15 Flashcards

1
Q

Inanition

A

State of advanced lack of adequate nutrition, food, and water or a physiological inability to utilise them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cachexia

A

Weight loss or deterioration in physical condition e.g. muscle atrophy in someone not actively trying to lose weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Effect of fat ingestion on appetite

A

Causes the release of CCK, which slows gastric emptying, making us feel full

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Effect of calcitonin on appetite

A

Reduces it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Effect of insulin on appetite

A

Down-regulates appetite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Effect of cold and hot environments on appetite

A

Hot - decreases appetite

Cold - increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where is the satiety centre located?

A

Ventromedial wall and paraventricular nucleus of hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How does opioids and GHRH effect appetite

A

Increase appetite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does 5-HT, dopamine and GABA effect appetite

A

Decrease appetite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Common symptoms of bowel disease

A
  • Pain, swelling, cramping in tummy
  • Recurring or bloody diarrhoea
  • Weight loss
  • Extreme tiredness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Small intestine motility

A

Segmentation:

  • Mixes digested food
  • Oscillating movements resulting in contracted and relaxed areas
  • Slow net movement towards anus

Peristalsis:

  • Rapid propulsion of intestinal contents towards the anus
  • Contraction of longitudinal muscles
  • Reflex initiated by local distension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What causes gut motility in the fasting state?

A

Migrating motor complexes (MMC) which occur every 90-120mins

High frequency bursts of powerful contractions, beginning in the stomach and moving towards the terminal ileum

Pyloric sphincter open wide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Functions of migrating motor complexes?

A

Moves indigestible food e.g. tomato skins

Allows for removal of dead epithelial cells

Prevents bacterial overgrowth

Prevents colonic bacteria entering the small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the gastro-ileal reflex?

A

Causes ileal segmentation in response to gastrin (from G cells) secreted due to presence of chyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is segmentation coordinated by?

A

Myenteric plexus and circular muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is circular muscle contraction brought on by?

A

Acetylcholine and substance P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is contraction of the small intestine mediated by?

A

Vagal excitatory contraction via substance P and acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is relaxation of the small intestine mediated by?

A

Vagal inhibitory contraction via NO and VIP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Motility of large intestine

A

Segmental (haustral) contractions:

  • Brought about by contraction of teniae coli
  • Distension of haustra stimulates contraction
  • Contraction of adjacent haustra causes mixing effect

Peristalsis:

  • Slower in large intestine than small intestine
  • Slowly moves intestinal contents towards the anus

Mass movement:

  • Describes intense contraction that begins halfway along the transverse colon and pushes intestinal contents towards the rectum
  • Occurs shortly after meal and if faeces are present in the rectum, stimulates urge to defecate - gastrocolic reflex
  • Partly hormonal via CCK
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Bulk forming laxatives MOA

A

Increase the volume of non-absorbable solid residue in the gut, distending the colon and stimulating peristaltic activity

E.g. bran, methycellulose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Osmotic laxatives MOA

A

Poorly absorbed compounds that increase water content of the bowel by osmosis

E.g. movicol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Stimulant laxatives MOA

A

Increase peristalsis and water and electrolyte secretion possibly by stimulating enteric nerves

E.g. Senna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Faecal softeners (antispasmodics) MOA

A

Directly relax smooth muscle

E.g. mebeverine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Pathophysiology of Crohn’s disease

A
  • Granulomatous inflammation from mouth anus
  • Relapsing remitting
  • NOD2/CARD15 gene

Macroscopic:

  • Skip lesions
  • Haemorrhagic ulcers/mesenteric lymph node hyperplasia
  • Cobblestone pattern of bowel mucosa due to submucosal oedema and interconnected deep fissured ulcers
  • Thickened bowel wall due to oedema and fibrosis

Microscopic:

  • Transmural inflammation - all layers of bowel wall
  • Non-caseating granuloma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Pathophysiology of ulcerative colitis

A
  • Diffuse superficial inflammation
  • Relapsing-remitting

Macroscopic appearance:

  • May affect whole large bowel
  • Bowel wall not thickened
  • Shallow ulceration with pseudopolyps, hyperaemia and haemorrhage
  • Diseased bowel is continuous

Microscopic appearance:

  • Inflammation is limited to mucosa and submucosa with infiltration of both neutrophils and macrophages
  • Crypt abscesses with ulceration, crypt atrophy and paneth cell metaplasia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Pathophysiology of malabsorption

A

Malabsorption is the decreased absorption of nutrients which may be caused by a number of conditions including biochemical disorders

Causes include:

  • Reduced small intestine SA
  • Infection
  • Loss of digestive enzymes
  • Drug induced mechanisms
  • Lymphatic obstruction
  • Rapid transit
  • Failure of nutrient to reach small bowel (fistula)
  • Surgical resection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Coeliac disease

A
  • Abnormal reaction to gluten
  • Damage to enterocytes
  • Environmental factors allow gliadin to come into contact with transglutaminase in the lamina propria
  • Gliadin is the modified by TTG and recognised as an antigen by CD4+ T cells
  • Stem cells unable to keep up with rate of loss of enterocytes
  • Results in villous atrophy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Consequences of malnutrition

A
  • Frothy, greasy stools that are difficult to flush away
  • Anaemia
  • Diarrhoea
  • Weight loss
  • Abdominal distension
  • Vit K deficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Describe intestinal epithelial cell barrier

A
  • Lamina propria - where you find cells of immune system
  • Tight junctions - make cells stick together
  • Goblet cells secrete mucins
  • Paneth cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What do paneth cells (intestinal epithelial) secrete?

A

Anti-microbial peptides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What happens to concentration of bacteria as you move down gut?

And what changes about the bacteria?

A
  • Conc. increases

- Becomes more anaerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How do innate immune system cells recognise pathogens?

A

Pattern recognition receptors e.g. Toll-like receptors/NODs/CARDs

They recognise patterns such as LPS, peptidoglycan and dsRNA

Cannot distinguish specifically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How do adaptive immune system cells recognise pathogens?

A

Use antigen specific receptors

B cell receptors is an antibody which can recognise 3D structures

T cell receptors recognise MHC complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

T-helper cell effector subsets

A

Th1 - IFN-gamma - effective against intracellular pathogens e.g. toxoplasmosis

Th2 - IL4 and IL-5 - effective against extracellular pathogens e.g. helminths

Th17 - IL-17 - effective against extracellular bacteria and fungi especially at mucosal sites e.g. Klebsiella and Candida

These help us fight pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

T-helper cell regulatory subsets

A

TR1 - IL-10
TR3 - TGF-beta
CD25+ - IL-10 and TGF-beta

These dampen the effectors - down-regulate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Pathology caused by Th1

A

Chronic inflammation
Autoimmunity
Type 1 diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Pathology caused by Th2

A

Asthma

Allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Pathology caused by Th17

A

Chronic inflammation
Autoimmunity
RA, MS, psoriasis and IBD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What would you find at induction sites of GALT?

A
  • Peyer’s patches
  • Isolate lymphoid follicles
  • Mesenteric lymph nodes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What cells would you find scattered around the GALT?

A
  • Lamina propria leukocytes

- Intraepithelial lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which cells are peyer’s patches covered by?

A

M cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How do M cells take up antigens?

A
  • By endocytosis and phagocytosis
  • They then transport antigens to basal site where immune cells are
  • Dendritic cells pick up the antigen and are activated
  • Dendritic cells then migrate to the T-cell areas of peyer’s patches
  • Then travel via lymphatics to mesenteric lymph nodes - activate T cells here
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which pathogens specifically target M cells?

A

Poliovirus,

Reovirus,

Some retroviruses,

Salmonella,

Shigella

Yersinia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What do conditioned dendritic cells cause in healthy tissue?

A

Favour induction of Treg responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Intestinal homeostasis

A

Either too many effectors (Th1, Th2, Th17) or regulatory cell defect (Tr1, Tr3, CD25)

In intestinal inflammation either too many effectors or not enough regulatory cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Difference between IgA in blood and mucosal immune system

A

Monomeric in blood

Dimeric in mucosal immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Transcytosis of IgA and formation of secretory IgA

A
  • Mediated by poly-Ig receptor
  • J chain binds to receptor
  • IgA then transported across lumen
  • In the lumen, it is cleaved off with poly-Ig receptor still attached
  • It is now known as secretory IgA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Functions of secretory IgA

A
  • Binds to mucus layer, coating epithelium
  • Prevents adherence of microorganisms
  • Neutralises toxins and enzymes
  • Little capacity to activate classical pathway of complement or act as a opsonin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What can replace IgA in IgA deficient people?

A

IgM - pentamer with J chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Why is there normally no adverse response against food antigens and the commensal flora?

A

Food antigens:

  • Default response to oral administration of protein antigen is oral tolerance
  • Oral tolerance means effecter T cells - Th1, Th2 and Th17 are switched off
  • Treg cells are generated which dampen immune response

Commensal flora:

  • Induce IgA and Treg cells in intestine
  • Ignored by systemic immune system - some antigens won’t get further than mesenteric lymph nodes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How can we mount effective immune response against pathogens?

A
  • DCs fully activated in presence of pathogens
  • Induce CD4+ cells to differentiate into effector cells
  • Innate immune system activated through pattern-recognition receptors (toll-like receptors)
  • TLR-2 - detects peptidoglycan
  • TLR-4 - detects LPS
  • TLR-5 - detects flagellin
  • You get up-regulation of MHC and co-stimulatory molecules as well as cytokine production
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How does immune system distinguish between harmless commensals and pathogenic bacteria?

A

Localisation of PRRs

  • TLR-4 expression at crypt base
  • Basolateral TLR5 expression inside epithelial cells so pathogens invading tissues can trigger TLR activation

Virulence factors in pathogens
- Salmonella has type III secretion system so they can inject material into host cel to trigger activation from inside

Commensals avoid PRR activation
Changes in flagellating sequences - TLR5 hyporesponsive so TLR5 cannot be triggered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Genetic predisposition of Crohn’s

A
  • Mutation in NOD2 (a PRR) - usually stimulated by muramyl dipeptide
  • IL-23 receptor - normally produced by innate cells following activation by PRR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Where can NOD2 be expressed?

A

Paneth cells (of SI)

Paneth cells produce large amounts of α-defensins and other antimicrobial peptides, such as lysozymes and secretory phospholipase A2 (sPLA2).

If you have mutation you therefore may not be able to mount immune response as they secrete antimicrobial peptides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Treatments for IBD that modulate immune system

A
  • Helminth therapy
  • Faecal microbiotia transplant
  • Bacterial cocktails
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Anti-inflammatory drugs for IBD

A

Aminosalicylates - dampen inflammatory response e.g. sulphasalazine

Corticosteroids

Immunosuppressants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Invasive GI infection syndrome

A

Mechanism - invasion of mucosa/production of cytokines

Location - colon

Organisms - shigella, salmonella, campylobacter and E. Coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Non-inflammatory GI infection syndrome

A

Mechanism - enterotoxin/mucosal adhesion

Location - proximal small bowel

Organism - vibrio cholerae, enterotoxigenic E. Coli and bacillus cereus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Penetrating GI infection syndrome

A

Mechanism - induced phagocytosis

Location - distal small bowel

Organism - salmonella, listeria monocytogenes, yersinia enterocolitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Use of antibiotics in gastroenteritis

A

Not advised
Can make E. Coli 0157 worse
Can cause diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is post-infectious syndrome of gastroenteritis?

A

Lactose intolerance

Intestinal hurry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the clearance time of gastroenteritis?

A

48hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Host defences against GI infection

A
  • Sensory - taste and smell
  • Behavioural - programmed to avoid GI infection
  • Gastric acid pH 2
  • Bile salts/acids
  • Peristalsis
  • Mucus - physical barrier and antimicrobial
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Humeral immunity against GI infection

A

Secretory IgA production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Colonisation resistance

A

Where normal GI flora occupies space and produce antibiotic like substances

End products of metabolism may also be toxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Microbiome

A

Sum of all species in the bowel

2-5kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Antibiotics that can cause Clostridium Difficile?

A

Cephalosporin
Clindamycin
Co-amoxiclav
Ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

How to treat Clostridium Difficile?

A

Metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Diagnosis of bacterial overgrowth

A

Hydrogen breath test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Iron deficiency anaemia

A

Microcytic, hypochromic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

B12 deficiency anaemia

A

Macrocytic, normochromic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Vitamin A deficiency

A

Visual acuity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Selenium deficiency

A

Dermatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Gut flora associated diseases

A
  • Autism - clostridium boltiae
  • Asthma/atopy - increased clostridia and decreased bifidobacteria
  • Obesity - increased actinobacteria and decreased bacterioids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Cells you would find in the submucosa of the large intestine

A
  • Cajal cells
  • Cells of the enteric nervous system
  • Adipose
  • Collagen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Cells you would find in the mucosa of the large intestine

A

In the epithelium - goblet cells, absorptive colonocytes, endocrine and paneth cells (right colon only, metaplasia if found in the left)

Lamina propria

Basement membrane to support epithelium

Muscularis mucosae - thin layer of muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Type of epithelium in small intestine

A

Columnar - with goblet cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Cells you would find in the small intestine

A

Paneth - base of crypts

Endocrine cells

Intraepithelial lymphocytes

Brunner’s gland - alkaline mucous secretions and also rich in epidermal growth factor which encourages mucosal regeneration (duodenum)

Lymphoid tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Where would you find peyer’s patches in the small intestine?

A

Ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What causes inflammation in appendicitis?

A

Obstruction by faecoliths

Food residues

Lymphoid hyperplasia

Diverticulitis

Neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Complications of appendicitis?

A
  • Abscess formation
  • Necrosis
  • Spread of suppurative inflammation
  • Perforation
  • Septicaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Coeliac disease histology

A
  • Blunting and atrophy of mucosa
  • Increased intraepithelial lymphocytes
  • Crypt hyperplasia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is malabsorption in coeliac disease due to?

A
  • Mucosal damage = less SA for absorption
  • Immature enterocytes not capable of normal absorption
  • Decreases hormone production
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Pseudomembranous colitis

A
  • Caused by C. Difficile
  • Volcano like eruptions of neutrophils, fibrin, mucus and epithelial cells on the surface which creates a pseudomembrane
  • Causes infective diarrhoea and dehydration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Diverticulitis associated colitis

A
  • Inflammation limited to segment affected by diverticulum
  • Crypt architectural changes
  • Can be transmural with lymphoid aggregates and fistula formation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Anatomy of portal circulation

A

Coeliac trunk –> hepatic artery proper –? R and L hepatic arteries

Right hepatic –> cystic artery (to gallbladder)

Hepatic portal vein carries products of digestion from the GI tract to liver (partially oxygenated)

Right and left hepatic ducts drain bile into the common hepatic duct which joins the cystic duct to form the bile duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Phase I reaction in liver

A
  • Oxidation carried out mainly by cytochrome P450 in the hepatocyte SER
  • A number of drugs induce microsomal enzymes, affecting the metabolism of other drugs taken at the same time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Phase II reaction in liver

A
  • Number of chemical products are conjugates with drugs or their metabolites in the liver inc. glucuronyl, acetyl, methyl
  • Conjugation important with paracetamol
  • Paracetamol is inactivated by conjugation to form a glucuronide or sulphate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Phase III reaction in liver

A
  • Elimination of conjugated substances is via the blood, which then results in excretion through the kidneys or via bile through the intestines
  • ATPase pumps required to actively transport the substance out of the hepatocyte
  • The amount of active drug reaching the circulation is reduced and the drug is said to undergo significant first-pass metabolism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Alcoholic hepatitis

A
  • Inflammation of the liver due to alcohol ingestion
  • Mallory bodies appear in the hepatocytes
  • Aggregation of neutrophils around damaged liver cells
  • Focal necrosis in zone 3
  • Ballooning of hepatocytes can occur due to retention of proteins and water after injury to organelles
  • Alkaline phosphatase, alanine amino- transferase, aspartate aminotransferase, g-glutamyl transpeptidase, bilirubin and an increased prothrombin time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Acute pancreatitis

A

I GET SMASHED

Idiopathic 
Gallstones
Ethanol (alcohol) 
Trauma 
Steroids
Mumps
Autoimmune 
Scorpion sting 
Hypothermia/hyperlipidaemia/hypercalcaemia 
ERCP
Drugs
  • Possible hyper stimulation of pancreas or pancreatic duct destruction leads to release of lytic enzymes which are then activated and cause damage
  • Trypsin, lipase and phospholipase A2 particularly digest pancreatic tissue, causing fat necrosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Chronic pancreatitis

A

Alcohol consumption main cause

4 key pathological features:

  • Continuous chronic inflammation
  • Fibrous scarring
  • Loss of pancreatic tissue
  • Duct strictures with formation of calculi
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Hepatitis A

A
  • ssRNA
  • Picornavirus
  • Does not cause chronic hepatitis
  • Endemic in countered with poor hygiene and sanitation
  • Faecal-oral transmission
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Hepatitis C

A
  • Contaminated blood products
  • ssRNA with several immunogenic subtypes
  • Fatigue and malaise common
  • Clinical jaundice in less than 20% of patients
  • 20% progress to cirrhosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Hepatitis B

A
  • partial dsDNA
  • Transmission through contaminated blood products
  • DNA virus that replicates i the liver where the core antigen incorporates itself into the host genome
  • Host DNA polymerase then transcribes the virus
  • Acute presentation - anorexia, abdominal discomfort
  • Chronic presentation - asymptomatic, majority discovered by accident
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Hepatitis D

A
  • Deltavirus
  • Incomplete RNA particle which is unable to replicate by itself
  • Co-infection with hep B
  • Activated in presence of hep B
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Hepatits E

A
  • ssRNA
  • Faecal-oral transmission
  • Developing countries
  • No progression to chronic active hepatitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Liver anatomy

