Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

A** > 4 > Flashcards

4 Flashcards

1
Q

List 5 signs of anaemia

A

Signs: pallor, tachycardia, glossitis, koilonychia, dark urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

List 4 symptoms of anaemia

A

Symptoms: weakness, SoB, palpitations, fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is glossitis?

A

Swollen, red, painful tongue (vitamin B12 deficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Koilonychia

A

Spoon nails (caused by iron deficiency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Tinnitus

A

A sensation of noise (such as a ringing or roaring) that is typically caused by a bodily condition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 3-main type of anaemias?

A

Microcytic, normocytic, macrocytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the consequences of less RBCs/haemoglobin?

A

Anaemias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What role does vitamin B12 (cobalamin) play in RBC production?

A

A water-soluble vitamin that has a key role in the normal functioning of the brain and nervous system, and the formation of red blood cells. It is one of eight B vitamins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How can anaemia lead to confusion and loss of consciousness?

A

When not enough oxygen is getting to the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are erythropoiesis?

A

Production of red blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is EPO?

A

Erythropoietin, which regulates erythropoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the difference between microcytic, normocytic and macrocytic anaemia?

A

Microcytic – Small RBC size (decreased MCV)
Normocytic – normal RBC size (MCV normal)
Macrocytic – large RBC size (increased MCV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What do these mean: hypochromic, normochromic?

A

Hypochromic – erythrocytes are paler than normal

Normochromic – normal MCV (erythrocyte size)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In what kind of anaemia is dark urine common?

A

Haemolytic anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define haematopoiesis.

A

Formation of the cells of immune system + blood cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are haematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) + where do they reside?

A

Cells which can give rise to all the different blood cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why are HSCs known as being self-renewing?

A

They reside in the bone marrow + when they proliferate, at least some of their daughter cells remain as HSCs so stem cell pool is not depleted (asymmetric division).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is asymmetric division? Give an example.

A

Asymmetric cell division produces two daughter cells with different cellular fates. E.g. HSC proliferation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the daughter cells of HSCs? Can they renew themselves?

A

HSCs – can renew themselves
Myeloid progenitor cells – cannot renew themselves
Lymphoid progenitor cells – cannot renew themselves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

All blood cells are divided into which 2 lineages?

A

Lymphocytes and myelocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What do myelocytes include?

A

Granulocytes: neurotrphil, eosinophil, basophil

Monocyte —> Macrophages + myeloid DC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the lymphoid lineage primarily composed of?

A

Lymphoid progenitors such as T-cells and B-cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a proerythroblast?

A

A precursor cells that will eventually become a RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which vitamin are essential for DNA synthesis?

A

Vitamin B12

Vitamin B9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Define proliferation.

A

Rapid reproduction of a cell or organism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What 2 things cause anaemia?

A

Reduced production of functional erythrocytes or production of defective haemoglobin

Increased destruction of erythrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

List 3 essential micronutrients that are critical in the production of erythrocytes and haem synthesis.

A

Vitamin B6
Vitamin B12 + B9
Iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What do the abbreviations in a full blood count mean: MCV, HCT, MCH, MCHC, RDW?

A

MCV – mean corpuscular volume (RBC size)

HCT – haematocrit (PCV – proportion of RBCs in blood)

MCH – mean corpuscular haemoglobin (average amount of haemoglobin in RBCs)

MCHC – MCH concentration (average % of haemoglobin in the RBCs)

RDW – red blood cell distribution width

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are does SCA cause?

A

Increased haemolysis

Vaso-occlusive crises

Visceral sequestration crisis

Haemolytic crises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the common causes of macrocytic anaemia (increased MCV)?

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency, folate deficiency, liver disease, hypothyroidism, reticulocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which receptors do IgE antibodies bind to on mast cells?

A

FcεRI on mast cell where the Fc region of IgE binds to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the difference between folic acid + vitamin B12?

A

Folic acid is vitamin B9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is sideroblastic anaemia?

A

Form of anaemia in which the bone marrow produces ringed sideroblasts rather than healthy erythrocytes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What causes low MCV + high RBC count?

A

Thalassemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What causes low MCV and low RBC count?

A

ron deficiency, Pb poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is pancytopenia?

A

Conditions affecting production of other cell types in addition to RBCs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is PRCA pure red cell aplasia?

A

Conditions affecting specifically erythropoiesis in the bone marrow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What leads to pancytopenia?

A

Failure of HSCs to self-renew eventually leads to HSC exhaustion and pancytopenia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is haemolytic anaemia?

A

Premature destruction of functional erythrocytes by intrinsic or extrinsic mechanisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the 2 reasons why erythrocyte destruction usually occurs (extrinsic and; intrinsic)?

A
  1. Nothing wrong w/ the erythrocyte but they are destroyed by external pathological processes such as drugs, toxins, auto-antibodies or infection.
  2. Something intrinsically wrong w/ the erythrocyte so it’s destroyed. E.g. abnormal Hb, lacks certain enzymes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is SCA caused by?

A

Mutation in the beta-globin gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What does a RBC get broken down into (in the spleen/liver/red bone marrow)?

A

Globin - aa - reused for protein synthesis

Heme - liver (bilirubin and ferritin) - excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are haemoglobinopathies?

Give an example.

A

Autosomal co-dominant genetic defects resulting in abnormal structure of 1 globin chain of Hb molecule.

E.g. SCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What does SCA affect?

A

Due to abnormally shaped SC erythrocytes issues w/ passage through circulatory system and ability to carry O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is a splenic sequestration crisis?

A

Intrasplenic sickling prevents blood from leaving the spleen and acute splenic engorgement ensues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is a haemolytic crisis?

A

The rapid destruction of large numbers of red blood cells (haemolysis)

The destruction occurs much faster than the body can produce new red blood cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is a vaso-occlusive crisis and its causes?

A

Sickle-shaped RBCs block blood vessels. Blood and oxygen cannot get to tissues, causing pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What characterises hypochromic and microcytic RBCs?

A

Hypochromic – pale RBCs

Microcytic – small RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is sideroblastic anemia caused by and characterised by?

A

Characterised by failure to incorporate iron into haem in erythrocyte precursor cells.

Caused by mutations/deletions of genes regulating expression of key enzymes in haem synthesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Describe what happens to broken down heme components.

A

Heme –> biliverdin and Fe3+ –> bilirubin and Fe3+ (goes to liver) –> bilirubin secreted in bile into the SI where it become urobilinogen –> urobilin (urine) / stercobilin (faeces)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the role of transferrin in the breakdown of haemoglobin?

A

Carries Fe3+ in the blood from macrophage to liver and liver to red bone marrow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What does bilirubin get broken down into in the kidney and large intestines?

A

Kidney – urobilin

LI – stercobilin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What 2 components is heme broken down into?

A

Biliverdin and Fe3+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What happens to the globin broken down from RBCs?

A

Breaks down into amino acids and are reused for protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Put these in order in starting from RBC being phagocytosed in liver, spleen, or red marrow: bilirubin, urobilinogen, biliverdin, urobilin.

A

Biliverdin, bilirubin, urobilinogen, urobilin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

List the components of blood cells.

A

Erythrocytes, thrombocytes, leukocytes

57
Q

List the components of blood plasma.

A

Water, proteins, inorganic ions, organic substances

58
Q

What are the blood cells of the innate immune system?

A

Neutrophils, monocytes, basophils, eosinophils, mast cells, natural killer cells.

59
Q

Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by which type of antibody in humans?

A

IgE

60
Q

In hypersplenism is MCV high, low or normal?

A

Normal

61
Q

In liver disease is MCV high, low or normal?

A

High

62
Q

In thalassemia is MCV high, low or normal?

A

Low

63
Q

In iron-deficiency anaemia is MCV high, low or normal?

A

Low

64
Q

What is the difference between sideroblastic anaemia and haemolytic anaemia?

A

Sideroblastic – Low MCV and few RBCs (failure of iron incorporated in Hb)

Haemolytic – Normal MCV (RBCs breakdown > formation)

65
Q

Does vitamin B12 deficiency cause macrocytic, normocytic or microcytic anaemia?

A

Macrocytic anaemia - RBCs larger than normal

66
Q

What does the common lymphoid progenitor develop into?

A

T and B lymphocytes, NK cells, lymphoid dendritic cells.

67
Q

Where to T cell develop and migrate to?

A

Develop in the thymus and migrate to spleen.

68
Q

Where does the common myeloid progenitor develop?

A

In the red bone marrow and completes in lymphatic tissue

69
Q

Name 3 granulocytes.

A

Eosinophil, basophil, neutrophil

70
Q

Name all the agranulocytes (mononuclear).

A

Monocytes (macrophages, DC), lymphocytes (B and T cells)

71
Q

What is the suffix of all granulocytes?

A

-phil

72
Q

What is the suffix of most agranulocytes?

A

-cyte

73
Q

What does a monocyte differentiate into and where?

A

Macrophage or dendritic cells when they migrate from bloodstream to tissues.

74
Q

What does the B lymphocyte become once activated?

A

B effector cells.

75
Q

What do megakaryocytes develop into?

A

Thrombocytes (platelets)

76
Q

What is the bone marrow a site of?

A

Blood formation

77
Q

How does haematopoiesis change as we develop and age?

A

Prenatal months – blood produced: yolk sac, liver, spleen

Postnatal years – bone marrow of tibia (0-20), femur (0-25), vertebrae and pelvis, sternum and ribs forever.

78
Q

Where is most blood produced in prenatal foetuses?

A

Liver

79
Q

CTLA-4 is an important negative regulator of T cell activation. How does it function?

A

Is a protein receptor that functions as an immune checkpoint, downregulates immune responses. Is expressed in Tregs.

80
Q

In prenatal and postnatal years, what type of Hb is produced?

A

Prenatal – alpha and gamma

Postnatal – alpha and beta

81
Q

In postnatal years, over 25 where is blood produced?

A

Bone marrow of vertebrae, pelvis, sternum and ribs

82
Q

What regulates haematopoiesis?

A

GFs including: IL-1,2,3,7, GM-CSF, G-CSR, M-CSF, TPO, EPO

83
Q

Protein regulators that determine the fate of haematopoietic cells drive what?

A

Self-renewal, cell death, expansion and differentiation.

84
Q

What does EPO, TPO and cytokines regulate formation of?

A

EPO – RBCs, TPO – platelets, Cytokines – WBCs

85
Q

Bone marrow contains which distinct features?

A

Trabecular bone, granulocytes, megakaryocytes, erythroid islands, steatocytes

86
Q

What are steatocytes?

A

Fat cells, they maintain metabolic state by storing energy needed for proliferation

87
Q

What are erythroid islands?

A

Erythroblasts making erythrocytes

88
Q

What are megakaryocytes?

A

A large bone marrow cell w/ a lobulated nucleus. It produces thrombocytes.

89
Q

What is trabecular (spongy) bone? Where is it found?

A

a.k.a. cancellous bone. It is very porous and contains red bone marrow, where blood cells are made.

Found at ends of long bones, pelvic bones, ribs, skull and vertebrae (spinal).

90
Q

What are granulocytes?

A

A white blood cell with secretory granules in its cytoplasm, e.g. an eosinophil or a basophil.

91
Q

Immature blood cells initially interact with which type of cells in the marrow?

A

Stomal cells in the marrow.

92
Q

Delta, epsilon and zeta chains are associated with what and when do they disappear?

A

The yolk sac, disappear v. early (9 weeks)

93
Q

What is the point of having LT-HSC (long term haematopoietic stem cells?

A

They divide rarely so little chance of mutations/damage etc. so they last entire lifespan.

94
Q

What do LT-HSC differentiate into?

A

LT-HSC, ST-HSC

95
Q

What are MPPs (multipotent progenitor cells)?

A

Cells committed to either the lymphoid or myeloid lineages and give rise to more differentiated precursors.

96
Q

Why is foetal haemoglobin different from adult haemoglobin?

A

Because it must bind oxygen at lower partial pressure (from mother) so it must have a higher affinity for oxygen than adult Hb

97
Q

What is made in the bone marrow at a rate of 2.4 x 106 per second?

A

RBCs

98
Q

What does gamma interferon induce?

A

Activation of macrophages and inducer of MHC class II expression

99
Q

What is the key role of macrophages in the spleen?

A

Removal of damaged RBCs

100
Q

What is the life span of RBCs?

A

120 days

101
Q

95% of the blood in the body filters through the spleen in what time frame?

A

3 minutes

102
Q

What is the straw-coloured liquid component of the blood called?

A

Blood plasma

103
Q

Name the methods of analysis of blood.

A

Spectrometry and impedance, cytochemistry, flow, cytometry, immunoassays, microscopy.

104
Q

What are the 3 plasma proteins and what synthesises them?

A

Albumins, globulins, fibrinogen

105
Q

What are gamma globulins?

A

Plasma proteins, a.k.a. immunoglobulins (Ab)

106
Q

What determines blood type?

A

Antigen A and B on surface of RBCs

107
Q

What naturally occurring antibody type in the serum targets non-present ABO antigens?

A

IgM

108
Q

Circulating platelets have a life span of what?

A

5-9 days

109
Q

What controls the lifespan of circulating platelets?

A

Integral apoptotic regulating pathway

110
Q

What 3 types of granules do platelets contain?

A

Dense – ADP, ATP, calcium ion, magnesium, serotonin

Lambda – hydrolytic enzymes

Alpha – PF-4, TGF-beta-1, vWF, fibrinogen (factor I), factor V, fibronectin

111
Q

What does dense granules in platelets contain?

A

ADP, ATP, calcium ion, magnesium, serotonin

112
Q

What does alpha granules in platelets contain?

A

PF-4, TGF-beta-1, vWF, fibrinogen (factor I), factor V, fibronectin

113
Q

Platelet reserves in spleen can be released by what?

A

Splenic contraction

114
Q

What does thrombopoietin regulate?

A

Formation of platelets

115
Q

Platelets form from what of the megakaryocyte?

A

Cytoplasm

116
Q

Each megakaryocyte releases how many platelets?

A

2000-5000

117
Q

What does vWF do?

A

A blood glycoprotein involved in haemostasis.

118
Q

What does fibrinogen do?

A

a.k.a factor I – is a blood plasma protein made in the liver. It’s a coagulation factor responsible for normal clotting

119
Q

What is myeloproliferative neoplasms?

A

Too much proliferation of myeloid cells

120
Q

What is polycythemia vera?

A

Excess of RBCs in circulation

121
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary polycythemia?

A

1 – genetic problems in RBCs, e.g. PV, congenital/familial

2 – conditions promote RBC development, e.g. hypoxia, EPO secreting tumours, neonatal polycythemia.

122
Q

What the EPO secreting tumours cause?

A

Too much EPO secretion which upregulates the production of erythrocytes –> secondary polycythaemia

123
Q

What is relative polycythemia?

A

When RBCs are normal but reduced plasma volume e.g. dehydration is causing the problem.

124
Q

What is essential thrombocythemia?

A

Excess platelets

125
Q

What is idiopathic myelofibrosis?

A

Too few RBCs. Too many platelets and WBCs

126
Q

Which JAK gene is involved in myeloproliferative neoplasms?

A

JAK-2; Makes HSCs more sensitive to growth factors

127
Q

What is parasitism?

A

One organism benefits at the expense of the other

128
Q

What is mutualism?

A

Both organisms benefit

129
Q

What is commensalism?

A

One organism benefits, the other is unaffected

130
Q

From smallest to largest list all the pathogens.

A

Virus, intracellular bacteria, extracellular bacteria, archaea, protozoa, fungi, parasites

131
Q

In what 3 ways does the innate immune system protect against pathogens?

A

Anatomical barriers

Complement/antimicrobial protein activation

Inflammation

132
Q

Is the innate or adaptive immune response more efficient?

A

Adaptive due to high specificity of antigen recognition by its lymphocytes

133
Q

What is complement?

A

Part of the innate immune system that enhances the ability of Ab and phagocytic cells to clear microbes and damaged cells from an organism.

Promotes inflammation and attacks pathogen’s plasma membrane. Consists of a number of small proteins syn by liver.

134
Q

Where are macrophages found?

A

In almost all tissues

135
Q

Many tissue-resistant macrophages arise when?

A

During embryonic development

136
Q

List the granulocytes and agranulocytes

A

Granulocytes:

  • Neutrophils
  • Basophils
  • Eosinophils

Agranulocytes:

  • Monocytes (macrophages)
  • Lymphocytes (T + B cells, NK cells)
137
Q

What are proethryoblasts (pronormoblasts) precursors of?

A

Erythroblasts (RBCs)

138
Q

Precursors of platelets (thrombocytes)?

A

Megakaryocytes –> pro-megakaryocyte –> megakaryoblast –> common myeloid progenitor –> Hematopoietic stem cell

A** (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions