400-600 Flashcards
1
Q
Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend
analysis are examples of which tool or technique?
A. Expert judgment
B. Forecasting methods
C. Earned value management
D. Analytical techniques
A
Analytical techniques
2
Q
The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group? A. Executing B. Monitoring and Controlling C. Initiating D. Planning
A
Executing
3
Q
An input to the Manage Project Team process is: A. Work performance reports. B. Change requests. C. Activity resource requirements. D. Enterprise environmental factors.
A
Work performance reports.
4
Q
Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes? A. Procurement statement of work B. Purchase order C. Source selection criteria D. Bidder conference
A
Procurement statement of work
5
Q
A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which Process Group? A. Executing B. Planning C. Monitoring and Controlling D. Closing
A
Executing
6
Q
A project manager providing information to the right audience, in the right format, at the right time
is an example of which type of communication?
A. Efficient
B. Effective
C. Push
D. Pull
A
Effective
7
Q
A project charter is an output of which Process Group? A. Executing B. Planning C. Initiating D. Closing
A
Initiating
8
Q
Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result? A. Inspection B. Variance analysis C. Decomposition D. Product analysis
A
Product analysis
9
Q
The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is known as: A. Plan Human Resource Management. B. Acquire Project Team. C. Manage Project Team. D. Develop Project Team
A
Acquire Project Team.
10
Q
An input to Conduct Procurements is: A. Independent estimates. B. Selected sellers. C. Seller proposals. D. Resource calendars
A
Seller proposals.
11
Q
What are the Project Procurement Management processes?
A. Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, Integrate Procurements, and Close
Procurements
B. Estimate Procurements, Integrate Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate
Procurements
C. Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, and Close
Procurements
D. Plan Procurement Management, Perform Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate
Procurements
A
Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, and Close
Procurements
12
Q
Which tool or technique is used to develop the human resource management plan? A. Ground rules B. Expert judgment C. Team-building activities D. Interpersonal skills
A
Expert judgment
13
Q
Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life cycle? A. Only once, at the beginning B. At the beginning and the end C. Once during each phase D. Repeatedly
A
Repeatedly
14
Q
The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurements is provided by: A. A risk urgency assessment. B. The scope baseline. C. Work performance information. D. Procurement audits
A
Work performance information.
15
Q
Typical outcomes of a project include: A. Products, services, and improvements. B. Products, programs, and services. C. Improvements, portfolios, and services. D. Improvements, processes, and products
A
Products, services, and improvements
16
Q
Which grid shows which resources are tied to work packages?
A. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
B. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
C. Project assignment chart
D. Personnel assignment matrix
A
Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
17
Q
The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater
amounts of information become available is known as:
A. Continuous improvement.
B. Predictive planning.
C. Progressive elaboration.
D. Quality assurance
A
Progressive elaboration
18
Q
Status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, and forecasted estimates to complete are examples of: A. Earned value management. B. Enterprise environmental factors. C. Organizational process assets. D. Work performance information
A
Work performance information.
19
Q
Which item is an output of Plan Quality Management and an input to Perform Quality Assurance? A. Organizational process updates B. Quality metrics C. Change requests D. Quality control measurements
A
Quality metrics
20
Q
A project manager managing a cross-cultural virtual project team across several time zones
should be concerned about the impacts of which communication technology factor?
A. Urgent information need
B. Sensitivity of information
C. Project environment
D. Ease of use
A
Project environment
21
Q
The number of potential communication channels for a project with 5 stakeholders is: A. 10. B. 12. C. 20. D. 24.
A
10.
22
Q
Which tool or technique of the Define Activities process allows for work to exist at various levels of
detail depending on where it is in the project life cycle?
A. Historical relationships
B. Dependency determination
C. Bottom-up estimating
D. Rolling wave planning
A
Rolling wave planning
23
Q
An output of the Create WBS process is: A. Scope baseline. B. Change requests. C. Accepted deliverables. D. Variance analysis
A
Scope baseline.
24
Q
A tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process is: A. Expert judgment. B. Performance reporting. C. Bidder conferences. D. Reserve analysis
A
Performance reporting.
25
```
Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates, best practices, and training to
project teams?
A. Supportive
B. Directive
C. Controlling
D. Instructive
```
Supportive
26
Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple
components associated with each activity?
A. Project document updates
B. Activity list
C. Activity attributes
D. Project calendars
Activity attributes
27
```
An input to the Identify Stakeholders process is:
A. The project management plan.
B. The stakeholder register.
C. Procurement documents.
D. Stakeholder analysis.
```
Procurement documents
28
What is the estimate at completion (EAC) if the budget at completion (BAC) is $100, the actual
cost (AC) is $50, and the earned value (EV) is $25?
A. $50
B. $100
C. $125
D. $200
$200
```
CPI = EV/ AC = 25/50 = 0.5
EAC = BAC/ CPI = 100/0.5 = $200
```
29
```
Job satisfaction, challenging work, and sufficient financial compensation are values related to
which interpersonal skill?
A. Influencing
B. Motivation
C. Negotiation
D. Trust building
```
Motivation
30
```
A project manager should communicate to stakeholders about resolved project issues by updating the:
A. project records
B. project reports
C. stakeholder notifications
D. stakeholder register
```
stakeholder notifications
31
A disadvantage associated with virtual teams is that they:
A. Require communication technology that is not readily available.
B. Create difficulties when including people with disabilities.
C. Often cannot accommodate teams that work different hours or shifts.
D. Create the possibility for misunderstandings to arise.
Create the possibility for misunderstandings to arise.
32
In which phase of team building activities do team members begin to work together and adjust
their work habits and behavior to support the team?
A. Performing
B. Storming
C. Norming
D. Forming
Norming
33
The Project Human Resource Management process that involves confirming human resource
availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is:
A. Acquire Project Team.
B. Plan Human Resource Management.
C. Manage Project Team.
D. Develop Project Team
Acquire Project Team.
34
```
For a stakeholder with low interest and high power, the project manager should:
A. Monitor the stakeholder.
B. Manage the stakeholder closely.
C. Keep the stakeholder satisfied.
D. Keep the stakeholder informed.
```
Keep the stakeholder satisfied.
35
```
In a typical project, project managers spend most of their time:
A. Estimating
B. Scheduling
C. Controlling
D. Communicating
```
Communicating
36
Which schedule method allows the project team to place buffers on the project schedule path to
account for limited resources and project uncertainties?
A. Critical path method
B. Critical chain method
C. Resource leveling
D. Schedule network analysis
Critical chain method
37
```
Correlated and contextualized information on how closely the scope is being maintained relative to
the scope baseline is contained within:
A. project documents updates.
B. project management plan updates.
C. change requests.
D. work performance information
```
work performance information.
38
The most appropriate project life cycle model for an environment with a high level of change and
extensive stakeholder involvement in projects is:
A. adaptive
B. reflexive
C. predictive
D. iterative
adaptive
39
```
Variance and trend analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Control Risks
D. Plan Risk Responses
```
Control Risks
40
```
An intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component is called:
A. defect repair
B. work repair
C. corrective action
D. preventive action
```
defect repair
41
```
Which quality tool incorporates the upper and lower specification limits allowed within an
agreement?
A. Control chart
B. Flowchart
C. Checksheet
D. Pareto diagram
```
Control chart
42
```
Analytical techniques are a tool and technique of which process in Project Procurement
Management?
A. Plan Procurement Management
B. Control Procurements
C. Conduct Procurements
D. Close Procurements
```
Conduct Procurements
43
```
The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract is called:
A. Close Procurements.
B. Control Procurements.
C. Plan Procurements.
D. Conduct Procurements.
```
Conduct Procurements.
44
```
Impacts to other organizational areas, levels of service, and acceptance criteria are typical
components of which document?
A. Business case
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Requirements documentation
D. Risk register
```
Requirements documentation
45
```
Which Process Group includes the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Initiating
```
Executing
46
```
In complex projects/ initiating processes should be completed:
A. Within a work package.
B. In each phase of the project.
C. To estimate schedule constraints.
D. To estimate resource allocations.
```
In each phase of the project.
47
```
A project manager requesting industry groups and consultants to recommend project intervention
is relying on:
A. Communication models.
B. Stakeholder participation.
C. Expert judgment
D. Enterprise environmental factors
```
Expert judgment
48
Tools and techniques used in Direct and Manage Project Work include:
A. Process analysis and expert judgment
B. Analytical techniques and a project management information system
C. Performance reviews and meetings
D. Expert judgment and meetings
Expert judgment and meetings
49
Which of the Perform Quality Assurance tools and techniques may enhance the creation of the
work breakdown structure (WBS) to give structure to the decomposition of the scope?
A. Activity network diagrams
B. Affinity diagrams
C. Matrix diagrams
D. Interrelationship digraphs
Affinity diagrams
50
```
A project manager who communicates to the project team though email is using which type of
communication?
A. Formal
B. Informal r
C. Horizontal
D. Unofficial
```
Informal r
51
```
An input to the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:
A. expert judgment
B. seller proposals
C. the project charter
D. the project management plan
```
the project management plan
52
```
Managing ongoing production of goods and services to ensure business continues efficiently
describes which type of management?
A. Portfolio
B. Project
C. Program
D. Operations
```
Operations
53
Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is
responsible for achieving the project objectives?
A. Program
B. Functional
C. Project
D. Portfolio
Project
54
Which of the seven basic quality tools is especially useful for gathering attributes data while
performing inspections to identify defects?
A. Histograms
B. Scatter diagrams
C. Flowcharts
D. Checksheets
Checksheets
55
```
The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in the precedence diagramming method
(PDM) is:
A. start-to-start (SS)
B. start-to-finish (SF)
C. finish-to-start (FS)
D. finish-to-finish (FF)
```
finish-to-start (FS)
56
```
Which technique is used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?
A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Probability and impact matrix
C. Risk data quality assessment
D. Risk categorization
```
Sensitivity analysis
57
Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team
members?
A. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
B. Network diagrams
C. Staffing management plan
D. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
58
```
Which tools or techniques will a project manager use for Develop Project Team?
A. Negotiation
B. Roles and responsibilities
C. Recognition and rewards
D. Prizing and promoting
```
Recognition and rewards
59
```
Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?
A. Requested changes
B. Approved change requests
C. Work performance information
D. Implemented defect repair
```
Approved change requests
60
When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model?
A. Before constraints have been identified
B. Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method
C. After it has been analyzed by the critical path method
D. After critical activities have been removed from the critical path
After it has been analyzed by the critical path method
61
While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect
will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this
situation?
A. Utilize the change control process
B. Crash the schedule to fix the defect.
C. Leave the defect in and work around it.
D. Fast-track the remaining development
Utilize the change control process
62
```
Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes, and procedures?
A. Scope audits
B. Scope reviews
C. Quality audits
D. Control chart
```
Quality audits
63
```
Which type of analysis would be used for the Plan Quality process?
A. Schedule
B. Checklist
C. Assumption
D. Cost-Benefit
```
Cost-Benefit
64
```
The integrative nature of project management requires which Process Group to interact with the
other Process Groups?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Project Management
```
Monitoring and Controlling
65
```
Which Process Group typically consumes the bulk of a project's budget?
A. Monitoring and Controlling
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Initiating
```
Executing
66
```
Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely
manner?
A. Plan Communications
B. Performance reporting
C. Project status reports
D. Distribute Information
```
Distribute Information
67
```
What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships?
A. Role dependencies chart
B. Reporting flow diagram
C. Project organization chart
D. Project team structure diagram
```
Project organization chart
68
```
Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associated WBS
and WBS dictionary?
A. Scope plan
B. Product scope
C. Scope management plan
D. Scope baseline
```
Scope baseline
69
```
Activity resource requirements and the resource breakdown structure (RBS) are outputs of which
Project Time Management process?
A. Control Schedule
B. Define Activities
C. Develop Schedule
D. Estimate Activity Resources
```
Estimate Activity Resources
70
A change log for communications can be used to communicate to the appropriate stakeholders
that there are changes:
A. To the project management plan.
B. To the risk register.
C. In the scope verification processes.
D. And their impact to the project in terms of time, cost, and risk.
And their impact to the project in terms of time, cost, and risk.
71
```
A procurement management plan is a subsidiary of which other type of plan?
A. Resource plan
B. Project management plan
C. Cost control plan
D. Expected monetary value plan
```
Project management plan
72
```
To which process is work performance information an input?
A. Administer Procurements
B. Direct and Manage Project Execution
C. Create WBS
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
```
Direct and Manage Project Execution
73
```
Which defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?
A. Procurement management plan
B. Evaluation criteria
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Procurement statement of work
```
Procurement statement of work
74
The Human Resource Management processes are:
A. Develop Human Resource Plan, Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team, and Manage
Project Team.
B. Acquire Project Team, Manage Project Team, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Develop
Project Team.
C. Acquire Project Team, Develop Human Resource Plan, Conflict Management, and Manage
Project Team.
D. Develop Project Team, Manage Project Team, Estimate Activity Resources, and Acquire
Project Team.
Develop Human Resource Plan, Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team, and Manage
Project Team.
75
```
What are the formal and informal policies, procedures, and guidelines that could impact how the
project's scope is managed?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Enterprise environmental factors
C. Project management processes
D. Project scope management plan
```
Organizational process assets
76
```
Organizational planning impacts projects by means of project prioritization based on risk, funding,
and an organizations:
A. Budget plan
B. Resource plan
C. Scope plan
D. Strategic plan
```
Strategic plan
77
A project management office manages a number of aspects including the:
A. Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages.
B. Central coordination of communication management across projects.
C. Assignment of project resources to best meet project objectives.
D. Overall risk, overall opportunity, and interdependencies among projects at the enterprise level
Overall risk, overall opportunity, and interdependencies among projects at the enterprise level
78
```
Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?
A. Cost-benefit analysis
B. Variance analysis
C. Reserve analysis
D. Stakeholder analysis
```
Variance analysis
79
```
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data? BAC = $100,000 PV =
$50,000 AC = $80,000 EV = $40,000
A. 1
B. 0.4
C. 0.5
D. 0.8
```
0.8
80
```
Which tool and technique is used in Conduct Procurements?
A. Teaming agreements
B. Expert judgment
C. Bidder conferences
D. Contract types
```
Bidder conferences
81
```
Which tool and technique is used in Conduct Procurements?
A. Teaming agreements
B. Expert judgment
C. Bidder conferences
D. Contract types
```
Bidder conferences
82
```
What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units behave?
A. Organizational chart
B. Organizational theory
C. Organizational structure
D. Organizational behavior
```
Organizational theory
83
What is a deliverable-oriented, hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to
accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables?
A. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)
B. Work performance information
C. Work package
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
Work breakdown structure (WBS)
84
```
Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution process?
A. Approved change requests
B. Approved contract documentation
C. Work performance information
D. Rejected change requests
```
Approved change requests
85
```
Which of the following factors is lowest at the start of the project?
A. Cost of changes
B. Stakeholder influences
C. Risk
D. Uncertainty
```
Cost of changes
86
```
In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?
A. Project Scope Management
B. Project Time Management
C. Project Communications Management
D. Project Quality Management
```
Project Quality Management
87
```
Ensuring that both parties meet contractual obligations and that their own legal rights are
protected is a function of:
A. Conduct Procurements.
B. Close Procurements.
C. Administer Procurements,
D. Plan Procurements.
```
Administer Procurements,
88
```
In which process might a project manager use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Risk Control
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Plan Risk Responses
```
Risk Control
89
```
A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is the
simplest form of what type of contract?
A. Cost-reimbursable
PMI PMI-001 Exam
"
B. Time and material
C. Fixed price or lump-sum
D. Cost-plus-fixed-fee
```
Fixed price or lump-sum
90
```
Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct?
A. Configuration Identification
B. Configuration Status Accounting
C. Configuration Verification and Audit
D. Configuration Quality Assurance
```
Configuration Verification and Audit
91
Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and
organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project management process?
A. Plan Risk Responses
B. Manage Stakeholder Expectations
C. Define Scope
D. Report Performance
Manage Stakeholder Expectations
92
```
Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships between project
activities?
A. Develop Schedule
B. Sequence Activities
C. Create WBS
D. Applying leads and lags
```
Sequence Activities
93
A method to manage stakeholder expectations in the scope statement is to clearly:
A. state the guiding principles of the organization.
B. identify alternatives to generate different approaches.
C. state what is out of scope.
D. outline the results of the Delphi technique.
state what is out of scope.
94
```
Which type of management focuses on ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to
prioritize resource allocation?
A. Project
B. Functional
C. Program
D. Portfolio
```
Portfolio
95
```
One of the tools and techniques of the Manage Project Team process is:
A. organization charts.
B. ground rules.
C. organizational theory,
D. conflict management.
```
conflict management.
96
```
The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project progress and manage
changes to the schedule baseline is:
A. Control Schedule.
B. Quality Control.
C. Perform Integrated Change Control.
D. Develop Schedule
```
Control Schedule.
97
When large or complex projects are separated into distinct phases or subprojects, all of the
Process Groups would normally be:
A. divided among each of the phases or subprojects.
B. repeated for each of the phases or subprojects.
C. linked to specific phases or subprojects.
D. integrated for specific phases or subprojects
repeated for each of the phases or subprojects
98
The project manager at an organization has just realized that some of the engineering staff has
been allocated to project Y and will not be available to finish task X. The project manager has also
discovered that at the current pace, it will not be possible to complete the project on time. Due to
cost constraints, hiring more work force is not a viable option. Which tools are at the manager's
disposal?
A. Resource leveling and fast tracking
B. Fast tracking and crashing
C. Crashing and applying leads and lags
D. Scheduling tools and applying leads and lags
Resource leveling and fast tracking
99
```
Which process should be conducted from the project inception through completion?
A. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Perform Quality Control
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Monitor and Control Risks
```
Perform Integrated Change Control
100
Which of the following is developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion
of the project scope that is to be included within a related contract?
A. Product scope description
B. Procurement statement of work
C. Project schedule
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
Procurement statement of work
