Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Psychology > 4.2.3.1 Scientific Processes > Flashcards

4.2.3.1 Scientific Processes Flashcards

1
Q

What is an empirical method?

A

When information is gained from direct observation, so it can be certain that claims of knowledge are true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are research methods?

A

Techniques used to gather data about the mind and behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the experimental method of research?

A

A research method that is used to identify the effect on one variable on other variables, known as cause and effect. They must follow scientific methods and be a true experiment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is falsifiability?

A

The principle that a theory cannot be considered scientific unless it allows the possibility of being proved untrue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a true experiment?

A

A true experiment has a control condition and an experimental co Dionysus, and participants must be randomly assigned to each one, so the researcher can make fair comparisons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Give examples of research methods

A

-experiments
-observations
-survey
-interview
-correlations
-case studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the experimental condition?

A

The condition in which there has been researcher manipulation to see if a change in behaviour has occurred.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the control condition?

A

Provides a baseline measure of behaviour without any experimental treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the independent variable?

A

The variable that is manipulated by the researcher, or changes naturally.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are control variables?

A

When all other variables that might potentially effect the DV are kept constant, so the researcher can be confident that any change in the DV was due to only the IV.
-this achieves internal validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are extraneous variables?

A

Variables that may effect the dependant variable if not controlled.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the dependant variable?

A

The variable that is measured by the researcher. Any changes to h the DV should be due to changes in the IV only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is operationalisation?

A

Clearly defining variables, and making them specific, so that they can be measured.
-this allows psychologists to communicate their findings to others, and others to replicate their experiments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is an aim?

A

A general statement of what the researcher intends to investigate and the purpose of the study. Aims tend to be developed from theories.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is an alternate/experimental hypothesis?

A

Predicts a significant difference or relationship between the two variables. It can be directional or non -directional.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a hypothesis?

A

A precise and testable statement that states the relationship between the variables in the investigation. It predicts the outcome of the study.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a null hypothesis?

A

Predicts that there will be no significant difference or relationship between the two variables.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a directional hypothesis?

A

-also known as a one-tailed hypothesis
It states the direction of the difference or relationship, to identify the sort of relationship that may be seen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When would a directional hypothesis be used?

A

When previous research indicates the probable direction of the results.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a non-directional hypothesis?

A

-also known as a two-tailed hypothesis
It does not state the direction of the difference or relationship.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When would a non-directional hypothesis be used?

A

When there has been no previous research to suggest what direction the research will go in, or previous research has been contradictory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the 5 key steps in writing a hypothesis?

A

-identify the IV and the DV (what is being manipulated and what is being measured?)
-create a comparison of the experimental conditions to show how the IV is being manipulated
-operationalise the DV to state how it is being measured
-decide whether to write a directional or non-directional hypothesis
-put all of the information together in a testable written statement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Write a non-directional hypothesis to suggest whether age affects short-term memory

A

There will be a significant difference in the short term memory, measured by a score out of 10 on a word memory test, in participants who are older in years, compared to those who are younger in years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Write a directional hypothesis for the effect of higher temperatures on the growth of tomato plants

A

Tomato plants that grow in higher temperatures of 25c will grow a greater number of millimetres per day, than tomato plants that grow in lower temperatures of 15c.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Write a null hypothesis for the effect of lack of sleep on reaction time?

A

There will be no significant difference in the reaction time, measured in milliseconds by the ruler drop test, of participants who have slept for a greater number of hours the previous night, compared to those who have slept for a fewer number of hours the previous night.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are experimental designs?

A

Refers to the different ways in which the testing of participants can be organised, in relation to experimental conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe how independent groups work

A

-different participants are tested in each condition of the experiment
-one group is assigned to the control condition, and one to the experimental condition
-they are compared to identify differences in the dependant variable
-random allocation decides which participants go to which condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Strengths of independent groups?

A

-simplest design to operate
-eliminates order effects
-reduces demand characteristics
-same test can be used for both groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are order effects?

A

Include practise, boredom and fatigue, and are caused by people taking part in more than one trial.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are demand characteristics?

A

Occur when participants have guessed the aim of the experiment
(Please you and screw you effect)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Weaknesses of independent groups?

A

-weak control of participant variables and individual differences, so random allocation needs to be used
-it is uneconomical with participants as it requires more.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are individual differences?

A

Variables in the participants in each condition, that may contribute to the change in the DV, therefore becoming extraneous variables.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the benefits of random allocation?

A

-removes researcher bias
-removes participant bias
-increases validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Strengths of repeated measures?