A
  • Covered by peritoneum except for bare area on the diaphragmatic surface
  • 4 lobes
  • Falciform ligament - remnant of the embryonic ventral mesentery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

3 categories of patterns of injury that cause liver failure

A
  • Acute liver failure with massive hepatic necrosis
  • Chronic liver disease
  • Hepatic dysfunction without overt necrosis - hepatocytes viable but unable to perform their normal metabolic function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Cirrhosis

A
  • End stage of any progressive liver disease
  • Caused by alcohol, viral hepatitis, drugs, autoimmune, cholestatic liver disease, metabolic liver disease etc.
  • Necrosis, fibrosis and regeneration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

2 types of cirrhosis

A
  • Macronodular - regenerating nodules are generally large and of variable size
  • Micronodular - contains nodules that are <3mm - more commonly seen with alcohol abuse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Complications of cirrhosis

A
  • Portal hypertension
  • This increases portal vascular resistance due to collagen deposition and fibrosis and hence the formation of varices in the gastro-oesophageal junction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Alcoholic liver disease

A

3 main types of liver damage:

  • Fatty change - ethanol metabolised in the liver, which results in hepatic fatty acid synthesis and reduced fatty acid oxidation = accumulation and fatty destruction of hepatic cells
  • Alcoholic hepatitis - infiltration with polymorphonuclear leucocytes and hyaline material (Mallory bodies)
  • Fibrosis - fibrosis with nodular regeneration implies previous or continuing liver damage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Primary billiary cirrhosis

A
  • Autoimmune disease
  • Associated with other autoimmune phenomena such as hypothyroidism and sicca syndrome
  • Antimitrochondrial antibodies
  • Sensitised T cells may account for damage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Primary sclerosis cholangitis

A
  • Inflammation of bile ducts both inside and outside the liver
  • Impedes flow of bile to gut
  • Causes cholestasis, leading to cirrhosis of the liver
  • Fat soluble vitamin malabsorption and fat malabsorption
  • Signs: hepatomegaly, jaundice, portal hypertension and dark urine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Wilson’s disease

A
  • Error of copper metabolism
  • Autosomal recessive gene on chromosome 13
  • Faulty transporter protein ATP7B which excretes copper from liver via golgi complex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Liver cancer

A
  • Hepatocellular carcinoma
  • Hepatoblastoma - tumour formed by immature liver cells that primarily develops in children
  • Cholangiocarcinoma - cancer of the bile duct
  • Secondary metastasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

EBV effect on the liver

A

EBV

- May cause mild hepatitis during the acute phase of infectious mononucleosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

CMV effect on the liver

A

CMV

  • Particularly in newborn or immunocompromised
  • Can cause typical cytomegalic changes of that virus in almost any cell in the liver
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Herpes simplex effect on liver

A

May infect hepatocytes in babies or immunocompromised and can lead to hepatic necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Yellow fever effect on liver

A

Causes hepatocyte apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Pre-hepatic jaundice

A

Cause

  • Increased haemolysis (e.g. haemolytic anaemia)
  • Ineffective erythropoiesis

Signs
- Increased concentrations of unconjugated bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Hepatic jaundice

A

Cause

  • Gilbert’s syndrome
  • Viral infection
  • Cirrhosis
  • Drugs
  • Autoimmune disease
  • Weil’s disease
  • Wilson’s disease

Signs

  • Increased clotting time
  • Increased ALT and AST
  • Hepatocellular damage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What is Crigler-Najjar syndrome?

A
  • Causes hepatic jaundice
  • Due to deficit of UDP glucuronyl transferase
  • Build up on unconjugated bilirubin in the blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Malnutrition

A

Insufficient dietary intake to meet metabolic requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Malabsorption

A

Disorder of the digestive tract resulting in the inability to utilise dietary intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Largest daily intake food group

A

Carbohydrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What is PEM?

A

Protein-energy malnutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What condition is caused by protein-energy malnutrition?

A

A lack of protein: Kwashiorkor.

- Hypoalbuminia, ascites (starling’s).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What condition is caused by total dietary lack (caloric)?

A

Marasmus (starvation).

  • Severe malnutrition.
  • Growth failure, apathy, diarrhoes, fatigue, hepatomegaly, muscle wasting, oedema, anaemia.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What 2 types of malnutrition might we see in the developing world?

A
  • Kwoshiorkor: protein-energy malnutrition.

- Marasmus: total dietary caloric lack.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Name 2 causes of malnutrition in the developing world.

A

1) Protein-energy malnutrition.

2) Total dietary lack (caloric) malnutrition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What 4 causes of malnutrition might we see in the developed world?

A

1) Anorexia.
2) Neglect.
3) Dysphagia.
4) Increased metabolic demand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What is anorexia? What can it result in?

A

Suppression of appetite.

  • Lack of or loss of wanting to eat.
  • Cachexia (loss of weight, muscle, bone).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

How can anorexia arise from malignancy?

A

Production of cytokines by malignant cells.

  • May result from chemotherapy drugs.
  • Impact upon appetite centres in brain and stomach.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Name 3 causes of anorexia.

Give examples.

A

1) Psychological, anorexia nervosa.
2) Malignancy, cytokines and chemotherapy drugs.
3) Infection/inflammation, AIDS, TB.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What is neglect in terms of nutrition?

A

People who want to eat but are unable to do so.

i.e. elderly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What demographics might be affected by nutritional neglect?

A
  • Elderly (improper care or tea and toast diet).
  • Hospitalised patients, can’t care for themselves.
  • Neurological disease i.e. alzheimer’s/demetia.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What is dysphagia? What might cause it?

A

Difficulty swallowing.

- Oesophagitis, cancer (primary or secondary).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

How might increased metabolic demands cause malnutrition? Give examples of conditions that may cause increased metabolic states.

A

Body requires more intake than usual and isn’t getting it.

- I.e. thyrotoxicosis, pregnancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What specific malnutrition states might we see in the UK?

A
  • Iron (Fe) deficiency.
  • Vitamin B complex.
  • Folic acid.
  • Vitamin D.
  • B12.
  • Vitamin C.
  • Vitamin K.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What type of anaemia would iron deficiency result in?

What might cause it?

A

Iron deficiency (microcytic hypochromic) anaemia.

  • Heavy periods (menses).
  • People who are vegetarian (no red meat)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What are MCV and MCH?

A
  • Mean corpuscular volume, average size of a red blood cell.

- Mean corpuscular haemoglobin, average amount of haemoglobin per red blood cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What problems might vitamin B complex malnutrition cause?

A

Neuropathy, cardiopathy.

Chronic alcohol intake causes B vitamin deficiencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What type of anaemia might folic acid deficiency result in?

What might cause it?

A

Megaloblastic anaemia

Through malabsorption i.e. coeliac disease or increased metabolic demand.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What might vitamin D malnutrition cause?

What demographics might it be seen in?

A

Osteomalacia (inadequate Ca2+ in bone)

  • People of darker pigmented skin (especially in cold climates).
  • Can’t make vitamin D as well.
  • Indian sub-continent diet.
  • Lack of UV light.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What type of anaemia would vitamin B12 deficiency result in? What might cause it?

A
Megaloblastic anaemia (pernicious).
- Alcoholism.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Where are B12, intrinsic factor and bile reabsorbed?

A

Ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What problems might vitamin B12 deficiency cause?

A
  • Pernicious (megaloblastic) anaemia.
  • Ataxia.
  • Peripheral neuropathy.
  • Dementia.
  • SACD (subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What problems might vitamin C deficiency cause? Why do we not see it as much in the modern era?

A

Scurvy.

- A lot of vitamin C in fast foods now, not just fruit and veg.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What problems might vitamin K deficiency cause? Why is vitamin K important?

A

Coagulopathy (tendency to bleed).

- Used in the coagulation cascade (target of warfarin).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

How is protein broken down? What are they broken down into?

A

Protein converted to peptides.

  • Peptides to amino acids.
  • Enzymes in inactive state then become active i.e. trypsinogen to trypsin.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What are lipids broken down into? How is this process different to the other 2 groups?

A

Lipids need to be emulsified by bile due to their phospholipid bilayer.

  • Pancreatic enzymes used (lipases).
  • Broken down into fatty acids and monoglycerides.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Give some examples of common fat soluble vitamins and water soluble vitamins.

A
  • Water soluble: B complex, C

- Fat soluble: A, D, E, K.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Why are mineral and vitamins deficiency clinically useful?

A

Deficiency of a specific mineral of vitamin may give indication to what the diagnosis might be.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Name some of the functions of the mouth in terms of digestion.

A
  • Mastication, food broken down.
  • Lubrication by saliva.
  • Taste (more saliva produced).
  • Digestion, breakdown of molecules (salivary amylases and lipases).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What are the 3 salivary glands of the mouth? Give examples of enzymes that they secrete.

A

1) Parotid.
2) Submandibular.
3) Submaxillary.

  • Salivary amylases and lipases.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What is one of the risks of stomach surgery in terms of digestion?

A

Rapid gastric emptying time.

- Food isn’t being broken down properly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What drives the digestive processes of the stomach?

A

Acid.

- pH 4 stomach acid activates enzymes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What is the neuro-hormonal of the stomach in response to arrival of food?

A

Release of ACh and histamines.

  • Increase acid production from parietal cells.
  • Increase pepsinogen release from Chief cells.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What is the average gastric emptying time (time taken for food to be broken down)?

A

4hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

When does a bolus of food become chyme?

A

When it is expelled from the stomach into the duodenum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

How is the acid chyme in the duodenum neutralised? Why?

A

Release of bicarbonate from the exocrine pancreas.

- Pancreatic enzymes would struggle to digest acidic chyme.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What is the role of the enzyme cholecystokinin (CCK)? Where is it secreted from?

A
  • Contracts the gallbladder, bile released into duodenum for emulsification.
  • Triggers pancreatic enzyme secretion.

Secreted from I-cells in the duodenum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What 2 food groups does CCK help digest the most?

A

1) Lipids.

2) Proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Role of bile

A

Emulsifies fat into micelles so that they can be easily digested by lipases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Where in the small intestine does the majority of absorption occur?

A

Jejunum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Give 2 ways that the SI is histologically adapted for absorption.

A

1) Large SA for absorption (including villi and microvilli).

2) Brush border enzymes i.e. lactase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What might cause luminal disease of the SI?

A
  • Infections (pain, diarrhoea, vomiting).

- Bacterial overgrowth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

What is mucosal disease of the SI? What might cause it?

A

Loss of the absorptive SA (Crohn’s, surgery).

Degradation of the absorptive SA (viili etc.) (Coeliac disease).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

What is lymphangiectasia? What type of disease is this?

A

Disordered development of the lymphatic system.

- Post mucosal disease of the SI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What is Coeliac disease? What type of disease is it?

A

Gluten sensitivity (gliadin protein).

  • Immune mediated attack of SI villi, SA reduced.
  • Subtotal villous atrophy
  • Mucosal disease.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What enzyme is tested for, and when found is highly indicative of Coeliac disease?

A

Anti-tissue transglutaminase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What 3 deficiencies will Coeliac disease result in?

A

1) Fe deficiency.
2) Folate deficiency.
3) Vit D deficiency (osteomalacia).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What is post-mucosal disease of the SI?

A

Disorders of the lymphatic system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Give some examples of luminal infections of the SI.

A
  • Giardiasis (G. lamblia).
  • TB.
  • Whipple’s disease.
  • Ancylostoma (iron deficiency, parasitic).
  • AIDS associated OI’s such as cryptosporidium.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Give some examples of things that might cause luminal bacterial overgrowth.

A
  • High folate, low B12.
  • Jejunal diverticulosis (structural abnormality).
  • Motility disorders.
  • Bowel obstruction.
  • Fistulation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

What is steatorrhoea?

What does it indicate?

What infection might cause it?

A

The presence of lots of fats in stool.

  • Inability to flush stool away.
  • Indicative of a malabsorptive state.

Giardiasis (G. lamblia).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

How is vitamin B12 processed in the stomach?

A

Bound to intrinsic factor from parietal cells.

- Loss of intrinsic factor = pernicious anaemia (aka B12 deficiency).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

What is biliary disease? What might cause it?

A

Obstructed biliary drainage.

  • Intrahepatic OR extrahepatic cause.
  • A, D, E, K (fat soluble vitamin) malabsorption.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

What mainly causes chronic pancreatitis?

A

Alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Other causes of chronic pancreatitis

A
  • Pancreatic cancers

- Tumours blocking the pancreatic duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Where is the largest amount of water reabsorbed?

A

Small intestine - it absorbed about 80-90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

At what point does chyme become faeces?

A

Large intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

What happens if you have a SI dysfunction?

A

You do not get the water being reabsorbed so there is an increase in the liquidity and quantity of faeces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Histology of SI vs LI

A

SI - Brush border which increases SA = increased absorption capability

LI - No brush border but still have secretory glands such as crypt of Lieberkuhn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

What is absorption by the colon drive by?

A
  • Sodium transporters
  • Sodium moved from the luminal side across the membrane of the LI creating a gradient
  • Aldosterone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Where is secretion in the LI from?

A

Crypts of Lieberkuhn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

What do the crypts of lieberkuhn mainly secrete and what is the purpose?

A

Mucous for protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Types of wave movement

A

Peristalsis

Segmentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Bristol stool chart 1-2

A

Constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Bristol stool chart 3-4

A

Normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Bristol stool chart 5-7

A

Diarrhoea and urgency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Ano-rectal angle

A

Position when storing faecal material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Which muscles are contracted when preventing faecal movement?

A
  • Puborectalis

- External sphincter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

What happens if you delay bowel movement?

A
  • Reverse peristalsis

- Consistently doing this causes the material to become compacted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

What happens when you decide to defecate?

A
  • Puborectalis muscle and external sphincter relax
  • Opens up anal canal, correcting the ano-rectal angle
  • Allows the movement or contraction of muscle wall and gravity to work together to push faecal material out
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Sulphasalazine

A

A sulphonamide antibiotic used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, ulcerative colitis, and Crohn’s disease.

It is often considered as a first line treatment in rheumatoid arthritis.

  • Broken down in gut to release 5-ASA which is the active metabolite
  • Contains sulphur which is not necessarily tolerated by patients
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Kaolin

A

Aluminium silicate
Absorbs material and acts as binding agent in diarrhoea

Often sold with morphine as an anti-diarrhoeal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Where does portal vein carry nutrients from?

A

Stomach, spleen and intestines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

What does the hepatic vein connect to?

A

IVC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Function of liver

A
  • Protein synthesis - albumin and coagulation factors
  • Lipoprotein synthesis
  • Bile coagulation and excretion
  • Storage of glycogen, release of glucose and gluconeogenesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Hepatotropic viruses

A

CMV, EBV, HSV, varicella, mumps, yellow fever, rubella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

How is ascites caused?

A
  • Overproduction of lymph
  • Hypoalbuminaemia
  • Portal venous hypertension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Limitations of double contrast barium enema

A
  • Less sensitive than colonoscopy
  • Can’t biopsy
  • Not tolerated by some patients
  • Patient needs to be mobile
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Which imaging technique is best for assessing motility?

A

Barium swallow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Which imaging technique is best for assessing extrinsic disease?

A

Barium swallow +/- CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Colonoscopy

A

Capable of reaching caecum and terminal ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Flexible sigmoidoscopy

A

Shorter, more flexible instrument able to reach transverse colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

What shape is the right adrenal gland?

A

Pyramid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

What shape is the left adrenal gland?

A

Crescent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

Which of the adrenal glands is larger?

A

Left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

What are the adrenal glands enclosed in?

A

Covered with perinephric fat and enclosed in renal fascia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

What are the 3 layers of the adrenal cortex? What does each layer mainly secrete?

A

Zona glomerulosa - mainly mineralocorticoids (aldosterone)
Zona fasiculata - mainly glucocorticoids (cortisol)
Zona reticularis - mainly androgens and glucocorticoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

Lymphatic drainage of the adrenal glands

A

Para-aortic lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

Venous drainage of the adrenal glands

A
  • Left - adrenal vein travels inferior to enter left renal vein
  • Right - shorter –> straight into IVC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

What stimulates the release of aldosterone?

A
  • AngII
  • High plasma K+
  • ACTH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

What does aldosterone do?

A
  • Acts mainly on DCT and collecting ducts

- Causes reabsorption of Na+ and excretion of K+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

Role of glucocorticoids

A

Regulate metabolism of carbohydrate, protein and fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

What is the major glucocorticoid?

A

Cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

HPA axis for cortisol

A

Hypothalamus - CRH
Anterior pituitary - POMC –> ACTH
Adrenal cortex - cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

Actions of exogenous glucocorticoids

A
  • Reduction in chronic inflammation

- Decreases uptake and utilisation of glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

Example of an exogenous mineralcorticoid

A

Fludrocortisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

Conn’s syndrome

A
  • Primary hyperaldosteronism
  • Adenoma of the zona glomerulosa
  • Triad of hypertension, hypokalaemia and alkalosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

Secondary hyperaldosteronism

A
  • Excess renin stimulation of zona glomerulosa

- Common causes of secondary are accelerated hypertension and renal artery stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

Cushing’s syndrome

A
  • Chronic excess of glucocorticoids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

Symptoms of cushing’s syndrome

A
Centripetal obesity 
Facial plethora
Glucose intolerance
Weakness
Hypertension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

Why does ACTH cause pigmented skin?

A

Due to action melanocyte-stimulating action of ACTH on the receptors for the structurally similar melanocyte-stimulating hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

Pheochromocytoma

A

Pain (headache), pallor, perspiration, palpitations, pressure, paroxysms

  • Rare tumour in the adrenal medulla which secrete noradrenaline and adrenaline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

Addison’s disease

A
  • Deficiency of cortisol and possibly aldosterone
  • Primary insufficiency of the adrenal cortex
  • Can be caused by autoimmune adrenalitis, infection (TB) or tumour
  • High levels of circulating ACTH can cause skin pigmentation too

Addison’s disease arises from problems with the adrenal gland - not enough cortisol and possibly aldosterone are produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

What is an acute exacerbation of addison’s disease called?

