Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PMI PMP v6 Version: 42.1 > 1-200 > Flashcards

1-200 Flashcards

1
Q 
An element of the project scope statement is:
A. Acceptance criteria.
B. A stakeholder list.
C. A summary budget,
D. High-level risks
A

Acceptance criteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q 
Which document describes the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the
required investment?
A. Cost baseline
B. Service level agreement
C. Memorandum of understanding
D. Business case
A

Business case

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q 
Which input to the Plan Risk Management process provides information on high-level risks?
A. Project charter
B. Enterprise environmental factors
C. Stakeholder register
D. Organizational process assets
A

Project charter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q 
Which item is an example of personnel assessment?
A. Resource calendar
B. Tight matrix
C. Team-building activity
D. Focus group
A

Focus group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how
stakeholders can best be involved in a project?
A. Feedback analysis
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Communication management plan
D. Stakeholder management plan

A

Stakeholder management plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q 
Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external
parties related to the project?
A. Procurement documents
B. Communications plan
C. Project charter
D. Stakeholder register
A

Project charter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q 
The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?
A. Initiating
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Executing
A

Initiating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q 
An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an:
A. Business case.
B. Activity list.
C. Project management plan.
D. Cost forecast.
A

Business case.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q 
Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be
impacted by or impact a project?
A. Project Risk Management
B. Project Human Resource Management
C. Project Scope Management
D. Project Stakeholder Management
A

Project Stakeholder Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q 
Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information
on requirements?
A. Stakeholder register
B. Scope management plan
C. Stakeholder management plan
D. Project charter
A

Stakeholder register

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q 
In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?
A. Project Cost Management
B. Project Scope Management
C. Project Time Management
D. Project Integration Management
A

Project Integration Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q 
The ability to influence cost is greatest during which stages of the project?
A. Early
B. Middle
C. Late
D. Completion
A

Early

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q 
Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to
complete project activities?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Plan Cost Management
A

Estimate Costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q 
Which tool or technique is used in the Develop Project Management Plan process?
A. Pareto diagram
B. Performance reporting
C. SWOT analysis
D. Expert judgment
A

Expert judgment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q 
The organization's perceived balance between risk taking and risk avoidance is reflected in the
risk:
A. Responses
B. Appetite
C. Tolerance
D. Attitude
A

Responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q 
An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is:
A. change requests
B. enterprise environmental factors
C. the stakeholder management plan
D. the change log
A

change requests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q 
Which process numerically analyzes the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives?
A. Plan Risk Management
B. Plan Risk Responses
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
A

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q 
Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy
them?
A. Requirements documentation
B. Requirements traceability matrix
C. Project management plan updates
D. Project documents updates
A

Requirements traceability matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q 
A temporary endeavor that creates a unique product or service is called a:
A. Project
B. Plan
C. Program
D. Portfolio
A

Project

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q 
The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action is known as:
A. Plan Risk Management.
B. Plan Risk Responses.
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
A

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q 
Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as a key project:
A. Benefit
B. Initiative
C. Objective
D. Process
A

Objective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q 
Which cost is associated with nonconformance?
A. Liabilities
B. Inspections
C. Training
D. Equipment
A

Liabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q 
Identify Risks is part of which Process Group?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Closing
D. Initiating
A

Planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The business needs, assumptions, and constraints and the understanding of the customers needs
and high-level requirements are documented in the:
A. Project management plan.
B. Project charter.
C. Work breakdown structure.
D. Stakeholder register.

A

Project charter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which Process Group and Knowledge Area include the Sequence Activities process?
A. Executing Process Group and Project Time Management
B. Executing Process Group and Project Cost Management
C. Planning Process Group and Project Time Management
D. Planning Process Group and Project Cost Management

A

Planning Process Group and Project Time Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

In the Plan Stakeholder Management process, expert judgment is used to:
A. Provide information needed to plan appropriate ways to engage project stakeholders.
B. Ensure comprehensive identification and listing of new stakeholders.
C. Analyze the information needed to develop the project scope statement.
D. Decide the level of engagement of the stakeholders at each required stage

A

Decide the level of engagement of the stakeholders at each required stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q 
Power, urgency, and legitimacy are attributes of which stakeholder classification model?
A. Salience
B. Influence/impact
C. Power/interest
D. Power/influence
A

Salience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q 
Through whom do project managers accomplish work?
A. Consultants and stakeholders
B. Stakeholders and functional managers
C. Project team members and consultants
D. Project team members and stakeholders
A

Project team members and stakeholders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A stakeholder expresses a need not known to the project manager. The project manager most
likely missed a step in which stakeholder management process?
A. Plan Stakeholder Management
B. Identify Stakeholders
C. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
D. Control Stakeholder Engagement

A

Plan Stakeholder Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Skills necessary for project management such as motivating to provide encouragement; listening
actively; persuading a team to perform an action; and summarizing, recapping, and identifying
next steps are known as:
A. organizational skills
B. technical skills
C. communication skills
D. hard skills

A

communication skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q 
When a project is undertaken to reduce defects in a product or service, the objective of the project
is to create a/an:
A. improvement
B. program
C. result
D. portfolio
A

improvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q 
The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its
risk:
A. management
B. response
C. tolerance
D. appetite
A

appetite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The zero duration of milestones in project planning occurs because milestones:
A. Are unpredictable and challenge the Plan Schedule Management process.
B. Occur at random times in the project plans.
C. Represent a moment in time such as a significant project point or event.
D. Represent both significant and insignificant points in the project and are difficult to anticipate.

A

Represent a moment in time such as a significant project point or event.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The component of the human resource management plan that includes ways in which team
members can obtain certifications that support their ability to benefit the project is known as:
A. recognition and rewards
B. compliance
C. staff acquisition
D. training needs

A

training needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q 
Stakeholders can be identified in later stages of the project because the Identify Stakeholders
process should be:
A. Continuous
B. Discrete
C. Regulated
D. Arbitrary
A

Continuous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q 
In project management, a temporary project can be:
A. Completed without planning
B. A routine business process
C. Long in duration
D. Ongoing to produce goods
A

Long in duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q 
Which document in the project management plan can be updated in the Plan Procurement
Management process?
A. Budget estimates
B. Risk matrix
C. Requirements documentation
D. Procurement documents
A

Requirements documentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which type of probability distribution is used to represent uncertain events such as the outcome of
a test or a possible scenario in a decision tree?
A. Uniform
B. Continuous
C. Discrete
D. Linear

A

Discrete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q 
Which stakeholder approves a project's result?
A. Customer
B. Sponsor
C. Seller
D. Functional manager
A

Customer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q 
Which process involves determining, documenting, and managing stakeholders' needs and
requirements to meet project objectives?
A. Collect Requirements
B. Plan Scope Management
C. Define Scope
D. Define Activities
A

Collect Requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Plan Communications Management develops an approach and plan for project communications
based on stakeholders’ needs and requirements and:
A. Available organizational assets
B. Project staff assignments
C. Interpersonal skills
D. Enterprise environmental factors

A

Available organizational assets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q 
What is the risk rating if the probability of occurrence is 0.30 and the impact if it does occur is
moderate (0.20)?
A. 0.03
B. 0.06
C. 0.10
D. 0.50
A

0.06

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q 
A complete set of concepts, terms, and activities that make up an area of specialization is known
as:
A. a Knowledge Area
B. a Process Group
C. program management
D. portfolio management
A

a Knowledge Area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q 
The risk response strategy in which the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence
or impact of a risk is known as:
A. exploit
B. avoid
C. mitigate
D. share
A

mitigate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q 
Which process is conducted from project inception through completion and is ultimately the
responsibility of the project manager?
A. Control Quality
B. Monitor and Control Project Work
C. Control Scope
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
A

Perform Integrated Change Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Project management processes ensure the:
A. alignment with organizational strategy
B. efficient means to achieve the project objectives
C. performance of the project team
D. effective flow of the project throughout its life cycle

A

effective flow of the project throughout its life cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q 
Which project risk listed in the table below is most likely to occur?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which is an enterprise environmental factor?
A. Marketplace conditions
B. Policies and procedures
C. Project files from previous projects
D. Lessons learned from previous projects

A

Marketplace conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q 
Project Stakeholder Management focuses on:
A. project staff assignments
B. project tea m acquisition
C. managing conflicting interests
D. communication methods
A

managing conflicting interests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q 
A risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response is called a:
A. contingent risk
B. residual risk
C. potential risk
D. secondary risk
A

secondary risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The purpose of developing a project scope management plan is to:
A. Manage the timely completion of the project.
B. Ensure that the project includes all of the work required.
C. Make sure the project will satisfy the needs for which it was begun.
D. Reduce the risk of negative events in the project.

A

Ensure that the project includes all of the work required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q 
A tool and technique used in the Develop Project Charter process is:
A. change control tools
B. expert judgment
C. meetings
D. analytical techniques
A

expert judgment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

A projects purpose or justification, measurable project objectives and related success criteria, a
summary milestone schedule, and a summary budget are all components of which document?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Requirements document
C. Project charter
D. Project management plan

A

Project charter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Project managers who lead by example and follow through on the commitments they make
demonstrate the key interpersonal skill of:
A. influencing
B. leadership
C. motivation
D. coaching

A

influencing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q 
The process of defining how the project scope will be validated and controlled is known as:
A. Define Scope.
B. Develop Project Management Plan.
C. Plan Scope Management.
D. Plan Quality Management
A

Plan Scope Management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q 
Technical capability, past performance, and intellectual property rights are examples of:
A. performance measurement criteria
B. source selection criteria
C. product acceptance criteria
D. phase exit criteria
A

source selection criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q 
The methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project
performance and progress is known as:
A. Earned value management.
B. Forecasting.
C. Critical chain methodology.
D. Critical path methodology.
A

Earned value management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q 
Which process is usually a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for Plan Risk
Responses?
A. Identify Risks
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
A

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q 
Which element does a project charter contain?
A. Management reserves
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Stakeholder list
D. Stakeholder register
A

Stakeholder list

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q 
Every project creates a unique product, service, or result that may be:
A. tangible
B. targeted
C. organized
D. variable
A

tangible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q 
The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is called
risk:
A. appetite
B. tolerance
C. threshold
D. management
A

tolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q 
An issue log is an input to which Project Human Resource Management process?
A. Manage Project Team
B. Acquire Project Team
C. Plan Human Resource Management
D. Develop Project Team
A

Manage Project Team

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q 
The component of the risk management plan that documents how risk activities will be recorded is
called:
A. tracking
B. scoping
C. timing
D. defining
A

tracking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which Control Stakeholder Engagement tool or technique allows the project manager to
consolidate and facilitate distribution of reports?
A. Information management systems
B. Work performance reports
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Data gathering and representation

A

Information management systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change
observed in the corresponding independent variable?
A. Cause-and-effect diagram
B. Histogram
C. Control chart
D. Scatter diagram

A

Scatter diagram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q 
High-level project risks are included in which document?
A. Business case
B. Risk breakdown structure
C. Project charter
D. Risk register
A

Project charter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q 
The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:
A. organizational process assets
B. a requirements traceability matrix
C. the project charter
D. the project management plan
A

the project management plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q 
Projects that share common outcomes, collective capability, knowledge, or skills are often grouped
into a:
A. portfolio
B. program
C. selection
D. sub portfolio
A

program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q 
The stakeholder register is an output of:
A. Identify Stakeholders.
B. Plan Stakeholder Management.
C. Control Stakeholder Engagement.
D. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
A

Identify Stakeholders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q 
An output of the Develop Project Team process is:
A. change requests
B. team performance assessments
C. project staff assignments
D. project documents updates
A

team performance assessments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q 
The formal and informal interaction with others in an organization industry, or professional
environment is known as:
A. negotiation
B. organizational theory
C. meeting
D. networking
A

networking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q 
Which process is included in the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?
A. Manage Project Team
B. Collect Requirements
C. Sequence Activities
D. Direct and Manage Project Work
A

Direct and Manage Project Work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

The project manager notes that stakeholders are aware of the project and potential impacts and
are actively engaged in ensuring that the project is a success. The engagement level of the
stakeholders should be classified as:
A. Supportive
B. Leading
C. Neutral
D. Resistant

A

Leading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q 
Which of the following is a narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by
a project?
A. Project statement of work
B. Business case
C. Accepted deliverable
D. Work performance information
A

Project statement of work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

A project manager seeking insight on previous stakeholder management plans and their
effectiveness should evaluate:
A. Historical information and the lessons-learned database.
B. Historical information and the stakeholder register.
C. Organizational process assets and the lessons-learned database.
D. Project documents and historical information

A

Historical information and the lessons-learned database.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q 
What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur
is very high (0.80)?
A. 0.45
B. 0.56
C. 0.70
D. 1.36
A

0.70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q 
The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic understanding of how to create the
specified:
A. objectives
B. schedule
C. product
D. approach
A

product

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q 
The creation of an internet site to engage stakeholders on a project is an example of which type of
communication?
A. Push
B. Pull
C. Interactive
D. Iterative
A

Pull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q 
Which is the Define Scope technique used to generate different approaches to execute and
perform the work of the project?
A. Build vs. buy
B. Expert judgment
C. Alternatives identification
D. Product analysis
A

Alternatives identification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Most experienced project managers know that:
A. every project requires the use of all processes in the PMBOK® Guide.
B. there is no single way to manage a project.
C. project management techniques are risk free.
D. there is only one way to manage projects successfully

A

there is no single way to manage a project

81
Q

The product scope description is used to:
A. Gain stakeholders’ support for the project.
B. Progressively elaborate the characteristics of the product, service, or result.
C. Describe the project in great detail.
D. Define the process and criteria for accepting a completed product, service, or result.

A

Progressively elaborate the characteristics of the product, service, or result

82
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles?
A. Staffing level is highest at the start.
B. The stakeholders’ influence is highest at the start.
C. The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start.
D. The cost of changes is highest at the start.

A

The stakeholders’ influence is highest at the start.

83
Q 
An input required in Define Scope is an organizational:
A. structure.
B. process asset.
C. matrix.
D. breakdown structure
A

process asset.

84
Q 
Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a
third party?
A. Mitigate
B. Transfer
C. Share
D. Avoid
A

Share

85
Q 
Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements process?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Resource availability
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Team performance assessment
A

Organizational process assets

86
Q

Which of the following investigates the likelihood that each specific risk will occur?
A. Risk register
B. Risk audits
C. Risk urgency assessment
D. Risk probability and impact assessment

A

Risk probability and impact assessment

87
Q 
What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk
category?
A. Risk register
B. Risk breakdown structure (RBS)
C. Risk management plan
D. Risk category
A

Risk breakdown structure (RBS)

88
Q 
Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Develop Project
Charter process?
A. Organizational standard processes
B. Marketplace conditions
C. Historical information
D. Templates
A

Marketplace conditions

89
Q 
The Define Scope process is in which of the following Process Groups?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Executing
A

Planning

90
Q

Organizations perceive risks as:
A. events that will inevitably impact project and organizational objectives.
B. the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives.
C. events which could have a negative impact on project and organizational objectives.
D. the negative impact of undesired events on their project and organizational objectives.

A

the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives.

91
Q

Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?
A. Project stakeholders
B. Project sponsor and project stakeholder
C. Project manager and project team
D. Project manager and project sponsor

A

Project manager and project team

92
Q 
The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document?
A. Schedule management plan
B. Project management plan
C. Quality management plan
D. Resource management plan
A

Project management plan

93
Q

The Verify Scope process is primarily concerned with:
A. formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.
B. accuracy of the work deliverables.
C. formalizing approval of the scope statement.
D. accuracy of the work breakdown structure (WBS).

A

formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

94
Q 
Which is a tool or technique used in Define Scope?
A. Templates, forms, and standards
B. Change requests
C. Product analysis
D. Project assumptions
A

Product analysis

95
Q 
Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?
A. Activity list
B. Project plan
C. Activity duration estimates
D. Project schedule
A

Activity list

96
Q 
Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority
of identified risks?
A. Identify Risks
B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
A

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

97
Q

What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management?
A. Decrease the probability and impact of an event on project objectives.
B. Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in
place.
C. Increase the probability and impact of positive events.
D. Removal of project risk

A

Increase the probability and impact of positive events

98
Q

Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?
A. Functional managers and manager of project managers
B. Functional managers only
C. Project managers only
D. Technical managers and project managers

A

Functional managers and manager of project managers

99
Q 
Assigned risk ratings are based upon:
A. Root cause analysis.
B. Risk probability and impact assessment.
C. Expert judgment.
D. Revised stakeholders' tolerances
A

Risk probability and impact assessment

100
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of
changes as project time advances?
A. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases.
B. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.
C. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases.
D. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases.

A

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases

101
Q

Which process includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing
and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses

A

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

102
Q

An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a faster, cheaper, and smaller laptop after
improvements in the industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic
considerations is this project mainly concerned?
A. Customer request
B. Market demand
C. Technological advance
D. Strategic

A

Technological advance

103
Q

Which of the following processes are part of the Project Integration Management Knowledge
Area?
A. Develop Project Management Plan, Collect Requirements, Create WBS
B. Develop Project Management Plan, Control Scope, Develop Schedule
C. Develop Project Charter, Define Scope, Estimate Costs
D. Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Close Project or Phase

A

Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Close Project or Phase

104
Q 
What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements
and product acceptance criteria?
A. Decomposition
B. Benchmarking
C. Inspection
D. Checklist analysis
A

Inspection

105
Q

Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and
provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?
A. The Delphi technique
B. Nominal group technique
C. Affinity diagram
D. Brainstorming

A

The Delphi technique

106
Q 
At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest?
A. Final phase of the project
B. Start of the project
C. End of the project
D. Midpoint of the project
A

Start of the project

107
Q

What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?
A. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)
B. Resource breakdown structure (RBS)
C. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
D. Project breakdown structure (PBS)

A

Resource breakdown structure (RBS)

108
Q

Plan Risk Management is the process of defining how to:
A. Communicate identified risks to the project stakeholders.
B. Conduct risk management activities for a project.
C. Analyze the impact a specific risk may have on the project.
D. Address unexpected risks that may occur during a project

A

Conduct risk management activities for a project.

109
Q

What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution?
A. Integrating all planned activities
B. Performing the activities included in the plan
C. Developing and maintaining the plan
D. Execution of deliverables

A

Performing the activities included in the plan

110
Q 
What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?
A. Pareto
B. Ishikawa
C. Shewhart-Deming
D. Delphi
A

Shewhart-Deming

111
Q

As part of a mid-project evaluation, the project sponsor has asked for a forecast of the total project
cost. What should be used to calculate the forecast?
A. BAC
B. EAC
C. ETC
D. WBS

A

EAC

112
Q 
A weighting system is a tool for which area of Conduct Procurements?
A. Plan contracting
B. Requesting seller responses
C. Selecting seller's
D. Planning purchase and acquisition
A

Selecting seller’s

113
Q 
What causes replanning of the project scope?
A. Project document updates
B. Project scope statement changes
C. Variance analysis
D. Change requests
A

Change requests

114
Q 
Which of the following is an output of the Distribute Information process?
A. Project calendar
B. Communications management plan
C. Organizational process assets updates
D. Project document updates
A

Organizational process assets updates

115
Q 
The project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to which Project Time
Management process?
A. Sequence Activities
B. Estimate Activity Resources
C. Develop Schedule
D. Control Schedule
A

Develop Schedule

116
Q 
Which process determines the risks that might affect the project?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Identify Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
A

Identify Risks

117
Q 
What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives?
A. Expert judgment
B. Risk registry
C. Risk response planning
D. Interviewing
A

Interviewing

118
Q 
Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the
project work?
A. WBS directory
B. Activity list
C. WBS
D. Project schedule
A

WBS

119
Q 
Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements
process?
A. Risk assessment analysis
B. Make or buy analysis
C. Contract value analysis
D. Cost impact analysis
A

Make or buy analysis

120
Q 
Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Verify Scope process?
A. Inspection
B. Variance analysis
C. Expert judgment
D. Decomposition
A

Inspection

121
Q 
Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management
Knowledge Area?
A. Project Time Management
B. Project Cost Management
C. Project Scope Management
D. Project Human Resource Management
A

Project Time Management

122
Q

Prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of
occurrence and impact takes place in which process?
A. Monitor and Control Risks
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

A

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

123
Q 
In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to
project activities?
A. Acquire Project Team
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Manage Project Execution
D. Develop Project Charter
A

Develop Project Charter

124
Q 
Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require
near term action?
A. Probability and impact matrix
B. Contingency analysis report
C. Risk urgency assessment
D. Rolling wave plan
A

Risk urgency assessment

125
Q 
Which of the following is an information gathering technique in Identify Risks?
A. Influence diagrams
B. Brainstorming
C. Assumption analysis
D. SWOT analysis
A

Brainstorming

126
Q 
Documented identification of a flaw in a project component together with a recommendation is
termed a:
A. corrective action.
B. preventive action.
C. non-conformance report,
D. defect repair
A

defect repair.

127
Q 
Which Process Group contains those processes performed to define a new project?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Closing
A

Initiating

128
Q

The risk management team of a software project has decided that due to the lack of adequate
talent in the company, development of a specific part of the system is under high risk, so the team
has decided to outsource it. This is an example of which risk response?
A. Transfer
B. Share
C. Avoid
D. Accept

A

Transfer

129
Q

Which type of agreement is legal, contractual, and between two or more entities to form a
partnership, joint venture, or some other arrangement as defined by the parties?
A. Teaming
B. Collective bargaining
C. Sharing
D. Working

A

Teaming

130
Q 
Which of the following is a tool and technique used in the Develop Schedule process?
A. Three-point estimates
B. Resource leveling
C. Precedence diagramming method
D. Bottom-up estimating
A

Resource leveling

131
Q 
The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of
stakeholders is the:
A. stakeholder management strategy.
B. communications management plan
C. stakeholder register,
D. performance report.
A

stakeholder management strategy.

132
Q 
Which of the following project documents is an input to the Control Scope process?
A. Vendor risk assessment diagram
B. Risk register
C. Requirements traceability matrix
D. Area of responsibility summary
A

Requirements traceability matrix

133
Q 
In which Project Management Process Group is the project charter developed?
A. Monitoring and Controlling
B. Executing
C. Initiating
D. Planning
A

Initiating

134
Q 
Monte Carlo is which type of risk analysis technique?
A. Probability
B. Quantitative
C. Qualitative
D. Sensitivity
A

Quantitative

135
Q 
When addressing roles and responsibilities,which item ensures that the staff has the skills required
to complete project activities?
A. Authority
B. Role
C. Competency
D. Responsibility
A

Competency

136
Q 
Which of the following reduces the probability of potential consequences of project risk events?
A. Preventive action
B. Risk management
C. Corrective action
D. Defect repair
A

Preventive action

137
Q 
Which of the following is the primary output of the Identify Risks process?
A. Risk management plan
B. Risk register
C. Change requests
D. Risk response plan
A

Risk register

138
Q

Which of the following helps to ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to
the business and project objectives?
A. Requirements traceability matrix
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary
C. Requirements management plan
D. Requirements documentation

A

Requirements traceability matrix

139
Q 
Which type of risk diagram is useful for showing time ordering of events?
A. Ishikawa
B. Milestone
C. Influence
D. Decision tree
A

Influence

140
Q

Which standard has interrelationships to other project management disciplines such as program
management and portfolio management?
A. Program Management Body of Knowledge Guide
B. The Standard for Program Management
C. Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3$)
D. Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK®)

A

Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK®)

141
Q 
Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact on
project objectives?
A. Exploit
B. Share
C. Enhance
D. Transfer
A

Transfer

142
Q

Which of the following correctly explains the term “progressive elaboration’?
A. Changing project specifications continuously
B. Elaborate tracking of the project progress
C. Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system
D. Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses

A

Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses

143
Q 
Which technique is commonly used for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?
A. Brainstorming
B. Strategies for opportunities
C. Decision tree analysis
D. Risk data quality assessment
A

Decision tree analysis

144
Q 
In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?
A. Functional
B. Projectized
C. Matrix
D. Balanced
A

Functional

145
Q 
Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?
A. Risk register
B. Risk data quality assessment
C. Risk categorization
D. Risk urgency
A

Risk register

146
Q 
Which of the following Process Groups covers all Project Management Knowledge Areas?
A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Initiating
A

Planning

147
Q

What is the most accurate rough order of magnitude (ROM)?
A. In the Initiation phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.
B. In the Planning phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.
C. In the Monitoring and Controlling phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.
D. In the Closing phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.

A

In the Initiation phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.

148
Q

Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?
A. Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials
B. Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price
C. Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis
D. Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive

A

Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials

149
Q 
Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability
matrix are all outputs of which process?
A. Control Scope
B. Collect Requirements
C. Create WBS
D. Define Scope
A

Collect Requirements

150
Q 
Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?
A. Mitigate
B. Transfer
C. Exploit
D. Avoid
A

Exploit

151
Q

Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?
A. Recognized by every project manager
B. Constantly evolving
C. The sum of all knowledge related to project management
D. A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project

A

Constantly evolving

152
Q 
The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?
A. Alternatives identification
B. Scope decomposition
C. Expert judgment
D. Product analysis
A

Expert judgment

153
Q

Which of the following is a project constraint?
A. Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.
B. The technology to be used is cutting-edge.
C. Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.
D. The product is needed in 250 days.

A

The product is needed in 250 days

154
Q 
The process of identifying specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables is:
A. Define Activities.
B. Create WBS.
C. Define Scope.
D. Develop Schedule
A

Define Activities.

155
Q

What is project management?
A. A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques
B. Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project
requirements
C. Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project
D. A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and
controlled

A

Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project
requirements

156
Q 
An input to the Collect Requirements process is the:
A. stakeholder register.
B. project management plan.
C. project scope statement.
D. requirements management plan
A

stakeholder register

157
Q

Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:
A. feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype.
B. initiate, plan, execute, and monitor.
C. Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report
Performance.
D. Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test.

A

feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype.

158
Q

In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final
contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?
A. Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)
B. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)
C. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)
D. Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

A

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)

159
Q 
Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process?
A. Work performance information
B. Project management plan
C. Business case
D. Change requests
A

Business case

160
Q 
The diagram below is an example of a:
A. Risk breakdown structure (RBS).
B. Project team.
C. SWOT Analysis.
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS).
A

Risk breakdown structure (RBS).

161
Q 
Who is responsible for initiating a project?
A. Project sponsor
B. Project manager
C. Program manager
D. Project management office (PMO)
A

Project sponsor

162
Q 
Which type of diagram includes groups of information and shows relationships between factors, causes, and objectives?
A. Affinity
B. Scatter
C. Fishbone
D. Matrix
A

Matrix

163
Q 
Risk exists the moment that a project is:
A. planned.
B. conceived.
C. chartered.
D. executed.
A

conceived.

164
Q

Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?
A. Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF)
B. Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)
C. Time and Material Contract (T&M)
D. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

A

Time and Material Contract (T&M)

165
Q

Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?
A. Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness
B. Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics
C. General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge
D. Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills

A

Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness

166
Q 
Which is an output of the Collect Requirements process?
A. Requirements traceability matrix
B. Project scope statement
C. WBS dictionary
D. Work performance measurements
A

Requirements traceability matrix

167
Q

A project lifecycle is defined as:
A. a collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases.
B. a process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work
required, to complete the project successfully.
C. a recognized standard for the project management profession.
D. the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the
project requirements.

A

a collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases.

168
Q 
Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks
process?
A. Work performance reports
B. Assumptions logs
C. Network diagrams
D. Academic studies
A

Academic studies

169
Q 
Which Control Scope input is compared to actual results to determine if corrective action is
required for the project?
A. Scope baseline
B. Scope management plan
C. Change management plan
D. Cost baseline
A

Scope baseline

170
Q 
The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:
A. assumption log.
B. quality checklist.
C. risk register.
D. contract type.
A

contract type.

171
Q 
The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined
interfaces, while in practice they:
A. operate separately.
B. move together in batches,
C. overlap and interact.
D. move in a sequence.
A

overlap and interact

172
Q 
A tool and technique used during the Define Scope process is:
A. facilitated workshops.
B. observations.
C. questionnaires and surveys.
D. group creativity techniques.
A

facilitated workshops.

173
Q 
Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?
A. Share, Accept, Transfer, or Mitigate
B. Exploit, Enhance, Share, or Accept
C. Mitigate, Share, Avoid, or Accept
D. Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, or Accept
A

Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, or Accept

174
Q

Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying all of the people or organizations impacted by
the project and documenting relevant information regarding their interests in, involvement in, and
impact on the project:
A. manager.
B. success.
C. deadline.
D. scope.

A

success.

175
Q 
Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?
A. Networking
B. Training
C. Negotiation
D. Issue log
A

Negotiation

176
Q 
Risk responses reflect an organization's perceived balance between:
A. risk taking and risk avoidance.
B. known risk and unknown risk.
C. identified risk and analyzed risk.
D. varying degrees of risk
A

risk taking and risk avoidance

177
Q

The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project
requirements describes management of which of the following?
A. Project
B. Scope
C. Contract
D. Program

A

Project

178
Q 
Prototype development may be used as a tool for which of the following risk response strategies?
A. Avoid
B. Accept
C. Mitigate
D. Exploit
A

Mitigate

179
Q 
A tool and technique used during the Collect Requirements process is:
A. prototypes.
B. expert judgment.
C. alternatives identification.
D. product analysis.
A

prototypes.

180
Q

One of the objectives of a quality audit is to:
A. highlight the need for root cause analysis.
B. share the process documentation among stakeholders.
C. offer assistance with non-value-added activities.
D. identify all of the gaps or shortcomings.

A

identify all of the gaps or shortcomings

181
Q

Which statement correctly describes the value of a business case?
A. It provides the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment.
B. It provides for alternative dispute resolution procedures in event of contract default.
C. It offers one of several alternative scenarios which assist in performing qualitative risk analysis.
D. It is used to help a project manager understand the scope of commercial advantages

A

It provides the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment.

182
Q 
Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?
A. Configuration management plan
B. Scope baseline
C. Requirements management plan
D. Schedule baseline
A

Requirements management plan

183
Q 
Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?
A. External
B. Lead
C. Discretionary
D. Mandatory
A

Mandatory

184
Q

The probability and impact matrix is primarily used to:
A. Quantify risk issues for trends during a quality audit.
B. Develop a risk register for risk planning.
C. Evaluate each risk’s importance and priority during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.
D. Define risk and compare impacts during Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

A

Evaluate each risk’s importance and priority during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

185
Q

Scope verification is PRIMARILY concerned with which of the following?
A. Acceptance of the work deliverables.
B. Accuracy of the work deliverables.
C. Approval of the scope statement.
D. Accuracy of the work breakdown structure

A

Acceptance of the work deliverables

186
Q

Who is responsible for determining which processes from the Process Groups will be employed
and who will be performing them?
A. Project sponsor and project manager
B. Project sponsor and functional manager
C. Project manager and project team
D. Project team and functional manager

A

Project manager and project team

187
Q 
Which activity is an input to the select sellers process?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Resource availability
C. Change control process
D. Team performance assessment
A

Organizational process assets

188
Q 
Which of the following methods is a project selection technique?
A. Flowcharting
B. Earned value
C. Cost-benefit analysis
D. Pareto analysis
A

Cost-benefit analysis

189
Q 
Soft logic is also known as what type of dependency?
A. External
B. Discretionary
C. Mandatory
D. Internal
A

Discretionary

190
Q 
Who MUST know when a risk event occurs so that a response can be implemented?
A. Customers
B. Project sponsors
C. Project management team
D. Insurance claims department
A

Project management team

191
Q 
What are the components of the “triple constraint”?
A. Scope, time, requirements
B. Resources, time, cost
C. Scope, management, cost
D. Scope, time, cost
A

Scope, time, cost

192
Q 
Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority
of identified risks?
A. Risk identification
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Risk management planning
D. Quantitative risk analysis
A

Qualitative risk analysis

193
Q 
An input required to develop a preliminary project scope statement is:
A. Organizational Structure
B. Organizational Process Assets
C. Organizational Matrix
D. Organizational Breakdown Structures
A

Organizational Process Assets

194
Q

Which of the following is an example of a risk symptom?
A. Failure to meet intermediate milestones
B. Force of nature, such as a flood
C. Risk threshold target
D. Crashing, front loading, or fast tracking

A

Failure to meet intermediate milestones

195
Q 
Which is a tool or technique used in scope definition?
A. Templates, forms, and standards
B. Change requests
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Project assumptions
A

Stakeholder analysis

196
Q

Which of the following processes includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or
action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?
A. Qualitative risk analysis
B. Quantitative risk analysis
C. Risk management planning
D. Risk response planning

A

Qualitative risk analysis

197
Q 
Activity resource requirements and resource breakdown structure are outputs from what Project
Time Management process?
A. Schedule Control
B. Activity Definition
C. Schedule Development
D. Activity Resource Estimating
A

Activity Resource Estimating

198
Q

A Project Management Office (PMO) manages a number of aspects, including what?
A. Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages
B. Central coordinator of communication management across projects, and for the delivery of
specific project objectives, organization opportunity assessment
C. Assigns project resources to best meet project objectives
D. Overall risk, overall opportunity and interdependencies among projects

A

Overall risk, overall opportunity and interdependencies among projects

199
Q 
Where are product requirements and characteristics documented?
A. Product scope description
B. Project charter
C. Preliminary project scope statement
D. Communications management plan
A

Product scope description

PMI PMP v6 Version: 42.1 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions