-methylhistidine
D. ammonia

A

C. 3-methylhistidine

74
Q

As a plasma protein, albumin is important because

A. it helps to hold water in the vascular space
B. it functions as a transport protein for various compounds
C. low levels in the plasma can indicate inadequate protein intake
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

75
Q

which of the following statements about the alanine-glucose cycle is correct

A. it represents a means for the bod to transport amino nitrogen from muscle tissue to the liver
B. it is a type of bicycle ergometer developed by Dr. David alanine that is used to assess the effects of glucose on human performance
C. it is a futile cycle type of reaction in the liver that results in increased heat production
D. A and C are both correct

A

A. it represents a means for the bod to transport amino nitrogen from muscle tissue to the liver

76
Q

Taurine

Match with its precursor
A. tryptophan
B. phenylalanine
C. cysteine
D. histidine
E. glutamate
A

C. cysteine

77
Q

NAD

Match with its precursor
A. tryptophan
B. phenylalanine
C. cysteine
D. histidine
E. glutamate
A

A. tryptophan

78
Q

Epinephrine

Match with its precursor
A. tryptophan
B. phenylalanine
C. cysteine
D. histidine
E. glutamate
A

B. phenylalanine

79
Q

tyrosine

Match with its precursor
A. tryptophan
B. phenylalanine
C. cysteine
D. histidine
E. glutamate
A

B. phenylalanine

80
Q

Serotonin

Match with its precursor
A. tryptophan
B. phenylalanine
C. cysteine
D. histidine
E. glutamate
A

A. tryptophan

81
Q

Alanine is

A. a major transporter of nitrogen out of muscle
B. oxidized as an energy source in the muscle

A

A. a major transporter of nitrogen out of muscle

82
Q

Glutamine is

A. a major transporter of nitrogen out of muscle
B. oxidized as an energy source in the muscle

A

A. a major transporter of nitrogen out of muscle

83
Q

leucine is

A. a major transporter of nitrogen out of muscle
B. oxidized as an energy source in the muscle

A

B. oxidized as an energy source in the muscle

84
Q

A person who consumes dietary protein at the level of their RDA

A. digests and absorbs about twice as much protein as they eat each day
B. will not maintain nitrogen balance unless the protein is all high quality animal protein
C. is guaranteed to be guaranteed to be consuming more than enough protein to meet their person needs
D. statistically speaking, has a 50% chance of not getting enough protein for nitrogen balance

A

A. digests and absorbs about twice as much protein as they eat each day

85
Q

If a moderately active 100kg man (requires 3200kcal/day) consumes protein at the level of his RDA, how much protein would he be consuming per day?

A. 56g protein
B. about 10% of energy intake as protein
C. about 9 g of protein nitrogen
D. about 15% of energy intake as protein

A

B. about 10% of energy intake as protein

86
Q

A fatty acid with the structure 18:2, delta-9.12 is which of the following

A. a monounsaturated fatty acid
B. an omega-3 fatty acid
C. an omega-6 fatty acid
D. a saturated fatty acid

A

C. an omega-6 fatty acid

18-12 = 6

87
Q

Which of the following statements are correct regarding alpha-lonolenic acid

A. it is an essential fatty acid that can be elongated in the body to form a 20-carbon omega-6 fatty acid called arachidonic acid
B. it is an essential 18-carbon fatty acid that can be elongated to form the 20-carbon omega-3 fatty acid called EPA
C. it is an essential 16-carbon fatty acid that can be used to produce various eicosanoids
D. it is a nonessential 16-carbon fatty acid that is found in virtually all oils of plan origins

A

B. it is an essential 18-carbon fatty acid that can be elongated to form the 20-carbon omega-3 fatty acid called EPA

88
Q

cholesterol is used as a precursor for the synthesis of which two compounds

A. cortisol and vitamin D
B. testosterone and epinephrine
C. cholic acid and dopamine
D. progesterone and purines

A

A. cortisol and vitamin D

89
Q

in what form is most body fat stored in adipocytes

A. fatty acids
B. triacylglycerols
C. cholesterol
D. phospholipids

A

B. triacylglycerols

90
Q

triacylglycerols with saturated fatty acids of longer chain length tend to be _____ at room temperature

A. liquid oils
B. emulsified
C. non-esterfied fats
D. solid fats

A

D. solid fats

91
Q

What organ provides the major site for lipoprotein formation from exogenously derived lipid

A. pancreas
B. adipocytes
C. intestine
D. liver

A

C. intestine

92
Q

Which of the following lipoproteins are normally not present in blood in the fasting

A. VLDL
B. chylomicrons
C. LDL
D. HDL

A

B. chylomicrons

93
Q

Alpha linolenic acid is a

A. omega-6 fatty acid found in vegetable oils
B. omega-3 fatty acid found in some vegetable oils
C. structural omega-3 fatty acid in brain tissue
D. omega-3 fatty acid found in fish oils
E. 20:4 n-6 fatty acid precursor for eicosanoids

A

B. omega-3 fatty acid found in some vegetable oils

94
Q

EPA is a

A. omega-6 fatty acid found in vegetable oils
B. omega-3 fatty acid found in some vegetable oils
C. structural omega-3 fatty acid in brain tissue
D. omega-3 fatty acid found in fish oils
E. 20:4 n-6 fatty acid precursor for eicosanoids

A

D. omega-3 fatty acid found in fish oils

95
Q

DHA is a

A. omega-6 fatty acid found in vegetable oils
B. omega-3 fatty acid found in some vegetable oils
C. structural omega-3 fatty acid in brain tissue
D. omega-3 fatty acid found in fish oils
E. 20:4 n-6 fatty acid precursor for eicosanoids

A

C. structural omega-3 fatty acid in brain tissue

96
Q

Linoleic acid is a

A. omega-6 fatty acid found in vegetable oils
B. omega-3 fatty acid found in some vegetable oils
C. structural omega-3 fatty acid in brain tissue
D. omega-3 fatty acid found in fish oils
E. 20:4 n-6 fatty acid precursor for eicosanoids

A

A. omega-6 fatty acid found in vegetable oils

97
Q

Arachidonic acid is a

A. omega-6 fatty acid found in vegetable oils
B. omega-3 fatty acid found in some vegetable oils
C. structural omega-3 fatty acid in brain tissue
D. omega-3 fatty acid found in fish oils
E. 20:4 n-6 fatty acid precursor for eicosanoids

A

E. 20:4 n-6 fatty acid precursor for eicosanoids

98
Q

True or false

when BCAA are catabolized in their corresponding ketoacid in muscle, the nitrogen must be transported directly to the kidney as glutamine

A

false

99
Q

adequate synthesis and secretion of bile are important in the digestion and absorption of amino acids

A

false

100
Q

PDCAAS accounts for the digestibility and the amino acid composition of a protein

A

true

FSHN 485 (3 decks)

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