42, 43 Integumentary Flashcards

1
Q

epidermis consists of which kind of epithelium, how does the epidermis receive nutrients

A

squamous
by diffusion from vessels in the underlying tissue

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2
Q

dermis (the corium),
-is thicker or thinner than the epidermis
-consists of what kind of ct
-contains (bv, n, hf, g, and n)

A

thicker
dense
blood vessels, nerves, hair follicles, glands, nails

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3
Q

-what glands secret sebum
-what are the functions

A

sebaceous
keep hair and skin soft, inhibit bacterial growth on surface of skin, helps prevent water loss

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4
Q

What happens to the skin as we age?

Reduced sebaceous gland activity causes what

These two combined reduce what kind of control and lead to which kind of problems

What decreases to turn hair color gray

A

Thins and becomes more transparent.

Causes dry skin that may itch

Reduce temperature control, may lead to intolerance of cold and susceptibility to heat exhaustion

Decreasing the number of melanocytes at the hair follicle

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5
Q

People with which shade of hair usually have skin that is oilier and less susceptible to drying and irritation

A

Dark hair

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6
Q

Severe nutritional deficiencies lead to this kind of problem in the skin

Dehydration causes loss of skin, turgor, and predisposes to what type of ulcer

A

Skin breakdown in the development of sores and ulcers

Pressure ulcers

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7
Q

Too much sun too quickly leads to b and p

Apply sunscreen how many minutes before sun exposure and reapply every how many hours

What hours are sunrays most hazardous

How many hours could it be before a sunburn becomes obvious?

A

Blistering and peeling

15-30
2

Between 10 AM and 2 PM

6 to 8

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8
Q

Risk factors for skin tears in older adults (10)

A

-Dry skin with dehydration
-Areas of ecchymosis
-Friction, sharing, or pressure from bed or chair
-impaired sensory perception
-impaired mobility
-taking multiple medications
-Prolonged use of corticosteroids
-Presence of renal disease, congestive heart failure, or stroke impairment
-Incorrect removal of adhesive dressing
-Rough handling will be in bathed dressed, transferred, or repositioned

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9
Q

The Payme-Martin Starr skin care, and international skin tear advisory panel classification system, identifying skin tears
Category, 1 through 3

A

Category 1- skin tear without tissue loss, edges can be realigned

Category 2- skin tear with partial tissue loss, edges cannot be realigned

Category 3- skin tear with complete tissue loss, epidermal flap is missing

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10
Q

Steps to care for a skin tear

A

-Cleanse with saline
-Allow area to air dry, or pat dry gently in carefully
-If skin tear flap has dried, remove it using scissors and sterile technique
-if flap is viable, roll back in place, use steri-strips to hold in place

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11
Q

Average days sutures stay in from excisional biopsy

A

10 days

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12
Q

What is a wood light
What’s it used for
Under Wood light fungal infections and erythrasma are

A

Special UV light

Diagnose fungal infections of scalp and chronic bacterial infection of skin folds

Fluorescent

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13
Q

Seborrheic keratoses common in which age group, how do they appear?

When skin of a darkly pigmented person is damaged, what might the scar tissue do, forming what

A

Older adults

wartlike, greasy lesions

Hypertrophy, forming a keloid

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14
Q

When assessing for melanoma check the ABCDs:

A

Asymmetric
Irregular border
Color change
Diameter change greater than 1/4”

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15
Q

What may be added to the rinsewater to neutralize soap of a patient with severe skin disease?
What’s the ratio?

A

Vinegar; 1 tablespoon of vinegar per quart of water

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16
Q

Instructions on open dressings

A

Must be changed repeatedly and never allowed to dry
Need to be re-moisten every 20 to 30 minutes with room temperature or warmer solution

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17
Q

A delayed allergic response involving cell mediated immunity, evident within a few hours or days after exposure to an antigen
S/S

A

Contact dermatitis

Erythema and swelling, pruritus an appearance of vascular lesions

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18
Q

Also called eczema
Complex activation process, involving mast cells, T lymphocytes, langerhans cells, monocytes, the cells that produce immunoglobulin EE, another inflammatory cells are release histamine, lymphokines and other inflammatory mediators
Seems to have a genetic, allergic association

A

Atopic dermatitis

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19
Q

Impairment in circulation, generally occurs on the legs as a result of Venus stasis in edema, and a scene in conjunction with varicosities, phlebitis, and vascular trauma
S/S erythema and pruritus occur first,
Been scaling development of petechiae, and hyperpigmentation

A

Stasis dermatitis

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20
Q

A common inflammation involving the scalp, eyebrows, eyelids, your canals, nasal labial folds, axillae, chest and back. Regions appear as scaly, white or yellow or plaques with mild pruritus

A

Seborrheic dermatitis

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21
Q

Caution, patience with pruritus to avoid what in regards to temperature & bathing

A

Becoming hot, bathe in tepid water, and do not puncture vesicles, pat dry skin, not rub

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22
Q

Are typical age of pt with acne rosacea
How is acne rosacea characterize?

A

Between 30 and 50 years

Erythema, papules, pustules, and telangiectases (dilation of capillaries, causing a small red or purple cluster, also known as spider veins), occurs on the face over the cheeks and bridge of nose

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23
Q

Isotrentinonin has been effective in controlling which kind of acne

This used to be under what name

Why was this name discontinued

A

Cystic acne, that has been resistant to other forms and treatment

Accutane

Black box warnings, G.I. concerns, birth defects, and increased rate of suicide

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24
Q

what happens to the number of elastic fibers and the adipose tissue as we age, causing what

A

elastic fibers decrease
adipose tissue diminishes in dermis and subcutaneous layers- causing wrinkles and sagging

25
Q

severe cases of this are commonly prescribed artificial UV radiation and a coal tar product (usually at this point hospitalization is required)

A

psoriasis

26
Q

what is PUVA therapy used for
what does it do

A

psoriasis, drug class psoralens that penetrates the skin with exposure to UV light type A

27
Q

recommend what to pt’s with psoriasis to keep the air moist, which helps with keeping the skin moist and pliable

A

humidifier

28
Q

what does the vaccine Zostavax boost

A

the immune response to the zoster virus

29
Q

how do the symptoms of herpes zoster start

how many days after onset do small groups of vesicles appear on skin

A

fatigue and low-grade fever, possibly loss of appetite, achy or discomfort along the nerve pathway with or without erythema

3 - 5 days

30
Q

why and when is Famciclovir given

A

2-3 days of outbreak, shortens duration of chronic pain following shingles

31
Q

what precautions are recommended for pediculosis and scabies

A

contact

32
Q

Nodular malignant melanoma is a type of what

what are the characteristics and prognosis

what to do if spotted

A

skin cancer

uniformly grayish black colored nodule; resembles a blackberry; may be flesh-colored with specks of pigment around base of nodule;
itching, losing, and bleeding may occur; prognosis less favorable than superficial type

contact pt’s pcp

33
Q

nutritional increase in what promotes wound healing

examples

A

calories
protein (chicken, soybeans, tofu, nuts, beans)
zinc (beef, whole grains, dairy)
vit A, C, and E (soybeans, dark green leafy veg, nuts)

34
Q

bony prominences most susceptible to skin breakdown when pt is lying prone

A

anterior superior iliac spine
patellae

35
Q

bony prominences most susceptible to skin breakdown when pt is side-lying

A

ear
greater tuberosity of humerus
trochanter
head of fibula
lateral malleolus

36
Q

bony prominences most susceptible to skin breakdown when pt is lying supine

A

scapulae
vertebrae
sacurm
calcanel

37
Q

stages of pressure injury:
intact skin with a purple or maroon discoloration
tissue may be firm, boggy, painful, cool, or warm

A

suspected deep tissue injury

38
Q

stages of pressure injury:
an area of intact skin that is reddened, deep pink, or mottled that does not blanch

A

stage 1

39
Q

stages of pressure injury:
-partial-thickness skin loss involving the dermis and/or epidermis
-skin appears blistered or abraded or has a shallow crater
-the area surrounding the damaged skin is reddened and probably will feel hot or warmer than normal

A

stage 2

40
Q

stages of pressure injury:
-skin is ulcerated
-crater-like ulcer
-underlying subcutaneous tissue is involved in the destructive process
-ulcer may or may not be infected
-bacterial infection is almost always present at this stage and accounts for continued erosion of the ulcer and the production of drainage

A

stage 3

41
Q

stages of pressure injury:
-deep ulceration
-necrosis involving deeper underlying muscle and possible bone tissue
-ulcer can be dry, black, and covered with a tough accumulation of necrotic tissue, or it can be made up of wet and oozing dead cells and purulent excdates
-depth can be determined

A

stage 4

42
Q

stages of pressure injury:
-full-thickness wounds with eschar and/or tissue that obscures depth determination

A

unstageable

43
Q

what is the function of whirlpool baths

A

-mechanical debridement of eschar
-stimulate granulation tissue growth

44
Q

pressure injury:
how are wound dressings selected

common wound dressing materials

A

-wound dressing selected according to characteristics of wound
-keeping the ulcer moist and the surrounding skin dry

-moisture-retentive dressings
-hydrogel dressing
-hydrocolloid wafers
-alginates
-biologic dressings
-absorptive dressing

45
Q

pressure injury:
other treatment methods and what they do

A

-electrical stimulation, increases rate of healing of pressure ulcers, venous leg ulcers, and diabetic foot ulcers
-increases blood vessel growth

46
Q

how to document pressure ulcers

A

measure and document when they are discovered and at least once a week thereafter
document characteristics of the wound and any exudate present

47
Q

burns:
(evaporation from denuded areas is four times that from intact skin)

when burns are large what does the inflammatory response result in, causing what

A

massive shift in water, electrolytes and protein into tissues, causing severe edema

48
Q

burns:
(evaporation from denuded areas is four times that from intact skin)

potassium is released from the damaged cells causing

A

hyperkalemia

49
Q

burns:
(evaporation from denuded areas is four times that from intact skin)

stress response and potassium shifts, causing

this causes

A

hyponatremia

metabolic acidosis

50
Q

burns:
why should rings, bracelets, and watches be removed as soon as possible

A

tourniquet effects when swelling occurs

51
Q

when is the emergent phase of burns

A

24 to 48 hrs, but can last up to 3 days - starts with fluid loss and edema and ends when edema fluid is mobilized and diuresis begins

52
Q

burns:
why is it important to get the details of the accident

A

so a more thorough assessment can be done
knowing the cause of the burn can help determine if there is any possible damage to respiratory tract

53
Q

burns:
when is a tetanus toxoid injection given

A

in the ED, it’s the only initial IM injection given

54
Q

burns:
Parkland formula for fluid resuscitation

when is this given

A

4mL Ringer’s lactate (RL) x % burn x weight in kg

one-half of required fluid is given within 8 hours of the time of burn

second-half given over next 16 hrs

55
Q

burns:
an emergency surgical procedure involving incising through areas of burnt skin to release the eschar and its constrictive effects, restore distal circulation, and allow adequate ventilation

A

escharotomy

56
Q

burns:
donor skin of another person

A

allograft

57
Q

burns:

a tissue graft from a donor of a different species from the recipient

A

xenograft

58
Q

burns:
why is it important to ambulate pt 2-3x a day as soon as the fluid shift has stabilized (if pt does not have fractures or serious injuries to feet or legs)

A

prevent contractures