A

An adrenal crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

Adrenogenital syndrome - male

A
  • Enlarged adrenal cortex secretes excess androgens
  • Early pseudo puberty
  • Early bone epiphyseal fusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

Adrenogenital syndrome - female

A
  • Masculisation
  • Masculine body shape
  • Balding of temporal skull
  • Increased muscle bulk
  • Deepening of the voice
  • Enlargement of the clitoris
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

What is shock?

A

Situation where insufficiency blood flow is reaching the body’s tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

Hypovolaemic shock

A

Fall in circulating blood volume caused by either:

  • External fluid loss e.g. vomiting, diarrhoea
  • Internal fluid loss e.g. pancreatitis, internal bleeding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

Cardiogenic shock

A

Caused by impairment of cardiac function such that the heart is unable to maintain adequate cardiac output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

Obstructive shock

A

Direct obstruction to blood entering or leaving the heart or great vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

Septic shock

A
  • Caused by toxins e.g. endotoxin
  • Systemic inflammatory response with production of cytokines
  • Causes widespread vasodilation and increase in capillary permeability
  • Total peripheral resistance falls and leakage of plasma proteins in interstitial fluid causes movement of fluid from vascular compartment into interstitial area, decreasing circulating volume
  • Reduces venous return and stroke volume
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

Anaphylactic shock

A
  • Severe type I hypersensitivity reaction
  • IgE immune response consists of the activation of basophils and mast cells, leading to release of histamine and other factors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

Neurogenic shock

A
  • Sudden loss of sympathetic nervous system signals
  • Results in hypotension and bradycardia
  • Mechanism is that disruption of autonomic pathways leads to loss of sympathetic tone and vasodilation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

Medical definition of shock

A

Failure of the circulation that results in adequate perfusion of tissues and end organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

2 ways of controlling blood volume

A
  1. Humoral control - RAAS

2. Neural control - baroreceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

3 things that can trigger renin secretion

A
  1. Decrease in BP detected by baroreceptors
  2. Decrease in Na+ levels in the nephron measured by macula densa cells of JGA
  3. Sympathetic nervous system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

Major effects of AngII and where it acts

A
  • Adrenal cortex to produce aldosterone
  • Hypothalamus to secrete ADH - increased water reabsorption in the CD and DCT - translocation of aquaporin water channels into CD plasma membrane and increases thirst
  • Acts on arteries - SM to activate and constrict
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

3 components of JGA

A
  • Macula densa in DCT
  • JG cells - smooth muscle cells of the afferent arteriole
  • Extraglomerular mesangial cells found outside the glomerulus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

Where are baroreceptors located?

A
  • Cartoid sinus

- Aortic arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

What happens when there is an increase in BP in terms of the vagus nerve

A
  • Increased BP detected
  • Sensed by baroreceptors in the aortic arch and carotid sinuses
  • Vagus nerve stimulate
  • HR is slowed
  • Reduction of sympathetic outflow
  • BP drops
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

What happens when an increase in BP occurs in terms of the arterial tone?

A
  • Increase in BP detected
  • Baroreceptors increase their firing rate
  • Positive firing of baroreceptors is inhibitory on catecholamine hormones
  • Vasodilation occurs
  • BP drops
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

What is the valsalva manoeuvre?

A
  • Forcible expiration against closed glottis
  • Increases intrathoracic pressure
  • Venous return is reduced
  • BP should drop
  • Baroreceptors detect this and should decrease firing, causing inhibition of the vagus nerve
  • Leads to increased HR and vasoconstriction
  • This is corrected once the epiglottis is opened
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

Preload

A

Venous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

Afterload

A

Resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

Pump

A

The heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

Why do patients with right sided heart failure get a raised JVP?

A

Venous system is full

- Venous hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

Calculation for cardiac output

A

CO = SV x HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

Calculation for blood pressure

A

MAP = SVR x CO

Mean arterial pressure = systemic vascular resistance x cardiac output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

What is Starling’s law of the heart

A

Force of contraction of the cardiac muscle is proportional to its initial length

Filling the heart makes it contract more, increasing preload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

Hypovolaemia

A

PRIME - blood loss causes preload to be low and therefore CO is low

COMPENSATION - increased resistance, tachycardia, hypotension

CLINICALLY - cold/clammy, tachycardia, prolonged cap refill, empty veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

Pathological vasodilation

A

PRIME- reservoir increases

COMPENSATION - tachycardia, CO rises, auto regulation

CLINICALLY - warm/dry peripheries, tachycardia, short cap refill, bounding pulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

Clinical signs of shock

A

Poor tissue perfusion can result in oliguria,

altered conscious levels due to lack of perfusion to the brain,

tissues become acidotic due to lack of oxygen causing the production of lactic acid so lungs try to blow off more CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

Causes of hypovolaemia

A

Intravascular - bleeding (revealed, concealed e.g. in femur or pelvic fracture)

Extravascular - evaporation, GI losses (diarrhoea), polyuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

Causes of pump failure

A

Intrinsic - muscle, conduction tissue, valves (aortic stenosis)

Extrinsic - obstruction (PE), compensation (tamponade), blood supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

What is SIRS?

A

Systemic inflammatory response syndrome

  • Increased HR, RR, WCC
  • Fever
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

What is sepsis?

A

SIRS and confirmed infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

What is septic shock?

A

SIRS with refractory hypotension

  • Evidence of infection
  • End organ failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

Alpha receptors

A

Vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

B1 receptors

A

Inotropic

Chronotropic

Peripheral vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

B2 receptors

A

Renin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

Effects of NA

A

Vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

Effects of dobutamine

A

B1, B2 agonist

  • Vasodilation (decrease BP)
  • Increase HR,
  • Increase SV

Dobutamine is a sympathomimetic drug used in the treatment of heart failure and cardiogenic shock. Its primary mechanism is direct stimulation of β1 receptors of the sympathetic nervous system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

Effects of adrenaline

A

Alpha, B1, B2 agonist

  • Vasoconstriction (increase BP)
  • Increase HR
  • Increase SV

Pharmacological doses of epinephrine stimulateα1,α2,β1,β2, andβ3adrenoceptors of thesympathetic nervous system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

Effects of dopexamine

A

B2, D1, D2 agonist

  • Splanchnic vasodilator
  • Increase HR

Dopexamineis a synthetic analogue ofdopaminethat is administered intravenously in hospitals to reduce exacerbations ofheart failure.

It works by stimulatingbeta-2 adrenergic receptorsand peripheraldopamine receptor D1anddopamine receptor D2. It also inhibits of neuronal re-uptake ofnorepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

What are drugs usually bound to in the blood?

What happens after this?

A

Albumin

  • Absorbed into hepatocytes and made more water soluble (polar)
  • Excreted into the bile duct or back into the blood
  • Depends on size BIG = BLOOD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

What is high intrinsic clearance also known as?

A

First pass metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

What is high intrinsic clearance?

A
  • Most of the drug is taken up by the liver on the first pass
  • Usually very lipid soluble
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

What do drugs with a low intrinsic clearance depend on?

A

Hepatic enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
266
Q

What are the phases that make a lipophilic drug more soluble?

A
  • Start with the lipophilic drug
  • Phase 1 - P450 and mono-oxygenases in the SER makes drug more polar by hydrolysis, oxidation or reduction and adds a small active group onto drug, ready for phase 2
  • Phase 2 - conjugation with small endogenous molecules such as transferases, sulphatases - resulting compounds are highly water soluble and can be excreted in bile or urine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
267
Q

How an drug interaction be affected in cytochrome P450 system?

A
  • Multiple drugs bind to the same subtype of cytochrome P450
  • Highest affinity one will out compete the lower affinity one
  • Results in slowed metabolism of lower affinity drug
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
268
Q

What is the cytochrome P450 system?

A

At least 50 different sub types of the enzyme - each with a unique binding site and some can metabolise several drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
269
Q

How might the cytochrome P450 system cause idiosyncratic drug reactions?

A
  • This means individual features

- Happens through genetic variation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
270
Q

What is phase 3 reaction in drug metabolism?

A

Pathways of elimination

  • Biliary excretion - directly into bile if highly polar after conjugation
  • Can be actively transported into bile duct
  • Biliary excretion important if molecular weight greater than 200
  • As MW falls, urinary route more important
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
271
Q

What can impair liver metabolism indirectly?

A
  • Decreased albumin binding
  • Malnutrition - reduced availability of micronutrients to create liver enzymes
  • Decreased renal clearance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
272
Q

Consequences of drug biotransformation

A
  • Liver can form a prodrug

- Drug could be turned into toxic metabolite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
273
Q

What is drug-induced hepatic necrosis?

A
  • Electrophilic components added to drugs in liver

- If P450 doesn’t stop it, it can cause the development of free radicals which cause lipid peroxidation and cell death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
274
Q

What would differ between an alcoholic taking a paracetamol overdose and somebody taking an overdose with a bottle of vodka?

A
  • Chronic alcohol use induces P450 and increases hepatotoxicity
  • Acute use inhibits P450 and stops you producing toxic metabolites
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
275
Q

How is paracetamol metabolised?

A
  • Paracetamol metabolised in NAPQI
  • Leads to cell death around 3-4 days later
  • Normally glutathione binds to this NAPQI and inhibits it
  • In excess, glutathione cannot inhibit
  • Leads to hepatic necrosis and liver failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
276
Q

What signs would be present in someone with paracetamol toxicity?

A
  • Severe prolongation of prothrombin time

- Presence of acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
277
Q

What is the early treatment for paracetamol toxicity?

A
  • Administration of cysteine donors

- IV parvolex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
278
Q

How can we prevent paracetamol toxicity?

A
  • Blister packs
  • No bulk buying
  • Add methionine to tablets - an oral donator of glutathione
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
279
Q

Prevalence of colon cancer in UK

A
  • 2nd commonest cause of cancer death

- 17,000 deaths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
280
Q

Embryological origins of GI tract and their arterial supply

A
  • Foregut - mouth to ampulla of vater in duodenum - coeliac
  • Midgut - ampulla of vater to splenic flexure - sup. mesenteric
  • Hindgut - splenic flexure - anus - inf. mesenteric
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
281
Q

What are different types of bleeding in the bowel?

A
  • Overt - visible

- Occult - not-visible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
282
Q

Where does occult bleeding stem from and what does it present with?

A
  • Right sided cancer

- Iron deficiency anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
283
Q

Common GI cancers

A
Oesophagus 
Stomach 
Pancreas 
Colon 
Rectum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
284
Q

Rare GI cancers

A

Anus
Small bowel
Gallbladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
285
Q

Which GI cancers will be squamous?

A
  • Anus

- Oesophagus (upper 2/3rds, lower 1/3rd is adenocarcinoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
286
Q

Why is paracetamol an issue in acute medicine?

A
  • Used as suicidal agent

- 10g can produce hepatic necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
287
Q

What cell marker indicates liver cell death?

A

High ALT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
288
Q

Which drug can cause fibrosis in the liver?

A

Methotrexate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
289
Q

Where are cancers of the GI system likely to metastasise to?

A

Liver and possibly lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
290
Q

Barrett’s oesophagus

A

Stratified squamous epithelium –> simple columnar due to long term acid reflux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
291
Q

How can GI cancer spread?

A
  • Local invasion
  • Intramural (along the wall)
  • Nodal
  • Blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
292
Q

Genetic aetiology of GI cancer

A
  • FAP - autosomal dominant - development of lots of polyps in the colon
  • HNPCC - mismatch repair defects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
293
Q

Symptoms of oesophageal cancer

A
  • Dysphagia
  • Associated with reflux
  • Weight loss (due to dysphagia)
  • Associated with elderly patients, smoking, alcohol and Barrett’s oesophagus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
294
Q

What type of cancer is very radiosensitive and shrinks with radiotherapy?

A

Squamous cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
295
Q

Gastric cancer

A
  • Associated with H. pylori bacterial infection
  • Vague symptoms of weight loss, dyspepsia, abdominal pain
  • Common in Japan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
296
Q

How is H. Pylori spread? Why is it falling now and what is this associated with?

A

Faecal-oral

  • Can get it as a small child
  • Better hygiene standard meaning this generation has less prevalence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
297
Q

Symptoms of pancreatic cancer

A
  • If it presents very late it can be pain
  • Typically painless jaundice - Courvoisier’s sign (palpable gallbladder)
  • Poor survival rate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
298
Q

Symptoms of colorectal cancer

A
  • Alteration in bowel habits
  • Abdo pain
  • Rectal bleeding with anaemia
  • Rapid weight loss
  • Begins as a benign polyps 3-5yrs before
299
Q

Which mutation is first in colorectal cancer?

A
  • APC which causes hyperproliferative epithelium
300
Q

Which mutation is second in colorectal cancer?

A

K-RAS

- Causes it to go from a small adenoma to a large adenoma

301
Q

Which mutation is last in colorectal cancer?

A

P53

302
Q

Where is bile synthesised?

A

Hepatocytes

303
Q

Where is bile stored?

A

Gallbladder

304
Q

What stimulates release of bile into the bowel from gallbladder?

A

Eating stimulates CCK release from I cells of the small intestine

305
Q

Where and how much bile reabsorbed?

A

95% in the terminal ileum

306
Q

What does bile do?

A
  1. Helps body absorb necessary fat - emulsifies fat which increases SA for lipoprotein lipase to work on
  2. Helps eliminate waste products - e.g. bilirubin, excess cholesterol, non-water soluble xenobiotics
  3. Involved in signalling - activates the iv pathway and TGR5
307
Q

Where is bilirubin conjugated?

A

The liver

308
Q

What is bilirubin a product of?

A

Breakdown of RBCs

309
Q

What is haemoglobin broken down into?

A

Haem and globin

Haem then broken down into iron + unconjugated bilirubin

310
Q

How is unconjugated bilirubin transported in the blood?

A

Attached to albumin

311
Q

When is bilirubin lipid soluble?

A

When it is in unconjugated

312
Q

When is bilirubin water soluble?

A

When it is conjugated

313
Q

What is the conjugation process?

A

Unconjugated bilirubin + glucuronic acid –> conjugated bilirubin

314
Q

What happens to conjugated bilirubin in the large intestine?

A

Glucuronic acid removed to form urobilinogen which then quickly becomes stercobilin

Some is reabsorbed and becomes urobilinogen then urobilin and is excreted by the kidneys

315
Q

What is the cause of jaundice?

A

High levels of bilirubin in the blood

316
Q

What are 3 types of jaundice and what causes them?

A
  1. Pre-hepatic - bilirubin unconjugated - producing lots of RBCs or breaking lots down - haemolysis (haemolytic anaemia)
  2. Intrahepatic - enzyme defect - Gilbert’s, drugs, hepatocellular damage (hepatitis, alcohol, cirrhosis)
  3. Post-hepatic - duct obstruction outside the liver e.g. gallstones, fibrosis, extra hepatic biliary atresia
317
Q

What is pruritus?

A

Itching of the skin

318
Q

What type of jaundice causes skin itching?

Cholesstatuc pruritus

A

Conjugated bilirubin presents with pruritus.
Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia does not.

Itch is present in 80%-100% of patients presenting with cholestasis and jaundice.

Cholestatic pruritus is the sensation of itch due to nearly any liver disease, but the most commonly associated entities are primary biliary cirrhosis, primary sclerosing cholangitis, obstructive choledocholithiasis, carcinoma of bile duct, cholestasis, and chronic hepatitis C viral infection and other forms of viral hepatitis.

319
Q

What is extraheptic biliary atresia?

A

Congenital condition, the common bile duct is blocked, narrowed or absent.

It causes post-hepatic jaundice

320
Q

What are the different types of gallstones?

A
  • Cholesterol
  • Pigment
  • Mixed
321
Q

What is the cause of cholesterol stones?

A
  • Cholesterol reaching levels beyond solubilising capacity of bile
  • Hypersecretion of cholesterol
  • Decreased secretion of bile salts
  • Abnormal gallbladder function e.g. hypomobility
322
Q

What are pigment stones?

A
  • Bile pigment (calcium bilirubinate) is the main component
  • Found in chronic haemolysis because of excess bilirubin
  • Typically black
323
Q

What is cholecystitis?

A

Inflammation of the gallbladder which is associated with gallstones 90% of the time

324
Q

What causes acute calculous and chronic cholecystitis?

A
  • Chemical effects concentrated, static bile
  • Obstruction of outflow of gallbladder usually caused by gallstone
  • Exacerbated by secondary infection
325
Q

What is acalculous cholecystitis?

A

No gallstones form the inflammation

326
Q

What is a mucocoele?

A

Collection of mucus in the gallbladder

327
Q

What happens in chronic cholecystitis?

A
  • Wall of gallbladder is thickened and rigid from fibrosis

- Chronic inflammation of mucosa and submucosa

328
Q

Complications of gallstones in the gallbladder

A
  • Acute/chronic cholecystitis
  • Mucocoele
  • Empyema
  • Perforation
329
Q

Complications of gallstones in the common bile duct

A
  • Partial/total obstruction
  • Pain
  • Cholangtitis
  • Gallstone ileus
330
Q

What is cholangitis?

A

Inflammation of the common bile duct

Ascending cholangitis, also known as acute cholangitis or simply cholangitis, is an infection of the bile duct (cholangitis), usually caused by bacteria ascending from its junction with the duodenum. It tends to occur if the bile duct is already partially obstructed by gallstones.

331
Q

What is empyema?

A

A collection of pus in a pre-existing cavity

332
Q

What is gallstone ileum?

A

Impaction of a gallstone in the lumen of the small intestine

333
Q

What is glucagon and what secretes it?

A

Peptide hormone secreted by alpha cells of the pancreas

334
Q

Pathophysiology of acute pancreatitis

A
  • Duct obstruction - reflux of bile up the pancreatic duct - toxic injury/increased intraductal pressure releasing enzymes
  • Direct acing injury e.g. trauma or viruses
  • Zymogens (proenzymes) inappropriately activated i.e. trypsin and digest pancreatic tissue
335
Q

How can alcohol cause acute pancreatitis?

A

Increased intraductal pressure due to production of protein-rich fluid

336
Q

What is ERCP?

A

Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography

337
Q

Symptoms of acute pancreatitis

A
  • Acute abdominal pain - central, severe and radiates to the back, vomiting
  • Signs - guarding and tenderness in upper abdomen
338
Q

Causes of chronic pancreatitis

A

Chronic alcoholism (most common),

Biliary tract disease

Hypercalcaemia

Hyperlipidaemia

CF

Idiopathic

339
Q

What is chronic pancreatitis?

A

Chronic inflammation and fibrosis of the pancreas

Relapsing-remitting pattern

340
Q

Clinical features of chronic pancreatitis

A
  • Recurrent bouts of severe abdominal pain
  • Malabsorption due to reduced endocrine function
  • Steatorrhea
  • Jaundice
  • Diabetes - due to destruction of endocrine pancreas
341
Q

Exocrine pancreatic tumours

A
  • Pseudocysts - contain fibrosis, organising blood clot, cholesterol crystals and debris
  • Pancreatic abscess
  • Cystic tumours
  • Carcinoma of the pancreas
342
Q

Risk factors for pancreatic adenocarcinoma

A
  • Middle aged/elderly
  • Smoking
  • Obesity
343
Q

Why is pancreatic adenocarcinoma so deadly?

A
  • Presents late
344
Q

Examples of tumours of the endocrine pancreas

A
  • Insulinoma - high insulin
  • Gastrinoma - Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
  • Glucagonoma - high glucagon
  • Somatostatinoma - high somatostatin
  • VIPoma - watery diarrhoea
345
Q

Most common form of GI bleeding?

A

Upper GI (70%)

  • Oesophagus
  • Stomach
  • Duodenum

Rarest form of GI bleeding
Small bowel GI bleeding

2nd most common form of GI bleeding?
Large bowel (30%)
346
Q

Causes of upper GI bleeding

A
  • Oesophageal causes
  • Peptic ulcers
  • Gastroduodenal erosions
  • Varices rupture
347
Q

Most common causes of large bowel bleeding

A
  • Angiodysplasia (vascular malformation)

- Diverticular disease

348
Q

Less common causes of large bowel bleeding

A
  • Crohn’s
  • UC
  • Carcinoma
  • Haemorrhoids
  • Fistula
  • Fissure
349
Q

What type of anaemia might result from chronic bleeding?

A

Iron deficiency

350
Q

What are faecal occult blood tests?

A

Testing for blood in the faeces - it may not always be visible

351
Q

What is haemoatochezia and what is it associated with?

A
  • Passage of fresh blood out of the anus, usually with stools
  • Lower GI bleeding
352
Q

What is melaena? What is it associated with?

A
  • Black, tarry faeces, foul smelling

- Upper GI bleeding

353
Q

How is severity of bleeding assessed?

A

Rockall score

354
Q

What is the Rockall scoring system?

A

A system used to predict patient mortality and assess severity of GI bleed

355
Q

Examples of some criteria of the Rockall scoring system and examples?

A
  • Age (50+, 60-79, 80+)
  • Shock - yes/no
  • Co-morbidity
356
Q

What are varices?

A

Abnormally dilated veins

357
Q

What are Mallory-Weiss tears and what causes them?

A
  • Bleeding from tears in the mucosa at the junction between the stomach and the oesophagus
  • Caused by alcoholism, retching, coughing, vomiting
358
Q

What are some indicators of rebreeding in the GI tract? What might be done?

A
  • Fresh melaena or haematochezia
  • Fall in BP
  • Rise in pulse
  • You would repeat endoscopic therapy
359
Q

Where is the largest amount of water absorbed in the GI tract?

A

Small intestine

360
Q

What happens to H2O reabsorption with SI dysfunction?

A
  • SI does not absorb enough H2O
  • LI not designed to absorb large quantities
  • Big increase in faecal quantity and liquidity
361
Q

What is the tenia coli?

A

Longitudinal muscle that runs along entirety of colon

362
Q

Main function of ascending colon

A

Absorption of water

363
Q

Main function of descending colon

A

Storage of faeces

364
Q

Why is the small intestine better than the large intestine at absorbing water?

A
  • Small intestine has a brush border surface (villi and microvilli) which produces a huge SA
  • Colon has no brush border but does have crypts of Lieberkuhn which are secretory glands (provides protection to LI from faeces)
365
Q

How does the large intestine absorb water?

A
  • Absorption of water driven by sodium transporters
  • Sodium is moved from the luminal side across the membrane of the LI creating a gradient
  • Water follows Na+ from the lumen
  • Short chain fatty acid/Na symporter
  • Sodium channel regulated by aldosterone
366
Q

2 basic mechanisms of movement down the SI and LI

A
  1. Peristalsis - movement along the tract

2. Segmentation - mixing and churning

367
Q

Composition of faeces

A
  • 75% water

- 25% solids (dead bacteria, fat, inorganic matter, protein, undigested roughage)

368
Q

What determines the colour of faeces?

A
  • Stercobilin - brown

- Urobilin - yellow

369
Q

How does the intestinal epithelial cell form a barrier to prevent pathogens from crossing epithelial + colonising tissues?

A

 Tight junctions
 Goblet cells secrete mucins – forms a layer on top of epithelial cells
 Paneth cells secrete anti-microbial peptides

370
Q

Name the different types of mucosa associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)

A
  • Nasal-associated lymphoid tissue (NALT) – lining nose
  • Bronchus-associated lymphoid tissue (BALT) – upper respiratory tract
  • Gut-associated lymphoid tissue (GALT)
371
Q

Name the largest part o the body’s immune tissues containing 3/4 of all lymphocytes.

A

MALT

It produces the amjority of immuno globulin in healthy individuals

372
Q

Important tasks of MALT?

A

o Ignore harmless antigens

o Mount protective immune responses to pathogens

373
Q

Name 2 conditions where MALT goes wrong

A

Celiac disease - response to the wheat protein gluten

IBD - inappropriate response to intestinal bacteria

374
Q

Which anti-inflammatory drugs are used in IBD?

A
  • Aminosalicylates – dampening the inflammatory process
  • Corticosteroids – block substances that trigger inflammation
  • Immunosuppressants – suppress the immune system
  • Biologicals – target a specific component of the immune system (e.g. anti-TNF-alpha monoclonal antibody)
375
Q

Aside from antiinflammatory drugs, what other treatments are used for IBD?

A
  • Helminth therapy (worms)
  • Faecal microbiota transplantation
  • Bacterial cocktails
  • Small-molecule approaches – molecules that modulate host response to bac
376
Q

Where is GALT found in organised tissues?

A

 Peyer’s patches – in small intestine
 Isolated lymphoid follicles – in small intestine and large intestine
 Mesenteric lymph nodes – largest lymph node in body, drain the intestinal tract

377
Q

Where is GALT found in scattered lymphoid cells?

A

Lamina propria leukocytes
• Immune cells of lamina propria
• CD4,+ CD4+, DCs, plasma cells, macrophages, etc.

Intraepithelial lymphocytes
• Immune cells of the epithelial layer
• Specialised types of T cells mainly found in the gut

378
Q

Peyer’s patches are covered by an epithelial layer containing specialised cells called?

A

M cells

 M cells have characteristic membrane ruffles

 M cells take up antigen by endocytosis and phagocytosis

 Some pathogens target M cells to gain access to the subepithelial space
• e.g. poliovirus, reovirus, some retroviruses, salmonella, shigella, yersinia

 Antigen is transported across the M cells in vesicles + released at the basal surface

379
Q

Difference between serum + secretory IgA?

A

Serum IgA is monomeric

Secretory IgA is polymeric ( mainly bimeric); monomers are linked by 2 chains, one is J chain (joining chain)

380
Q

Which immunoglobin is the dominant antibody class in the mucosal immune system?

A

IgA

o Dimeric secretory IgA is transported into the gut lumen through epithelial cells at the base of the crypts
o IgA in the gut neutralises pathogens and their toxins

381
Q

Transcytosis of IgA across the epithelial is mediated by a specialised transport protein. Name it.

A

Poly-Ig receptor

It has a high affinity for the J-chain found in IgA

382
Q

Describe the transcytosis of IgA across the epithelium into luminal surface of epithelium

A

 IgA is transported to luminal surface of epithelium, where it is released by proteolytic cleavage of the poly-Ig receptor
 Part of the cleaved receptor remains associated with the IgA and is known as the secretory component
 The resulting antibody is referred to as secretory IgA

383
Q

Functions of secretory IgA

A

 Bind to mucus layer coating the epithelial surface via carbohydrate determinants in secretory component
 Prevents the adherence of microorganisms
 Neutralises toxins, enzymes, and bacterial LPS that has penetrated the epithelial cells
 Has little capacity to activate the classical pathway of complement or to act as an opsonin (cannot induce inflammation)
 Main function – limit access of pathogens to mucosal surfaces, without risking inflammatory damage to tissue
 Have important role in the symbiotic relationship between an individual and their commensal bacteria, helping to restrict these organisms to the gut lumen

384
Q

What can replace IgA as the predominant antibody in the mucosal secretions in IgA-deficient patients?

A

secretory IgM

IgM is pentameric, so it also contains a J-chain (which is the bit that the poly-Ig receptors bind)

385
Q

Why is there normally no adverse response against food antigens?

A

o The default response to oral administration of a protein antigen is the development of specific peripheral unresponsiveness
o Antigen-specific effector T cells are turned off or deleted
o Antigen-specific Treg cells are generated

386
Q

Why is there normally no adverse response against the commensal flora?

A

o Induce IgA and Treg cells in the intestine
o Ignored by the systemic immune system – antigens normally don’t reach the rest of the body
o Bacteria constitutes 60% of the cells in your body (weight 1-2 kg)

387
Q

Innate immune response is activated through pattern-recognition receptors. What do these PRR target?

A

 Peptidoglycan
 LPS
 dsRNA

388
Q

List the cells of the innate immune response

A

Dendritic cells
Macrophages
Monocytes
Granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils)

389
Q

List the effector subset of CD4+ T helper cells

A

Th1 – IFN-gamma
o Beneficial against intracellular pathogens
o Pathology: chronic inflammation, autoimmunity

Th2 – IL-4, IL-5
o Beneficial against extracellular pathogens
o Pathology: allergy, asthma

Th17 – IL-17
o Beneficial against extracellular bacteria + fungi
o Pathology: chronic inflammation, autoimmunity

390
Q

List the regulatory subset of CD4+ T helper cells that dampen effectors?

A
  • Tr1 – IL-10
  • Tr3 – TGF-beta
  • CD25+ - IL-10, TGF-beta
391
Q

What are Th1 cells beneficial against?

A

o Beneficial against intracellular pathogens

Pathology of Th1 cells cause chronic inflammation and autoimmunity

392
Q

What are Th2 cells beneficial against?

A

Extracellular pathogens

Pathology of these leads to allerrgy and asthma

393
Q

What is Th17 cells beneficial against?

A

Extracellular bacteria + fungi

394
Q

What are these aminosalicylates used for?

 Sulphasalazine
 Mesalazine

A

Dampening the inflammatory process in IBD treatment

395
Q

What are these?

 Prednisolone
 Prednisone
 Hydrocortisone

A

Corticosteroids – block substances that trigger inflammation

Used in IBD treatment

396
Q

What are these?

 Azathioprine
 Methotrexate

A

Immunosuppressants – suppress the immune system

Used in. IBD treatment

397
Q

Name 2 biological agents that target a specific component of the immune system, used in IBD?

A

 Infliximab – anti-TNF-a monoclonal antibody

 Adalimumab – anti-TNF-a monoclonal antibod

398
Q

SI histology

A

 Columnar epithelium – goblet cells + enterocytes

 Endocrine cells – amongst columnar epithelial cells (elaborate gut hormones and crypts – motility)

 Paneth cells – base of crypts, contain eosinophilic lysozyme-rich granules, defensins, immunoglobulins (protection of stem cells + regulation of intestinal microbial levels)

 Intraepithelial lymphocytes – less than 20 per 100 enterocytes; there are more at base than tip of villous

 Brunner’s glands – duodenal submucosal glands producing alkaline mucous secretions, rich in epidermal growth factor, encouraging mucosal regeneration after injury

 Lymphoid tissue (GALT) – dense aggregates in terminal ileum (Peyer’s patches), important in immunity, predominantly T suppressor cells maintaining tolerance to food antigens

399
Q

Function of SI?

A

 Enzymatic digestion and absorption of nutrients (90%)

 Vast SA – plicae semicirculares villi, enterocytes with brush borders (harbour enzymes, barrier to microorganisms and luminal foreign material)

400
Q

Function of LI?

A

 Storage and elimination of food residues

 10% of nutrients is absorbed here

 Maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance by absorption of salt and water

 Bacterial degradation of complex carbohydrates and other nutrients

401
Q

Hstology of LI

A

 Mucosa

 Smooth surface

 Crypts – tubular, regular spacing

 Intraepithelial lymphocytes – decreasing number from right colon to rectum

 Epithelium

 Basement membrane

 Lamina propria – fibroblasts, myofibroblasts, inflammatory cells

 Muscularis mucosae – thin layer of muscle transverse by various vessels, lymphatics and nerves

 Submucosa – collagen, smooth muscle, adipose tissue, blood vessels, lymphatics, cells of enteric nervous system (Meissner’s + Henle’s)
• Regulate gut motility via interstitial cells of Cajal and ganglia

 Muscularis propria – 3rd plexus (Auerbach’s)

 Subserosa – outside muscle coat, comprised of fat with blood vessels and lymph nodes

 Serosa – shiny layer of peritoneum

402
Q

Describe the epithelium of large intestines

A

Goblet cells – apical mucin for lubrication

Absorptive colonocytes – principles cells; they are responsible for:
o Ion + water transportation
o Eosinophilic cytoplasm with minimal mucin
o Striate border on apical surfaces
o Mucosal immunity

Endocrine cell – confined to crypts, inverse polarity, peptide hormones

Paneth cells – eosinophilic apical granules, innate immunity, physiological features of midgut, pathological manifestation of metaplasia

403
Q

What is coeliac disease?

A

 Coeliac disease is an immunologically mediated inflammatory disorder that is due to intolerance of gluten, in genetically susceptible individuals

 Gliadin is thought to be toxic component – effects an immune response resulting in increased intraepithelial T-cells

404
Q

What is coeliac disease strongly associated with?

A

 Strong association with HLA-DQ2 in 90% (remainder HAL-DQ8)

 Combination of genetic susceptibility and sensitivity to gliadin may be triggered by other factors – e.g. viral infection

405
Q

How does coeliac disease present?

A

Malabsorption

Classical (children)
• Weight loss
• Chronic diarrhoea
• Failure to thrive (children)

Non-classical (adults)
•	IBS-type symptoms
•	Abdominal pain
•	Altered bowel habit
•	Anaemia (iron deficiency)
406
Q

Where in the bowels can coeliac disease, Crohn’s disease and UC affect?

A

Coeliac disease - SI

Crohn’s disease - Most commonly occurs in SI + colon. Can affect any part of GIT.

UC - LI only

407
Q

How does UC present?

A

Abdominal pain
Diarrhoea mixed with blood

Weight loss, fever, and anaemia may also occur.

408
Q

Epidemiology of coeliac disease

A

 Patients are at an increased risk with another autoimmune condition and FHx of coeliac disease

 Affects females more than males (2:1)

 Commonly presents in childhood, but minority diagnosed in adults and elderly

 Affects 1/2000 individuals in UK (but 1 in 300 in Ireland)

 But increasingly recognised in east, possibly due to introduction of wheat into diet, and increasing trend of autoimmune disease

409
Q

What is the first line test used to test coeliac disease due to high sensitivity and negative predicative value (NPV)
• NPV: when the true negative is correctly predicted

A

Tissue transglutaminase (tTG) antibody

410
Q

COX 1 functions

A

 Constitutive (continuously stimulated by body)

 Produces prostaglandin for basic house-keeping purposes, stimulate normal body functions such as stomach mucous production, regulation of gastric acid and kidney water excretion

 Regulation of gastric acid and kidney water excretion

411
Q

COX 2 functions

A

 Induced (not normally presented in cells)

 Produces prostaglandins for inflammatory response

 Used for signalling pain and inflammation

412
Q

Complications of NSAID usage

A

 65% of LT use develop ulcers + erosions – usually distal ileum and duodenum, sometimes in colon

 Perforation + bleeding

 Focal active colitis

 Chronic NSAID enteropathy (diaphragm disease) – subacute obstruction
• Thin diagram like projections that usually affects ileum that resembles perforated diaphragm

 Suppositories – located proctitis, ulceration, strictures

413
Q

What is pseudomembranous colitis?

A

o Many patients take broad spectrum antibiotics develop diarrhoea, usually not severe and resolves with withdrawal of antibiotic (antibiotic-associated colitis)

o Iatrogenic disease caused by C. difficile + its associated toxins resulting in fulminant colitis

o Produce diarrhoea, dehydration, and death in some debilitated patients

414
Q

What is C. difficile?

A

 Spore-forming gram-positive anaerobe

 2 toxins (A and B) detected in faeces

 25% antibiotic associated diarrhoea

 Primarily colonic, but may be accompanying ileitis, in immunosuppressed individuals

 Histologically ‘volcano-like’ eruptions of mucus, epithelial cells, neutrophils, fibrin on surface (pseudomembrane)

415
Q

Inflammation in appendicitis is due to obstruction by?

A

Fecalith, food residues, lymphoid hyperplasia, diverticulosis, neoplasia (carcinoid)

Other aetiology – specific infections (yersinia, tuberculosis), inflammatory bowel disease

416
Q

What is diverticular disease?

A

Herniation of mucosa into/through muscle wall at entry/exit point of blood vessels

Common condition causing morbidity in western countries

Can occur anywhere in intestinal tract – sigmoid commonest site

417
Q

How does diverticular disease present?

A

Abdominal pain, altered bowel habit, ulceration –> bleeding

418
Q

Complications of diverticular disease?

A

 Diverticulitis
 Pericolic abscess
 Perforation
 Fistula – communication between 2 organs

419
Q

Difference between diverticulitis and diverticular disease?

A

Diverticulitis - inflammation of a diverticulum, especially in the colon, causing pain and disturbance of bowel function.

Diverticular disease - a condition in which muscle spasm in the colon in the presence of diverticula causes abdominal pain and disturbance of bowel function without inflammation.

420
Q

Diverticular colitis/diverticulosis-associated colitis

A

o Mucosal inflammation limited to segment affected by diverticulosis

o Mucosa proximal + distal (rectum) normal

o Histologically – inflammation confined to mucosa with crypt architectural changes, but can be transmural with lymphoid aggregates + fistula formation, mimicking IB

421
Q

Infective enterocolitis

A

o Acute GI infection = major cause of morbidity
o Viruses play a leading role and small intestine is usually main site

  • Endoscopically and histologically mimics Crohn’s disease
  • Chronic granulomatous infection
  • TB and Yersinia
  • Terminal ileum and caecum
422
Q

What is diverticular colitis?

A

Mucosal inflammation limited to segment affected by diverticulosis

423
Q

Epidemiology of Crohn’s disease

A
  • Higher incidence in northern Europe + US
  • Proposed genetic defect that prevents a controlled and effective immune response to causative agent
  • HLA-DR1 and DQw5 haplotypes
  • Bimodal incidence – 20-30 years 60-70 years
  • Can occur in children (usually with FHx)
  • Becoming more prevalent that ulcerative colitis + incidence rising in Asia
424
Q

Aetiology of Crohn’s disease

A
  • Cigarette smoking increases risk in genetically susceptible individuals of developing Crohn’s disease
  • Microvascular infarction – Oral contraceptive pill (procoagulant)
  • Triggers appear to be infective agents – mycobacteria, measles virus
425
Q

How does Crohn’s disease present?

A

SI is commonly affected, but any part of the intestinal tract may be affected:
o Colon alone 20%
o Small bowel alone 33%
o Ileocolic 45%

Presentation depends on disease location:
o Colon – bloody diarrhoea
o SI / Upper GI – severe abdo pain, vomiting, weight loss, strictures –> small intestinal obstruction
o Perianal – ulcers, fissures, perianal abscess, fistula

426
Q

Macroscopic histology of Crohn’s disease

A

o Serosal fat wrapping

o Cobblestone – transverse ulcers intersecting oedematous mucosa seen on luminal surface

o Serpiginous ulcers – longitudinal

427
Q

Microscopic histology of Crohn’s disease

A

o Flat surface

o Crypt architecture often preserved

o Ulcer, patchy activity – cryptitis + crypt abscess

o Plasma cell rich infiltrate

o Pyloric metaplasia – response to chronic inflammation/injury

o Granuloma – collection of macrophages; not specific to Crohn’s disease

428
Q

Indications for surgery in Crohn’s disease

A
  • Complications of disease process – fistula, strictures, intra-abdominal abscess, perforation, malabsorption
  • Main principle of surgery – preserve bowel length to avoid short bowel syndrome + intestinal failure
429
Q

Complications of Crohn’s disease

A
  • Malabsorption – short loop/bowel syndrome due to repeated resection
  • Fistula formation
  • Anal lesions (60%) – fissures, fistula
  • Perforation, haemorrhage, toxic dilation not as frequent as ulcerative colitis
  • Increased risk of malignancy of SI but less frequent than ulcerative colitis
430
Q

Epidemiology of UC

A
  • 15–30 years or > 60 years
  • Anglo-Saxon individuals ~1/1000

Abdominal pain, diarrhoea mixed with blood, weight loss, fever, anemia

431
Q

Aetiology of UC

A
  • Inappropriate immune response to an unknown environmental stimulus in the colon
  • Unknown cause – infection, diet, environmental factors, primary immunological defects, abnormalities in mucin, genetic disorders, psychomotor disorder
  • Appendicectomy may be protective – delay onset, producing a milder form
  • Smoking appears to be preventative – could be linked to increased glycoprotein synthesis maintaining protective mucosal barrier
  • NSAIDS known to reactivate CIBD
432
Q

Progression of UC

A
  • Always begins in rectum
  • Can remain limited to rectum (ulcerative proctitis)
  • Extend proximally to a variable length, or involve the entire LI (pancolitis) in a continuous manner
  • Changes always most severe distally
  • Primarily affects mucosa, but in severe disease, deeper layers can be involved – fulminant colitis (toxic megacolon)
433
Q

Macroscopic histoloogy of UC

A

o Length may be shortened, reduction in transverse calibre – increase in sarcorectal distance radiologically

o Normal serosa except in toxin megacolon

o Granular/velvety friable surface

o Ulcers – flask-shaped or undermining

o Polyps – inflammatory – granulation tissue vs pseudopolyps (oedematous smucosal islands)

434
Q

Microscopic histology of UC

A

o Irregular surface
o Diffuse crypt architectural distortion
o Diffuse chronic inflammatory cell infiltrate, rich in plasma cells

435
Q

Indications for surgery in UC

A
  • Resistance to medical therapy or dependence on unacceptable levels of therapy – immunosuppressants
  • Severe disease
  • Complications – dysplasia (unregulated cell proliferation and differentiation) and carcinoma
436
Q

Extra-intestinal manifestations of IBD in the liver?

A

Incidence depends on severity + extent of colitis, but significant liver problems in 5-8%

437
Q

Extra-intestinal manifestations of IBD in the skin?

A

 Pyoderma gangrenosum – tissue becomes necrotic causing deep ulcers; usually occur on the legs

 Erythema nodosum – swollen fat under the skin causing red bumps and patches

438
Q

Extra-intestinal manifestations of IBD in biliary tract

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC)

 Disease of biliary tract
 Most commonly seen with pancolitis (UC)
• 1-5% of patients with IBD have PSC
• 50-75% of patients with PSC have IBD

439
Q

Extra-intestinal manifestations of IBD in the eyes

A

 Iritis – inflammation of the iris
 Uveitis – inflammation of the uvea
 Episcleritis – benign, self-limiting inflammatory disease affecting part of the eye between conjunctiva and sclera

440
Q

Extra-intestinal manifestations of IBD in the joints

A

Ankylosing spondylitis – form of arthritis that primarily affects the spine

441
Q

Epidemiology of IBD

A

o Incidence and prevalence is increasing, particularly in developing countries

o This could be due to improved sanitation and health reducing exposure to enteric infections  immature immune system

o There is an equal distribution between males and females

442
Q

How does Crohn’s disease present in the colon?

A

Colon – bloody diarrhoea

443
Q

How does Crohn’s disease present in the SI/upper GI?

A

Severe abdo pain,

Vomiting,

Weight loss,

Strictures –> small intestinal obstruction

444
Q

How does Crohn’s disease present perianally?

A

Ulcers, fissures, perianal abscess, fistula

445
Q

Which disease has a strong associated with HLA-DQ2 allele

A

Coeliac disease

446
Q

How does coeliac disease classically (in children) present?

A

Weight loss
Chronic diarrhoea
Failure to thrive

447
Q

How does coeliac disease non-classically (in adults) present?

A
  • Irritable bowel syndrome-type symptoms
  • Abdominal pain
  • Altered bowel habit
  • Anaemia (iron deficiency)
448
Q

List 4 complications of coeliac disease

A

Lymphoma
Osteoporosis
Hyposplenism
Anaemia

449
Q

What is this a definition of?

Insufficient dietary intake to meet metabolic requirements

A

Malnutrition

450
Q

What is this a definition of?

Disorder of the digestive tract resulting in the inability to utilise an appropriate dietary intake

A

Malabsorption

451
Q

Where does carbohydrate digestion begin?

A

In mouth with salivary amylase

452
Q

Where does protein digestion begin?

A

In stomach with pepsin

453
Q

How is starch broken down?

A

o Begins in the mouth w/ salivary amylase

o Acidic pH of stomach destroys salivary amylase

o Starch not already broken down are cleaved by pancreatic amylase in pancreatic juice

454
Q

Once starch has been cleaved by amylase, how is glucose clipped off one at a time?

A

o Brush-border enzymes (alpha-dextrinase) acts on resulting alpha-dextrin’s, clipping off one glucose at a time

o Sucrose, lactose, and maltose aren’t acted on until they reach the SI

455
Q

How do monosaccharides pass from lumen of the SI through the apical membrane

A

Via facilitated diffusion (fructose) or active transport coupled with Na+ (glucose + galactose)

456
Q

How do monosaccharides move from apical membrane out through basolateral surface into capillaries?

A

Move out trough basolateral surfaces via facilitated diffusion + enters capillaries

457
Q

Protein digestion begins in the stomach with pepsin. Which enzymes in pancreatic juice continue to breakdown proteins into peptides?

A

Trypsin
Chymotrypsin
Carboxypeptidase
Elastase

458
Q

Protein digestion is completed by 2 peptidases where?

A

In the brush border into aa

459
Q

Where are amino acids absorbed? And how?

A

By active transport in the duodenum + jejunum

460
Q

Summarise carbohydrate digestion + absorption

A

o Begins in the mouth w/ salivary amylase

o Acidic pH of stomach destroys salivary amylase

o Starch not already broken down are cleaved by pancreatic amylase in pancreatic juice

o Brush-border enzymes (a-dextrinase) acts on resulting a-dextrin’s, clipping off one glucose at a time

o Sucrose, lactose, and maltose aren’t acted on until they reach the SI

o Monosaccharides pass from the lumen of the SI through the apical membrane via facilitated diffusion (fructose) or active transport coupled with Na+ (glucose + galactose)

o Move out trough basolateral surfaces via facilitated diffusion + enters capillaries

461
Q

Summaries protein digestion + absorption

A

o Begins in the stomach with pepsin

o Enzymes in pancreatic juice (trypsin, chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidase, elastase) continue to breakdown proteins into peptides

o Protein digestion is completed by 2 peptidases in the brush border into aa

o Amino acids are absorbed by active transport in the duodenum + jejunum

462
Q

Summarise fat digestion + absorption

A

o Lipids combine w/ bile salts to form emulsification droplets

o These are digested by lipase to form free fatty acids (monoglycerides) + bile salts

o These combine to form
micelles

o Micelles transport poorly soluble monoglycerides to the surface of the enterocytes to be absorbed

o Monoglycerides are absorbed once freely dissolved micelles are no absorbed
- Vitamins + minerals

463
Q

Lipids combine with bile salts to form what?

A

Emulsification droplets

464
Q

Emulsification droplets are digested by lipase to form what?

A

Free fatty acids (monoglycerides) + bile salts

These combine to form micelles

465
Q

What do micelles transport?

A

Poorly soluble monoglycerides to the surface of the enterocytes to be absorbed

Monoglycerides are absorbed once freely dissolved micelles are no absorbed

466
Q

Calcium is needed for the absorption of what vitamin?

A

Vitamin D

467
Q

Role of the antrum of the. stomach?

A

Peristalsis, grinding, retropulsion

468
Q

List the exocrine cells in the stomach glands

A

o Mucous neck cells – secrete mucous
o Parietal cells – produce intrinsic factor + HCl
o Chief cells – secrete pepsinogen + gastric lipase
o G cells – secrete gastrin (stimulate gastric acid secretion)
o Delta cell – secrete somatostatin

469
Q

Examples of serous cells that secrete proteins (often enzymes)?

A
Gastric chief cells 
Paneth cells (SI)
470
Q

List principal cells types of the SI

A

Paneth cells
Goblet cells
Enterocytes
Enteroendocrine cells

471
Q

Examples of mucous cells that secrete mucus

A

Brunner’s glands
Oesophageal glands
Pyloric glands

472
Q

Examples of mixed glands.

A

Examples include the salivary glands:

Parotid gland - is predominantly serous
Sublingual gland - mainly mucous glandcck
Submandibular gland - is a mixed, mainly serous gland

473
Q

The pyloric glands are located in the antrum of the pylorus. What do these secrete?

A

They secrete gastrin produced by their G cells.

474
Q

What do gastric parietal cells secrete?

A

HCl + IF

Intrinsic factor is a glycoprotein essential for the absorption of vitamin B12 (in the terminal ileum)

475
Q

Where are Delta cells (r D cells) found? What do they secrete?

A

Somatostatin-producing cells.

They can be found in the stomach, intestine and the pancreatic islets.

476
Q

Where are G cells found? What do they secrete?

A

Stomach and duodenum

Secretes gastrin

477
Q

What do Enterochromaffin-like cells secrete?

A

Histamine when pH becomes too high

478
Q

What do mucous neck cells secrete?

A

Mucous

Found in stomach

479
Q

What do chief cells secrete?

A

Releases pepsinogen and gastric lipase and is the cell responsible for secretion of chymosin in ruminants.

480
Q

What are foveolar cells?

A

Aka mucous neck cells in the stomach that produce mucous

481
Q

What is cholecystokinin (CCK)?

A

A peptide hormone of the gastrointestinal system responsible for stimulating the digestion of fat and protein

482
Q

Where is CCK made?

A

Synthesised and secreted by enteroendocrine cells in the duodenum.

Its presence causes the release of digestive enzymes and bile from the pancreas and gallbladder, respectively, and also acts as a hunger suppressant

483
Q

What does CCK do to hunger?

A

Suppressant

484
Q

Role of the peptide hormone Ghrelin.

A

When the stomach is empty, ghrelin is absorbed. When the stomach is stretched, secretion stops.a It acts on hypothalamic brain cells both to increase hunger, and to increase gastric acid secretion and gastrointestinal motility to prepare the body for food intak

485
Q

Where is secretin secreted from in the GIT?

A

S cells in glands of SI

It is a hormone released into the bloodstream by the duodenum (especially in response to acidity) to stimulate secretion by the liver and pancreas.

486
Q

When do S cells secrete secretin?

A

When gastric juice enters duodenum and it’s too acidic

Secretin stimulates flow of pancreatic juice rich in HCO3- to buffer acidic chyme

487
Q

Role of jejunum?

A

Rapid digestion and absorption of macronutrients

Absorption of nutrients virtually complete in distal jejunum

488
Q

What is the main function of the ileum?

A

Specialised transport systems for bile acids (90% reabsorbed) + vitamin B12 absorbed in distal ileum

489
Q

Microanatomy of the villus of SI

A
  • Large surface area for absorption
  • Enzyme production
  • ‘leaky’ mucous membrane
  • Specific transport mechanisms
  • Lymphatic channels
490
Q

Describe microanatomy of enterocytes found in the SI

A

Polarised cell
o Have apical + basolateral membranes
o Electrochemical gradients allow passive transport

Intercellular spaces/junctions

Specific transport pathways

491
Q

List 2 causes of luminal disease of SI

A

Infections, bacterial overgrowth

492
Q

List causes of mucosal disease of SI

A

Loss of absorptive surface area
• Crohn’s disease, surgery, lymphoma

Degradation of absorptive surface area
• Coeliac disease

493
Q

Which pathogens cause luminal disease of the SI leading to malabsorption?

A

 Giardiasis – bloating, steatorrhoea
 TB
 Ancylostoma (parasite) – can cause iron deficiency
 Tropheryma whippelii – bacteria that causes subtotal villous atrophy
 Cryptosporidium, microsporidium, isospora – opportunist infections in immunocompromised patients

494
Q

List conditions in which bacterial overgrowth cause luminal disease of the SI and lead to malabsorption?

A

 High folate (B9), low B12
 Jejunal diverticulosis
 Blind (closed) loop syndrome – surgical procedure, fistulation
 Obstruction
 GI motility disorders – autonomic neuropathy (diabetes), scleroderma (connective tissue disorder)
 Hypochlorhydria in the elderly

495
Q

Does coeliac disease (gluten enteropathy) cause luminal, mucosal or post-mucosal disease of SI?

A

Mucosal

496
Q

Pathophysiology of coeliac disease.

A

Immune mediated subtotal villous atrophy

Crypt hyperplasia + villi shorten

Intraepithelial lymphocyte can be seen

Loss of surface area + villus maturation

Autoantibodies – anti-tissue transglutaminase enzyme

Substrate deficiency

497
Q

Which substrates are deficient in coeliac disease?

A

Iron

Folate

Vit D –> osteomalacia

498
Q

How can terminal ileal surgery cause bile salt and B12 malabsorption?

A

Bile salt malabsorption
• Bile salt catharsis

B12 malabsorption
•	Megaloblastic anaemia
•	Peripheral neuropathy
•	Optic atrophy
•	Dementia
•	SACD – Subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord, aka Lichtheim's disease
499
Q

Vitamin A deficiency leads to?

A

Night blindness,

Xerophthalmia (abnormal dryness of conjunctiva + cornea)

500
Q

Vitamin D deficiency leads to?

A

Osteomalacia

501
Q

Vitamin E deficiency leads to?

A

Ataxia
Dysarthria
Absent tendon reflexes

502
Q

Vitamin K deficiency leads to?

A

Coagulopathy

503
Q

What is Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

A

Gastrin-secreting tumour or hyperplasia of the islet cells causes overproduction of gastric acid, resulting in recurrent peptic ulcers

504
Q

Most common cause of chronic pancreatitis?

A

Alcohol

505
Q

List the types of malnutrition

A

o Protein-energy malnutrition (PEM) - split into developing and developed world PEM

o Specific nutrient malnutrition – vitamin + mineral deficiency

506
Q

In the developing work what are the causes of PEM?

A

Predominately lack of protein (Kwashiorkor)

Total caloric dietary lack (Marasmus)

507
Q

In the developed work what are the causes of PEM?

A

Anorexia
Neglect
Dysphasia
Increased metabolic demands

508
Q

What is Kwashiorkor?

A

Kwashiorkor is a form of severe protein malnutrition characterised by oedema, enlarged liver with fatty infiltrates

Sufficient calorie intake, but with insufficient protein consumption, distinguishes it from marasmus

509
Q

What does Marasmus (total caloric dietary lack) cause?

A
	Growth failure
	Apathy
	Diarrhoea
	Hepatomegaly
	Muscle wasting
	Oedema
	Anaemia
	Stomatitis – inflammation of mouth + lips
510
Q

Causes of anorexia (suppression of appetite)?

A

 Malignancy – cytokines suppress appetite

 Infection/inflammation – TB, AIDS

 Anorexia nervosa – self-induced

511
Q

How many B vitamins are there?

A

8

512
Q

GI infection exacerbates malnutrition. Malnutrition lowers resistance to GI infection.

List GI infection syndromes.

A

o Non-inflammatory
o Invasive
o Penetrating

513
Q

Mechanism, location and examples of non-inflammatory GI infections.

A

Mechanism - Enterotoxins/Mucosal adherence

Location - Proximal small bowel

Examples:

  • Vibrio cholerae
  • Bacillus cereus
  • Enterotoxigenic E. coli
514
Q

Which pathogens cause invasion of mucosa and/or production of cytotoxins?

A

They act on colon

Shigella spp.
Salmonella spp.
Campylobacter jejuni
Enterohaemorrhagic/Enteroinvasive E. coli

515
Q

Which pathogens induce phagocytosis in the distal SI?

A

Salmonella typhi
Yersinia enterocolitica
Listeria monocytogenes

516
Q

List host defences against GI infection

A

o Behavioural/sensory
o Gastric pH
o Bile salts/acids
o Peristalsis
o Mucus – physical barrier, antimicrobials (lysozyme)
o Humoral immunity – secretory IgA, cellular
o GALT
o Regional (normal) flora of GIT excluding mouth

517
Q

What is the role of the microbiome (sum of all species in the bowel)?

A
  • Synergistic
  • Synthetic (folate, biotin)
  • Release of nutrients (Fe, Ca, aa)
  • Remove toxins
  • Compete w/ pathogens
  • Release energy
518
Q

Regional flora of GIT excluding mouth

SUMMARY

A

 Colonisation resistance – occupy space, antibiotic-like substance production, metabolic end products may be toxic
 Stimulate local immune system
 Small numbers in stomach, duodenum, jejunum
 Very large numbers in colon (>400 known species, possible 1500)
 Regional GI can cause infection in extra-intestinal locations – peritonitis, UTI

519
Q

The stomach, duodenum, jejunum have a light flora.

Overgrowth of bacteria can lead to?

A
	Bloating
	Abdo pain
	Flatulence
	Steatorrhea
	Weight loss
	Diarrhoea
520
Q

List the nutrient deficiencies diarrhoea can lead to

A
  • Fe – microcytic anaemia
  • B12/B9 – macrocytic anaemia
  • Ca – tetany
  • A – night blindness
  • Selenium – dermatitis
  • Protein – weight loss/cachexia
  • Fats – haemorrhagic stroke
521
Q

How is bacterial overgrowth treated?

A

Treatment of underlying condition

Rifaximin

522
Q

Which diagnostic tests are used to diagnose bacteria overgrwoth

A

 Hydrogen 14C-D-xylose breath test

 105 bacteria/ml in proximal small bowel aspirate

523
Q

What is bacteria overgrowth syndrome?

A

 Malabsorption – steatorrhea + diarrhoea

 Deficiency of fat soluble vitamins

 Macrocytic anaemia

524
Q

What are prebiotics?

A

Chemicals that alter the microbiome

525
Q

What are probiotics?

A

Microorganism (such as lactobacillus or bifidobacterium) that when consumed maintains or restores beneficial bacteria to the digestive tract; also

526
Q

Compare prebiotics to probiotics

A

PREBIOTICS are a special form of dietary fiber that acts as a fertilizer for the good bacteria in your gut.

PROBIOTICS are live bacteria that can be found in yogurt and other fermented foods.

527
Q

Gastroenteritis summary

A

A leading cause of death worldwide

Antibiotics rarely help, make E. coli 0157 worse, cause diarrhoea

Usually infectious

Comes from somewhere – travel/contact history

Can cause post infection syndromes e.g. lactose intolerance

Causes of gastroenteritis:
o Viral (70%) – rotavirus (most common in children), norovirus, adenovirus, astrovirus
o Bacterial – Campylobacter jejuni, E. Coli, salmonella, shigella
o Parasitic – Giardia lamblia, Entamoeba histolytica, Cryptosporidium spp.

528
Q

Name 4 viruses that cause gastroenteritis

A

Rotavirus (most common in children)

Norovirus

Adenovirus

Astrovirus

529
Q

Name 4 bacteria that cause gastroenteritis

A

 Campylobacter (jejuni)
 E. Coli
 Salmonella
 Shigella

530
Q

Name 3 parasites that cause gastroenteritits

A

 Giardia lamblia
 Entamoeba histolytica
 Cryptosporidium spp.

531
Q

Most common cause of gastroenteritis?

A

70% Viral

532
Q

What can clostridium difficile cause?

A

Mild symptoms to severe

Mild diarrhoea to perforation

Toxic megacolon

Malnutrition

Fever

No vomiting, not bloody

533
Q

Which population does C difficile usually affect?

A

o Usually affects elderly/infirm patients

o Nearly all causes follow antibiotic therapy

534
Q

Clostridium difficile is nearly always caused following antibiotic therapy (the 4 Cs) list them.

A

 Clindamycin – 50s inhibitor

 Cephalosporins – are a class of beta-lactam antibiotics

 Ciprofloxacin – a quinolone antibiotic

 Co-amoxiclav – amoxicillin/clavulanic acid (combination of beta-lactam antibiotic + beta-lactamase inhibitor)

535
Q

Pathogenesis of antibiotic use on gut flora (leads to C difficile infection)

A

o Imbalance of regional flora caused by antibiotic
o Acquisition of C. difficile
o Increase in number of C. difficile in patients already colonised
o Production of mucosa-damaging toxins (A + B)

536
Q

How is C. diff managed?

A

o Stop inciting antibiotics (if possible)

o Isolate patients

o Specific anti-C. difficile antimicrobials for 10-14 days

o Other measures – probiotics (e.g. Saccharomyces cerevisiae)

o Faecal flora transplant

o Relapsing infection

537
Q

What can right iliac fossa pain be?

A
o	Appendicitis
o	Ovarian ‘accident’
o	Ectopic pregnancy
o	Renal colic
o	Inguinal/femoral hernia
o	Crohn’s disease
o	Diverticulitis
o	Perforated caecal cancer
o	Small bowel ischaemia
538
Q

List all the causes of abdominal pain

A

GIT + digestive organs

Renal tract gynaecological sources

Vascular

Abdominal wall

Other – cardiac, hyperparathyroidism

539
Q

Symptoms of GIT pathology?

A
	Vomiting
	Bowel changes
	Bleeding
	Weight loss
	Fever
540
Q

Symptoms of hernias

A

 Hiatus hernia – presents as chest pain

 Strangulated hernia – tender bowels in hernia sac

541
Q

Abdominal pain with an onset of minutes may be?

A
	Infarct
	Ruptured aneurysm (AAA)
	Ruptured ectopic
	Perforated duodenal ulcer
	Stone disease
	Gonadal torsions
542
Q

Causes of colic pain?

A

 Obstructive as the hollow muscular structure contracts to unblock itself causing pain

 Bowel colic, biliary colic, ureteric colic, labour

 Late bowel obstructions may not have colicky pain due to over distension of bowels

543
Q

Causes of non-colicky pain?

A

 Usually inflammatory process
 Acute cholecystitis, appendicitis, gastritis, pancreatitis, diverticulitis, colitis
 May progress to infection and/or perforation

544
Q

In which abdominal region would oesophagitis, peptic ulcer and perforated ulcer pain be?

A

Epigastric

545
Q

In which abdominal region is pain from gallstone, cholangitis, hepatitis, live abscess, cardiac + lung problems felt?

A

Right hypochondriac

546
Q

In which abdominal region is pain from spleen abscess, acute splenomegaly, spleen rupture felt?

A

Left hypochondriac

547
Q

Where is pain from ureteric colic and pyelonephritis felt?

A

Right and left lumbar regions

548
Q

In diverticulitis, UC, constipation, ovarian cyst and hernias where is pain felt?

A

Left iliac region

549
Q

In testicular torsion, urinary retention, cystitis, placental abruption where is pain felt?

A

Hypogastric region

550
Q

Where is the pain in late appendicitis, Crohn’s disease, caecum obstruction, ovarian cyst, ectopic pregnancy, hernias?

A

Right iliac

551
Q

Is visceral or parietal pain poorly localised?

A

Visceral

552
Q

Which fibres transmit visceral and partial pain?

A

Visceral - C fibres

Parietal - myelinated A delta

553
Q

Is abdominal guarding voluntary?

A

No

554
Q

Where does the foregut start and end?

A

Oesophagus

2nd part of duodenum

555
Q

Where is hindgut pain referred to?

A

Suprapubic region

556
Q

Where does the midgut start and end?

A

2nd part of duodenum to splenic (left colic) flexure

557
Q

Where does the hindgut start and end?

A

Splenic flexure to rectum

558
Q

Is visceral or somatic pain specific?

A

o Somatic – specific

o Visceral – general

559
Q

Acute presentations of abdo pain

A
o	35% Non-specific abdominal pain (NSAP)
o	17% Appendicitis 
o	15% Obstruction
o	6% Urinary disease
o	5% Biliary disease 
o	4% Diverticular disease
o	3% Trauma
o	3% Malignancy
o	3% Perforated ulcer
o	2% Pancreatitis
560
Q

Inflammatory causes of abdominal pain

A
o	Appendicitis
o	Pelvic inflammatory disease – from chlamydia
o	Cholecystitis
o	Pancreatitis
o	UTI
o	Ovarian cysts
o	Mesenteric ischaemia
561
Q

List causes of perforation leading to abdo pain

A

o Peptic ulcer
o Colonic diverticulum
o Sterocoral perforation
o Aortic aneurysm

562
Q

List causes of obstruction which lead to abdominal pain

A

o Pyloric stenosis
o Small bowel – adhesions, hernia, tumour, bolus (food/stone), Crohn’s
o Colonic – carcinoma, diverticular, volvulus, pseudo-obstruction
o Drugs

563
Q

Non inflammatory, perforative and obstructive causes of abdo pain

A
o	Sickle cell crisis
o	Acute leukaemia
o	Addisonian crisis
o	Lead toxicity
o	Tabes dorsalis
o	Parathyroid disease
o	Narcotic withdrawal
564
Q

Abdo examination - inspection

A

 Cachexic, bruising, posture, speech, gait
 Asymmetry of abdomen
 Liver signs: ascites, spider naevi, clubbing, jaundice, skin changes
 Evidence of other autonomic effects: sweating, pale, nausea, restlessness

565
Q

Abdo examination - palpation

A

Light palpation
• To elicit tenderness/guarding
• All quadrants

Deep palpation
• Go palpate for masses or organs or aortic aneurysm
• Elicit signs such as Murphy’s and rebound tenderness

Other sites
• Groin examination
• Digital rectal examination

566
Q

Abdo examination - percussion

A
	Tympanic = gaseous
	Dull = solid or fluid
	Percuss from resonant to dull preferably 
	Define borders of organs such as liver
	Shifting dullness for ascites
567
Q

Abdo examination - auscultation

A

 Borborygumus or gurgling bowel sounds
 Increased = increased bowel movement - e.g. gastroenteritis, bowel obstruction
 Tinkling bowel sound = bowel obstruction
 Absent bowel sound = no bowel activity - e.g. ileus, infarcted
 Bruits

568
Q

What can inflammation in the foregut be caused by?

A
	Oesophagitis
	Gastritis
	Duodenitis
	Cholecystitis
	Pancreatitis
	Hepatitis
569
Q

What can inflammation in the midgut be caused by?

A
	Enteritis
	Meckel
	Appendicitis
	Colitis
	Diverticulitis
570
Q

What can inflammation in the hindgut be caused by?

A

 Colitis

 Diverticulitis

571
Q

Symptoms of obstructive abdo pain

A

 Rapid onset of – colicky abdominal pain
 Vomiting
 Absolute constipation
 Abdominal distension

572
Q

Signs of abdo pain caused by obstruction

A

 Abdominal distension
 Tympanic
 Visible peristalsis (thin patients only)
 Increased bowel sound

573
Q

Symptoms of perforation

A

 Initially – persistent or colicky pain initially

 Later – localising severe pain progressing to generalised abdominal pain

 Pain on movement / cough

574
Q

Signs of perforation

A
	Patient lying still
	Tender abdomen on light palpation
	Unable to tolerate deep palpation
	Rigid abdomen
	Rebound tenderness positive
575
Q

What can perforation be caused by?

A
	Ulcers
	Cancers
	Foreign bodies
	Stercoral
	Obstruction
	Infarcted bowel
576
Q

Where does bile come from?

A

Made in hepatocytes and stored in gallbladder

577
Q

What stimulates CCK?

A

Eating stimulates CCK

578
Q

What does CCK do to gallbladder?

A

CCK stimulates bile release into bowel through ampulla of vater

579
Q

Where is the gallbladder located?

A

The gallbladder is located on the visceral surface of the liver in a fossa between the right + quadrate lobules

580
Q

What does the bile contain?

A

Bile acids:
 Cholic acid
 Chenodeoxycholic acid
 Glycine and taurine conjugates

Secondary bile acids:
 Deoxycholic acid
 Lithocholic acid

Cholesterol

Phosphatidylcholine

Bilirubin

581
Q

How is bile concentrated?

A

By water + ion absorption by the gallbladder mucosa (simple an epithelium with rugae)

582
Q

Functions of bile?

A

Helps the body absorbs the necessary fats:
 Emulsification of dietary fat (vital for absorption)

Helps eliminate waste products:
 Excess cholesterol, bilirubin, non-water-soluble xenobiotics (conjugated by hepatocytes)

Signalling molecules:
 Active MAPK pathway
 Ligands for receptor TGF5
 Active hormone receptor, e.g. FXR

Bile salts + reabsorbed by active transport + return by blood to the liver (enterohepatic circulation)

583
Q

Name the waste products in bile which is eliminated

A

Excess cholesterol

Bilirubin

Non-water-soluble xenobiotics (conjugated by hepatocytes)

584
Q

Where are old RBCs phacocytosed?

A

Old RBCs are phagocytosed in the liver, this liberated globin + bilirubin (derived from haeme)

585
Q

What is bilirubin derived from?

A

Haem

586
Q

Bilirubin is secreted into the bile.

What happens then?

A

Bile (with bilirubin) passes into the SI and then the LI

In the LI, bacteria convert bilirubin into urobilinogen

Some urobilinogen is absorbed back into the blood, converted to urobilin, and excreted in urine

Most urobilinogen is excreted in the faeces in the form of stercobilin (given faeces its brown colous)

587
Q

What is hyperbilirubinemia known as?

A

Jaundice

High bilirubin in the blood

588
Q

Jaundice can be described as pre-hepatic, hepatic and pro-hepatic.

What is pre-hepatic jaundice?

A

Un-congugated

Causes include:
• Haemolysis
• Resorption from bleed – e.g. burst aortic aneurysm
• Gilbert syndrome – congenital condition where unconjugated bilirubin struggles to enter liver
• Ineffective erythropoiesis

589
Q

What is Gilbert syndrome?

A

Congenital condition where unconjugated bilirubin struggles to enter liver

When stressed, patient can go jaundice

590
Q

Causes of hepatic jaundice?

A
  • Liver disease – cirrhosis, viral hepatitis, primary biliary cholangitis (PBC)
  • Drugs
  • Toxins
  • Cancer
591
Q

Causes of post-hepatic jaundice?

A
  • Gallstones
  • Pancreatic cancer
  • Cholangiocarcinoma of biliary tree
  • Strictures
  • Biliary atresia
592
Q

What is cholesterolosis?

A

Accumulation of cholesterol in macrophages within the lamina propria (from foam cells) of gallbladder

“Strawberry gallbladder” - stippled mucosa of gallbladder where you get cholesterol esters in foam cells

593
Q

What is cholecystitis?

A

Inflammation of gallbladder

594
Q

Difference between acalculous and calculous cholecystitis?

A

Calculous most common (obstruction of cystic duct usually by gallstones or biliary sludge)

Acalculous - much less common (inflammation of gallbladder without gallstones or cystic duct obstruction)

595
Q

Risk factors (5Fs) for gallstones?

A

Female, fat, fertile, fair, fourty

596
Q

Causes of gallstones?

A
	Chronic haemolysis
	Lithogenic bile
	Inflammation/infection
	Rapid weight loss
	Stasis (e.g. pregnancy, spinal cord injuries)

o 80% are cholesterol stones
o 80% of stone have no identifiable risk factor

597
Q

Complications of gallstones when the stone is in the gallbladder or cystic duct?

A
  • More than 80% are silent
  • Acute/chronic cholecystitis
  • Mucocele – a swelling like a sac that is due to distension of a hollow organ or cavity with mucus
  • Empyema – gallbladder fills with purulent material
  • Perforation
  • Gallstone ileus
598
Q

Complications of gallstones when the stone is the common bile duct?

A
  • Partial, total, intermittent obstruction
  • Pain
  • Cholangitis – infection of bile duct (cholangitis), usually caused by bacteria ascending from the duodenum
  • Gallstone ileus – small bowel obstruction caused by an impaction of a gallstone within the lumen of SI
599
Q

80% of acute pancreatitis is caused by which 2 things?

A

Gallstones + ethanol

600
Q

Symptoms of acute pancreatitis?

A
  • Acute abdominal pain
  • Central, severe, and often radiates to back
  • Vomiting
  • History of alcohol excess gallstones, and certain drugs
601
Q

Signs of acute pancreatitis?

A
  • Guarding + tenderness in upper abdomen

* Can be complicated by: shock, DIC, renal failure, haemolysis, ARDS

602
Q

Investigations for acute pancreatitis?

A
  • Raised serum amylase
  • Glucose intolerance
  • Hypocalcaemia (fat sequestration)
  • Raised CRP, WCC
  • Haemorrhagic peritoneal effusion
603
Q

Causes of chronic pancreatitis?

A
  • ALCOHOL
  • Biliary tract disease
  • Hypercalcaemia
  • Hyperlipidaemia
  • Hemochromatosis
  • Cystic fibrosis
  • Idiopathic
604
Q

Morphology of chronic pancreatitis?

A
  • Irregular gland with fibrosis, fatty infiltration, calcification
  • Appearance mimics carcinoma (difficult biopsy diagnosis)
  • Endocrine pancreas relatively spare
605
Q

Outcomes of chronic pancreatitis?

A
  • Pain
  • Weight loss
  • Steatorrhea
  • Diabetes
  • Jaundice (fibrosis causes biliary obstruction)
  • Hypalbuminaemia
  • Pseudocysts
  • Splenic vein thrombosis
606
Q

List islet cell (endocrine) tumours?

A

o Insulinoma – tumor of pancreas that is derived from beta cells (secretes insulin)
o Gastrinoma (Zollinger-Ellison syndrome) – tumor in the pancreas or duodenum that secretes excess of gastrin leading to ulceration in duodenum, stomach, SI
o Glucagonoma – rare tumor of the alpha cells of pancreas
o Somatostatinoma – a malignant tumor of the delta cells of the endocrine pancreas
o VIPoma – watery diarrhoea, hypokalaemia, achlorhydria

607
Q

Where are adenocarcinomas of the pancreas most likely to be anatomically?

A

60% head, 25% body, 15% tail

608
Q

Symptoms of pancreatic carcinoma

A
  • Frequently v. little
  • Weight loss
  • Back pain
  • Painless jaundice (all painless jaundice is pancreatic cancer until proven otherwise)
609
Q

What increases colorectal cancer risk?

A

Preserved + red meat
Alcohol (men)
Height
Obesity

610
Q

What increases risk of breast cancer?

A

Alcohol

Maybe obesity and height as well

611
Q

What decreases breast cancer risk?

A

Lactation

612
Q

What increases risk of endometrial cancer?

A

Obesity

Glycaemic load

613
Q

At the periphery of the hexagon which are 3 structures collectively known as the portal triad?

A

o Arteriole – a branch of the hepatic artery entering the liver

o Venule – a branch of the hepatic portal vein entering the liver

o Bile duct – branch of the bile duct leaving the liver

614
Q

Hepatic venule is connected to surrounding veins and arteries by sinusoids.

Which cell types are in sinusoids?

A

Kupffer cells

Hepatocytes

Stellate cells (perisinusodial cells)

615
Q

What are Kupffer cells?

A

Macrophages that capture + break down old, worn out RBCs

616
Q

What are hepatocytes?

A

Cuboidal epithelial cells that line sinusoids, perform most of liver’s functions (e.g. detoxification)

617
Q

What are stellate cells?

A

 In normal liver they are the quiescent state, they store vitamin A, APC
 When liver damaged they become activated + secrete collagen scar tissue leading to cirrhosis

618
Q

The liver has a unique dual blood supply. What are these?

A

Hepatic artery proper (25%)

Hepatic portal vein (75%)

619
Q

Hepatic artery proper

A

 Supplies the non-parenchymal structures of the liver with arterial blood
 It is derived from the coeliac trunk

620
Q

Hepatic portal vein

A

 Supplies the liver with partially deoxygenated blood, carrying nutrients absorbed from the SI
 This is the dominant blood supply to the liver parenchyma
 Allows the liver to perform its gut-related functions, such as detoxification

621
Q

Describe venous drainage o.f the liver

A

Venous drainage of the liver is achieved through hepatic veins

o The central veins of the hepatic lobule form collecting veins which then combine to form multiple hepatic veins

o These hepatic veins then open into the inferior vena cava

622
Q

List all the functinos of the liver

A

o Storage of glycogen, release of glucose, gluconeogenesis

o Protein synthesis – e.g. albumin, coagulation factors
 Muscle wastage occurs in patients because the muscles are used as a reservoir for protein

o Catabolism of aa, urea production

o Detoxification of nitrogenous molecules form GIT
 Toxins of ammonia metabolites in blood can cross BBB and patient presents with encephalopathy

o Drug + steroid metabolism

o Lipoprotein synthesis

o Conjugation + excretion of bilirubin

o Synthesis + secretion of bile salts

o Participation in immune processes

623
Q

Which types of viral infection can cause chronic hepatitis?

A

 Hep B – common, sometimes becomes chronic disease

 Hep C – uncommon – 85% become chronic liver disease + occasionally cirrhosis

624
Q

Which viruses other than hep A, B, C, D, E are hepatotropic?

A
  • CMV, EBV, HSV, Varicella, Reovirus, Mumps, Yellow fever, Cocksackie B, Adenovirus, Rubella
  • Lassa fever virus, Marbourg virus, Echovirus, Rift Valley Fever
625
Q

Mode of transmission of hep A

A

Faeco-oral route (household, intimate, institutional)

626
Q

How is hepatitis A (HAV) detected?

A

Increases in:

  • ALT,
  • Bilirubin,
  • Faecal HAV IgA
  • anti-HAV IgM
627
Q

Mode of the transmission of Hep B?

A

Body fluids (blood, sex, vertical)

Needle, piercings, tattoos

628
Q

Risk factors of Hep B

A
	Heterosexual activity (40%)
	Unknown (27%)
	Homosexual activity (10%)
	IV drug use (20%)
	Healthcare workers 
	Non-sexual household contact (3%)
629
Q

Hep D can only propagate in the presence of what?

A

Hep B

The combo has the highest fatality rate of all the hepatitis infections (20%)

630
Q

What is non-alcoholic steatohepatitis? (NASH)

A

Wide range of conditions caused by a build-up of fat in the liver – called NAFLD
• Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease!
• Ranges from fatty liver (steatosis) to cirrhosis to morbidity/mortality

NASH is the intermediate form of liver damage that sometimes progresses to cirrhosis

Some individuals who become cirrhotic from NAFLD develop hepatocellular carcinoma

631
Q

Treatment/prevention of Hep B?

A

 Vaccination (primary prevention)
 Antivirals (when chronic hepatitis)
 Transplant (liver failure)

632
Q

How is Hep C transmitted?

A
	Blood (IV drugs, transfusion)
	Unknown
	Household
	Sexual contact 
	Vertical (maternal-neonatal)
633
Q

Cirrhosis due to Hep C is more common in which ethnicity compared that caucasains?

A

Asians

634
Q

Which virus is the commonest cause of acute viral hepatitis worldwide?

A

Hep E

It is more common than Hep A

Mortality
 Standard (<1%)
 Pregnant (25%)
 Accompanied chronic liver disease (<70%)

635
Q

Primary host of Hep E?

A

Pig is primary host – avoid undercooked pork

636
Q

Pathogenesis of hepatic cirrhosis

A
o	Development of fibrosis
o	Formation of nodules
o	Loss of hepatocyte microvilli
o	Activated stellate cells
o	Deposition of scar matrix
o	Loss of fenestrae
o	Kupffer cell activation
637
Q

Aetiology of hepatic cirrosis

A
o	Alcohol
o	Hepatitis B, B+D, C
o	Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis
o	Drugs
o	Autoimmune liver disease
o	Cholestatic liver disease
o	Metabolic liver disease
o	Hepatic venous congestion --> oesophageal varices due to back pressure --> upper GI bleed
638
Q

Complications of hepatic cirrhosis

A

o Portal hypertension – backup of blood down portal venous system leads to portal hypertension leads to anastomose

o Hepatorenal syndrome – rapid deterioration in kidney function in individuals with cirrhosis/liver failure

o Ascites + spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

o Hepatic encephalopathy – confused, altered consciousness level, coma due to ammonia accumulation

639
Q

What is portal hypertension?

A

Backup of blood down portal venous system leads to portal hypertension –> anastomose

640
Q

What is hepatorenal syndrome?

A

Rapid deterioration in kidney function in individuals with cirrhosis/liver failure

641
Q

Describe hepatocellular cancer

A

Usually painless, until large

Diagnosis – AFP + USS/CT

Incidence is rising

Treatable with:
	Chemoembolisation
	RFA
	Excision
	Orthotopic liver transplantation (OLTx)
642
Q

How is hepatocellular cancer treated?

A

 Chemoembolisation
 Radiofrequency ablation (RFA)
 Excision
 Orthotopic liver transplantation (OLTx)

643
Q

Hepatic failure prevents normal functions of the liver. What are the clinical consequences of hepatic failure?

A
o	Cerebral oedema
o	Bleeding + bleeding disorders
o	Infections
o	Kidney failure
o	Jaundice
o	Ascites
o	Melena 
o	Hypotension + tachycardia – due to reduced systemic vascular resistance
644
Q

List consequences of prevention of normal liver function.

A

o Unable to filter toxins + drugs effectively

o Metabolism of nutrients reduced

o Reduced immunity – unable to help fight infection by removing bacteria from blood

o Reduced production of clotting factors – increased risk of clotting

o Unable to store nutrient so body may experience shortage

o Reduced protein production e.g. albumin

o Reduced bile production – reduced absorption of vitamins A,D,E,K

645
Q

Symptoms of cancer of GIT?

A

Insidious onset – oden discovered at advanced stage

Bleeding – overt, occult, anaemia

Pain – tubular blockage, tumour invasion
	Foregut – upper (epigastric) pain
	Midgut – periumbilical pain
	Hindgut – lower (suprapubic) pain
	Visceral pain is poorly localised

Alteration of flow – constipation, diarrhoea, dysphagia

Weight loss – at advanced stages

646
Q

Pathology of cancer of GIT

A

Most of the GIT is lined with columnar epithelium

Most tumours are adenocarcinomas (glandular), except oesophagus + anus (squamous)

Spread via:
	Local
	Intramural
	Nodal
	Blood born (usually to liver/lungs)
647
Q

Aetiology of GIT cancer

A
o	Usually multifactorial
o	Genetic
o	Dietary
o	Environmental
o	Chemical (smoking, alcohol)
o	Inflammation – oesophagus (Barrett oesophagus), stomach (H. pylori)
o	Usually middle/older age
o	Slight male predominance (except familial conditions like APC + HNPCC)
648
Q

Treatment of GIT cacner

A

o Surgery is the mainstay
o Increasingly other therapies such as radiotherapy, chemotherapy, biotherapy
o Decisions made by MDT

649
Q

What does GIT cancer survival demand on?

A

o Based on stage at time of diagnosis
o Localised + completely removable surgically –> good prospects
o Spread outside of the local area –> survival decreased

650
Q

Name the types of oesphageal cancers

A

Squamous cell carcinomas (middle 1/3 of oesophagus)

Adenocarcinomas (lower 1/3 and into cardia)

651
Q

Causes of sqamous cell carcnomas of oesophagus

A

o Alcohol + tobacco
o Poverty
o Caustic injury, very hot beverages, radiation to mediastinum
o Diet deficient in fruit + veg
o Higher rates in some countries – Iran, China, Brazil, South Africa

652
Q

Causes of oesophageal adenocarcinomas

A

o Less frequent (but on the rise), higher rates in Western countries
o Most arise from Barrett oesophagus

653
Q

Clinical features of oesophageal cancer?

A
  • Usually elderly patients (70+)
  • Insidious onset with dysphagia, odynophagia
  • Progressive weight loss
  • Haematemesis –> anaemia
  • Usually already spread when symptomatic
  • Requires major surgery (high risks)
  • RT + CT widely used
  • Very poor 5-year survival (20% or less)
654
Q

Types of stomach cancer

A

Intestinal type

Diffuse infiltrative type

655
Q

Describe intestinal type stomach cancer

A

o Bulky or ulcerative with glandular structure
o Precursor lesions (adenoma)
o Pathogenesis – increased Wnt signalling (decrease APC, increase beta-catenin)

656
Q

Describe diffuse infiltrative type stomach cancer

A

o Permeates stomach wall
o Causes desmoplastic reactions
o No precursor lesions
o Pathogenesis – key step is loss of E-cadherin (CDH1)

657
Q

Epidemiology of stomach cancer

A
  • Marked variation of incidence (eastern Europe > northern Europe), high frequency in Japan
  • More common in lower socioeconomic groups

• Becoming less common in western countries due to:
o Decreased H. pylori prevalence
o Decreased salt + smoking for food conservation

658
Q

Describe pancreatic cancer

A
  • Infiltrating ductal adenocarcinoma
  • 4th leading cause of cancer death (after lung, colon, breast)
  • Primarily older adults (60-80)
  • Smoking is the strongest risk factor
  • Arises from precursor lesions (intraepithelial neoplasia)
  • Oncogene KRAS altered in 90-95% cases
  • Tumour suppressor CDKN2A inactivated in 95% cases
659
Q

Which oncogene is altered in 90-95% of pancreatic cancer patients?

A

KRAS

660
Q

Which tumour suppressor is inactivated in 95% of pancreatic cancer cases?

A

CDKN2A

661
Q

What is the 4th leading cause of cancer death?

A

Pancreatic cancer (after lung, colon, breast)

662
Q

5 year survival rate of of pancreatic cancer?

A

5%

663
Q

When is a Whipple procedure used?

A

Surgical excision of pancreas

Only option for pancreatic cancer treatment but it’s only possible in >10% of cases

664
Q

The clinical features of pancreatic cancer

A
  • Silent until it invades adjacent structures
  • Highly invasive
  • Brief progressive clinical course
  • Pain usually the first symptom
  • Obstructive jaundice (Courvoisier’s sign) – painless jaundice is pancreatic cancer until proven otherwise
  • Anorexia + weight loss when advanced
  • Migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau’s sign of malignancy)
  • Surgery (Whipple’s procedure) is the only option but only possible in >10% of cases
  • Survival rates are dismal <5%
665
Q

What is Courvoisier’s sign?

A

Courvoisier’s sign states that in the presence of a palpable enlarged gallbladder which is non-tender and accompanied with mild painless jaundice, the cause is unlikely to be gallstones.

666
Q

Epidemiology of colorectal cancer

A
  • 2nd commonest cause of cancer death in the UK
  • Higher incidence in western countries – lifestyle, diet poor in vegetable fibre, high in refined carbs + fats)
  • Usually starts as benign polyp 3-5 years earlier (suitable for screening, polyp-cancer sequence well characterised)
  • Classic symptoms – alteration in bowel habit, pain, bleeding
667
Q

Classic symptoms of colorectal cancer?

A

Alteration in bowel habit, pain, bleeding

668
Q

Why is there higher incidence of colorectal cancer in western world?

A

Lifestyle

o Diet poor in vegetable fibre
o High in refined carbs + fats

669
Q

Summary of colonic adenomas (neoplastic polyps)

A
  • Sporadic
  • Familial – FAP (familial adenomatous polyposis), less frequently DNA mismatch repair genes
  • Present in 30% western adults >60 years
  • Most clinically silent (unless large)
  • Majority do not progress into adenocarcinoma
  • Size correlates with risk malignancy
  • Surveillance (colonoscopy) recommended >50 years, especially if there is a family history
670
Q

Causes of adenocarcinomas of colon?

A

Sporadic – 80% Wnt pathway, 20% DNA mismatch repair genes

Familial – HNPC (hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer, Lynch syndrome):
o Associated to DNA mismatch repair genes

FAP and HNPC are rare autosomal dominant conditions and manifest at young age

671
Q

What is FAP?

A

Familial adenomatous polyposis

Rare autosomal dominant conditions that manifest at young age

672
Q

What is HNPC?

A

Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer, Lynch syndrome

Associated to DNA mismatch repair genes

673
Q

How does colorectal cancer present?

A
20% present as emergency intestinal obstruction 
o	Colicky abdominal pain
o	Abdominal distension
o	Vomiting
o	Absolute constipation

Commonest with solid faeces passing through narrow bore lumen – sigmoid colon, ileocecal valve

Less common with liquid faeces or side lumen (unless advanced) – ascending colon and rectum

674
Q

Symtpoms of colorectal cancer?

A
Alteration in bowel habits
o	More frequent than usual
o	Sometimes constipation
o	Feeling incompletely evacuation (tenesmus)
o	Main point is a change that persists
o	May have associated abdominal cramps

Bleeding
o Dark red, mixed with stool
o Persists over weeks/months
o May not be all the time
o May present as silent anaemia (classically from R sided cancer)
• Until proven otherwise underlying cause of Fe deficiency in older men or post-meno female is GI cancer

675
Q

Rectal cancer summary

A
  • Usually produces visible bleeding or mucous
  • Often palpable on digital rectal examination
  • Tenesmus is a classic symptoms
  • Pain –> poor prognosis
  • Reasons for no PR – no anus or no finger
676
Q

Treatment and outcomes of colorectal cancer?

A

Surgery is the only curative option

RT + CT widely used – RT common in treating rectal cancer

Antibody therapy now use

Outcome Is totally stage dependent
o Stage A – >95% cure
o Stage D – <5% survival at 5-years
o Overall 50% 5-year survival

Main cause of death is tumour spread – liver is most common (liver secondaries can be treated)

677
Q

Theoretical unrestricted maximum clearance of unbound drug by an eliminating organ, in absence of blood flow of plasma protein binding limitations

Oxidation
Reduction
Hydrolysis
Conjugation
Intrinsic clearance
Metabolism
A

Intrinsic clearance

678
Q

Gain of oxygen (loss of electrons) within a chemical reaction

Oxidation
Reduction
Hydrolysis
Conjugation
Intrinsic clearance
Metabolism
A

Oxidation

679
Q

All chemical reactions involved in maintaining the living state of the cell + organism?

Oxidation
Reduction
Hydrolysis
Conjugation
Intrinsic clearance
Metabolism
A

Metabolism

680
Q

Addition of chemical groups to drugs during metabolism?

Oxidation
Reduction
Hydrolysis
Conjugation
Intrinsic clearance
Metabolism
A

Conjugation

681
Q

The chemical breakdown of a compound due to reaction with water?

Oxidation
Reduction
Hydrolysis
Conjugation
Intrinsic clearance
Metabolism
A

Hydrolysis

682
Q

Loss of oxygen (gain of electrons) within a chemical reaction

Oxidation
Reduction
Hydrolysis
Conjugation
Intrinsic clearance
Metabolism
A

Reduction

683
Q

What does the liver store?

A

 Iron
 Copper
 Vitamins A, D, B12

684
Q

There is a differential oxygen gradient within the liver (high oxygen at the periportal end + low oxygen at the perivenous end)

Where is the periportal zone 1. What does it receives? What are the hepatocytes here specialised for?

A

 Nearest to the entering vascular system
 Receives the most oxygenated blood
 Hepatocytes here are specialised for oxidative functions

685
Q

Where are peripotal zone 3 hepatocytes found?

A

 Poorest oxygenation because hepatocytes along the sinusoids have used up much of the available oxygen
 This is exacerbated by excess alcohol consumption
 Hepatocytes here are most important for glycolysis

686
Q

In which zonea are hepatocytes most important for glycolysis found?

A

Zone 3

687
Q

Summary of entry of drugs into hepatocytes

A

o Most drugs are fat soluble or lipophilic to a variable extent

o Fat solubility is important because an orally administered drug must generally diffuse across the lipid membrane of the enterocyte to reach systemic circulation

o A drug with little or no lipophilic property is poorly absorbed and is excreted in the stool

o A drug that is absorbed is then bound to protein, usually albumin, and distributes itself to various tissues, inc. fat
 Unless rendered more polar or water soluble, such drugs tend to accumulate in the body over a prolonged period

o Whether give orally or parenterally, drugs eventually pass through the liver

o The degree of hepatic drug extraction depends on hepatic blood flow + activity of the drug metabolising enzymes

o In the hepatic sinusoids the drugs bound to protein pass through openings (fenestrae) in the endothelium + gain access to space of Disse, from which they enter the hepatocytes, where enzymes convert them into more polar compounds

o Some of these water-soluble molecules pass back to the sinusoids, whereas other enter the biliary canaliculi

688
Q

Hepatic clearance of oral drugs is dependent upon?

A

 Efficiency of metabolising enzymes
 Liver blood flow
 Intrinsic clearance
 Protein binding

689
Q

What is a high extraction ratio?

A

 Drug rapidly cleared from the blood by the liver (e.g. in a single pass)

 Clearance depends primarily on hepatic blood flow

 Therefore, clearance is non-restrictive

 E.g. verapamil, morphine, propanolol

690
Q

What is a low extraction ratio?

A

Drugs not efficiently cleared by the liver and extracted incompletely from hepatic blood

Clearance is:
• Relatively independent of hepatic blood flow
• Determined by the intrinsic metabolising capacity of the liver + by the free drug fraction

691
Q

Intermediate extraction ratio?

A

Hepatic clearance of these drugs depends on:
• Hepatic blood flow
• Intrinsic metabolising capacity
• Free drug fraction

E.g. aspirin, codeine

692
Q

Summary of p450 isoenzymes

A

o Each human p450 isoenzyme appears to be expressed by a particular gene (distributed among different chromosomes)

o One p450 isoenzyme may be involved in the metabolism of one or more drugs, a single drug may be acted upon by multiple

o Many drugs, are largely metabolised by a single form of p450

o Drugs must bind to the p450 at the substrate binding site, which is located close the enzyme’s heme prosthetic group

o The binding affinity between certain drugs and p450 may vary so that a single p450 may be largely responsible for the metabolism of some drugs

693
Q

Methotrexate

A

o Methotrexate is widely used
o Significant damage rare
o Associated with cumulative doses of ?2g
o Excess alcohol, obesity, age, increase risk
o Monitoring – LFT, serum markers of fibrosis
o Liver biopsy

694
Q

Paracetamol

A

o Used as suicidal agent

o 10g produces hepatic necrosis

o Plasma levels affected by vomiting

o Alcohol – chronic use induces enzymes + increases hepatoxicity, acute use inhibits enzymes

o No signs of toxicity for 48 hours, then progressive liver failure

o Severe prolongation of PT and presence of acidosis predicts poor survival

o Liver transplantation

695
Q

Drugs that interfere with bilirubin uptake, excretion, conjugation can induce liver disease.

What types?

A
	Cytotoxic injury
	Cholestatic injury
	Mixed cytotoxic + cholestatic injury
	Fatty liver
	Cirrhosis
696
Q

Drugs that interfere with phospholipioids can cause what types of liver disease?

A

 Liver tumours
 Vascular lesions
 Chronic active hepatitis
 Subacute hepatic necrosis

697
Q

List examples of inducers that enhance the activity of p450 isozymes

A
CRAP TPS
	Carbamazepine
	Rifampicin
	Alcohol (chronic)
	Phenytoin
	Tobacco
	Phenobarbital
	Sulfonyureas
698
Q

List examples of inhibitors that depress he activity of p450 isozymes

A

Cardiac:
Amiodarone
Verapamil
Quinidine

Antibiotics:
Ciprofloxacin
Erythromycin
Metronidazole
Trimethoprim
Isoniazid

Antifungals:
Fluconazole
Terafine

Antacids:
Cimetidine
Omeprazole

Psychiatric:
TCA
Haloperidol
SSRIs (fluoxetine)
Valporate

HIV antivirals

Grapefruit juice

699
Q

List 3 risk factors for impaired metabolism

A

Hepatocellcular failure
 Decreased hepatic blood flow
 Decreased enzyme function
 Decreased plasma protein binding (which increases volume of drug distribution)

Reduced renal clearance is associated witth reduced renal function
 Seen with liver disease

Malnutrition
 Reduced availability of micronutrients important in metabolism

700
Q

In patients with acute or chronic liver disease, the activities of the drug-metabolising enzymes may be reduced in a variable and selective manner

Several factors may bring about this reduction + consequent impairment of drug metabolism:

  • Reduced cell mass/funciton
  • Reduced drug delivery
  • Reduced bile flow

Explain reduced cell mass/function

A
  • Diminished complement of enzymes (sick-cell hypothesis)

* Functionally impaired because of poor perfusion (intact hepatocyte hypothesis)

701
Q

In patients with acute or chronic liver disease, the activities of the drug-metabolising enzymes may be reduced in a variable and selective manner

Several factors may bring about this reduction + consequent impairment of drug metabolism:

  • Reduced cell mass/funciton
  • Reduced drug delivery
  • Reduced bile flow

Explain reduced drug delivery

A
  • Due to formation of collaterals
  • Attendant extrahepatic
  • Extrahepatic shunting
  • Intrahepatic shunting
  • Capillarisation (and resulting hypoxia)
702
Q

In patients with acute or chronic liver disease, the activities of the drug-metabolising enzymes may be reduced in a variable and selective manner

Several factors may bring about this reduction + consequent impairment of drug metabolism:

  • Reduced cell mass/funciton
  • Reduced drug delivery
  • Reduced bile flow

Explain reduced bile flow

A
  • From intrahepatic inflammation or extrahepatic obstruction
  • Applies to drugs that are primarily excreted in bile wo/ undergoing biochemical changes
  • E.g. nafcillin, piperacillin, apalcillin
703
Q

Common sites of GI bleeds?

A

o Upper GI bleed (70%) – oesophagus, stomach, duodenum
o Small bowel GI bleed (<1%)
o Large bowel GI bleed (30%)

704
Q

How does blood loss present clinically?

A
Acute: 
	Haematemesis
	Melaena
	Shock
	PR bleeding

Chronic:
 Anaemia
 Positive FOB (faecal occult blood)

705
Q

Major causes of upper GI bleed?

A
o	Oesophageal 10% 
o	Peptic ulcer 50%
o	Gastroduodenal erosions 10%
o	Varices 10%
o	Idiopathic 20%
706
Q

Major causes of lower GI bleed?

A

Small bowel:
 Jejunal/ileal diverticulae

Large bowel:
	Angiodysplasia 40%
	Diverticular disease 40%
	Carcinoma/polyp <5%
	UC/Crohn’s <5%
	Haemorrhoids/fissures/fistula
707
Q

Mangement of chronic cbleeding?

A
o	History
o	Clinical examination
o	Abdominal examination
o	PR
o	Rigid sigmoidoscopy
o	Blood test including RBC, U+E, haematinics
o	Endoscopy, colonoscopy, CT colonography
o	Capsule, CT, or MR small bowel
708
Q

Risk factors for death due to blood loss (GIT bleeding)

A
	Age >65
	Co-morbidities – IHD, chronic lung disease, cirrhosis
	Pulse >100bpm, bp <100 systolic
	Shock on admission
	Ascites
	Continued bleeding
	Re-bleeding
	HB <8% on admission
709
Q

List risk factors that won’t increase the risk of death for GI bleeding

A

 Alcoholism
 Previous peptic ulcers
 NSAID usage
 Hepatomegaly

710
Q

How to manage varices?

A

Monitor on ITU
 Central line
 Urine output
 Regular FBC, clotting, creatinine, electrolytes, blood gases

Replace clotting factors – FFP, platelets, etc

Vasopressin, glypressin

Somatostatin, octreotide

Endoscopy – sclerotherapy or banding

711
Q

What is gastroenteritis?

A

Food poisoning

It is charcterised by diarrhoea and vomitng plus or minus pain

712
Q

Causes of gastroenteritis?

A
Microbial infection
	Bacterial – e.g. Salmonella, Staphylococcus aureus, E. coli, Campylobacter,!!!! Clostridium perfinges
	Viral – e.g. norovirus
	Fungal – e.g. aspergillus
	Protozoal – e.g. cryptosporidia

Toxins
 Bacterial toxins – Clostridium perfringens, Staph aureus, Clostridium botulinum
 Marine biotoxins – scombroid poisoning, shellfish, ciguatera

Chemicals
 Heavy metals
 Pesticides
 Herbicides

  • Campylobacter is the most common cause, norovirus is under represented
  • If something comes on very rapidly it is unlikely to be bacterial/viral due to incubation period required
713
Q

Which bacteria cause gastroenteritis?

A

Salmonella sp.

Staphylococcus aureus

E. coli

Campylobacter

Clostridium perfinges

714
Q

Which bacterial toxins cause gastroenteritis?

A

Clostridium perfringens toxins

Staphylococcus aureus toxins

Clostridium botulinum toxins

715
Q

Which bacteria is the most common cause of gastroenteritis?

A

Campylobacter

716
Q

How is salmonella transmitted?

A

Infection of contaminated food, faecal contaminations, person-person, contact with infected animals

o Secondary cases are common in outbreaks

717
Q

Clinical picture of salmonella? Different species cause different diseases - enteric fever + enterocolitis

A

Raw food or failure to achieve adequate cooking temperatures:

 Enteric fever – S. typhi (causes typhoid fever) + S. paratyphi (causes paratyphoid fever)

 Enterocolitis – S. enteritidis

718
Q

Symptoms and treatment of salmonella

A

o Symptoms – diarrhoea, vomiting, fever, headache, chills

o Treatment – symptomatic

719
Q

Explain the commensal to pathogenic transition of S. aureus

A

 Previously cooked food gets contaminated with someone’s skin/nasal flora

 Organism grows and produces toxin – 30-40% of S. aureus isolated produce enterotoxins

 Toxin is heat + acid stable, therefore not affected by reheating food

720
Q

Transmission, incubation period and symptoms of S. auerus infection

A

o Transmission – bacteria gets into food via contact

o Incubation period – 2-4 hours

o Symptoms – rapid onset + rapid resolution, projectile vomiting + diarrhoea

721
Q

Transmission, incubation period, symptoms of cryptosporidium (a protozoa)

A

o Transmission – Animal-human, person-person, contaminated water or land, associated with foreign travel

o Incubation period – 2-5 days

o Symptoms – watery or mucoid diarrhoea, severe illness in immunocompromised patients

722
Q

What is the winter vomiting disease aka?

A

Norovirus (RNA virus)

Named due to seasonality and symptoms

723
Q

Most common cause of infectious gastroenteritis?

A

Norovirus

724
Q

Where are norovirus outbreaks common?

A

Outbreaks common in semi-closed environments – e.g. hospitals, nursing homes

Extremely low infective dose hence quick spread + high rates

725
Q

Incubation period and symptoms of norovirus?

A

Incubation period – 24-48 hrs

Symptoms – nausea, projective vomiting, low-grade fever, diarrhoea (usually lasts 1-2 days)

726
Q

How is norovirus transmitted?

A

Transmission – person-person, food/water, environmental by faecal oral route

727
Q

What is Clostridium perfinges

A

Widely distributed in the environment + foods

Part of normal gut flora

Slow cooling and unrefrigerated storage -> spores germinate to vegetative cells

Food poisoning follows ingestion of food containing large no. of vegetative cells
- C. perfringens enterotoxin is produced after ingestion, not in foods

Can also case gas gangrene

728
Q

What is the incubation period of clostridium perfinges?

A

8-22 hrs

729
Q

Symptoms and transmission of clostridium perfinges?

A

o Symptoms – Diarrhoea + abdo pain

o Transmission – contaminated cooked meat + poultry, inadequate temperature control during cooling + storage

730
Q

Reservoir of Clostridium perfinges?

A

GIT of farm animals, soil, dust

731
Q

What is Conn’s syndrome?

A

Conn’s syndrome is a disease of the adrenal glands involving excess production aldosterone.

Another name for the condition is primary hyperaldosteronism.

Conn’s syndrome is important because it is a potentially curable cause of high blood pressure (hypertension).

732
Q

What is MEN 2 syndrome?

A

Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2 (MEN2) (also known as “Pheochromocytoma and amyloid producing medullary thyroid carcinoma”.

It is a group of medical disorders associated with tumours of the endocrine system.

733
Q

What is carcinoid syndrome?

A

Carcinoid syndrome is a paraneoplastic syndrome comprising the signs and symptoms that occur secondary to carcinoid tumours.

The syndrome includes flushing and diarrhoea, and less frequently, heart failure, emesis and bronchoconstriction.

It is caused by endogenous secretion of mainly serotonin and kallikrein.

734
Q

What is a carcinoid tumour?

A

A slow growing type of neuroendocrine tumour in cells of neuroendocrine system.

Metastasis may occur in some cases.

Carcinoid tumours of the midgut (jejunum, ileum, appendix, and cecum) are associated with carcinoid syndrome.

Carcinoid tumours are the most common malignant tumour of the appendix, but they are most commonly associated with the small intestine, and they can also be found in the rectum and stomach.

735
Q

Visceral vs parietal abdominal pain.

A

Visceral pain is caused when the nerves on an organ sense an acute stretching of that structure’s wall. This pain isn’t well localised and is commonly described as an ache or cramp. Hollow organs will present with an intermittent colicky type pain, which can range from a mild ache to a severe cramping sensation, while the pain created by the solid organs is more constant.

Parietal pain, also known as somatic pain, is caused by irritation to the parietal peritoneal wall. This type of pain is commonly described as “sharp” and “pinpoint” pain.

736
Q

Which imaging technique does the following describe?

 Single contrast study
 Patient drunks 250-500ml of dilute barium
 Well tolerated
 Answers most clinical questions
 Can miss small lesions and low grade structures

A

Small bowel meal

737
Q

Which imaging technique does the following describe?

 A catheter passed to DJ flexure
 Injection of 800 – 1200 ml of very dilute barium via syringe or pump
 Images obtained as follow head of barium through small bowel
 Double contrast technique
 Sensitive for small lesions and low-grade strictures

A

Small bowel barium enema

738
Q

Is a barium meal double or single contrast?

What about a barium swallow?

A

Barium meal is double contrast

Barium swallow is single contrast

739
Q

What is a double contrast barium enema used to visualise?

A

Colon

Colon distended with air or CO2 then barium run into coon via rectal tube

Patient must be starved for 2 days and cleared out using a strong laxative (picomax)

740
Q

Advantages of double contrast barium imaging over single contrast?

A
  • Mucosa coated with barium and lumen distended with air
  • There is better mucosal detail with double contrast due to mucosal coating
  • So, can see smaller lesions (e.g. adenocarcinomas)
  • Double contrast may be give as barium meal
741
Q

What is proctoscopy?

A

Short, rigid endoscopy used to examine rectum only

No preparation needed

742
Q

Gastroscopy can detect gastritis, gastric ulcers, duodenal ulcers and duodenal erosions.

What are the possible complications of gastroscopy?

A
  • Sedation (cardiopulmonary problems)
  • Perforation
  • Haemorrhage
  • Infection
  • Slight mortality risk
743
Q

Methotrexate

A

o Methotrexate is widely used – anticancer/antiarthritic drug

o Significant damage rare

o Associated with cumulative doses of >2g

o Excess alcohol, obesity, age, increase risk

o Monitoring – LFT, serum markers of fibrosis

o Liver biopsy