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Block 3 and 4 > 401 > Flashcards

401 Flashcards

1
Q

TC AIM RAC 2.7.2 > Control Area Extensions

A

Control area extensions are designated around aerodromes where the controlled airspace provided is insufficient to permit the required separation between IFR arrivals and departures and to contain IFR aircraft within controlled airspace. A control area extension provides:
(a) additional controlled airspace around busy aerodromes for IFR control. The controlled airspace contained within the associated control zone and airway(s) width is not always sufficient to permit the manoeuvring required to separate IFR arrivals and departures; or
(b) connecting controlled airspace, e.g., a control area extension is used to connect a control zone with the enroute structure.
Control area extensions are based at 2 200 ft AGL unless otherwise specified and extend up to, but not including 18 000 ft ASL. (…)

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2
Q

Airspace Classification in West Low

A

The control area extensions in both East Low and West Low begin at 2200 feet AGL and are Class E up to 12 500 feet ASL. The airspace above 12 500 feet ASL to below 18 000 feet ASL is Class B.
Airways begin at 2200 feet AGL and are Class E up to 12 500 feet ASL. Above 12 500 feet ASL to below 18 000 feet ASL is Class B airspace.

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3
Q

CONTROLLED AIRPORT

A

An airport at which an airport control service is provided.

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4
Q

CONTROL ZONE

A

A controlled airspace of defined dimensions extending upwards from the surface of the earth up to and including 3000 ft AAE unless otherwise specified.

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5
Q

DAH 1.3 (Designated Airspace Handbook)

CONTROL ZONES:

A

Controlled airspace of defined dimensions extending upwards from the surface of the earth to 3000’ AAE rounded to the nearest 100 feet, unless otherwise specified.

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6
Q

TC AIM RAC 4.5.4 > Mandatory Frequency (MF)

A

Transport Canada has designated a Mandatory Frequency (MF) for use at selected uncontrolled aerodromes, or aerodromes that are uncontrolled between certain hours. Aircraft operating within the area in which the MF is applicable (MF area), on the ground or in the air, shall be equipped with a functioning radio capable of maintaining two-way communication.

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7
Q

When an aircraft is approaching an MF area….

A

When an aircraft is approaching an MF area, instruct the pilot to change to the MF before reaching the area.

If the pilot needs to leave your frequency to make required Mandatory Frequency Area Reports, advise the pilot to report leaving and returning to ATC frequency.

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8
Q

CARs 602.97 > VFR and IFR Aircraft Operations at Uncontrolled Aerodromes within an MF Area

(1) Subject to subsection (3), no pilot-in-command shall operate…

A

(1) Subject to subsection (3), no pilot-in-command shall operate a VFR or IFR aircraft within an MF area unless the aircraft is equipped with radio communication equipment pursuant to Subpart 5.
(2) The pilot-in-command of a VFR or IFR aircraft operating within an MF area shall maintain a listening watch on the mandatory frequency specified for use in the MF area.
(3) The pilot-in-command of a VFR aircraft that is not equipped with the radio communication equipment referred to in subsection (1) may operate the aircraft to or from an uncontrolled aerodrome that lies within an MF area if
(a) a ground station is in operation at the aerodrome;
(b) prior notice of the pilot-in-command’s intention to operate the aircraft at the aerodrome has been given to the ground station;
(c) when conducting a take-off, the pilot-in-command ascertains by visual observation that there is no likelihood of collision with another aircraft or a vehicle during take-off; and
(d) when approaching for a landing, the aircraft enters the aerodrome traffic circuit from a position that will require it to complete two sides of a rectangular circuit before turning onto the final approach path.

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9
Q

TC AIM RAC 4.5.5 > Aerodrome Traffic Frequency (ATF)

A

An Aerodrome Traffic Frequency (ATF) is normally designated for active uncontrolled aerodromes that do not meet the criteria listed in RAC 4.6.4 for an MF. The ATF is established to ensure that all radio-equipped aircraft operating on the ground or within the area are listening on a common frequency and following common reporting procedures. The ATF will normally be the frequency of the UNICOM where one exists or 123.2 MHz where a UNICOM does not exist. (…)

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10
Q

STANDARD INSTRUMENT DEPARTURE (SID)

A

An IFR ATC departure procedure published in the CAP for pilot and controller use in graphic and textual form. SIDs provide a transition from the terminal to the appropriate enroute structure.

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11
Q

TC AIM RAC 7.6 > Standard Instrument Departure

A

At certain airports, an instrument flight rules (IFR) departure clearance may include departure instructions known as a standard instrument departure (SID). A SID is a planned IFR air traffic control (ATC) departure procedure, published in the Canada Air Pilot (CAP), for pilot and controller use in graphic and textual form. SIDs provide a transition from the terminal to the appropriate en route structure, and may be either

(a) pilot navigation SIDs—established where the pilot is required to use the chart as reference for navigation to the en route phase; or
(b) vector SIDs—established where ATC will provide navigational guidance to a filed/assigned route or to a fix depicted on the chart. Pilots are expected to use the SID chart as reference for navigation until vectoring has commenced.

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12
Q

RSC/CRFI NOTAM

A

A NOTAM disseminated to alert pilots to natural winter surface contaminants such as snow, slush, and ice conditions that could affect aircraft braking and other operational performance. Such NOTAMs are considered special series NOTAMs that, because of their short life and significant volume during the winter season, require non-standard handling.

COMMENT: Note 1: This term is derived from the words “Runway Surface Condition/Canadian Runway Friction Index NOTAM.” Note 2: This NOTAM may also be issued by a military ATC unit as an RSC/JBI NOTAM.

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13
Q

RUNWAY SURFACE CONDITION REPORT (RSC report)

A

Section of the Aircraft Movement Surface Condition Report (AMSCR) which provides runway surface information using a verbal description of the runway condition.

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13
Q

AIRCRAFT MOVEMENT SURFACE CONDITION REPORT (AMSCR)

A

The report that details the surface conditions for all aircraft movement areas including runways, taxiways, and aprons.

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14
Q

Provide an RSC by full runway length using the following phraseology.

A
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15
Q

Provide an RSC by thirds using the following phraseology.

A
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16
Q

When RSC is reported by thirds and all thirds have the same description, use the following phraseology:

A
17
Q

Issue the current RSC and CRFI report for…

A

Issue the current RSC and CRFI report for the intended runway.

It is not required to relay RSC information to the pilot when the runway is cleared to the full width and it is 100% dry.

It is not required to relay CRFI information to the pilot when:

  • CRFI by full runway length is reported as NR.
  • All thirds of CRFI by thirds are reported as NR.
18
Q

CANADIAN RUNWAY FRICTION INDEX (CRFI)

A

The average of the runway friction as measured by a mechanical or electronic decelerometer and reported through the Aircraft Movement Surface Condition Report (AMSCR).

19
Q

CRFI White Space Notes

A

CRFI measurements are taken by a vehicle, usually a pickup truck, which is fitted with a decelerometer. This device measures the deceleration forces acting on the vehicle when the brakes are applied. The vehicle proceeds along the runway at approximately 1000-foot intervals within 30 feet either side of the runway centreline. A long runway could take some time to measure. An average is calculated from the readings and this value is stated in a CRFI report. Increments range from 0 to 1. A smaller number, e.g. .10, represents poorer braking action. The braking coefficient on a bare and dry runway would have a value of about .80. You will find that certain types of aircraft are more affected than others.

20
Q

Provide a CRFI by full runway length using the following phraseology.

A
21
Q

Provide a CRFI by thirds report using the following phraseology.

A
22
Q

When CRFI is reported by thirds and all thirds have the same friction coefficient, use the following phraseology:

A
23
Q

A runway is contaminated when a significant portion of the runway surface area (whether in isolated areas or not) within the length and width being used is covered by one or more of the following substances:

A
  • Compacted snow
  • Dry snow
  • Frost
  • Ice
  • Slush
  • Standing water
  • Wet ice
  • Wet snow
24
Q

If you are relaying a braking action report obtained from the pilot of an aircraft….

A

If you are relaying a braking action report obtained from the pilot of an aircraft, indicate the type of aircraft and the time of the report.

25
Q

If the PPS or data tag for a particular aircraft is not displayed as expected:

A
  • Instruct the pilot to reset the transponder, stating the currently assigned code.
    RESET TRANSPONDER, SQUAWK CODE
  • If resetting the transponder does not resolve the problem, assign a different code.
26
Q

If identification becomes doubtful or is lost, immediately do either of the following:

A
  • Identify or re-identify the aircraft using the same technique more than once or use more than one of the techniques provided in Identification Methods.
  • Terminate ATS surveillance service and apply procedural separation.
27
Q

When identification is lost….

A

When identification is lost, inform the pilot.

IDENTIFICATION LOST

28
Q

Assign an aircraft a discrete code …..

A

Assign an aircraft a discrete code in preference to a non-discrete code.

Due to system limitations regarding the number of codes, minimize discrete code assignment changes

29
Q

If a discrete code is not assigned by ATC

A
  • Gliders use the non-discrete code 1202
  • VFR Aircraft use the following non-discrete codes:
    - 12500 ASL and below 1200
    - Above 12500 ASL: 1400
  • IFR and CVFR aircraft use the following non-discrete codes:
    - HLA: 2000
    - LLA: 1000
30
Q

You may consider an aircraft identified, when the conditions are met for any of the following methods:

(List)

A
  • Transferred or Coordinated Identification
  • Appropriate PPS Changes
  • Aircraft ID in ADS‑B Data Tag
  • Aircraft Position and Movements on Situational Display
31
Q

You may consider an aircraft identified, when the conditions are met for any of the following methods:

Transferred or Coordinated Identification

A

you may consider the aircraft identified when identification is transferred by handoff or coordinated by point out.

32
Q

You may consider an aircraft identified, when the conditions are met for any of the following methods:

Appropriate PPS Changes

A

you may consider the aircraft identified when you observe an appropriate change in the PPS in any of the following situations:

  • After the pilot is instructed to operate the aircraft’s transponder Ident feature
    “SQUAWK IDENT”
    “SQUAWK (code) AND IDENT”
    “TRANSMIT ADS-B IDENT”
  • After the pilot is instructed to change to a transponder code that results in linkage, or that subsequently displays the data tag
  • After the pilot is instructed to change the transponder to “standby” In this situation, the PPS disappears or changes to a PSR symbol. When the pilot is requested to return the transponder to normal operation, the PPS reappears or changes to an SSR symbol. Take enough time to determine that the change is a result of the pilot’s action.
    “SQUAWK STANDBY”
    “SQUAWK (code)”
33
Q

You may consider an aircraft identified, when the conditions are met for any of the following methods:

Aircraft ID in ADS‑B Data Tag

A

you may consider the aircraft identified when the aircraft identification element in an ADS‑B data tag is recognized and is consistent with the aircraft’s expected position.

34
Q

You may consider an aircraft identified, when the conditions are met for any of the following methods:

Aircraft Position and Movements on Situational Display

you may consider the aircraft identified when you observe the aircraft on the situational display and one of the following conditions applies:

(LIST)

A
  • The aircraft’s position is:
  • The aircraft’s position over a fix or an OMNI and DME NAVAID is consistent with a position report received directly from the pilot, and the following apply:
  • The aircraft’s position relative to a fix or an OMNI and DME NAVAID is consistent with a position report received directly from the pilot in the form of a DME or GPS report, and the following apply:
  • The aircraft carries out a specified identifying turn of at least 30°, and the following apply:
35
Q

You may consider an aircraft identified, when the conditions are met for any of the following methods:

Aircraft Position and Movements on Situational Display

you may consider the aircraft identified when you observe the aircraft on the situational display and one of the following conditions applies:

The aircraft’s position is:

A

◦ Within one mile of the departure end of the take‑off runway
◦ Consistent with the time of takeoff and the route of flight or assigned heading of the aircraft

36
Q

You may consider an aircraft identified, when the conditions are met for any of the following methods:

Aircraft Position and Movements on Situational Display

you may consider the aircraft identified when you observe the aircraft on the situational display and one of the following conditions applies:

The aircraft’s position over a fix or an OMNI and DME NAVAID is consistent with a position report received directly from the pilot, and the following apply:

A

◦ The aircraft’s track is consistent with the route of flight or reported heading of the aircraft.
◦ The position of the fix or the OMNI and DME NAVAID is accurately indicated on the situation display.

37
Q

You may consider an aircraft identified, when the conditions are met for any of the following methods:

Aircraft Position and Movements on Situational Display

you may consider the aircraft identified when you observe the aircraft on the situational display and one of the following conditions applies:

The aircraft carries out a specified identifying turn of at least 30°, and the following apply:

A

◦ Except in the case of a lost aircraft, a position report received directly from the aircraft indicates that the aircraft is within ATS surveillance coverage of the area being displayed.
◦ Only one aircraft is observed to have carried out the specified turn.
◦ The track is observed to be consistent with the heading or track of the aircraft both before and after completion of the turn.

38
Q

You may consider an aircraft identified, when the conditions are met for any of the following methods:

Aircraft Position and Movements on Situational Display

you may consider the aircraft identified when you observe the aircraft on the situational display and one of the following conditions applies:

The aircraft’s position relative to a fix or an OMNI and DME NAVAID is consistent with a position report received directly from the pilot in the form of a DME or GPS report, and the following apply:

A

◦ The aircraft’s track is consistent with the route of flight or reported heading of the aircraft.
◦ The position of the fix or the OMNI and DME NAVAID is accurately indicated on the situation display.

39
Q

Because of mechanical and operational limitations, runway friction readings produced by decelerometer devices may result in inaccurate readings under certain surface conditions. As a result, runway friction readings will not be taken and a CRFI will not be provided to ATS or pilots when any of the following conditions are present:

A
  • The runway surface is simply wet with no other type of contamination present;
  • There is a layer of slush on the runway surface with no other type of contamination present; or
  • There is loose snow on the runway surface exceeding 2.5 cm (1 inch) in depth.

Block 3 and 4 (11 decks)

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