40: General Anatomy

Question 1

Which of the following is not true about antral follicles?

a] In early antral follicles, granulosa cells have a steroid-producing characteristic.
b] Cells in immediate contact of the oocyte form corona radiata.
c] Theca externa are concentrically arranged fibroblast.
d] Oocyte lies within an accumulation of cells called cumulus oophorus.

Answer 1

a] In early antral follicles, granulosa cells have a steroid-producing characteristic.

Question 2

What structures near the medial canthus of the dorsal and ventral palpebra allow normal amounts of lacrimal secretions to enter the nasolacrimal duct?

a] Nictitating gland
b] Pupils
c] Iridocorneal angle
d] Puncta
e] Limbus

Answer 2

d] Puncta

These are two small openings near the corners of the eyes that allow drainage.

Question 3

Concerning anatomic features of rats, which of the following statement is least accurate?

a] The stomach is divided into nonglandular and glandular areas.
b] The gallbladder empties into the common bile duct.
c] The olfactory bulbs are large.
d] The incisors grow continuously.
e] The epiphyses do not fuse.

Answer 3

b] The gallbladder empties into the common bile duct.

Rats do not have a gallbladder.

Question 4

When incised, which tunic differentiates a “closed” castration from an “open” castration?

a] Visceral vaginal tunic
b] Double vaginal tunic
c] Spermatic tunic
d] Parietal vaginal tunic
e] Parietal testicular tunic

Answer 4

d] Parietal vaginal tunic

The parietal vaginal tunic is incised in “open” castrations.

Question 5

Concerning anatomic features of domestic rabbits, which of the following statements is least accurate?

a] The maxilla contains two pairs of incisors that grow continuously.
b] Rabbits have a large cecum that ends in an appendix.
c] The stomach of a healthy rabbit is never empty.
d] The uterus is bicornuate and has a single cervix.
e] The right atrioventricular valve is bicuspid, rather than tricuspid.

Answer 5

d] The uterus is bicornuate and has a single cervix.

The rabbit uterus contains two cervices.

Question 6

The brain region which serves as an important regulator of movement without initiating movements itself is the

a] Cerebral cortex.
b] Cerebellum.
c] Habenula.
d] Hypothalamus.

Answer 6

b] Cerebellum.

Question 7

Which of the following cranial nerves (CN) are involved in the menace response?

a] II and III
b] II and V
c] II and IV
d] II and VII

Answer 7

II and VII

The horse must see the hand (II) and blink his eyelids (VII). CN V is involved in sensation around the eye. CN III controls the pupil and some movements of the globe. CN IV rotates the globe inward and upward (dorsal oblique muscle).

Question 8

Characteristics of most reptiles do not include which of the following?

a] The presence of a diaphragm
b] The presence of a three-chambered heart
c] The presence of a developed hyoid apparatus
d] The presence of paired reproductive organs
e] The presence of lymphoid aggregates

Answer 8

a] The presence of a diaphragm

Most reptiles do not have a diaphragm

Question 9

Which of the following statements about Sertoli cells is WRONG?

a] Are elongated cells with irregular outlines and form hemidesmosomes with basal lamina
b] Adjacent Sertoli cells joined by zipper-like tight junctions to form the blood–testis barrier
c] Are evenly spaced within the seminiferous tubule and have euchromatic oval nuclei with a prominent nucleolus
d] None of the above.

Answer 9

d] None of the above.

Question 10

What are the components of medullary rays in kidneys?

a] Proximal convoluted tubules, proximal straight tubules, collecting ducts
b] Proximal straight tubules, distal convoluted tubules, collecting ducts
c] Distal straight tubules, distal convoluted tubules, collecting ducts
d] Proximal straight tubules, distal straight tubules, collecting ducts

Answer 10

d] Proximal straight tubules, distal straight tubules, collecting ducts

Question 11

What is the correct order of increasing complexity and decreasing muscularity of the uterine tube?

a] Ampulla, isthmus, infundibulum, fimbria
b] Infundibulum, ampulla, isthmus
c] Isthmus, ampulla, infundibulum
d] Fimbria, infundibulum, isthmus, ampulla

Answer 11

c] Isthmus, ampulla, infundibulum

Question 12

From dorsal to palmar, which of the following accurately lists the orientation of the tendons and ligaments in the proximal metacarpus?

a] Superficial digital flexor tendon, deep digital flexor tendon, distal check ligament, suspensory ligament
b] Superficial digital flexor tendon, distal check ligament, deep digital flexor tendon, suspensory ligament
c] Superficial digital flexor tendon, deep digital flexor tendon, suspensory ligament, distal check ligament
d] Suspensory ligament, deep digital flexor tendon, distal check ligament, superficial digital flexor tendon
e] Suspensory ligament, distal check ligament, deep digital flexor tendon, superficial digital flexor tendon

Answer 12

e] Suspensory ligament, distal check ligament, deep digital flexor tendon, superficial digital flexor tendon

This is the correct orientation of these structures in the proximal metacarpus.

Question 13

Choose the MOST CORRECT answer. What are the components of the vascular and neuroepithelial tunics of the eye?

a] Sclera, ciliary body, iris, retina
b] Choroid, ciliary body, iris, retina
c] Choroid, cornea, iris, tapetum lucidum, retina
d] Choroid, cornea, ciliary body, retina

Answer 13

b] Choroid, ciliary body, iris, retina

Question 14

Which vessels serve as important landmarks for the skin incision used in the lateral approach to salivary-gland resection?

a] Sublingual and submandibular arteries
b] Parotid and maxillary veins
c] Submaxillary and facial veins
d] Maxillary and linguofacial veins
e] Deep mandibular and superficial lacrimal veins

Answer 14

d] Maxillary and linguofacial veins

These veins can be seen after the hair has been shaved and the skin prepared.

Question 15

Which joints ALWAYS communicate?

a] Tibiotarsal and proximal intertarsal
b] Tarsometatarsal and distal intertarsal
c] Femoropatellar and tibiotarsal
d] Tibiotarsal and distal intertarsal
e] Talocalcaneal and distal intertarsal

Answer 15

a] Tibiotarsal and proximal intertarsal

Question 16

The inner medulla of kidney does not include which of the following structures?

a] Thin segments of the Loop of Henle
b] Distal straight tubule
c] Collecting duct
d] Vasa recta

Answer 16

b] Distal straight tubule

Question 17

Which of the following sets of structures are components of the brainstem of the central nervous system?

a] Mesencephalon, pons, medulla oblongata
b] Thalamus, hypothalamus, pituitary
c] Cerebellum, gyri, sulci
d] Parathyroid, thyroid, thymus
e] Pituitary, pons, chemoreceptor trigger zone

Answer 17

a] Mesencephalon, pons, medulla oblongata

b], refers to the diencephalon (interbrain) region of the central nervous system.

Question 18

When performing a laparotomy using an incision through the paralumbar region, which layers are incised, from exterior to interior?

a] Integument, superficial fascia (including cutaneous trunci), external abdominal oblique muscle, and parietal peritoneum
b] Integument, superficial fascia (including cutaneous trunci), external abdominal oblique muscle, transversalis fascia, and parietal peritoneum
c] Integument, cutaneous fascia, superficial fascia, deep fascia, external abdominal oblique muscle, internal abdominal oblique muscle, transverse abdominal muscle, and visceral peritoneum
d] Integument, superficial fascia, cutaneous fascia, deep fascia, internal abdominal oblique muscle, transversalis fascia, external abdominal oblique muscle, and visceral peritoneum
e] Integument, superficial fascia, cutaneous fascia, deep fascia, external abdominal oblique muscle, internal abdominal oblique muscle, transversalis fascia, and parietal peritoneum

Answer 18

e] Integument, superficial fascia, cutaneous fascia, deep fascia, external abdominal oblique muscle, internal abdominal oblique muscle, transversalis fascia, and parietal peritoneum

Parietal peritoneum covers the internal body wall of the abdominal cavity.

Question 19

What is the name of the cavity between layers of the greater omentum?

a] Omental vestibule
b] Dorsal recess of the omentum
c] Caudal recess of the omental bursa
d] Retroperitoneal recess

Answer 19

c] Caudal recess of the omental bursa

Between the superficial and deep layer of the greater omentum, there is a virtual cavity, the caudal recess of the omental bursa.

Question 20

Characteristics of normal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) include which of the following?

a] Clear, colorless, low in protein, few red blood cells (RBCs)
b] Clear, orange-tinged, low in protein, few RBCs
c] Clear, colorless, high in protein, few RBCs
d] Opaque, colorless, low in protein, few RBCs
e] Opaque, orange-tinged, high in protein, many RBCs

Answer 20

a] Clear, colorless, low in protein, few red blood cells (RBCs)

Normal CSF should be clear and colorless, low in protein, with few RBCs.

Question 21

What type of cartilage is the ear pinna composed of?

a] Hyaline
b] Fibrous
c] Elastic
d] Globular
e] Articular

Answer 21

Elastic

Hyaline is the most abundant type of cartilage in the body; it is found at the ends of bones and makes up articular cartilage. Fibrous cartilage is found at areas of high compression (intervertebral disks, stifle meniscus). Globular isn’t a type of cartilage.

Question 22

In which species does the ocular fundus normally have no tapetum?

a] Horses
b] Cattle
c] Sheep
d] Goats
e] Pigs

Answer 22

e] Pigs

Without a tapetum, the porcine fundus appears dark gray. Ruminants and horses have a fibrous tapetum that varies in color from gold to blue-green.

Question 23

Which of the following statements about the tapetum lucidum is WRONG?

a] The tapetum lucidum is absent in pigs.
b] Cats have much better night vision because their tapetum is well developed and consists of a number of layers of flat polygonal cells that appear brick-like in cross section.
c] In dogs, the tapetum lucidum is fibrous, consisting of intermingling collagen fibers and a few fibrocytes.
d] Zinc is associated with the tapetum rods in both dogs and cats that may contribute to the reflection of light.

Answer 23

c] In dogs, the tapetum lucidum is fibrous, consisting of intermingling collagen fibers and a few fibrocytes.

Question 24

The pulmonic valve is most readily auscultated at which of the following locations?

a] Left 5th intercostal space, just dorsal to the halfway point between the shoulder and sternum
b] Left 4th intercostal space, just ventral to the point of the shoulder, at the caudal border of the triceps muscle
c] Left 3rd intercostal space, just ventral to the point of the shoulder and deep to the triceps muscle
d] Left 3rd intercostal space, just dorsal to the halfway point between the shoulder and sternum and deep to the triceps muscle

Answer 24

c] Left 3rd intercostal space, just ventral to the point of the shoulder and deep to the triceps muscle

The pulmonic valve is located at the left 3rd intercostal space, just ventral to the point of the shoulder and deep to the triceps muscle.

Question 25

What structure forms the blood–testis barrier?

a] Tunica albuginea
b] Tight junction between Sertoli cells
c] The gubernaculum
d] The basement membrane of the seminiferous tubules

Answer 25

b] Tight junction between Sertoli cells

Question 26

The ear is responsible not only for hearing but also for providing information about body equilibrium. Which of the following structures found within the inner ear are responsible for those equilibrium signals?

a] Stapes, incus, malleus
b] Semicircular canals, vestibule
c] Cochlea, semicircular canals
d] Vestibule, Eustachian tube
e] Oval window, round window

Answer 26

b] Semicircular canals, vestibule

The semicircular canals determine dynamic equilibrium signals, and the vestibule determines static equilibrium signals.

Question 27

In the surgical approach to the left kidney, what structure can be used to help retract the abdominal contents and facilitate visualization of the kidney?

a] Spleen
b] Omentum
c] Descending colon
d] Descending duodenum
e] Broad ligament

Answer 27

c] Descending colon

The descending colon can be gently elevated and retracted to the right, providing improved exposure of the left kidney.

Question 28

What is the proper route of blood flow from the aorta to the arcuate vein in the kidney?

a] Aorta, renal artery, interlobar arteries, interlobular arteries, arcuate arteries, afferent arterioles, efferent arterioles, descending vasa recta, ascending vasa recta
b] Aorta, renal artery, interlobar arteries, arcuate arteries, interlobular arteries, afferent arterioles, efferent arterioles, descending vasa recta, ascending vasa recta
c] Aorta, renal artery, interlobular arteries, arcuate arteries, interlobar arteries, afferent arterioles, efferent arterioles, descending vasa recta, ascending vasa recta
d] Aorta, renal artery, interlobar arteries, arcuate arteries, interlobular arteries, efferent arterioles, afferent arterioles, descending vasa recta, ascending vasa recta

Answer 28

b] Aorta, renal artery, interlobar arteries, arcuate arteries, interlobular arteries, afferent arterioles, efferent arterioles, descending vasa recta, ascending vasa recta

Question 29

Which ligament of the female reproductive tract courses caudally along the free edge of the mesometrium and through the inguinal canal and, when broken down, allows better exteriorization of the uterine body during ovariohysterectomy?

a] Suspensor ligament
b] Proper ligament
c] Utero-ovarian ligament
d] Round ligament
e] Broad ligament

Answer 29

d] Round ligament

This describes the round ligament of the uterus.

Question 30

In which species are incisors an open-rooted type of tooth that continually grows throughout the animal’s life?

a] Cats
b] Dogs
c] Rabbits
d] Ferrets
e] Squirrel monkeys

Answer 30

c] Rabbits

Lagomorph incisors are continually growing and open rooted.

Question 31

Which of the following valves is most readily auscultated at the left 3rd intercostal space, just dorsal to the halfway point between the shoulder and sternum and deep to the triceps muscle?

a] Mitral
b] Aortic
c] Pulmonic
d] Tricuspid

Answer 31

d] Tricuspid

The tricuspid valve is located at the left 3rd intercostal space, just dorsal to the halfway point between the shoulder and sternum and deep to the triceps muscle.

Question 32

During which stage do vaginal cells have the highest keratinization?

a] Proestrus
b] Diestrus
c] Estrus
d] Metestrus

Answer 32

c] Estrus

Question 33

Which of the following statements are CORRECT regarding hair?

a] Primary follicles are very large, and have blood-filled sinuses.
b] Primary follicles are associated with sebaceous glands, sweat glands, and arrector pili muscle.
c] Secondary follicles are small in diameter, the root is close to the surface, and they are associated with sweat glands.
d] Secondary follicles are small in diameter, the root is close to the surface, and they are associated with arrector pili muscle.

Answer 33

b] Primary follicles are associated with sebaceous glands, sweat glands, and arrector pili muscle.

Question 34

The axonal pathways which transmit proprioceptive information from the limbs to the cerebellum are called the

a] spinocerebellar tracts.
b] lemniscal system.
c] spinothalamic tracts.
d] ascending reticular activating system.

Answer 34

a] spinocerebellar tracts.

Question 35

When collecting CSF from the lumbosacral space, the needle passes through which of the following structures, in order from first to last?

a] Interarcuate ligament, lumbosacral fascia, dorsal dura mater, arachnoid, subarachnoid space
b] Interarcuate ligament, cisternal space, dorsal dura mater, arachnoid, subarachnoid space
c] Cisternal space, dorsal dura mater, arachnoid, subarachnoid space, lumbosacral fascia
d] Lumbosacral fascia, interarcuate ligament, dorsal dura mater, arachnoid, subarachnoid space

Answer 35

e] Lumbosacral fascia, interarcuate ligament, dorsal dura mater, arachnoid, subarachnoid space

The spinal needle passes through the lumbosacral fascia, followed by the interarcuate ligament, dorsal dura mater, arachnoid, and subarachnoid space.

Question 36

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

a] Damage to the axillary nerve has no serious effects on the limb.
b] Damage to the musculocutaneous nerve has no serious consequences for the forelimb and a dog can raise its forepaw to the table.
c] Among nerves of the forelimb, damage to the radial nerve has the most serious consequences.
d] Although the median nerve supplies many muscles of the forelimb, damage to this nerve does not affect the gait.

Answer 36

b] Damage to the musculocutaneous nerve has no serious consequences for the forelimb and a dog can raise its forepaw to the table.

Question 37

Which of the following cranial nerves does not exit, at least in part, via the orbital fissure?

a] II
b] III
c] IV
d] V

Answer 37

a] II

Question 38

Which of the following has the poorest potential for healing and return to normal function after damage and effective surgical repair?

a] Bone
b] Intestine
c] Liver
d] Nervous tissue
e] Uterus

Answer 38

d] Nervous tissue

The basic functional unit of the nervous system, the neuron, is incapable of reproduction, so damage to the nervous system is often repaired by scar tissue. The other organs and tissues listed have excellent healing potential.

Question 39

The adult derivatives of the metencephalon include the

a] cerebellum.
b] epithalamus.
c] basal nuclei.
d] corpora quadrigemina.

Answer 39

a] cerebellum.

Question 40

The cecocolic ligament is located between what two structures?

a] The lateral band of the cecum and the lateral free band of the right ventral colon
b] The medial band of the cecum and the lateral free band of the right ventral colon
c] The lateral band of the cecum and the medial free band of the left ventral colon
d] The dorsal band of the cecum and the lateral free band of the right ventral colon
e] The dorsal band of the cecum and the medial free band of the left ventral colon

Answer 40

a] The lateral band of the cecum and the lateral free band of the right ventral colon

The cecocolic ligament is located between the lateral band of the cecum and the lateral free band of the right ventral colon.

Question 41

Which period in the hair cycle is the period of follicle regression?

a] Telogen
b] Monogen
c] Catagen
d] Anagen

Answer 41

c] Catagen

Question 42

Which muscle is the only member of the quadriceps group to originate on the ilium?

a] Semitendinosus
b] Rectus femoris
c] Vastus medialis
d] Vastus intermedius
e] Vastus lateralis

Answer 42

b] Rectus femoris

The rectus femoris originates on the ilium just cranial to the acetabulum. The semitendinosus is a not a member of the quadriceps group. The three vastus muscles originate on the proximal femur.

Question 43

Which of the following is most correct concerning a hermaphrodite?

a] It is sexually attracted to members of the same sex.
b] It is sexually attracted to members of the opposite sex.
c] It has only one type of gonad, either ovaries or testicles.
d] It has both testicular and ovarian tissue.
e] It lacks gonadal tissue altogether.

Answer 43

d] It has both testicular and ovarian tissue.

Hermaphrodites have both testicular and ovarian tissue

Question 44

To facilitate removal of the left caudal lung lobe, which structure attaching the lung lobe to the mediastinal pleura should be severed?

a] Hilar-mediastinal band
b] Diaphragmatic tendon
c] Pulmonary ligament
d] Sternopericardial ligament
e] Pneumopericardial ligament

Answer 44

c] Pulmonary ligament

The pulmonary ligament is severed to allow resection of the left caudal lung lobe.

Question 45

Deoxygenated blood passes (lastly) through which of the following valves in the heart before entering the circulatory system in the lungs to become oxygenated blood?

a] Left atrioventricular valve
b] Right atrioventricular valve
c] Mitral valve
d] Aortic valve
e] Pulmonic valve

Answer 45

e] Pulmonic valve

The pulmonic valve leads to the pulmonary artery and then branches off to the pulmonary vasculature.

Question 46

Which of the following joints is not accessible for large-volume joint lavage [in most production animals]?

a] Tibiotarsal joint
b] Fetlock joint
c] Radiocarpal joint
d] Coxofemoral joint
e] Medial femoropatellar joint

Answer 46

d] Coxofemoral joint

The coxofemoral joint is large, but is poorly accessible for either needle or arthroscopic lavage.

Question 47

The most common site for arterial sampling for blood gas analysis is which of the following?

a] The carotid artery
b] The femoral artery
c] The ulnar artery
d] The jugular vein

Answer 47

b] The femoral artery

The most common site for arterial sampling is the femoral artery.

Question 48

Which structure is most likely the source of a 30-cm-diameter ping of uniform tympany in the right mid-dorsal paralumbar fossa extending from the 12th rib to the tuber coxae?

a] Spiral colon
b] Cecum
c] Abomasum
d] Uterus
e] Small intestine

Answer 48

b] Cecum

The ping area is too large to be small intestine, uterus, or spiral colon. Its location is centered in the paralumbar fossa, rather than over the caudal rib cage, indicating cecum rather than abomasum.

Question 49

Where does the cephalic vein drain into?

a] Omobrachial vein
b] Superficial cervical vein
c] Jugular vein
d] Axillary vein

Answer 49

c] Jugular vein

Question 50

The teres hepatis ligament runs between

a] Spleen and liver
b] Spleen and abdominal wall
c] Stomach and abdominal wall
d] Liver and umbilicus

Answer 50

d] Liver and umbilicus

Question 51

Which of the following ACCURATELY describes the signs of damage to the ulnar nerve?

a] The skin on the medial side of the limb is deprived of sensation.
b] There will be significant hyperextension of the digits.
c] It has no noticeable effects on the gait or posture.
d] The foot rests on its dorsal surface.

Answer 51

c] It has no noticeable effects on the gait or posture.

Question 52

With a diaphragmatic hernia, which of the following organs is most commonly herniated into the thorax?

a] Stomach
b] Small intestine
c] Liver
d] Spleen
e] Kidney

Answer 52

c] Liver

This is due to the liver’s close association with the diaphragm. The stomach, small intestine, and spleen are also found with fair regularity in a diaphragmatic hernia, but less commonly than the liver. Kidneys are fairly firmly attached to the retroperitoneal space and are only rarely displaced into the thorax with a diaphragmatic hernia.

Question 53

Loss of sensation to the face and paralysis of the muscles of mastication are most likely caused by damage to

a] midbrain.
b] medulla oblongata.
c] facial nerve.
d] trigeminal nerve.

Answer 53

d] trigeminal nerve.

Question 54

Oral parakeratinized tissue is much tougher than nonkeratinized tissue. Which of the following is not keratinized?

a] Free gingiva
b] Gingival margin
c] Alveolar mucosa
d] Attached gingiva
e] Gingival papilla

Answer 54

c] Alveolar mucosa

The parakeratinized attached gingiva helps protect the nonkeratinized alveolar mucosa.

Question 55

Which of the following cranial nerves are involved in the process of swallowing a food bolus?

a] IV, X, and XI
b] IX, X, and XII
c] IV, V, and X
d] V, IX, and XII

Answer 55

b] IX, X, and XII

The food bolus is swallowed via innervation of cranial nerves IX, X, and XII (glossopharyngeal, vagus, and hypoglossal).

Question 56

Which of the following is the longest portion of the small intestine in companion animals?

a] Duodenum
b] Pylorus
c] Jejunum
d] Ileum
e] Ileocolic

Answer 56

c] Jejunum

The jejunum is the longest part of the small intestine and fills the midabdomen.

Question 57

The part of the eye that produces aqueous humor is which of the following?

a] Corneal endothelium
b] Iris stroma
c] Ciliary body epithelium
d] Retina

Answer 57

c] Ciliary body epithelium

The ciliary body epithelium produces aqueous humor.

Question 58

Which of the following animal doesn’t possess a gallbladder?

a] Swine
b] Horse
c] Goat
d] Dog

Answer 58

b] Horse

Question 59

Which of the following best describes the location of an incision extending from the xiphoid process to the umbilicus of an animal?

a] Dorsal midline
b] Flank
c] Paracostal
d] Paramedian
e] Ventral midline

Answer 59

e] Ventral midline
`
The xiphoid process and umbilicus are both on the animal’s ventral midline.

Question 60

Which animal species has kidneys that are lighter in color than other domestic animal species because of the presence of lipid droplets in renal tubular epithelial cells?

a] Dog
b] Cat
c] Cattle
d] Horse
e] Pig

Answer 60

b] Cat

The feline kidney is tan or light brown because of the presence of lipid in tubular epithelial cells.

Question 61

Which of the following statements regarding follicles is CORRECT?

a] A primary follicle contains a secondary oocyte.
b] The antrum is formed during transition from primary to secondary follicular stage.
c] The corona radiata is ovulated with the oocyte.
d] Oocytes lack the Zona Pellucida at tertiary follicle stage.

Answer 61

c] The corona radiata is ovulated with the oocyte.

Question 62

What structure is most often associated with the site of fertilization?

a] Infundibulum
b] Isthmus
c] Ampullary–isthmic junction
d] Uterine horn

Answer 62

c] Ampullary–isthmic junction

Question 63

To produce spinal anesthesia, a local anesthetic should be injected in which of the following locations?

a] Between the pia mater and arachnoid
b] Between the arachnoid and dura mater
c] Into the epidural space
d] Between the pia mater and spinal cord
e] In the intramedullary area

Answer 63

a] Between the pia mater and arachnoid

In spinal anesthesia, the anesthetic agent is administered into the cerebrospinal fluid, which circulates in the subarachnoid space.

Question 64

What is the proper order of sperm transport from location of sperm development to urethra?

a] Seminiferous tubules, Efferent ductules, Rete testis, Straight tubule, Epididymis, Ductus deferens, Urethra
b] Straight tubule, Seminiferous tubules, Rete testis, Efferent ductules, Epididymis, Ductus deferens, Urethra
c] Seminiferous tubules, Straight tubule, Rete testis, Efferent ductules, Epididymis, Ductus deferens, Urethra
d] Straight tubule, Efferent ductules, Rete testis, Seminiferous tubules, Epididymis, Ductus deferens, Urethra

Answer 64

c] Seminiferous tubules, Straight tubule, Rete testis, Efferent ductules, Epididymis, Ductus deferens, Urethra

Question 65

Which of the following is NOT a derivative of epithelium?

a] Guard hair
b] Digital cushion
c] Wall of horse hoof
d] Sebaceous gland

Answer 65

b] Digital cushion