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PMI PMP v6 Version: 42.1 > 201-400 > Flashcards

201-400 Flashcards

1
Q 
Which type of tool would be used for the quality planning activity?
A. Schedule Analysis
B. Checklist Analysis
C. Assumption Analysis
D. Cost-Benefit Analysis
A

Cost-Benefit Analysis

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2
Q

Within a matrix organization, dual reporting of team members is a risk for project success. Who is
responsible for managing this dual reporting relationship factor?
A. Functional manager
B. Project manager
C. Functional manager supported by the project manager
D. Project management office

A

Project manager

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3
Q 
Which of the following is an example of contract administration?
A. Negotiating the contract
B. Authorizing contractor work
C. Developing the statement of work
D. Establishing evaluation criteria
A

Authorizing contractor work

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4
Q 
Which of the following forecasting methods uses historical data as the basis for estimating future
outcomes?
A. Time series
B. Judgmental
C. Econometric
D. Simulation
A

Time series

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5
Q

What is the definition of project plan execution?
A. Integrating all planned activities
B. Performing the activities included in the plan
C. Developing and maintaining the plan
D. Execution of deliverables

A

Performing the activities included in the plan

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6
Q 
Which of the following is an example of a technique used in quantitative risk analysis?
A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Probability and impact matrix
C. Risk data quality assessment
D. Risk categorization
A

Sensitivity analysis

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7
Q 
The project charter is an input to which process?
A. Develop Project Charter
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
A

Develop Project Management Plan

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8
Q

What is Project Portfolio Management?
A. Management of a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects.
B. Management of a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills, such as planning,
organizing, staffing, executing and controlling.
C. Management of all projects undertaken by a company.
D. Management of a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective
management and meet strategic business objectives.

A

Management of a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective
management and meet strategic business objectives

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9
Q 
What process determines which risks might affect the project?
A. Qualitative risk analysis
B. Identify Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Quantitative risk analysis
A

Identify Risks

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10
Q 
In which process group is the scope first defined?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Controlling
A

Initiating

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11
Q

The product scope description is used to:
A. Gain stakeholders support for the project.
B. Document the characteristics of the product.
C. Describe the project in great detail.
D. Formally authorize the project

A

Document the characteristics of the product

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12
Q

Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during cost estimating?
A. Marketplace conditions and commercial databases
B. Marketplace conditions and company structure
C. Commercial databases and company structure
D. Existing human resources and market place conditions

A

Marketplace conditions and commercial databases

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13
Q

What are the five Project Management Process Groups?
A. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing
B. Introduction, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing
C. Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Ending
D. Introduction, Planning, Implementation, Monitoring and Controlling

A

Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing

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14
Q

PMBOI Guide is a standard that describes:
A. product-oriented processes.
B. project management processes.
C. product-oriented and project management processes.
D. program management and project management processes.

A

project management processes

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15
Q 
Which is an input to the Scope Verification Process?
A. Performance report
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Requested changes
D. Project scope statement
A

Project scope statement

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16
Q 
Which is the document that presents a hierarchical project organization?
A. WBS
B. CPI
C. OBS
D. BOM
A

OBS

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17
Q 
Which of the following is an input to the Qualitative Risk Analysis process?
A. Risk register
B. Risk data quality assessment
C. Risk categorization
D. Risk urgency
A

Risk register

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18
Q

In the Initiating Process Group, at what point does the project become officially authorized?
A. When the project charter is signed
B. When all the stakeholders agree on the scope of the project
C. When the project manager is appointed
D. When the necessary finance or funding is obtained

A

When the project charter is signed

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19
Q 
Which of the following is the process of identifying the specific actions to be performed to produce
the project deliverables?
A. Estimate Activity Durations
B. Sequence Activities
C. Define Activities
D. Activity Attributes
A

Define Activities

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20
Q

For any given project, the project manager, in collaboration with the project team, is responsible
for:
A. Applying knowledge, skills, and processes uniformly.
B. Informing the project sponsor about which processes are going to be used.
C. Tailoring the processes to fit the abilities of the organization.
D. Determining which particular processes are appropriate

A

Determining which particular processes are appropriate

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21
Q

What entity is assigned various responsibilities related to the centralized and coordinated
management of those projects under its domain?
A. Project management office
B. Project team office
C. Executive sponsor office
D. Program management office

A

Project management office

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22
Q 
Stakeholder management strategy is an output of:
A. Plan Communications.
B. Distribute Information.
C. Report Performance.
D. Identify Stakeholders
A

Identify Stakeholders

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23
Q 
What characteristics do a project and operational work share in common?
A. Performed by systems
B. Constrained by limited resources
C. Repetitiveness
D. Uniqueness
A

Constrained by limited resources

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24
Q

Inputs to Identifying Stakeholders include:
A. Project charter, procurement documents, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational
process assets.
B. Project charter, stakeholder analysis, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational
process assets.
C. Project charter, stakeholder analysis, enterprise environmental factors, and stakeholder
management strategy.
D. Project charter, procurement documents, expert judgment, and organizational process assets.

A

Project charter, procurement documents, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational
process assets.

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25
Q 
Which tool or technique is used to develop a project charter?
A. Project manager information systems
B. Expert judgment
C. Change control meetings
D. Brainstorming
A

Expert judgment

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26
Q 
Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Develop Project Team process?
A. Acquisitions
B. Organizational theories
C. Team-building activities
D. Virtual teams
A

Team-building activities

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27
Q 
The Cost Management processes and their associated tools and techniques are usually selected
during which of the following?
A. Project finance management
B. Project cost estimation
C. Project life cycle definition
D. Project plan development
A

Project life cycle definition

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28
Q 
The project governance approach should be described in the:
A. change control plan
B. project scope
C. statement of work
D. project management plan
A

project management plan

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29
Q

A primary function of a project management office is to support project managers in a variety of
ways, including which of the following?
A. Developing and managing project policies, procedures, templates, and other shared
documentation
B. Acting as the project sponsor by providing financial resources to the project
C. Resolving issues and change management within a shared governance structure
D. Aligning organizational/strategic direction that affects project and program goals

A

Developing and managing project policies, procedures, templates, and other shared
documentation

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30
Q

A project can be defined as a:
A. Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result
B. Temporary endeavor that produces repetitive outputs
C. Permanent endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result
D. Permanent endeavor that produces repetitive outputs

A

Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result

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31
Q 
Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?
A. Strategic plan
B. Project charter
C. Project management plan
D. Service level agreement
A

Project management plan

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32
Q 
Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?
A. Document analysis
B. Observations
C. Product analysis
D. Expert judgment
A

Expert judgment

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33
Q 
Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?
A. Independent estimates
B. Market research
C. Analytical techniques
D. Bidder conferences
A

Market research

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34
Q 
An input used in developing the communications management plan is:
A. Communication models.
B. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. Organizational communications
D. Organizational cultures and styles
A

Enterprise environmental factors

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35
Q 
Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?
A. Control Scope
B. Define Scope
C. Plan Scope Management
D. Collect Requirements
A

Plan Scope Management

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36
Q 
Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to
project objectives?
A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses
A

Plan Risk Responses

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37
Q

The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing,
managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:
A. Plan Schedule Management.
B. Develop Project Charter.
C. Develop Schedule.
D. Plan Scope Management

A

Plan Schedule Management

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38
Q 
An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:
A. The project charter.
B. The stakeholder analysis.
C. A communication management plan.
D. A stakeholder register
A

A stakeholder register

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39
Q 
An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:
A. Cost estimates.
B. Resource calendars,
C. The project charter,
D. The risk register
A

The project charter

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40
Q

The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and
reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:
A. Develop Project Team.
B. Manage Project Team.
C. Acquire Project Team.
D. Plan Human Resource Management

A

Plan Human Resource Management

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41
Q 
A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is
following a life cycle that is:
A. Adaptive
B. Predictive
C. Incremental
D. Iterative
A

Predictive

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42
Q

Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in
any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?
A. Interrelationship digraphs
B. Tree diagram
C. Affinity diagram
D. Network diagram

A

Tree diagram

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43
Q 
The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the
end of the project life cycle is:
A. Planning.
B. Executing,
C. Monitoring and Controlling.
D. Closing.
A

Planning.

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44
Q 
Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?
A. Manage Project Team
B. Acquire Project Team
C. Develop Project Team
D. Plan Human Resource Management
A

Plan Human Resource Management

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45
Q

Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?
A. Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques
B. Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings
C. Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis
D. Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings

A

Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings

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46
Q

A project manager is appointed full-time to a project and is given full-time administrative staff and
full-time project team members. This situation describes which type of organizational structure?
A. Projectized
B. Weak matrix
C. Functional
D. Balanced matrix

A

Projectized

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47
Q 
The Plan Stakeholder Management process belongs to which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Initiating
C. Planning
D. Monitoring and Controlling
A

Planning

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48
Q

A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the
expected product before actually building is known as:
A. Benchmarking.
B. Context diagrams.
C. Brainstorming.
D. Prototyping

A

Prototyping.

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49
Q 
Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and
their active involvement in the project?
A. Power/influence grid
B. Power/interest grid
C. Influence/impact grid
D. Salience model
A

Power/influence grid

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50
Q 
Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?
A. Facilitation techniques
B. Expert judgment
C. Analytical techniques
D. Variance analysis
A

Analytical techniques

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51
Q 
Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify
defects?
A. Control charts
B. Pareto diagrams
C. Ishikavva diagrams
D. Checksheets
A

Checksheets

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52
Q

The process of estimating the type and quantity of material, human resources, equipment, or
supplies required to perform each activity is known as:
A. Collect Requirements.
B. Conduct Procurements.
C. Estimate Activity Durations.
D. Estimate Activity Resources

A

Estimate Activity Resources

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53
Q 
Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?
A. Change request
B. Requirements documentation
C. Scope baseline
D. Risk urgency assessment
A

Change request

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54
Q 
Which process determines the risks that may affect the project and documents their
characteristics?
A. Control Risks
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Plan Risk Responses
D. Identify Risks
A

Identify Risks

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55
Q 
An example of a group decision-ma king technique is:
A. Nominal group technique.
B. Majority.
C. Affinity diagram.
D. Multi-criteria decision analysis
A

Majority.

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56
Q

Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular
upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?
A. Enhance
B. Share
C. Exploit
D. Accept

A

Exploit

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57
Q 
Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net
present value are all examples of:
A. Expert judgment.
B. Analytical techniques.
C. Earned value management.
D. Group decision-making techniques
A

Analytical techniques

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58
Q

The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed
throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component?
A. Timing
B. Methodology
C. Risk categories
D. Budgeting

A

Timing

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59
Q

Using values such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight,
and complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or
measurement for a current project describes which type of estimating?
A. Bottom-up
B. Parametric
C. Analogous
D. Three-point

A

Analogous

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60
Q 
Sending letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes to share information is an example of which
type of communication?
A. Direct
B. Interactive
C. Pull
D. Push
A

Push

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61
Q 
Which process involves defining, preparing, and coordinating all subsidiary plans and integrating
them into a comprehensive plan?
A. Direct and Manage Project Work
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Plan Quality Management
D. Monitor and Control Project Work
A

Develop Project Management Plan

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62
Q

Inputs to the Plan Schedule Management process include:
A. Organizational process assets and the project charter,
B. Enterprise environmental factors and schedule tools.
C. Time tables and Pareto diagrams.
D. Activity attributes and resource calendars

A

Organizational process assets and the project charter,

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63
Q 
A strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis is a tool or technique used
in which process?
A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
A

Identify Risks

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64
Q

Which process identifies whether the needs of a project can best be met by acquiring products,
services, or results outside of the organization?
A. Plan Procurement Management
B. Control Procurements
C. Collect Requirements
D. Plan Cost Management

A

Plan Procurement Management

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65
Q 
The planned work contained in the lowest level of work breakdown structure (WBS) components is
known as:
A. Work packages.
B. Accepted deliverables.
C. The WBS dictionary
D. The scope baseline
A

Work packages.

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66
Q

When should quality planning be performed?
A. While developing the project charter
B. In parallel with the other planning processes
C. As part of a detailed risk analysis
D. As a separate step from the other planning processes

A

In parallel with the other planning processes

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67
Q 
Risk categorization is a tool or technique used in which process?
A. Plan Risk Responses
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
A

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

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68
Q

A regression line is used to estimate:
A. Whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance.
B. How a change to the independent variable influences the value of the dependent variable.
C. The upper and lower specification limits on a control chart.
D. The central tendency, dispersion, and shape of a statistical distribution.

A

How a change to the independent variable influences the value of the dependent variable.

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69
Q

Units of measure, level of precision, level of accuracy, control thresholds, and rules of
performance measurement are examples of items that are established in the:
A. Cost management plan.
B. Work performance information.
C. Quality management plan.
D. Work breakdown structure.

A

Cost management plan.

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70
Q

When does the project team determine which dependencies are discretionary?
A. Before the Define Activities process
B. During the Define Activities process
C. Before the Sequence Activities process
D. During the Sequence Activities process

A

During the Sequence Activities process

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71
Q 
Which process involves subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more
manageable portions?
A. Develop Schedule
B. Create VVBS
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Define Scope
A

Create WBS

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72
Q

In a project, total float measures the:
A. Ability to shuffle schedule activities to lessen the duration of the project.
B. Amount of time an activity can be extended or delayed without altering the project finish date.
C. Cost expended to restore order to the project schedule after crashing the schedule.
D. Estimate of the total resources needed for the project after performing a forward pass

A

Amount of time an activity can be extended or delayed without altering the project finish date.

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73
Q 
Project deliverables that have been completed and checked for correctness through the Control
Quality process are known as:
A. Verified deliverables.
B. Validated deliverables.
C. Acceptance criteria.
D. Activity resource requirements
A

Verified deliverables

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74
Q 
Which quality tool may prove useful in understanding and estimating the cost of quality in a
process?
A. Checksheets
B. Histograms
C. Flowcharts
D. Control charts
A

Flowcharts

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75
Q

A graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships is known as a:
A.Resource calendar.
B.Project organization chart.
C.Resource breakdown structure (RBS).
D.Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM).

A

Project organization chart.

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76
Q

Which items are components of a project management plan?
A. Change management plan, process improvement plan, and scope management plan
B. Agreements, procurement management plan, and work performance information
C. Schedule management plan, project schedule, and resource calendars
D. Scope baseline, project statement of work, and requirements traceability matrix

A

Change management plan, process improvement plan, and scope management plan

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77
Q 
Which project document is updated in the Control Stakeholder Engagement process?
A. Project reports
B. Issue log
C. Lessons learned documentation
D. Work performance information
A

Issue log

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78
Q 
Which Project Time Management process includes bottom-up estimating as a tool or technique?
A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Develop Schedule
A

Estimate Activity Resources

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79
Q 
Progressively elaborating high-level information into detailed plans is performed by the:
A. project management office
B. portfolio manager
C. program manager
D. project manager
A

project manager

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80
Q

One of the key benefits of the Plan Human Resource Management process is that it:
A. outlines team selection guidelines and team member responsibilities.
B. establishes project roles and responsibilities.
C. improves teamwork, interpersonal skills, and competencies.
D. provides an accurate appraisal of team member performance

A

establishes project roles and responsibilities

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81
Q

Which Define Activities tool or technique is used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and
project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts?
A. Decomposition
B. Inspection
C. Project analysis
D. Document analysis

A

Decomposition

82
Q

In the Define Activities process, the schedule management plan is used to:
A. Capture the lessons learned from other projects for comparison.
B. Contain the standard activity list.
C. Document and support the project change requests.
D. Prescribe the level of detail needed to manage the work

A

Prescribe the level of detail needed to manage the work.

83
Q

A project team attempts to produce a deliverable and finds that they have neither the expertise nor
the time to complete the deliverable in a timely manner. This issue could have been avoided if
they had created and followed a:
A. risk management plan
B. human resource management plan
C. scope management plan
D. procurement management plan

A

procurement management plan

84
Q

A benefit of using virtual teams in the Acquire Project Team process is the reduction of the:
A. cultural differences of team members
B. possibility of communication misunderstandings
C. costs associated with travel
D. costs associated with technology

A

costs associated with travel

85
Q 
A special type of bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative importance of the variables is called a:
A. triangular distribution
B. tornado diagram
C. beta distribution
D. fishbone diagram
A

tornado diagram

86
Q

A full-time project manager with low to moderate authority and part-time administrative staff is
working in an organizational structure with which type of matrix?
A. Strong
B. Weak
C. Managed
D. Balanced

A

Balanced

87
Q

Project Scope Management is primarily concerned with:
A. Developing a detailed description of the project and product.
B. Determining how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed.
C. Defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project.
D. Formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables

A

Defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project.

88
Q 
The lowest level normally depicted in a work breakdown structure (WBS) is called a/an:
A. work package
B. deliverable
C. milestone
D. activity
A

work package

89
Q 
The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:
A. organizational process assets
B. a requirements traceability matrix
C. the project charter
D. the project management plan
A

the project management plan

90
Q 
Which Manage Communications tool or technique focuses on identifying and managing barriers?
A. Communication methods
B. Information technology
C. Communication models
D. Information management systems
A

Communication models

91
Q 
Which type of organizational structure is displayed in the diagram provided?
A. Balanced matrix
B. Projectized
C. Strong matrix
D. Functional
A

Projectized

92
Q

Outputs of the Control Communications process include:
A. expert judgment and change requests.
B. work performance information and change requests.
C. organizational process asset updates and an issue log.
D. project management plan updates and an issue log.

A

work performance information and change requests.

93
Q

In the Plan Procurement Management process, which source selection criteria analyzes if the
seller’s proposed technical methodologies, techniques, solutions, and services meet the
procurement documents requirements?
A. Technical approach
B. Technical capability
C. Business size and type
D. Production capacity and interest

A

Technical approach

94
Q 
Stakeholder communication requirements should be included as a component of:
A. enterprise environmental factors
B. organizational process assets
C. the project management plan
D. the stakeholder register
A

the project management plan

95
Q

The primary benefit of the Plan Schedule Management process is that it:
A. provides guidance to identify time or schedule challenges within the project.
B. tightly links processes to create a seamless project schedule.
C. guides how the project schedule will be managed throughout the project.
D. creates an overview of all activities broken down into manageable subsections

A

guides how the project schedule will be managed throughout the project

96
Q

Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority and their level of concern regarding
project outcomes describes which classification model for stakeholder analysis?
A. Influence/impact grid
B. Power/influence grid
C. Power/interest grid
D. Salience model

A

Power/interest grid

97
Q 
Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique of which Project Cost Management process?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Plan Cost Management
D. Determine Budget
A

Determine Budget

98
Q 
Which tool or technique is required in order to determine the project budget?
A. Cost of quality
B. Historical relationships
C. Project management software
D. Forecasting
A

Historical relationships

99
Q

Requirements documentation will typically contain at least:
A. Stakeholder requirements, staffing requirements, and transition requirements.
B. Business requirements, the stakeholder register, and functional requirements.
C. Stakeholder impact, budget requirements, and communications requirements.
D. Business objectives, stakeholder impact, and functional requirements

A

Business objectives, stakeholder impact, and functional requirements

100
Q

Which process involves the creation of a document that provides the project manager with the
authority to apply resources to a project?
A. Define Activities
B. Direct and Manage Project Work
C. Develop Project Management Plan
D. Develop Project Charter

A

Develop Project Charter

101
Q 
The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the
project deliverables is known as:
A. Define Activities.
B. Sequence Activities.
C. Define Scope.
D. Control Schedule.
A

Define Activities.

102
Q 
Which document includes the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints?
A. Project charter
B. Project scope statement
C. Scope management plan
D. Project document updates
A

Project scope statement

103
Q

When an activity cannot be estimated with a reasonable degree of confidence, the work within the
activity is decomposed into more detail using which type of estimating?
A. Bottom-up
B. Parametric
C. Analogous
D. Three-point

A

Bottom-up

104
Q 
Definitions of probability and impact, revised stakeholder tolerances, and tracking are components
of which subsidiary plan?
A. Cost management plan
B. Quality management plan
C. Communications management plan
D. Risk management plan
A

Risk management plan

105
Q 
Which component of the human resource management plan describes when and how project team members are acquired and how long they will be needed?
A. Resource breakdown structure
B. Staffing management plan
C. Project organizational chart
D. Scope management plan
A

Staffing management plan

106
Q

What is an objective of the Develop Project Team process?
A. Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness
B. Ground rules for interaction
C. Enhanced resource availability
D. Functional managers becoming more involved

A

Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness

107
Q 
When is a Salience Model used?
A. In a work breakdown structure (WBS)
B. During quality assurance
C. In stakeholder analysis
D. During quality control (QC)
A

In stakeholder analysis

108
Q 
Which of the following is contained within the communications management plan?
A. An organizational chart
B. Glossary of common terminology
C. Organizational process assets
D. Enterprise environmental factors
A

Glossary of common terminology

109
Q 
Which of the following is a tool and technique for Estimate Activity Durations?
A. Parametric estimating
B. Monte Carlo analysis
C. Alternatives analysis
D. Bottom-up estimating
A

Parametric estimating

110
Q 
Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what are
these phases known as?
A. Complete project phase
B. Project life
C. The project life cycle
D. Project cycle
A

The project life cycle

111
Q

Which of the following statements correctly characterizes pull communication?
A. It includes letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes.
B. It requires recipients to access communication content at their own discretion.
C. It is the most efficient way to ensure a common understanding among all participants.
D. It is primarily used when the volume of information to be transferred is minimal.

A

It requires recipients to access communication content at their own discretion.

112
Q

Which Knowledge Area is concerned with the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate
generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project
information?
A. Project Integration Management
B. Project Communications Management
C. Project Information Management System (PIMS)
D. Project Scope Management

A

Project Communications Management

113
Q 
Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Durations?
A. Critical path method
B. Rolling wave planning
C. Precedence diagramming method
D. Parametric estimating
A

Parametric estimating

114
Q

Which tool or technique of Plan Quality involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of
other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure
performance?
A. Histogram
B. Quality audits
C. Benchmarking
D. Performance measurement analysis

A

Benchmarking

115
Q 
Taking out insurance in relation to risk management is called what?
A. Transference
B. Avoidance
C. Exploring
D. Mitigation
A

Transference

116
Q 
During which process group is the quality policy determined?
A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Controlling
A

Planning

117
Q 
In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?
A. Functional manager
B. Project manager
C. Program manager
D. Project management office
A

Project manager

118
Q

Who, along with the project manager, is supposed to direct the performance of the planned project
activities and manage the various technical and organizational interfaces that exist within the
project?
A. The customer and functional managers
B. The risk owners and stakeholders
C. The sponsors and stakeholders
D. The project management team

A

The project management team

119
Q 
Which is an example of Administer Procurements?
A. Negotiating the contract
B. Authorizing contractor work
C. Developing the statement of work
D. Establishing evaluation criteria
A

Authorizing contractor work

120
Q 
An input to the Create WBS process is a:
A. project charter.
B. stakeholder register.
C. project scope statement.
D. requirements traceability matrix
A

project scope statement

121
Q 
What is the total float of the critical path?
A. Can be any number
B. Zero or positive
C. Zero or negative
D. Depends on the calendar
A

Zero or negative

122
Q

Portfolio Management is management of:
A. a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects.
B. a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills such as planning, organizing,
staffing, executing, and controlling.
C. all projects undertaken by a company.
D. a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet
strategic business objectives.

A

a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet
strategic business objectives.

123
Q

Which action should a project manager take to ensure that the project management plan is
effective and current?
A. Conduct periodic project performance reviews.
B. Identify quality project standards.
C. Follow ISO 9000 quality standards.
D. Complete the quality control checklist

A

Conduct periodic project performance reviews.

124
Q

Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and
identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Organizational breakdown structure
C. Resource breakdown structure
D. Bill of materials

A

Work breakdown structure

125
Q

What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)?
A. To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and subprojects
that are tied to the parent organizations or the client’s overall business objectives.
B. To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent organization’s
business objectives and to administer the project charters accordingly.
C. To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team members and
to handle any personnel and payroll issues.
D. To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope, schedule, cost, and
quality of the work packages

A

To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and subprojects
that are tied to the parent organizations or the client’s overall business objectives.

126
Q

Which type of analysis systemically gathers and analyzes qualitative and quantitative information
to determine which interests should be taken into account throughout the project?
A. Product
B. Cost-benefit
C. Stakeholder
D. Research

A

Stakeholder

127
Q 
Which process involves documenting the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and
coordinate all subsidiary plans?
A. Collect Requirements
B. Direct and Manage Project Execution
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Develop Project Management Plan
A

Develop Project Management Plan

128
Q

Which Project Management Process Group includes Collect Requirements, Define Activities,
Sequence Activities, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, and Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?
A. Initiating
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Closing

A

Planning

129
Q

A work package has been scheduled to cost $1,000 to complete and was to be finished today. As
of today, the actual expenditure is $1,200 and approximately half of the work has been completed.
What is the cost variance?
A. -700
B. -200
C. 200
D. 500

A

-700

130
Q

Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan?
A. Expert judgment
B. Project management methodology
C. Project management information system (PMIS)
D. Project selection methods

A

Expert judgment

131
Q

When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?
A. When the project uses capital expenditures
B. When the required staff can be acquired from outside sources
C. When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses
D. When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive
proposal

A

When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive
proposal

132
Q 
An output of the Create WBS process is:
A. Scope baseline.
B. Project scope statement.
C. Organizational process assets.
D. Requirements traceability matrix.
A

Scope baseline.

133
Q 
Which type of chart is a graphic representation of a process showing the relationships among
process steps?
A. Control
B. Bar
C. Flow
D. Pareto
A

Flow

134
Q 
Changes to formally controlled documentation, plans, etc. to reflect modified or additional ideas or
content are known as:
A. updates.
B. defect repairs.
C. preventive actions.
D. corrective actions.
A

updates.

135
Q 
Which provides the basic framework for managing a project?
A. Project life cycle
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Project initiation
A

Project life cycle

136
Q 
The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?
A. Define Activities
B. Estimate Activity Durations
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Sequence Activities
A

Sequence Activities

137
Q 
Quality metrics are an output of which process?
A. Plan Quality
B. Perform Quality Control
C. Perform Quality Assurance
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
A

Plan Quality

138
Q 
Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?
A. Responsible organization
B. Change requests
C. Validated deliverables
D. Organizational process assets
A

Responsible organization

139
Q

Tools and techniques used for Plan Communications include the communication:
A. requirements analysis, communication technology, communication models, and communication
methods.
B. methods, stakeholder register, communication technology, and communication models.
C. requirements, communication technology, communication requirements analysis, and
communication methods.
D. management plan, communication technology, communication models, and communication
requirements analysis

A

requirements analysis, communication technology, communication models, and communication
methods.

140
Q

Which of the following are outputs of Develop Project Team?
A. Human resources plan changes and project staff assignment updates
B. Project management plan updates and enterprise environmental factor updates
C. Resource calendars and project management plan updates
D. Team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factor updates

A

Team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factor updates

141
Q 
Which tool or technique is used in Manage Stakeholder Expectations?
A. Stakeholder management strategy
B. Communication methods
C. Issue log
D. Change requests
A

Communication methods

142
Q 
The progressive detailing of the project management plan is called:
A. expert judgment.
B. rolling wave planning.
C. work performance information.
D. specification
A

rolling wave planning.

143
Q

What is the responsibility of the project manager and the functional manager respectively?
A. Oversight for an administrative area; a facet of the core business
B. Achieving the project objectives; providing management oversight for an administrative area
C. A facet of the core business; achieving the project objectives
D. Both are responsible for achieving the project objectives.

A

Achieving the project objectives; providing management oversight for an administrative area

144
Q 
Which is used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers?
A. Procurement statement of work
B. Resource calendars
C. Procurement document
D. Independent estimates
A

Procurement document

145
Q 
Which can be used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?
A. Matrix diagram
B. Histogram
C. Control chart
D. Flowchart
A

Control chart

146
Q 
Which of the following is an input to Control Scope?
A. Project schedule
B. Organizational process assets updates
C. Project document updates
D. Work performance information
A

Work performance information

147
Q 
Co-location is a tool and technique of:
A. Develop Human Resource Plan.
B. Manage Project Team.
C. Develop Project Team.
D. Acquire Project Team.
A

Develop Project Team.

148
Q

In a construction project schedule, what is the logical relationship between the delivery of the
concrete materials and the pouring of concrete?
A. Start-to-start (SS)
B. Start-to-finish (SF)
C. Rnish-to-finish (FF)
D. Finish-to-start (FS)

A

Finish-to-start (FS)

149
Q 
A required input for Create WBS is a project:
A. quality plan.
B. schedule network.
C. management document update.
D. scope statement.
A

scope statement.

150
Q 
Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan?
A. Team performance assessment
B. Roles and responsibilities
C. Staffing management plan
D. Enterprise environmental factors
A

Enterprise environmental factors

151
Q 
The process of identifying the stakeholders' information needs is completed during:
A. Plan Communications.
B. Manage Stakeholder Expectations.
C. Stakeholder Analysis.
D. Identify Stakeholders.
A

Plan Communications

152
Q

“Tailoring” is defined as the:
A. effort of addressing each process to determine which are appropriate and their appropriate
degree of rigor.
B. act of creating a project team with the specialized skills required to produce a required product
or service.
C. action taken to bring a defective or nonconforming component into compliance with
requirements or specifications.
D. adjustment of the respective influences of time, cost, and quality in order to most efficiently
achieve scope.

A

effort of addressing each process to determine which are appropriate and their appropriate
degree of rigor.

153
Q 
Which is an input to the Verify Scope process?
A. Performance report
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
C. Requested changes
D. Project management plan
A

Project management plan

154
Q 
Which is an output from Distribute Information?
A. Earned value analysis
B. Trend analysis
C. Project records
D. Performance reviews
A

Project records

155
Q

What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?
A. Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers
B. Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources
C. Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts
D. Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources

A

Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources

156
Q 
Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:
A. Create WBS.
B. complete project work.
C. calculate costs.
D. Develop Project Management Plan
A

complete project work.

157
Q 
The item that provides more detailed descriptions of the components in the work breakdown
structure (WB5) is called a WBS:
A. dictionary.
B. chart.
C. report.
D. register
A

dictionary.

158
Q

How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a
power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?
A. Keep satisfied
B. Keep informed
C. Manage closely
D. Monitor

A

Keep satisfied

159
Q 
In the basic communication model, which term refers to the method that is used to convey the
message?
A. Decode
B. Encode
C. Medium
D. Noise
A

Medium

160
Q 
During project selection, which factor is most important?
A. Types of constraints
B. Internal business needs
C. Budget
D. Schedule
A

Internal business needs

161
Q 
The staffing management plan is part of the:
A. organizational process assets.
B. resource calendar.
C. human resource plan.
D. Develop Project Team process
A

human resource plan.

162
Q

The processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the
course of action required to attain the objectives that the project has been undertaken to achieve
are grouped within which Process Group?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Monitoring and Controlling

A

Planning

163
Q 
Which input will be used when tasked with developing the human resource plan?
A. Project management plan
B. Activity resource requirements
C. Resource calendar
D. Project staff assignments
A

Activity resource requirements

164
Q

Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register?
A. Risk register updates, stakeholder register, and quality management plan
B. Communication management plan, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration
estimates
C. Risk management plan, activity cost estimates, and project documents
D. Project scope statement, organizational process assets, and scope baseline

A

Risk management plan, activity cost estimates, and project documents

165
Q 
An input of the Create WBS process is:
A. requirements documentation.
B. scope baseline.
C. project charter.
D. validated deliverables
A

requirements documentation.

166
Q

In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to
share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?
A. Schedule
B. Quality
C. Communications
D. Cost

A

Communications

167
Q 
Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process include the:
A. cost management plan.
B. risk management plan,
C. activity list,
D. risk register.
A

risk management plan,

168
Q 
Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?
A. Project scope statement
B. Project charter
C. Project plan
D. Project schedule
A

Project scope statement

169
Q

While preparing the project management plan on a weekly basis, the project manager indicates
the intention to provide an issues report to the staff via e-mail. In which part of the plan will this
type of information be included?
A. Communications management plan
B. Human resource plan
C. Quality management plan
D. Procurement management plan

A

Communications management plan

170
Q 
Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select in advance a team member who will
be crucial to the task?
A. Acquisition
B. Negotiation
C. Virtual team
D. Pre-assignment
A

Pre-assignment

171
Q 
Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?
A. Brainstorming
B. Focus groups
C. Affinity diagram
D. Plurality
A

Plurality

172
Q 
Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan?
A. Expert Judgment
B. Project Management Methodology
C. Project Management Information
D. Project Selection Methods
A

Expert Judgment

173
Q 
During what process is the quality policy determined?
A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Controlling
A

Planning

174
Q

You are assigned to implement the project control plan. What should you do to ensure the plan is
effective and current?
A. Perform periodic project performance reviews.
B. Identify quality project standards.
C. Follow ISO 9000 quality standards.
D. Complete the quality control checklist.

A

Perform periodic project performance reviews.

175
Q 
Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Duration?
A. Critical path
B. Rolling Wave
C. PDM
D. Para metric
A

Para metric

176
Q 
Which type of analysis is used to develop the communications management plan?
A. Product
B. Cost benefit
C. Stakeholder
D. Research
A

Stakeholder

177
Q 
Which of the following is a tool and technique for activity duration estimating?
A. Parametric estimating
B. Monte Carlo analysis
C. Top-down estimating
D. Bottom-up estimating
A

Parametric estimating

178
Q 
What defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?
A. Procurement management plan
B. Evaluation criteria
C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
D. Contract Statement of Work (SOW)
A

Contract Statement of Work (SOW)

179
Q

Which of the following are inputs to Activity Definition?
A. Project Scope Statement and Work Breakdown Structure
B. Activity list and Arrow Diagram
C. Change Requests Lists and Organizational Process Assets
D. Project Management Plan and Resource Availability

A

Project Scope Statement and Work Breakdown Structure

180
Q 
Which tools or techniques will the project manager use for developing the project team?
A. Negotiation
B. Roles and responsibilities
C. Recognition and rewards
D. Prizing and promoting
A

Recognition and rewards

181
Q

Which of the following lists contain processes that are included within Project Procurement
Management?
A. Plan purchases and acquisitions, plan contracting, request seller responses, select sellers
B. Plan purchases and acquisitions, request seller responses, select sellers, schedule control
C. Plan purchases and acquisitions, acquire project team, request seller responses, select sellers
D. Plan purchases and acquisitions, acquire project team, contract approval, select sellers

A

Plan purchases and acquisitions, plan contracting, request seller responses, select sellers

182
Q 
Which of the following is an output of the Information Distribution Process?
A. Project calendar
B. Communication management plan
C. Requested changes
D. Communication requirement plan
A

Requested changes

183
Q

What is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to
accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables?
A. Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)
B. Work Performance Information
C. Work Package
D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

A

Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

184
Q 
Which quality planning tools and techniques are used to visually identify logical groupings based
on natural relationships?
A. Force field diagrams
B. Cause-and-effect diagrams
C. Affinity diagrams
D. Nominal group techniques
A

Affinity diagrams

185
Q

Which tool and technique of quality planning involves comparing actual or planned practices to
those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to
measure performance?
A. Histogram
B. Quality audits
C. Benchmarking
D. Performance measurement analysis

A

Benchmarking

186
Q 
What component of the project scope definition defines project exclusions?
A. Project boundaries
B. Project constraints
C. Project assumptions
D. Project objectives
A

Project boundaries

187
Q 
A contract management plan is a subsidiary of what other type of plan?
A. Resource plan
B. Project management plan
C. Cost control plan
D. Expected monetary value plan
A

Project management plan

188
Q 
Which of the following are placed at selected points in the work breakdown structure (WBS) for
performance measurement?
A. Control accounts
B. Milestones
C. Management points
D. Measurement points
A

Control accounts

189
Q

An input to the Identify Risks process is the:
A. Risk register.
B. Risk probability and impact assessment.
C. Communications management plan.
D. Risk management plan.

A

Risk management plan

190
Q 
Which of the following inputs is required for the WBS creation?
A. Project Quality Plan
B. Project Schedule Network
C. Project Management Software
D. Project Scope Management Plan
A

Project Scope Management Plan

191
Q 
Organizations manage portfolios based on which of the following types of plans?
A. Strategic
B. Project
C. Program
D. Operational
A

Strategic

192
Q 
Create WBS is part of which of the following Knowledge Areas?
A. Project Integration Management
B. Project Scope Management
C. Project Time Management
D. Project Cost Management
A

Project Scope Management

193
Q

Which of the following is used to illustrate the connections between work packages or activities
and project team members?
A. Hierarchical-type charts (HTC)
B. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)
C. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
D. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

A

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

194
Q 
A tool and technique used during the Create WBS process is:
A. decomposition
B. expert judgment
C. inspection
D. variance analysis
A

decomposition

195
Q

For a project to be successful, the project team must do which of the following?
A. Complete the project in sequential phases.
B. Overlook minor stakeholders.
C. Produce ongoing repetitive products, services, or results.
D. Select the appropriate processes required to meet the project objective

A

Select the appropriate processes required to meet the project objective.

196
Q

The organizational process assets that are of particular importance to Plan Communications are:
A. Formal plans and procedures
B. Lessons learned and historical information
C. Guidelines and knowledge bases
D. Stakeholder positions and their influence

A

Lessons learned and historical information

197
Q 
The Create WBS process is in which of the following Project Management Process Groups?
A. Planning
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Executing
D. Initiating
A

Planning

198
Q 
The specific technique for identifying a problem, discovering the causes that lead to it, and
developing preventive actions is:
A. Inspection
B. Use of quality checklists
C. Root cause analysis
D. Use of matrix diagrams
A

Root cause analysis

199
Q 
At which stage of the project should certain factors such as the unavailability of human resources
due to constraint be considered?
A. Initiation
B. Execution
C. Planning
D. Monitoring and Controlling
A

Planning

200
Q

Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a
typical project progresses?
A. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.
B. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,
C. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.
D. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases

A

Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases

PMI PMP v6 Version: 42.1 (3 decks)

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