A

-eliminates the effects of individual differences as same participants take part in both conditions
-requires fewer participants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Weaknesses of repeated measures?

A

-creates order effects
-requires counterbalancing so is more complicated
-risk of demand characteristics (please u and screw u)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Describe how a repeated measures experiment works?

A

-participants take part in all of the conditions
-their performance in each condition is compared
-the order at which they carry out the conditions should be randomised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is counterbalancing?

A

-half of the participants start in one condition, and the rest start in the other.
-this controls the impact of order effects, as it allows them to be distributed evenly across both conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Describe how a matched pairs experiment works

A

-each participant is matched with another participant on characteristics which are considered relevant to the experiment eg. Age or intelligence
-one participant from each pair is allocated at random to each condition
-this process assumes they are similar enough to be treated s one person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Weaknesses of matched pairs?

A

-time consuming, and so uneconomical
-complete matching is not possible
-if one participant drops out, the nature of the study means that two participants are lost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is an extraneous variable?

A

A variable that is not the independent variable, but may affect the dependant variable if not controlled. These variables do not systematically vary with the IV, so we cannot be sure if it has affected the DV.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How do psychologists aim to control extraneous variables?

A

It is very important that these variables are controlled, to be sure that it is the IV that affects the DV. Psychologists aim to identify them at the start of the study so that they can control them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is a confounding variable?

A

A variable which has affected the DV, and therefore the outcome of the study. These systematically vary with the IV, so we can be sure that it has affected the DV. They aren’t often recognised until critical inspection by others later on.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are participant variables?

A

Refer to the different characteristics of participants which may affect the outcome of an experiment eg. Age or intelligence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are situational variables?

A

Refer to factors in the environment which may affect the outcome of an experiment eg. Time of day or temperature. These become even more problematic when only one of the groups is affected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are demand characteristics?

A

Occur when participants try to make sense of the research situation they find themselves in, and act accordingly.
-trying to guess the purpose of the research and acting in a way they feel is helpful
-trying to guess the purpose of the research and acting in a way they feel is unhelpful
-evaluation apprehension- nerves due to the research setting
-displaying social desirability bias to be seen as favourable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Why are demand characteristics problematic?

A

They do not represent participants normal behaviours and actions outside of the research situation, which means the data becomes invalid. Therefore, well-designed research aims to minimise their effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How do psychologists minimise the effects of demand characteristics?

A

By using the single blind procedure
-participants are not informed about the condition they are placed in and aren’t aware often the aim of the research, as not to seek clues
-however this raises ethical issues of deception and informed consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are investigator effects?

A

The effects of the investigator’s conscious or unconscious behaviour on the research outcome.
-It is difficult for the investigator to remain impartial, as they have expectations and personal characteristics that may affect the behaviour of participants eg. Unconsciously designing the study to produce the desired outcome, or misinterpreting findings to support the original hypothesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How do psychologists reduce investigator effects?

A

-Double blind procedure: neither the investigator nor the participants know the aim or hypothesis of the study
-Computerised testing: participants interact with a computer rather than a human investigator. It also means data can be stored on the computer, making it harder to mis-record the information from participants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is randomisation?

A

The use of chance methods to control for the effects of researcher or investigator bias when designing materials, and deciding the order of experimental conditions. It ensures the investigator has no control over certain key features.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is standardisation?

A

Using exactly the same formalised procedures for all participants in a research study. This includes environment, instructions and experience.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What does the type of experiment depend on?

A

How the IV changes, and under what circumstances it does so.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Describe the key features of a lab experiment

A

-carried out in highly controlled environments (not always in a lab)
-the researcher manipulates the independent variable and records the effects on the dependant variable
-this gives the researcher control of the participants and conditions, which means extraneous variables can be controlled
-can use random allocation, so is considered a ‘true’ experiment

49
Q

What are the advantages of laboratory experiments?

A

-easy to set up the experiment and conditions in order to achieve strict control over extraneous and confounding variables, so gives it high internal validity to establish cause and effect
-easily replicable, so can be replicated by others to check the consistency of findings
-precise and quantitative data can be found

50
Q

What are the disadvantages of laboratory experiments?

A

-low ecological validity due to the artificial setting
-low mundane realism due to the tasks not reflecting everyday experiences
-demand characteristics as the lab could lead to participants behaving artificially

51
Q

What are the ethical issues that can occur in laboratory experiments?

A

-social pressure: the formal situation and authority of the experimenter may pressure the participants into behaving uncharacteristically
-right to withdrawal: participants should be informed of this at the start, but may be reluctant to exercise their rights in fear of disrupting the study

52
Q

Describe the key features of a field experiment

A

-the researcher manipulates the independent variable in a natural and more everyday setting
-the experiment takes place in the participants’ usual environment- where they would normally be at the time
-used when it is important that the studied behaviour is in a natural environment

53
Q

What are the advantages of a field experiment?

A

-high ecological validity due to being in a natural environment
-reduced demand characteristics as participants are less aware of it
-good mundane realism due to studies being of real life behaviour or activity

54
Q

What are the disadvantages of a field experiment?

A

-less control of extraneous and confounding variables which decreases internal validity
-less replicable due to confounding variables
-ethical issues as participants are unaware that the experiment is taking place, so cannot exercise their right to withdrawal or give verbal consent.

55
Q

Describe the key features of natural experiments

A

-the researcher measures the effect of the independent variable on the dependant variable
-the researcher has no control over the independent variable and cannot change it- the change is brought about by something or someone else
-the change would have occurred even if the researcher had not been there
-it is the IV, that is natural and not always the setting
-the DV may be naturally occurring or devised by the experimenter
-the researcher cannot randomly allocate participants, so it is not considered a true experiment.

56
Q

What are the advantages of a field experiment?

A

-allows for investigations that may not have been practically or ethically possible otherwise
-often have high external validity as they involve the study of real world issues and problems

57
Q

Describe the key features of a quasi experiment

A

-have an independent variable that is based on existing differences between people eg. Age or gender
-it has not been manipulated, but it simply exists due to differences between people
-this means that the IV cannot be changed
-the DV may be naturally occurring or devised by the experimenter
-no random allocation so cannot be considered a true experiment

57
Q

What are the disadvantages of field experiments?

A

-no random allocation to conditions reduces confidence in establishing cause and effect
-naturally occurring situations are rare, so hard to study and replicate
-the IV isn’t deliberately changed, so the researcher can’t claim that it has caused any observable change

58
Q

What are the advantages of a quasi experiment?

A

-often carried out under controlled conditions, so share the strengths of lab experiments

59
Q

What are the disadvantages of quasi experiments?

A

-no random allocation of participants may lead to confounding variables.
-because the IV isn’t deliberately changed, the researcher cannot claim that it has caused any observable change

59
Q

What is the difference between internal and external validity?

A

Internal validity refers to what happens inside the experiment, whereas external validity refers to whether or not the findings can be generalised to everyday life.

60
Q

What does the sampling method used determine?

A

The sampling method used determines whether explanations of behaviour that can be generalised to a population beyond the research setting can be generated.

61
Q

Define population

A

The large group of individuals who are the focus of the researcher’s interest, and who are being studied.
-This is a target population, as it is a subset of the general population

62
Q

Define sample

A

A group of people who take part in a research investigation, selected from the target population
-it is presumed that they are representative of that population, so that findings can be generalised

63
Q

Define bias

A

In the context of sampling, bias occurs if certain groups are over or under-represented within the sample selected, and it limits the extent to which generalisation can occur.

64
Q

Define generalisation

A

The extent to which the findings and conclusions of a study can be applied to the population
-this is possible if the sample of participants is representative of the population

65
Q

What is the purpose of sampling techniques?

A

To select a sample which is representative of the whole population, so that results and conclusions can be generalised to that whole population.

66
Q

What is opportunity sampling?

A

When a researcher decided to select anyone who is available and willing to participate in their study.

67
Q

What are the strengths of opportunity sampling?

A

This method is convenient as it saves time, effort, and is less costly.

68
Q

What are the weaknesses of opportunity sampling?

A

-the sample is likely to be unrepresentative of the target population as it is drawn from a specific area
-the researcher has complete control over the selection of participants, so can avoid those they don’t like the look of, increasing researcher bias

69
Q

Define researcher bias

A

When a researcher influences the sample obtained, and who is selected

70
Q

Define population validity

A

The extent to which results can be generalised to groups of people other than the sample

71
Q

What is random sampling?

A

A from of sampling in which all members of the target population have an equal chance of being selected
-a complete list of all members of the target population is obtained
-each name is assigned to a number
-the sample is generated through a chance/lottery method

72
Q

What are the strengths of random sampling?

A

It is free from researcher bias as the researcher has no choice or influence as to who is selected, so cannot select people they think support their hypothesis

73
Q

What are the weaknesses of random sampling?

A

-it is difficult and time consuming to obtain a complete list of a population
-doesn’t always create a representative sample
-participants may refuse to take part, leading to further bias

74
Q

What is systematic sampling?

A

A form of sampling where every nth member of the target population is selected for the sample
-a sampling frame is produced, which is a list of people in a target population, organised into an order
-the researcher then selects every nth person

75
Q

What are the strengths of systematic sampling?

A

-avoids researcher bias as once the system for selection has been established, the researcher has no influence over who is chosen
-it is usually fairly representative

76
Q

What are the weaknesses of random sampling?

A

-the process of selection can interact with ‘hidden traits’ within the population, which would mean the sample is not random or representative, if the sampling technique coincides with the frequency of the trait.

77
Q

What is stratified sampling?

A

A sophisticated form of sampling in which the composition of the sample reflects the proportions of people in different subgroups (strata), within the target population or wider population
-the researcher identifies the strata in a population
-the proportions needed to create a representative sample are calculated
-the participants in each strata are randomly selected

78
Q

What are the strengths of stratified sampling?

A

-avoids researcher bias, as once the population has been divided into strata, the sample is selected randomly
-it produces a representative sample as it accurately represents a population, which makes findings generalisable

79
Q

What are the weaknesses of stratified sampling?

A

-requires a detailed knowledge of the population characteristics, which may not be available
-can be time consuming to divide into strata, and then randomly select

80
Q

What is volunteer sampling?

A

Or self-selected sampling, is where participants select themselves to be a part of the sample
-a researcher may place an advert online or in a newspaper, so people respond who want to take part in the study

81
Q

What are the strengths of volunteer sampling?

A

Creating the sample requires little effort from the researchers once the advert is created, as participants volunteer themselves

82
Q

What are the weaknesses of volunteer sampling?

A

-the sample will be bias and unrepresentative as volunteers tend to be a certain type of person, making it difficult to generalise results to a target population
-volunteers are eager to please, which increases the chance of demand characteristics, and decreases the internal validity.

83
Q

Why is it important for a sample to be representative?

A

It is important for a sample to be representative of the target population, so that we can generalise the findings based on our sample to the target population.

If a sample is not representative of the target population, then the findings are of limited value and lacks population validity.

If a sample is representative of the target population, then the findings are more likely to represent accurately the target population, meaning they are high in population validity.

84
Q

What are ethics?

A

Ethics refers to the correct rules of conduct that are necessary when conducting research

85
Q

What are ethical issues?

A

Ethical issues arise in psychology when a conflict or dilemma exists between participants rights, and researchers goals to gain valuable and meaningful findings. This conflicts has implications for the safety and wellbeing of the participants.

86
Q

What is the role of the British psychological society in ethics?

A

The bps code of ethics is a document instructing psychologists in the UK about what behaviour is, and is not acceptable when dealing with participants.
-they are not laws but a set of professional advice that requires psychologists to exercise professional judgement in complex research situations- or they may lose their job.

87
Q

What is deception?

A

Deliberately misleading or withholding information from participants, at any stage of the investigation
-participants may not have received adequate information when they consented
-they may have been deliberately lied to
-however it can be justified on occasions where it does not cause the participants any undue distress
-it is often needed to avoid participants displaying demand characteristics, which decrease internal validity of the findings.

88
Q

What is informed consent?

A

Involves making participants aware of the aims of the research, their rights (including the right to withdraw), and what their data will be used for.
-this allows them to make an informed decision as to whether or not they want to take part
-this however may also increase demand characteristics

89
Q

What is protection from harm?

A

Participants should not be placed at any more physical or psychological risk than they would be in their daily lives eg. Embarrassment, inadequate, or undue stress.
-they should be reminded of their right to withdraw (right to leave the study at any time, or to withdraw their data after a study is finished)

90
Q

What is privacy and confidentiality?

A

Participants have the right to control their information- it shouldn’t be disclosed to anyone unless agreed in advance
-confidentially refers to the right to have our data protected

91
Q

What is presumptive consent?

A

A similar group of people are asked if the study is acceptable, and if they agree, the consent of the original participants is presumed.

91
Q

How can we deal with the issue of informed consent?

A

-participants should be issued with a consent form detailing all of the relevant information that may affect their decision to take part
-consent is required from parents of those under 16
-if consent cannot be given, there are alternative ways of getting consent

92
Q

What is prior-general consent?

A

Participants give their consent to take part in a number of different studies- including deception, essentially consenting to being deceived

93
Q

What is retrospective consent?

A

Participants are asked for their consent, having already taken part in the study, so may not have been aware of their participation, or have been subject to deception.

94
Q

How can we deal with the issue of deception, and protection from harm?

A

-at the end of a study, participants should be given a full debrief (made aware of the aims of the investigation, and any details they had not already been given)
-they should be told what their data will be used for, and the right to withdraw their data
-they should have been informed of their right to withdraw during the experiment

95
Q

How can we deal with the issue of privacy and confidentiality?

A

-personal data must be protected (so researchers may use numbers rather than names)
-remind participants during briefing and debriefing that their data will be protected throughout the process.

96
Q

What is cost-benefit analysis?

A

Assessing the potential harm to the participants, compared to the potential benefits of the research to society. It is used by ethics committees, to decide if a study should take place.

97
Q
A
98
Q
A
99
Q
A
100
Q

Define validity

A

Validity is the stent to which we are measuring the variable that we intend to measure, and therefore whether the observed effect is genuine.

101
Q

What are the three types of external validity?

A

Ecological validity
Population validity
Temporal validity

102
Q

What is internal validity?

A

Internal validity refers to whether results obtained are solely affected by changes in the independent variable in a cause-and-effect relationship.
It can be assessed based on whether extraneous variables are controlled or eliminated.

103
Q

What is external validity?

A

External validity refers to whether data can be generalised to other situations outside of the research environment they were originally gathered from.

104
Q

What is temporal validity?

A

Whether results are generalisable over a time period

105
Q

What is population validity?

A

Whether results are generalisable to the wider target population

106
Q

What is ecological validity?

A

Whether results are generalisable to real-life situations.

107
Q

What is face validity?

A

Refers to whether a study is scrutinised to determine whether it appears to measure what it is supposed to measure at face value.

108
Q

What is criteria validity?

A

Refers to whether the data gathered compares to data from a test with a different measure of the same variable, and how it correlates.

109
Q

What is concurrent validity?

A

The extent to which the results of the experiment match the results of an existing and well-established test.

110
Q

How can the validity of experiments be improved?

A

Use a control group to assess whether changes in the dependant variable were due to changes in the independent variable.
Use standardised procedures to reduce participant variables and investigator effects.
Using single and double-blind procedures.

111
Q

How can the validity of questionnaires be improved?

A

Incorporate a lie scale to assess the consistency of responses and detect social desirability bias.
Increase validity by telling participants that all responses will be kept anonymous.

112
Q

How can the validity of observations be improved?

A

Make the observer undetected (covert observations) so that the behaviour of those observed is authentic and natural.
Narrow down behavioural categories to study behaviour more closely.

113
Q

How can the validity of qualitative research be improved?

A

Higher ecological validity in case studies and interviews as they reflect the participants reality.
Interpretive validity ensures the researchers interpretation of events matches that of the participants.
Triangulation- the use of a number of different sources of evidence- further increases validity.

114
Q

Define reliability?

A

Reliability refers to whether the measurement of a particular behaviour is consistent and therefore trustworthy.

115
Q

How can test-retest be used to assess reliability?

A

A method of assessing the reliability of an experiment by assessing the same person or group of people on separate occasions.
This shows the extent to which the test produces consistent results.
There must be sufficient time between the two tests.
The results from the two tests are correlated to ensure they are similar.

116
Q

How can the split-half method be used to assess reliability?

A

When the sample is split into two and both assessed in the same way.
The results from the two tests are correlated to ensure they are similar.

117
Q

How can inter-rates be used to assess reliability?

A

Refers to the stent to which two or more observers are observing and recording behaviour in a consistent way.
This helps to ensure reliability in situations where there may be subjectivity.
Results from each experimenter are correlated to ensure they are similar.

118
Q

What is correlational analysis?

A

When the correlation coefficient between two sets of results is calculated
It should exceed +0.80 for reliability

119
Q

How can the reliability of questionnaires be improved?

A

The reliability of questionnaires should be assessed using the test-retest methods.
If reliability is low, open questions may need to be replaced with closed, fixed-choice alternatives.

120
Q

How can the reliability of interviews be improved?

A

Using the same interviewer every time, or training interviewers in the same way.
Use of structured interviews increases reliability as questions are fixed.

121
Q

How can the reliability of observations be improved?

A

Ensure that behavioural categories have ben properly operationalised, so that they are measurable and self-evident.
Further training of observers may be needed to improve reliability.

122
Q

How can the reliability of experiments be improved?

A

Standardised procedures means that they are consistent and therefore more reliable.

Psychology (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions