402-4

Question 1

If requested by a pilot, or if a pilot indicates that they are unfamiliar with the approach procedure, specify the information in Approach Information, as applicable.

Answer 1

Authorized minimum altitude may be a decision height (DH) or a minimum descent altitude (MDA), as applicable.

Question 2

Plan View

Answer 2

Plan view refers to the perspective of the diagram relative to the Earth. In other words, a plan view means you are looking at the Instrument Approach Procedure from above, or a “bird’s eye view”.
The plan view is the largest section of the chart. It provides a pictorial representation of an Instrument Approach similar to a road map. The plan view includes locations, names, frequencies, routes and additional information to help pilots orient themselves. Altitude information is in the form of Minimum IFR Altitudes. Some CAP charts also include altitude information in the form of terrain contours.

Question 3

Aerodrome Chart Information

Aerodrome Chart Identification
Communication
Runway Data
Departure Procedures
Take-off Minima

Answer 3

Question 4

TORA
TODA
ASDA
LDA

Answer 4

Question 5

Find These:
Procedure Identification
Frequencies
Safe Altitude 100 NM
Adjacent Navaid
Minimum Sector Altitude
Missed Approach Instruction
Topographic Altitudes
Aerodrome Coordinates
Aerodrome Identifier
Basic Approach Information (Quick Ref)
Profile View
Approach Minima

Answer 5

Question 6

If adherence to a particular approach procedure is required, and except as indicated in Non-Specific Approach,
specify the approach clearance as indicated in the following table:

Answer 6

Question 7

Profile View

Answer 7

The profile view is located in the lower portion of the CAP chart. The profile view is a graphical representation of the vertical parameters of the Instrument Approach. This is direction to the pilot for the transition from a minimum safe altitude to an altitude from which either a landing or missed approach can be conducted. The standard missed approach instructions are also found in this box.

Question 8

Procedure Turn

Answer 8

This manoeuvre consists of a 45° turn, followed after a set time by a 180° back to the inverse of the initial heading. The purpose is to reverse track and align the aircraft to conduct the final approach, without any track guidance from vectors.

Question 9

TC AIM COM 5.4.2 > GNSS-Based RNAV Approach Procedures

In Canada, RNAV (GNSS) approach charts may depict up to four sets of minima:

Answer 9

(a) LPV (localizer performance with vertical guidance) Precision

(b) LP (localizer performance without vertical guidance)
Non-Precision

(b) LNAV/VNAV; (lateral navigation/vertical navigation)
Precision

(c) LNAV;
(Later navigation)
Non Precision

and

(d) CIRCLING.

Landing minima are displayed for precision and non precision approaches as shown on chart:

Question 10

CIRCLING PROCEDURE

Answer 10

A manoeuvre initiated by the pilot to align the aircraft with a runway for landing when a straight-in landing from an instrument approach is not possible or is not desirable.

(This is NOT the same as a procedure turn!)

Question 11

NON-PRECISION APPROACH PROCEDURE

Answer 11

An instrument approach procedure in which only electronic azimuth information is provided. No electronic glide path information is provided and obstacle assessment in the final segment is based on minimum descent altitude.

White Space:
* The minimum altitude to which an aircraft can descend without visual reference is called the Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA).

Question 12

MINIMUM DESCENT ALTITUDE (MDA)

Answer 12

The altitude above sea level specified in the Canada Air Pilot or the route and approach inventory for a non-precision approach, below which descent must not be made until the required visual reference to continue the approach to land has been established

Question 13

PRECISION APPROACH PROCEDURE

Answer 13

An instrument approach procedure using azimuth and glide path information provided by an instrument landing system, a microwave landing system, or a precision approach radar, one of three types:

• Precision approach CAT I
• Precision approach CAT II
• Precision approach CAT III

White Space:
* The minimum altitude to which an aircraft can descend without visual reference is called the Decision Height (DH).

Question 14

DECISION HEIGHT (DH)

Answer 14

A specified height in the precision approach or approach with vertical guidance at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference to continue the approach to land has not been established

See also: decision altitude

Decision height (DH) is referenced to the threshold elevation and decision altitude (DA) is referenced to mean sea level (MSL).

Question 15

IAWP

IWP

FAWP

MAWP

MAHWP

On exam! Be able to label these on a chart!

Answer 15

IAWP – Initial Approach Waypoint
IWP – Intermediate Approach Waypoint
FAWP - Final Approach Waypoint
MAWP - Missed Approach Waypoint
MAHWP - Missed Approach Holding Waypoint

Question 16

GNSS Overlay Approaches

Answer 16

GNSS overlay approaches are included on certain traditional VOR- or NDB-based approaches that have been approved to be flown using the guidance of IFR approach-certified GNSS avionics. Because of approach design criteria, LOC-based approaches cannot be overlaid.

GNSS overlay approaches are identified in the CAP by including “(GNSS)” after the runway designation (e.g. NDB RWY 04 ([GNSS]).

When using GNSS guidance, the pilot benefits from improved accuracy and situational awareness through a moving map display (if available) and distance to-go indication. In many cases, the pilot can bypass the procedure turn and fly directly to the FAF for a more efficient approach, as long as minimum sector altitudes are respected. Unless required by the AFM or AFM Supplement, when conducting GNSS overlay approaches, the VOR, DME and/or NDB onboard navigation equipment does not need to be installed and/or functioning and the underlying approach navigation aid(s) do(es) not need to be functioning. Nevertheless, good airmanship dictates that all available sources of information be monitored.

Pilots shall request GNSS overlays as follows: “REQUEST GNSS OVERLAY RWY ZERO FOUR.” ATS may ask the pilot to specify the underlying NAVAID if more than one overlay approach is published for the runway.

GNSS overlay approaches were intended to be a transition measure to allow immediate benefits while waiting for the commissioning of a GNSS stand-alone approach for a runway. For this reason, in most cases, the GNSS overlay approach will be discontinued when a GNSS stand-alone approach is published for a given runway.

Question 17

GNSS Overlay Approaches
SUMMARY

Answer 17

• Overlay approaches use existing approach plates and names.
• Pilots request the GNSS overlay approach as follows: “REQUEST GNSS OVERLAY RUNWAY ZERO-FOUR”.
• Overlay approaches are transparent to controllers.
• Pilots may use GNSS to fly an overlay approach when the underlying traditional NAVAID is temporarily out of service.
• Overlay approaches that have been approved for inclusion in GNSS databases are identified by the addition of “(GNSS)” in the title.
• Localizer approaches (LOC) are not approved as overlay approaches.
• May result in lower minima.

Question 18

TC AIM COM 5.4.2 > GNSS-Based RNAV Approach Procedures

GNSS-based RNAV approaches are designed to take full advantage of….

Answer 18

GNSS-based RNAV approaches are designed to take full advantage of GNSS capabilities. A series of waypoints in a “T” or “Y” pattern eliminates the need for a procedure turn. The accuracy of GNSS may result in lower minima and increased capacity at the airport. Because GNSS is not dependent on the location of a ground-based aid, straight-in approaches are possible for most runway ends at an airport.

Question 19

MATS ACC > Traffic Management > Clearances and Instructions > Departure Clearance > Release Time

When the release time is influenced by a specific time or event:

Answer 19

• If an aircraft must depart before a specified time or event, do either of the following:
  ◦ Issue a clearance-cancelled time.
  ◦ State that the clearance will be cancelled by a specified event.
  CLEARANCE CANCELLED IF NOT AIRBORNE BY (time/event)
• If an aircraft must depart after a specified time or event, use the phraseology provided in Phraseology for an Aircraft to Depart Subject to a Specified Time or Event.

Question 20

MATS ACC > Traffic Management > Clearances and Instructions > Departure Clearance > Release Time

When the release time is influenced by a specific time or event:

Issued through a control tower

Answer 20

NOTES for image
The term CLEARANCE VALIDATION REQUIRED is not part of the clearance. This internal ATC phraseology permits the tower controller to deliver the clearance before obtaining release approval from the ACC controller.
An enabling event may be an aircraft arrival, departure, or other traffic situation that may be observed by or reported to the airport controller.

Question 21

MATS ACC > Traffic Management > Clearances and Instructions > Departure Clearance > Release Time

When the release time is influenced by a specific time or event:

NOT Issued through a control tower

Answer 21

Notes for image
15 The pilot must be able to positively determine that the enabling event has occurred. Consider the following possibilities:
– The proposed departure may not be on the same frequency as the conflicting aircraft.
– The proposed departure may not be able to positively distinguish the conflicting aircraft from other similar aircraft.
– A third party may not be aware of the need to relay information to a proposed departure, unless that need is stated by the controller.

Question 22

The communication agency, such as the FSS, FIC, CARS, dispatcher (in emergencies), or others to which a clearance is issued is responsible for transmitting the clearance to the aircraft immediately upon receipt, unless an attempt-delivery time has been specified.

If a communication agency informs you that a clearance has not been delivered, instruct the agency to do one of the following depending on your situation:

Answer 22

• Continue attempting to deliver, and report if undelivered by a specified time.
• Attempt to deliver at a specified time.
• Cancel the clearance.

You will be notified if the clearance is not delivered within 3 minutes after receipt, or the specified attempt‑delivery time.

Question 23

FDE Abbreviations for ILS approach clearance for runway 26

Answer 23

AI26

(Big Arrow Down) ASI26 (straight in)

Question 24

Lettering for Approach clearances

Answer 24

“A” - Controlled Airspace (eg. Sandy ILS 26)
“B” - Unconctrolled Airspace (eg. Draper)

Question 25

FDE Abbreviations for Approach Types

This is on the exam!

Answer 25

CI
converging ILS
D
DME
I
ILS
I2
ILS CAT II
K
contact
LDA
localizer type directional aid
LOC
localizer
N
NDB
O
VOR
PP
AR
R
RNAV(GNSS)
S
straight in
T
TACAN
V
visual

Question 26

FDE Codes examples:

Cleared visual approach runway 8 sandy

Cleared VOR/DME approach into Draper

Answer 26

(Big arrow down)AV08

(Big arrow down)BODA

Question 27

Departure Clearance FDE markings

Controlled vs uncontrolled

Answer 27

For controlled airports, use the big “D” with digits indicating the time the clearance was issued

For uncrontrolled airports, we are clearing the aircraft to enter controlled airspace so we would use a big “E” instead of D

Question 28

Clearance Valid

Answer 28

• CV
  Clearance Valid now
• CV 1234
  Clearance valid at time
• CV AircraftID OVC
  “On, over or cancelled”
  On the ground
  Over: is an “auto over”. by procedure the aircraft is towers control because they have crossed the control zone (only under certain conditions such as weather etc). The aircraft is essentially VFR now
  Cancelled (pilot has cancelled IFR)