12.1 Flashcards

1
Q

List modifiable risk factors for stroke.

A
  • Obesity
  • Hypertension
  • Diabetes (increases risk by 2-4 times)
  • AF-
    Hypertension
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2
Q

What is the target BP?

A

<130/80

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3
Q

What is the tentorium?

A

A structure which separates the 2 hemispheres of the brain from brainstem and cerebellum

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4
Q

What type of bleed is a subdural haematoma?

A

Venous

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5
Q

What type of bleed is a extradural haematoma?

A

Arterial

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6
Q

What is clinical response to brain injury?

A
  • Altered consciousness levels
  • Dizziness
  • Pain
  • Vomiting
  • Retrograde amnesia
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7
Q

What is the effect of secondary injury?

A
  • Ischaemic = ruptured spleen can cause lessened perfusion to brain
  • Infection = fracture to skull could lead to meningitis
  • Seizures = use up a lot of brain substrate
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8
Q

How is cerebral blood flow autoregulated?

A

Vasodilation and vasoconstriction

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9
Q

What is an uncal herniation?

A

Transtentorial downward brain herniation

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10
Q

Define stroke.

A

Sudden focal neurological deficit due to vascular lesion lasting longer than 24hrs.

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11
Q

Define TIA.

A

Focal deficit lasting a few seconds to 24hrs with complete clinical recovery

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12
Q

What are the 4 arteries which run to the brain?

A
  • 2 vertebral arteries

- 2 internal carotids

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13
Q

20% of strokes are what?

80% of stroke are what?

A

Haemorrhagic 20%

Ischaemic 80%

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14
Q

ICD-10 definition of dementia

A

o A syndrome due to disease of brain

o Usually of a chronic or progressive nature

o Disturbance of multiple higher cortical functions

o Consciousness is not clouded – this distinguishes dementia from delirium

o Cognitive impairments are commonly accompanied by deterioration in emotional control, social behaviour, motivation o Impairment sufficient to impact on activities of daily living (ADLs)

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15
Q

Anterior spinothalamic tract

A

Crude touch

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16
Q

Lateral spinothalamic tract

A

Pain + temperature

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17
Q

What is dementia?

A

Syndrome due to disease of the brain, usually chronic or progressive.

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18
Q

What are the different types of dementias?

A
  • Alzheimer’s - most common
  • Vascular dementia
  • Mixed dementia - Alzheimers and vascular dementia
  • Lewy-body dementia
  • Fronto-temporal dementia
  • Others e.g. Parkinson’s disease with dementia
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19
Q

Differential diagnosis of dementia.

A
  • Ageing
  • Mild cognitive impairment
  • Depression
  • Delirium
  • Physical health problem e.g. thyroid
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20
Q

Features of Alzheimer’s

A
  • Insidious onset with gradual progression
  • Memory loss
  • Language impairment
  • Decline in motor skills and ADL
  • Loss of recognition skills
  • Disorientation
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21
Q

What is the normal role of tau protein?

A

Allows messaging between cells

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22
Q

What is the normal role of amyloid?

A

Protects against calcium influx and glutamate excite-toxicity

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23
Q
  • Drugs used in Alzheimer’s
A

1) AChesterase inhibitors. used in mild-moderate AD (e.g. donepezil, galantamine, rivastigmine)
2) NMDA receptor antagonists, to reduce glutamate, used in moderate-severe AD (e.g. memantine)

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24
Q

What is vascular dementia?

A

Dementia due to problems with blood supply to the brain - posterior circulation

Risk factors include hypertension, high cholesterol, diabetes, smoking, IHD

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25
Q

Difference between dementia with lewy bodies and parkinsons disease with dementia.

A

Dementia with lewy bodies = early cognitive symptoms, rapidly progressing dementia, fluctuation, hallucination,

Parkinsons disease with dementia = motor symptoms for more than a year, apathy, slowing of thought and executive functioning

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26
Q

Which feature is prominent early on in dementia with Lewy bodies?

A

Visual hallucinations

Fuctuations in cognition/performance, visual hallucinations, parkinsonism

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27
Q

Which brainstem area is degenerated in dementia with Lewy Bodies?

A

Substantia nigra - involved in dopamine production

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28
Q

Features of fronto-temporal dementia

A
  • Mainly early onset- 10% familial

- Mutation in tau protein

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29
Q

3 main syndromes of fronto-temporal dementia.

A
  1. Dementia of frontal type - presents with emotional/behavioural change rather than STM loss
  2. Progressive non-fluent aphasia - progressive difficulty with words
  3. Semantic dementia - loss of knowledge of meaning of words
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30
Q

Result of a lesion in the right internal capsule or motor cortex.

A

Contralateral upper motor neuron weakness

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31
Q

Result of a lesion in the right cranial nerve nuclei.

A

Ipsilateral lower motor neuron weakness

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32
Q

Motor result of a lesion on the right side of the spinal cord.

A

Ipsilateral upper motor neuron weakness

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33
Q

Lesion in the parietal cortex

A

Contralateral sensory deficit

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34
Q

Sensory result of a lesion on left side of spinal cord.

A

Contralateral spinothalamic loss - pain, temp

Ipsilateral dorsal column loss - fine touch, vibration, proprioception

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35
Q

Are motor structures represented medially or laterally in the nervous system.

A

Medially (sensory are lateral)

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36
Q

Lesion in substantia nigra

A

Parkinsonian features

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37
Q

Lesion in red nucleus

A

Cerebellar like features

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38
Q

Role of vestibulocerebellum (Flocculonodular lobe anatomically)

A

Balance, posture, eye movements

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39
Q

Role of spinocerebellum (vermis and paravermis anatomically)

A

Postural control

The spinocerebellum contains sensory maps as it receives data on the position of various body parts in space: in particular, the vermis receives fibres from the trunk and proximal portions of limbs.

While the intermediate parts of the hemispheres receive fibres from the distal portions of limbs.

The spinocerebellum is able to elaborate proprioceptive input in order to anticipate the future position of a body part during the course of a movement, in a “feed forward” manner.

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40
Q

Role of cerebrocerebellum (lateral parts of hemispheres).

A

Fine co-ordination with planning of limb movements about to occur

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41
Q

Features of cerebellar dysfunction.

A
V - vertigo
A - ataxia 
N - nystagmus 
I - intention tremor 
S - slurred, staccato + scanning speech 
H - hypotonia 
D - dysmetria, dysdiadokinesia 

IPSILATERAL LIMB SIGNS

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42
Q

Lateral rectus eye muscle supplied by what?

A

Abducens (CN6)

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43
Q

Superior oblique eye muscle supplied by what?

A

Trochlear (CN4)

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44
Q

Complete oculomotor nerve lesion.

A
  • Eye down and out
  • Pupil dilated
  • Partial ptosis from paresis of levator palpebrae superioris
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45
Q

Horners syndrome

A
  • Smaller pupil
  • Cluster headache
  • C8/T1 pathology
  • Ptosis
  • Anhydrosis
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46
Q

Upper motor neuron lesion signs

A

Muscle wasting +

Increased tone

Increased reflexes

Decreased power

Spastic posturing

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47
Q

Lower motor neuron lesion signs.

A

Muscle wasting ++

Fasiculations

Decreased tone

Decreased reflexes

Decreased power

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48
Q

Hyoglossal nerve palsy

A
  • Tongue deviates to side of weakness
  • Unilateral in LMNL
  • Contralateral in UMNL
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49
Q

UMNL flexors

A

Stronger than extensors - this is why in cerebral palsy hand is flexed in front

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50
Q

When are fasciculation’s present?

A

When there is a problem with the anterior horn cell LMN

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51
Q

Increased tone - spastic

Increased tone - rigid

A

Spastic: Initially stiff but it gets easier

Rigis: Constant stiffness - parkinsonian syndromes

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52
Q

Decorticate positioning.

A

CORTICAL LESION

  • Adduction stronger than abduction
  • Abnormal flexion
  • Foot plantar flexed
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53
Q

Decerebrate positioning

A
  • Arms extended
  • Damage to upper brainstem
  • Wrists pronated
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54
Q

Plantar response

A
  • Up going big toe = pathology (hence positive Babinski’s sign)
  • Positive test indicates UMNL or normal in new born
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55
Q

Supinator reflex

A

C5 C6

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56
Q

Biceps reflex

A

C5 C6

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57
Q

Triceps reflex

A

C6 C7

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58
Q

Ankle reflex

A

S1 S2

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59
Q

Knee reflex

A

L3 L4

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60
Q

Central cord lesion e.g. syringomyelia

A

Tube within spinal cord

Dissociative sensory loss - dorsal columns not affected

UMN signs below level if pressure on corticospinal tracts

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61
Q

Anterior spinal artery syndrome

A

Anterior 1/3rd of spinal cord supplied by anterior spinal cord

  • If anterior artery occluded, people end up with total paralysis below the level
  • Complete bilateral motor loss below the level
  • Preservation of sensation carried by dorsal columns
  • Bilateral loss of spinothalamic function below
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62
Q

Romberg’s test

A
  • Patient stands with feet together + ask them to close their eyes
  • If they wobble there is a problem with vestibular system
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63
Q

Virchow’s triad

Virchow’s triad or the triad of Virchow describes the three broad categories of factors that are thought to contribute to thrombosis.

A
  • Blood vessel wall
  • Blood flow
  • Blood constituents - too many red cells or too many platelets = clot, not enough clotting factors = bleed
  1. endothelial injury
  2. hypercoagulability
  3. stasis of blood flow
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64
Q

Sites of brain haemorrhage (Intracerebral)

A

Subarachnoid - arterial
Subdural - venous
Extradural - arterial

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65
Q

Intracerebral haemorrhage causes

A
  • Rupture of aneurysm
  • Arteriovenous malformation
  • Cavernoma
  • Bleed into infarct
  • Bleed into tumour
  • Trauma
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66
Q

Define sedation

A

Allows patient to tolerate unpleasant diagnostic or surgical procedures - verbal contact can be maintained

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67
Q

Define coma

A

State of extreme unresponsiveness where there is no voluntary movement or behaviour

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68
Q

Define anaesthesia

A

If GA then drug induced and predictably reversible coma

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69
Q

Classes of anaesthetic agents

A

GA

IV or inhaled Local - esters and amides

Neuromuscular blocking agents - depolarising/non-polarising

Analgesia - opioids

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70
Q

How do GA work?

A

Act on GABA, glutamate and other NMDA receptors

  • Volatile act on alpha and beta subunits or GABA.
  • Intravenous act on beta subunit of GABA.
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71
Q

Principal effects of anaesthesia

A

Unconsciousness - can still feel pain but can’t form memories

Loss of reflexes

Analgesia

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72
Q

Difference between onset of volatile and IV GA

A

Rapid onset for IV.

Slow onset for volatile.

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73
Q

Examples of volatile GA

A

NO, isoflurane, sevoflurane

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74
Q

Examples of intravenous GA

A

Propofol, ketamine, thiopentone

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75
Q

Side effects of GA?

A

Cardiac suppression and respiratory depression

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76
Q

MOA of local anaesthetic

A
  • Block voltage sensitive Na+ channels
  • Pain still sensed by nociceptors but transmission to brain and spinal cord is inhibited

Effect depends on:

  • Diffusion gradient
  • Fibre size
  • Myelination
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77
Q

A fibres

There are 4 subdivisions: alpha (ɑ), beta (β), gamma (ɣ), and delta (δ).

A

A-alpha:

  • Large diameter (13-20μm)
  • Myelinated
  • Proprioception
  • Include type Ia (muscle spinle) and Ib (golgi tendon) sensory fibres of the alternative classification system

A-beta:

  • Smaller diameter (6-12μm)
  • Myelinated
  • Touch

A-gamma:

  • Smaller diameter (5μm)
  • Type of LMN invoved in muscle contraction
  • Role = keeping muscle spindles taut, thereby allowing the continued firing of alpha neurons, leading to muscle contraction

A-delta:

  • Smaller diameter diameter (1-5μm)
  • Myelinated
  • Pain and temperature
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78
Q

B fibres

A

Group B nerve fibers are axons, which are moderately myelinated, which means less myelinated than group A nerve fibers, and more myelinated than group C nerve fibers.

Their conduction velocity is 3 to 14 m/s.

They are usually general visceral afferent fibers and preganglionic nerve fibers of the ANS

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79
Q

C fibres

A
  • Small diameter (0.2-1.5μm)
  • Unmyelinated,
  • Low conduction velocity
  • Pain, temperature, itch

They include postganglionic fibers in the ANS for vasodilation, and nerve fibers at the dorsal roots (IV fiber). These fibers carry sensory information.

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80
Q

Neuromuscular blocking drugs - antagonists

A
  • Non-depolarising
  • Competitive
  • E.g. tubocurarine + atracurium

Muscle relaxation in surgery

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81
Q

Neuromuscular blocking drugs - agonists

A
  • Depolarising
  • Non-competitive
  • Acts on nicotinic receptors
  • E.g. suxamethonium

Muscle paralysis

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82
Q

Are nicotinic receptors mostly post-synaptic or pre-synaptic?

A

Pre-synaptic

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83
Q

MOA of suxamethonium (aka succinylcholine)

A

Binds to ACh receptors which causes depolarisation of muscles

MoA: “persistent” depolarization of the neuromuscular junction. This depolarization is caused by Succinylcholine mimicking the effect of acetylcholine but without being rapidly hydrolysed by acetylcholinesterase. This depolarization leads to desensitization.

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84
Q

4 stages of anaesthesia

A
  1. Induction - initial administration to loss of consciousness
  2. Excitement - excited and delirious activity - RR + HR may become irregular
  3. Surgical anaesthesia - skeletal muscles relax
  4. Overdose - too much medication relative to amount of surgery resulting in severe brainstem or medullary depression
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85
Q

Reliable clinical signs of anaesthesia.

A

Muscle tone - jaw

Light reflex

Eyelid reflex

Lacrimation

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86
Q

Balance

A

Term used to describe the dynamics of body posture to prevent falling

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87
Q

Centre of Mass

A

Weighted average of CoM of each body segment in 3D space

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88
Q

Centre of Gravity

A

Vertical projection of COM onto ground

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89
Q

Postural control

A

Keeping body’s CoG over during quiet stance and within Base of Support (BoS) during active movements

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90
Q

Stretch (myotatic) reflex

A
  1. Muscle spindles lengthen in response to postural control
  2. Signalled by afferent nerve fibres
  3. Connect directly to motor neurons
  4. Activates that same muscle
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91
Q

Monosynaptic reflex

A

Afferents connect directly to efferents without interneurons

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92
Q

Ankle strategy

A
  • In response to small, slower disturbances
  • Shifts CoG about ankle joint
  • Used on surfaces with low resistance to shear forces
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93
Q

Hip strategy

A
  • In response to larger, faster disturbances

- Shifts CoG about hip joint by flexion/extension

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94
Q

Stepping strategy

A
  • In response to largest, fastest disturbances
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95
Q

Sensory components of balance

A

Somatosensory - skin receptors

Proprioceptive - muscle spindles + golgi tendon organs

Visual - eyes

Vestibular - inner ear

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96
Q

Lesion at optic chiasm

A

Lose lateral part of left and right eye (hemianopia)

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97
Q

Where does light enter the eye?

A

Cornea

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98
Q

Glaucoma

A

Damage to the optic nerve due to an overproduction of aqueous humour, in which the trabecular meshwork cannot keep up with drainage of.

Causes an increase in pressure which pushes the optic nerve into the cavity in the back of the eye, causing damage to the axons

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99
Q

Fovea

A

Region of highest resolution vision

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100
Q

Structure of retina

A

3 basic layers:

  • Outer ganglion layer
  • Middle layer of amacrine and bipolar cells
  • Bottom layer of photoreceptors (rods + cones)
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101
Q

Rods

A

Black and white.

Night conditions

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102
Q

Cones

A

Colour Daytime vision

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103
Q

Role of horizontal and amacrine cells

A

Integrate information laterally - allow communication horizontally between cells

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104
Q

3 different cone types

A

Long wavelength (L) cones - red, orange, yellow

Middle wavelength (M) cones - green

Short wavelength (S) cones - blue - not X linked recessive like the 2 above but instead is on chromosome 7

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105
Q

Choroid

A

Dense network of vasculature

o Connective tissue + dense vascular network that provides nutrients to outer surface retina
o Choroid receives its blood supply from central retinal artery (that emerges from back of eye)
o Retinal arteries + veins supply the inner surface of retina is (come in through optic nerve fasciculus)
o Choroid provides all eye layers w/ 90% of their blood supply

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106
Q

Dichromat

A

Only have 2 different cone types

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107
Q

Protanopia

A

Lack L cones - red

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108
Q

Deuteranopia

A

Lack M cones - green

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109
Q

Tritanopia

A

Lack S cones - blue

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110
Q

Protanomalous trichomat

A

Weak L cone

o Weak red cones, they shift their sensitivity to higher wavelength (more sensitive to green) making it difficult to distinguish between red + green

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111
Q

Deuteranomalous trichomat

A

Weak M cone

o Weak green cones, they shift their sensitivity to lower wavelength (more sensitive to red) making it difficult to distinguish between red + green

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112
Q

Tritanomalous trichomat

A

Weak S cone

o Weak blue cones

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113
Q

Test for colour blinded

A

Ishihara plate

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114
Q

Visual receptive field

A

All of the photoreceptors that feed in information to that bipolar cell

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115
Q

How many layers of Lateral geniculate nucleus?

The lateral geniculate nucleus is a sensory relay nucleus in the thalamus of the brain

A

SIx.

It has multiple layers:
 4 sets of ‘parvocellular layers’ – Small cells
 2 sets of ‘magnocellular layers’ – Large cells
o Each layer receives input from a different eye (contralateral or ipsilateral), information from each eye is kept separate

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116
Q

How many parvocellular layers and which ones are they?

A

Four.

3, 4, 5, 6

 Small cells, top 4 layers
 Receive input from B (midget) ganglion cells – smaller
 Separate information from the 3 cone types
 Most of these cells (90%) have colour-opponent receptive fields (sensitive to different colour lights)
• Can use these layers to discriminate different colours
 Lesion – impairs colour vision, visual acuity, fine stereopsis, texture discrimination, doesn’t affect speed/motion discrimination

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117
Q

How many magnocellular layers and which ones are they?

A

Two.

1, 2

 Large cells, bottom 2 layer
 Receive input from A (parasol) ganglion cells – larger
 Combine info from all 3 cone types so sensitive to black and white vision (changes in brightness)
 Lesion – impairs ability to discriminate movement, doesn’t affect colour vision or visual acuity

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118
Q

Magnocellular

A

Receives information from A (parasol) ganglion cells which combine information from all 3 cones.

Sensitive to black and white and changes in brightness.

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119
Q

Parvocellular

A

Receives information from B (midget) ganglion cells - separates the 3 cone types

Able to differentiate colour

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120
Q

Magnocellular lesion

A
  • Impaired ability to discriminate movement
  • Impairs low spatial frequency (coarse, blurry patterns)
  • Doesn’t affect colour vision
  • Doesn’t affect visual acuity
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121
Q

Parvocellular lesion

A
  • Impaired colour vision
  • Impaired visual acuity
  • Impaired fine stereopsis (depth, 3D vision)
  • Impaired texture discrimination
  • Doesn’t affect speed discrimination
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122
Q

P (parvo) stream

A
  • Prefers high spatial frequencies
  • Prefers slow movement
  • Is colour selective
  • Essential for texture discrimination
  • Essential for fine stereopsis
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123
Q

M (magno) stream

A
  • Prefers low spatial frequencies
  • Essential for fast flicker and motion detection
  • No colour selectivity
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124
Q

How many layers does the striate (primary visual cortex) have?

A

6

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125
Q

Where do the magno and parvocellular streams project into?

A

Different areas of layer 4 of the striate cortex

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126
Q

What do the koniocellular cells carry?

A

Information from S cells

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127
Q

Where do the koniocellular cells project to?

A

Layers 2 and 3

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128
Q

Ocular dominance

A

Vertical stretch of striate cortex that responds primarily to information from 1 eye

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129
Q

Where is centre of visual field processed?

A

Very back of brain

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130
Q

Where is peripheral vision processed?

A

Anterior of occipital lobe

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131
Q

Specialisation of extrastriate areas

A

V2 - unknown

V3 - depth perception and visual acuity

V4 - colour

V5 - motion

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132
Q

Which higher level visual area recognises faces?

A

Fusiform face area

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133
Q

Which higher level visual area recognises scenes?

A

Parahippocampal place area

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134
Q

Which higher level visual area recognises objects?

A

Lateral occipital cortex

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135
Q

Where pathway

A

Parvocellular route to V1 –> dorsal route to V5 –> posterior parietal cortex

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136
Q

What pathway

A

Magnocellular route to V1 –> ventral route to V4 –> infers-temporal cortex

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137
Q

Striate cortex lesion

A

At least partially blind but still able to navigate

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138
Q

Blindsight pathway

A

Retina –> superior colliculus –> pulvinar –> posterior parietal cortex

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139
Q

Balint-Holmes syndrome

A

Impairment in using visual information to guide motor movements

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140
Q

What is the ‘what pathway’ also known as?

A

The ventral stream

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141
Q

What is the ‘where pathway’ also known as?

A

The dorsal stream

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142
Q

What is the dorsal stream involved in?

A

Processing the object’s spatial location relative to the viewer and with speech repetition

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143
Q

What is the what pathway involved with?

A

Object and visual identification and recognition

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144
Q

Describe visual form agnosia

A

Unable to recognise objects

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145
Q

How many cranial nerves?

A

24 (12 pairs)

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146
Q

Cerebral nuclei-cranial openings

A

I, II

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147
Q

Midbrain nuclei-cranial openings

A

III, IV

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148
Q

Pontine nuclei-cranial openings

A

V, VI, VII, VIII

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149
Q

Medullary nuclei-cranial openings

A

IX, X, XI, XII

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150
Q

Eye movement CNs

A

III, IV, VI

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151
Q

Special sensory CNs

A

I, II, VIII

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152
Q

Parasympathetic CNs

A

II, VII, IX, X

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153
Q

Olfactory nerve - CN I

A

Pathway: Olfactory epithelium in superior nasal mucosa –> perforations in cribriform plate –> mitral cells of olfactory bulb –> olfactory tract - secondary neurons –> primary olfactory cortex + amygdala

No thalamic precortical relay - doesn’t run through thalamus

Test - can you smell? Unilateral ansomia - fracture/meningioma Bilateral anosmia - cold/viral infection

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154
Q

Optic nerve - CN II

A

Enters skull through optic canal with ophthalmic artery and projects to LGN. From LGN you get optic radiations to the primary visual cortex in occipital lobe

Test - confrontational visual field, pupillary response + visual acuity (snellen)

Light goes in through optic nerve and then pupil constriction caused by oculomotor nerve

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155
Q

Oculomotor nerve - CN III

A

2 nuclei in midbrain 1. Oculomotor nuclei - motor 2. Edinger-Westphal - PS

Runs through cavernous sinus and exits through superior orbital fissure PS nerve fibres on outside of nerve

Space occupying lesion = dilated pupil - you would get this before muscle paralysis

PS constricts pupil - runs to sphincter papillae and ciliary muscle

Test with trochlea and abducens

SUPPLIES MEDIAL RECTUS = ADDUCTS

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156
Q

Trochlear - CN IV

A

Comes out of back of midbrain inferior to inferior colliculus before running around the side of the midbrain and exiting via the cavernous sinus + superior orbital fissure and runs to superior oblique muscle.

Turns eye down + out

Only CN to exit brainstem on dorsal surface

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157
Q

Abducens - CN VI

A

Exits brainstem at pontine medullary junction. Runs through cavernous sinus and exits via the superior orbital fissure.

Supplies lateral rectus.

Black tract = main central connection of oculomotor, trochlea and abducens

SUPPLIES LATERAL RECTUS = ABDUCTS

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158
Q

List the eye movements each eye muscle is responsible for.

A

Superior oblique - depresses, abducts and medial rotation

Inferior oblique - elevate, abduct and lateral rotation

Superior rectus - elevate, adduct and medial rotation

Inferior rectus - depresses, adducts and lateral rotation

Medial rectus - adduction

Lateral rectus - abduction

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159
Q

Which extraocular muslce is innervated by the trochlear nerve?

A

Superior oblique muscle

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160
Q

Mnemonic for simplified actions of the eye muscles:

A
  1. Obliques Abduct whereas Rectii Adduct (except LR)
  2. Superiors Intort whereas Inferior Extort
  3. Rectii act according to their names whereas Obliques act opposite to their names
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161
Q

Which extraocular muscles are innervated by the oculomotor nerve (CNIII)?

A
  • Superior rectus
  • Inferior rectus
  • Medial rectus
  • Inferior oblique

Levator palpebrae superioris

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162
Q

What is the function of the levator palpebrae superioris muscle?

A

Elevates + Retracts upper eyelid

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163
Q

Which extraocular muscles does the abducens nerve innervate?

A
  • Lateral rectus

- Retractor bulbi

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164
Q

Pupillary light reflex

A
  • Light comes in via optic chiasm
  • Runs to LGN but bypasses it and synapses at pre-tectal nucleus
  • After pre-tectal nucleus, transmits bilaterally to oculomotor nucleus
  • From oculomotor nucleus runs to ciliary ganglion and constrictor pupillae
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165
Q

Trigeminal nerve - V

A
  1. Ophthalmic - runs in cavernous sinus and exits through superior orbital fissure. Sensory.
  2. Maxillary - exits skull through foramen rotandum. Sensory.
  3. Mandibular - exits skull through foramen oval.

Mixed nerve.

Exits via side of pons and forms ganglion which sits in middle cranial fossa

Test - corneal reflex, sensation of face, palpate masster and temporalis, jaw jerk

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166
Q

Facial - VII

A

Mixed nerve - exits at pontine medullary junction

Runs into internal auditory meatus with vestibulocochlear + intermediate nerve with special sensory fibres.

Some PS fibres from superior salivatory nucleus which are distributed to:
Nasal glands

Palatine and lacrimal glands

Submandibular and sublingual glands

Special sensory from anterior 2/3rds of tongue run up chorda tympani over handle of malleus and synapses and geniculate ganglion.

Testing - facial expression

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167
Q

Ramsey-Hunt syndrome

A

Varicella zoster of facial nerve

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168
Q

Vestibulocochlear - VIII

A

Cochlear and vestibular nerve which run together

Exits at pontine-medullary junction

Enters skull through internal auditory meatus and is distributed to structures within the ear

Test - Rinne and Weber

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169
Q

Glossopharyngeal - IX

A

Medullary - PS + motor

Exits skull at jugular foramen with vagus and spinal accessory nerve + runs to parotid, carotid body and pharynx

Test - gag reflex

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170
Q

Vagus - X

A

Medulla

Comes out of brainstem inferior to rootlet of glossopharyngeal.

Exits skull through jugular foramen.

Branch to muscles of larynx, pharynx, thorax and abdomen.

Test - say ahhh (this is with cranial accessory nerve) - uvula points to normal side

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171
Q

Accessory - XI

A

Cranial and spinal segments

Spinal from upper 3 cervical segments and runs through foramen magnum into cranium.

Exits through jugular foramen.

Supplies sternocleidomastoid and trapezius

Test - turn head against resistance and shrug shoulders

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172
Q

Hypoglossal - XII

A

Medulla

Exits brainstem between pyramid and olive of medulla.

Runs through hypoglossal canal into the area just inferior to the angle of the mandible.

Supplies intrinsic muscles of the tongue

Test - stick tongue out (tongue points to side of lesion)

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173
Q

Define seizure

A

An abnormal paroxysmal discharge of neurons sufficient enough to cause clinically detectable intermittent disturbance of consciousness, behaviour, motor and sensory function

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174
Q

Define status epilepticus

A

Status epilepticus is a single epileptic seizure lasting more than five minutes or two or more seizures within a five-minute period without the person returning to normal between them.

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175
Q

Partial complex seizures

A

Loss of consciousness.
No loss of postural control.

 Affects only a single brain lobe
 But individual loses awareness (becomes dazed)
 Individual gets an aura (odd taste/smell) before becoming dazed (doesn’t lose consciousness)

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176
Q

Simple complex seizures

A

No loss of consciousness.

Seizure in frontal lobe:
• May affect motor cortex
• Symptoms may just be contralateral muscles twitching w/ full consciousness + awareness

Seizure in temporal lobe:
• May just cause off taste in mouth for few seconds

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177
Q

3 types of seizures?

A

1) Generalised - tonic/clonic, absence, myoclonic, atonic. Note causes complete LoC.
2) Focal/partial - simple partial (no loss of consciousness), complex partial (loss of con)
3) Focal with secondary generalisation - seizure starts in 1 lobe but then spreads to all brain

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178
Q

Tonic-clonic seizure

A

GRAND MAL

 Type of generalised seizure that affects the entire brain
 Causes convulsions (alternate contractions/extension of muscles)
 Loss of consciousness + there is a postictal phase

  • Electrical discharge starts at centre then spreads to cerebral cortex
  • Sudden loss of consciousness follow by tonic phase
  • body is stiff, breathing stops (may be cyanotic)
  • Clonic phase: rhythmical shaking, may bite tongue, eyes roll back, loss of bowel or bladder control
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179
Q

Absence seizure

A

Patient suddenly stares vacantly
May be myoclonic jerks

 Individual appears ‘absent’ for a while + may or may not have postictal disorientation
 Brief loss + return of consciousness, generally not followed by a period of lethargy

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180
Q

Define epilepsy

A

A condition where seizures recur, usually spontaneously

Seizures only happen in cerebral cortex (doesn’t happen in. cerebellum, brainstem)

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181
Q

Atonic seizure

A

Sudden loss of tone of postural muscles causes patient to fall

 Involves loss of muscle tone for >1 second, individual may collapse
 Also called drop seizures, akinetic seizures or drop attacks
 Brief lapse in muscle tone that are caused by temporary alterations in brain function
 The seizures are brief – usually less than 15 seconds

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182
Q

Frontal lobe - normal role

A

o Intellectual function
o Inhibition
o Bladder continence
o Saccadic eye movement – in seizures, eyes move opposed the side of lesion
o Motor function
o Expression of language – seizure may cause inability to speak

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183
Q

Frontal lobe seizures

A
o	Jacksonian seizures – one sided 
o	Adversive seizures
o	Todd’s paresis – paralysis of one side
o	Very brief + often nocturnal
o	Hyperkinetic behaviour, vocalisation
o	Retained consciousness
o	ASNFLE – genetic
o	EEG can be normal because the frontal lobe is so large
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184
Q

Parietal lobe - normal role

A

o Sensory integration

o Receptive language function

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185
Q

Parietal lobe seizures

A

o Positive sensory disturbance (paraesthesia)
o Motor activity in affected body parts follows in 50% of cases
o D/D TIA, migraine

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186
Q

Temporal lobe - normal role

A
  • Memory - Smell - Hearing - Emotion - Vestibular

o Memory – seizures may cause memory hallucinations (déjà vu)
o Smell – seizures may cause olfactory hallucinations (weird smell that doesn’t exist)
o Hearing – seizure may cause auditory hallucination (hearing sound that doesn’t exist)
o Vestibular – seizure may cause vestibular hallucinations (feeling of falling/moving/vertigo)
o Emotion – seizure may cause emotional disturbance

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187
Q

Temporal lobe seizures

A

o Gradual evolution over 2-3 minutes, lasts 2-5 minutes
o Aura – epigastric, smell, taste, déjà vu, fear
o Auditory/visual hallucinations
o Pallor, flushing, changes in heart rate
o Speech arrest or repetitive vocalisation
o Motionless stares
o Automatism – lip smacking, fidgeting, fumbling (odd behaviours)
o Postictal confusion, headache, dysphasia, nose rubbing
o Second generation seizure less common

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188
Q

Occipital lobe - normal role

A

Vision

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189
Q

Occipital lobe seizures

A

Visual hallucinations

Visual disturbances – unformed, circular, multi-coloured, confined to hemifield

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190
Q

What is the most common type of seizure?

A

Focal that originates in temporal lobe and then spread to generalised

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191
Q

Tonic seizure

A

Increased tone of postural muscles

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192
Q

Function of pinna (auricle)

A

To funnel sound into ear canal and can pick up human speech over background noise

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193
Q

Myoclonic seizure

A

Involuntary movements that can involve the whole body or just parts of it

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194
Q

Secondary generalised seizures

A
  • Temporal only
  • Partial seizure where the epileptic discharge spreads to both cerebral hemispheres
  • Once the discharge reaches the RAS, consciousness is lost - Results in generalised seizure
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195
Q

Anatomy of external auditory meatus

A
  • Sigmoid canal
  • 7mm diameter
  • 25mm long
  • 1st 1/3rd surrounded by cartilage
  • 2/3rd surrounded by bone
  • Cells in cartilaginous zone include: hair, sebaceous, ceruminous glands
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196
Q

Function of external auditory meatus

A

Amplifies sound

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197
Q

Syncope

A
  • Sudden loss of consciousness with loss of postural muscle tone
  • Due to reduced cerebral perfusion
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198
Q

Orthostatic hypotension

A

Syncope when standing up

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199
Q

Anatomy of tympanum

A

Collagenous membrane

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200
Q

Overall function of outer ear

A

Convert acoustic energy to kinetic energy

201
Q

3 ossicles (external to internal aka lateral to medial)

A

Malleus
Incus
Stapes

202
Q

Sound waves travelling from external ear

A

Sound waves travel from external ear to stapes.

Stapes vibrates oval window.

Vibration then flows in perilymph from scala vestibuli and then to scala tympani.

Causes displacement of basilar membrane and organ of corti.

Point at which wave passes basilar membrane depends on the sound.

  • High frequency at base
  • Low frequency further along cochlea
203
Q

Role of organ of corti

A

Transducer pressure waves in action potentials

204
Q

What happens to hair cells when the basilar membrane is displaced?

A
  • Hair cells are sheared
  • Opens non-selective transduction ion channels
  • Leads to depolarisation
205
Q

What happens if hair cells are displaced towards the kinocilium?

A

Stimulates vestibulocochlear nerve.

Inhibits if against

206
Q

Auditory pathway

A

SLIM mnemonic

Superior olivary nucleus –> lateral lemniscus –> inferior colliculi –> medial geniculate nucleus

207
Q

Where does the auditory pathway decussate?

A

Decussation occurs between the cochlear nuclei and superior olivary complex, and at inferior colliculi

Decussation enables inputs from left + right ears to be compared in superior olivary nuclei (SON) + localise sound

208
Q

Where is difference in sound intensity located?

A

Lateral superior olivary nucleus

Detects differences in sound intensity reaching each ear
• Localisation of high-frequency sound (>1600Hz) occurs by detection of differences in sound intensity at each ear

209
Q

Where is the difference in time of sound located?

A

Medial superior olivary nucleus

Detects differences in the time that sounds reach each ear
• Localisation of low-frequency sound (<800Hz) occurs by detection of time differences in sound reaching each ear

210
Q

How does localisation of low frequency sounds occur?

A

Detection of time difference.

Medial SON

211
Q

How does localisation of high frequency sounds occur?

A

Difference in sound intensity

Lateral SON

212
Q

Causes of sensorineural hearing loss

A

 Presbycusis – naturally occurs damage to cochlea when ageing

 Noise-induced – regular + prolonged exposure to loud sounds

 Ototoxic drugs - gentamycin, loop diuretics, cisplatin

 Inflammatory disease e.g. measles, mumps, meningitis, syphilis

 Complications at birth

 Congenital

 Physical trauma

 Benign tumours on the auditory nerve

 Meniere’s disease

213
Q

Causes of conductive hearing loss

A

 Infection – otitis externa + otitis media

 Build-up of earwax

 Perforated eardrum

 Fluid in the middle ear

 Membrane tension

 Damage to the small bones within the middle ear

214
Q

Rinne test findings

A

Air > bone - normal or sensorineural loss

Bone > air - conductive loss

215
Q

Weber test findings

A
  • Normal - hear both the same in both ears
  • Conductive - louder in defective ear
  • Sensorineural - louder in normal ear
216
Q

Vestibulospinal tract

A
  • Keep head balanced on shoulders
  • Sensory input from vestibular labyrinth
  • Vestibular nuclei to spinal cord
217
Q

Tectospinal tract

A
  • Information from visual system

- Retina to superior colliculus

218
Q

Pontine reticulospinal tract

A
  • Information from pons

- Lower limb extensors

219
Q

Medullary reticulospinal tract

A
  • Information from medulla

- Relaxes extensor tone

220
Q

What do ventromedial pathways control?

A
  • Posture
  • by affecting axial or proximal musculature
  • Topographic
  • Medial proximal and lateral distal
221
Q

Muscles of middle ear

A

Tegmen tympani - supplies malleus

Stapedius - supplies stapes

222
Q

Overall role of inner ear

A

Converts kinetic energy of ossicles into hydraulic energy of fluid and then into electrochemical energy via vestibulocochlear nerve

223
Q

Eustachian tube

A
  • Links middle ear to nasopharynx

- Allows pressure equalisation

224
Q

Nerve which supplies the stapes

A

Stapedial nerve

225
Q

Nerve which supplies anterior 2/3rds of tongue

A

Chorda tympani + lingual nerve (sensory)

Hypoglossal CN XII (motor)

226
Q

Acoustic reflex

A

Where the tegmen tympani and the stapedius contract in response to high intensity sound

227
Q

3 parts of cochlea

A
  • Scala vestibuli
  • Scala media
  • Scala tympani
228
Q

Which part of cochlea contains perilymph?

A

Scala vestibuli + scala tympani (K+ containing)

229
Q

Basilar membrane

A

Separates scala tympani and scala media

230
Q

Which part of cochlea contains endolymph?

A

Scala media (Na+ containing)

231
Q

Reissner’s membrane

A

Separates scala vestibuli and scala media

232
Q

What is decerebrate rigidity?

A

Increased extensor tone

233
Q

Utricle

A
  • Horizontal
  • Macula - sensory epithelium
  • Matrix of supporting cells and hair cells
  • Hair cells contain cilia which can penetrate gelatinous cap
  • Otoliths encrust the surface of this cap
  • Kinocilia towards stroll
234
Q

Saccule

A
  • Vertical
  • Macula - sensory epithelium
  • Matrix of supporting cells and hair cells
  • Hair cells contain cilia which penetrate gelatinous cap
  • Otoliths encrust the surface of this cap
  • Kinocilia away from striola
235
Q

Directional hair cells

A
  • Have baseline firing of action potentials
  • Kinocilia longer than stereocilia
  • Stereocilia towards kinocilia = depolarisation
  • Stereocilia away from kinocilia = hyper polarisation
  • Utricle kinocilia towards striola = depolarisation
  • Saccule kinocilia away from striola = hyper polarisation
236
Q

Semicircular canals

A
  • Filled with endolymph
  • Main sensory structure of each canal in the ampulla
  • Information about rotational movements
237
Q

What is the cupula?

A

The ampullary cupula, or cupula, is a structure in the vestibular system, providing the sense of spatial orientation.

The cupula is located within the ampullae of each of the 3 semicircular canals.

The cupula itself is the gelatinous component of the crista ampullaris that extends from the crista to the roof of the ampullae.

When the head rotates, the endolymph filling the semicircular ducts initially lags behind due to inertia. As a result, the cupula is deflected opposite the direction of head movement. As the endolymph pushes the cupula, the stereocilia is bent as well, stimulating the hair cells within the crista ampullaris.

238
Q

What happens to cupula when head is turned to the left?

A
  • Head turns to left
  • Endolymph moves to right
  • Cupula displaced to right
  • Hair cells then depolarise
239
Q

Where does the vestibular nuclei send projections to?

A
  • Extraocular muscles
  • Cerebellum
  • Neck/limb motor neurons
240
Q

Vestibular-ocular reflex

A
  • Important in posture
  • Damage may mean everything is blurry

A rotation of the head is detected, which triggers an inhibitory signal to the extraocular muscles on one side and an excitatory signal to the muscles on the other side. The result is a compensatory movement of the eyes.

For example, when the head moves to the right, the eyes move to the left, and vice versa.

241
Q

Vestibular-ocular reflex in unconscious patient

A
  • Irrigate ear with warm or cold water
  • Convection currents in endolymph
  • Disturbs cupula to increase rate of firing of the afferent
  • Induces vestibular-ocular reflex
242
Q

Limb placing postural reflex

A

Spinal reflexes

- Ia muscle afferents increase firing of alpha neurons to increase muscle tone of extensors

243
Q

Protective postural reflex

A
  • Axons from medial vestibular nucleus to C spine

- Regain CoM over base of support

244
Q

Feedforward postural reflex

A
  • Make adjustments before voluntary movements

- Reticular formation important here

245
Q

Feedback postural reflex

A
  • Responses to stimuli following postural disturbance

- Vestibular nuclei important

246
Q

Meniere’s disease - umbrella term for conditions such as tinnitus, hearing loss, aural fullness, and recurrent, spontaneous episodes of vertigo.

A

Symptoms:

  • Dizziness
  • Tinnitus
  • Deafness
  • Increase in volume of endolymph
  • Ruptures membrane of labyrinth
  • Damage to inner ear

o Endolymphatic hydrops

o Idiopathic increase in volume of endolymph distrust function of membranous labyrinth of inner ear

o Symptoms: attacks of vertigo, deafness, tinnitus (because endolymph also in cochlea)

o Treatment: no cure, but can treat vertigo, nausea + vomiting with: prochlorperazine + antihistamines

247
Q

Benign paroxysmal vertigo syndromes

A

Symptoms:

  • Dizziness when turning head certain way
  • Disrupts flow of endolymph in semicirclar canals
  • Calcium carbonate crystals dislodged from otolith organs
248
Q

An example of a fibrous joint

A

Cranial suture

249
Q

Difference between a 1st degree and 2nd degree cartilaginous joint

A

1st degree - 1 type of cartilage between bones - epiphyseal

2nd degree - 2 types of cartilage between bones - pubic symphysis

250
Q

What are stability factors of bones?

A

Muscles + tendons

Ligaments

Bony congruence

251
Q

Hiltons law

A

If a muscle crosses a joint and therefore moves the joint, the nerve that supplies the muscle supplies the joint and the skin above

252
Q

Sternoclavicular joint

A
  • Atypical synovial joint - surfaces covered by fibrocartilage rather than hyaline cartilage
  • Articular disc separates joint into 2 cavities
  • Capsule reinforced by anterior and posterior STERNOCLAVICULAR ligaments and COSTOCLAVICULAR ligaments
  • Joint supplied by medial supraclavicular nerve (C3-C4)
253
Q

Acromioclavicular joint

A
  • Atypical synovial joint
  • Capsule
  • Support from coracoclavicular ligament (trapezoid and conoid ligaments)
  • Lateral supraclavicular nerve
254
Q

What is the glenoid labrum?

A

Fibrocartilage rim which attaches to margins of glenoid cavity, serves to deepen glenoid fossa.

255
Q

Name the 2 most important bursae in the shoulder?

A

Subacromial - overlies tendon of supraspinatous (below acromion).

Subscapular - separates tendon of subscapularis from subscapular fossa.

256
Q

What are the roots of the musculocutaneous nerve?

A

C5, C6, C7

257
Q

What are the roots of the axillary nerve?

A

C5, C6

258
Q

What are the roots of the radial nerve?

A

C5, C6, C7, C8, T1

259
Q

What are the roots of the median nerve?

A

C5, C6, C7, C8, T1

260
Q

What are the roots of the ulnar nerve?

A

C8, T1

261
Q

Where is the axillary nerve in relation to the axillary artery?

A

Posterior to axillary artery

262
Q

What does the axillary nerve supply?

A

Deltoid and Teres minor

263
Q

What does the musculocutaneous nerve supply?

A

Coracobrachialis, biceps brachii and brachialis

264
Q

What does the radial nerve supply?

A

Triceps brachii, anconeus, brachioradialis* (flexor), supinator and posterior compartment extrinsic hand muscles

265
Q

What does the ulnar nerve supply?

A

Forearm - flexor carpi ulnaris + flexor digitorum profundus (medial half)

Hand - deep branch of ulnar nerve:

  • At its origin it innervates the hypothenar muscles.
  • As it crosses the deep part of the hand, it innervates all the interosseous muscles and the third and fourth lumbricals.
  • It ends by innervating the adductor pollicis and the medial (deep) head of the flexor pollicis brevis.
266
Q

Glenohumeral joint

A
  • Synovial ball and socket
  • Joint capsule which is lax inferiorly
  • Rotator cuff tendons support
  • Lateral pectoral nerve, suprascapular + axillary nerve
267
Q

Epidemiology of RA

A
  • 1% of population- More women than men
268
Q

What is the result of a lower brachial plexus injury?

A

Klumpke’s palsy

  • Flopy hand
  • Flexed wrist
  • Fingers extended
  • Horner’s syndrome may occur from T1 involvement

C8 + T1 affected

269
Q

What is the result of an upper brachial plexus injury?

A

Erb’s palsy

C5+ C6 affected

270
Q

What happens if you injure your ulnar nerve?

A

Ulnar claw - Little and ring finger flexed

271
Q

What happens if you injure your median nerve?

A
  • Hand of Benediction
  • Parasthesia palmar aspect lateral 3.5 fingers
  • Forearm stuck in supination
  • Can abduct or oppose thumbs
  • Thenar wasting
272
Q

What happens if you injure your radial nerve?

A
  • Wrist drop
  • Loss of sensation over dorsal web between thumb and index fingers
  • Weakness of extensors
273
Q

What does the median nerve supply?

A

Forearm - most of anterior compartment

274
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of RA?

A
  • Slow onset
  • Joint swelling (particularly fingers, toes and wrists)
  • Early morning stiffness greater than 30 minutes
  • Dramatic NSAID response
  • CHRONIC, SYMMETRICAL, INFLAMMATORY, DEFORMING, POLYARTHRITIS
275
Q

What is the primary site of inflammation in RA?

A

Synovium

276
Q

Role of cytokines in RA

A
  • Trigger event (e.g. smoking, virus, genetics) triggers T cells
  • T cells then cause: increase in fibroblasts, macrophages + B cells
  • Macrophages + fibroblasts produce cytokines which can lead to cell activation, enzyme formation + inflammation = JOINT DESTRUCTION
  • B cells produce antibodies which are involved in pathogenesis - RF
277
Q

Epidemiology of OA

A
  • Most common joint disorder
  • 10-20% of population
  • Most common cause of joint replacement therapy
278
Q

Risk factors for OA

A
  • Age
  • Female
  • Menopause
  • Oestrogen deficiency
  • Low bone mineral density
  • Family history
  • Obesity
279
Q

Features of OA

A
  • EMS less than 30 mins

- Better with rest, symptoms with activity

280
Q

Causes of pain in OA

A
  • Prostaglandins
  • Venous congestion
  • Muscle spasm
  • Cytokines
281
Q

Management of OA

A
  • Patient education

- Physio

282
Q

Epidemiology of gout

A
  • More common in men than women

- 1-2% of adults in industrialised countries

283
Q

Co-morbidities of gout

A

Renal impairment and CHD

284
Q

Podagra

A

Gout affecting the metatarsal joint of the big toe.

Discomfort and swelling after an attack can lasts for days-weeks

285
Q

Modifiable risk factors for gout

A
  • High purine diet
  • Alcohol
  • Obesity
  • Hyperuricaemia
  • Diuretics
286
Q

Uric acid formation

A

Adenosine –> inosine –> hypoxanthine –> urate.

Xanthine oxidase catalysises hypoxanthine to urate

287
Q

MOA of allopurinol

A

Blocks xanthine oxidase

288
Q

Key actions of TNF-alpha

A
  • T lymphocytes and macrophages = increased adhesion molecules + increased pro-inflammatory cytokines (IL-1, IL-6, IL-8)
  • Endothelium = increased vascular endothelium growth factors (VEGF) which increases angiogenesis
  • Hepatocytes = increased acute phase response + increased CRP
  • Epidermis = keratinocyte proliferation - skin plaques
  • Synoviocytes = increase metalloproteinase synthesis - articular cartilage degradation
289
Q

Presentation of gout

A

Rapid development of severe hot, red, swollen and very painful joint that has come on over the past few hours / day.

Pain often wakes people up from sleep. This is a gout attack

  • Podagra initially (big toe affected)
  • Then to mid foot, ankle, wrist, fingers + olecranon bursae
290
Q

Diagnosis of gout

A

Aspirate synovial fluid

Presence of monosodium urate crystals

291
Q

Septic arthritis

A

Single joint

IV drug users

Present with sepsis

Staphylococcus infection

292
Q

Soft tissue injury definition

A

An acute connective tissue injury that may involve skin, subcutaneous tissues, muscle, ligament, tendon, nerve or blood vessel.

293
Q

Character of soft tissue injury in child abuse

A
  • Bruising
  • Burns
  • Older children more likely to have multiple injury sites
  • Fractures more common in children under 1
  • Atypical fracture patterns
294
Q

Causes of soft tissue injuries in older people

A
  • Falls
  • Living in long term care
  • Thinning of skin, loss of skin elasticity + loss of strength
295
Q

1st degree soft tissue injury

A

Pathology: minor contusion with bleeding

Pain/bruising: minimal

Functional impairment: minimal

296
Q

2nd degree soft tissue injury

A

Pathology:

Moderate contusion.

Some tearing of fibres.

Overall structure intact.

Pain/bruising: bruising, muscle spasm, pain.

Functional impairment: joint stable, some loss of muscle power

297
Q

3rd degree soft tissue injury

A

Pathology: structural contusion

Pain/bruising: severe bruising, muscle spasm + pain

Functional impairment: instability and/or loss of muscle function

298
Q

When to consider exploration of fracture

A
  • Heavily contaminated
  • Nerve damage suspected
  • Vascular damage suspected
  • Loss of tendon function
  • Communicates with joint cavity - Underlying fracture
299
Q

Closed fracture

A

Skin intact + fracture uncontaminated

300
Q

Open (compound) fracture

A

Soft tissue and fracture are contaminated therefore risk of infection

301
Q

Undisplaced fracture

A

Where there may be lots of cracks in bone in different directions but the fragment does not break off

302
Q

Displaced fracture

A

Fracture where bone is out of normal alignment

303
Q

Pathological fracture

A

Fracture occurring in abnormal bone.

Osteoporosis.

Osteitis deformans (aka Paget disease).

Page’s disease.

Tumour deposits.

Bone cysts

304
Q

Avulsion fracture

A

Bone fragment tears away from bone

305
Q

Stress fracture

A

Repeated abnormal stresses to bone

306
Q

Aims of fracture management

A

Fracture heals in good position.

Joints have full range of movement.

Limb regains normal strength and function.

Person able to take up prior role in society

307
Q

Physical signs of bone fracture

A

Deformity

Local bone tenderness

Swelling

Loss of function

308
Q

Which imaging technique is best for soft tissue?

A

MRI

309
Q

Principles of fracture treatment

A

Protection - assess neurovascular status, temporary dressing, IV antibiotics

Debridement - clearing of dead tissue from wound

Stabilisation

310
Q

What do muscle fibres contain?

A

Myofibrils

311
Q

What is muscle fibres surround by?

A

Sarcolemma

312
Q

What does a muscle fascicle contain?

A

Muscle fibres

313
Q

What surrounds the muscle fascicle?

A

Perimysium

314
Q

Histology of skeletal muscle

A

Epimysium around the outside

Perimysium surrounds the fascicle

Fascicle contains muscle fibres

Muscle fibres surrounded by sarcolemma

Muscle fibres contain myofibrils

Myofibrils contain actin + myosin

315
Q

Physiology of muscle contraction

A
  • Calcium released from sarcoplasmic reticulum
  • This causes a conformational change
  • Tropomyosin moves from the myosin-binding site on the actin
  • ATP binds to myosin head
  • ATP hydrolyses ADP + Pi
  • Myosin head cocks back to high energy position
  • Phosphate released
  • Cross-bridge rotates = power stroke
316
Q

Define radiculopathy

A

In a radiculopathy, the problem occurs at or near the root of the nerve, shortly after its exit from the spinal cord.

317
Q

Define plexopathy

A

Whole plexus effected e.g. Era’s

318
Q

Define axonotmetis

A

Individual axons in bundle broken down

(in Greek tmesis signifies “to cut”)

The axons and their myelin sheath are damaged in this kind of injury, but the endoneurium, perineurium and epineurium remain intact.

319
Q

Define neurotmesis

A

Cutting across nerve itself

(in Greek tmesis signifies “to cut”)

Both the nerve and the nerve sheath are disrupted.

320
Q

Define neuropraxia

A

Compression and is usually temporary

Neurapraxia is a disorder of the peripheral nervous system in which there is a temporary loss of function due to blockage of nerve conduction, usually lasting an average of six to eight weeks before full recovery.

321
Q

Which type of muscles do the anterior divisions of the brachial plexus supply?

A
  • Musculocutaneous, median, ulnar
  • Ventral muscles
  • Flexors
  • ADductors
  • Pronators
322
Q

Which type of muscles do the posterior divisions of the brachial plexus supply?

A
  • Axillary and radial
  • Dorsal muscles
  • Extensors
  • ABductors
  • Supinators
323
Q

Axillary nerve

A
  • C5, C6
  • Supplies deltoid and teres minor
  • Runs around surgical neck of humerus
  • Abduction to 90 degrees lost if injured
  • Sensory loss to regimental badge area
324
Q

Branches of radial nerve

A
  • Deep - posterior interosseous nerve

- Superficial - supplies dorsal of hand

325
Q

Common sites of injury of radial nerve

A
  • Axilla - close to bone

- Spiral groove of humerus (aka radial groove )

326
Q

Radial nerve

A

C5-T1

Emerges between brachialis and brachioradialis

327
Q

Median nerve

A

C5-T1

Passes between 2 heads of pronator teres

Supplies thenar muscles

328
Q

Effects of injury to median nerve

A
  • Thenar atrophy
  • Effects thumb movements
  • Ulnar deviation on wrist flexion
  • Ape hand
329
Q

Erb-Duchenne paralysis

A

C5-C6

Waiters tip

Possible ipsilateral diaphragmatic paralysis

Lose C5, abduction of shoulder

330
Q

Long thoracic nerve

A

C5, C6, C7

Supplies serratus anterior muscle.

Pathology causes winging of scapula.

331
Q

Which disease would anti-CCPs be produced in?

A

RA

332
Q

Which immunoglobulin is involved in RA?

A

IgG - forms immune complexes with RF which is deposited in joints and tissues

333
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reaction is RA?

A

Type III

334
Q

Which parts of the blood test may be raised in RA?

A

Rheumatoid factor (RF);

Cyclic Citrullinated Peptide (CCP);

Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR);

C-Reactive Protein (CRP);

Antinuclear Antibody (ANA)

335
Q

What type of anaemia in RA?

A

Normocytic, normochromic

336
Q

What would an x-ray of RA show?

A

Loss of joint space, erosions, deformity

337
Q

Ulnar nerve

A

C8-T1

Passes through 2 heads of flexor carpi ulnaris

338
Q

Where does the ulnar nerve enter the hand

A

Guyon’s canal

339
Q

What is the ulnar paradox

A

The more proximal you damage the ulnar nerve, the less damage it will cause

(however normally more proximal = greater damage so this is a paradox (unusual))

‘the closer to the Paw, the worse the Claw’.

340
Q

Causes of ulnar nerve injury

A

Handlebar palsy

Wrist slashing

Fractured medial epicondyle

341
Q

Describe the shape of the infraspinous fossa

A

Convex

342
Q

Where does the infraspinatus muscle originate?

A

Infraspinatus muscle originates from the infraspinous fossa

343
Q

Where does the supraspinatus muscle originate from?

A

Supraspinous fossa

344
Q

What does the spine of the scapula divide?

A

Posterior scapula into inferior + supra-spinous fossa regions

345
Q

Name the projection of the spine that arches over the glenohumeral joint.

A

Acromion

346
Q

When does winging of the scapula occur?

A

Injury to the long thoracic nerve (which supplies the serratus anterior muscle) produces a winged appearance

347
Q

Function of the serratus anterior muscle

A

Attaches to the costal face of the scapula + pulls it against the ribcage (1-8)

348
Q

What is the name of the concave depression on the costal side of the scapula?

A

Subscapular fossa

349
Q

To which part of the scapula does the short head of biceps brachii attach?

A

Coracoid process

350
Q

Which fossa of the scapula articulates with the humerus?

A

Glenoid

351
Q

List 4 fossae of the scapula

A

Infraspinous

Subscapula

Glenoid

Supraspinous

352
Q

What part of the scapula articulates with the clavicle?

A

Acromion

353
Q

Which muscle tendon attaches to the scapula to create the supraglenoid tubercule?

A

Long head of BICEPS brachii

354
Q

Which muscle tendon attaches to the scapula to create the infraglenoid tubercule?

A

Long head of TRICEPS brachii

355
Q

Which muscle attach to the coracoid process?

A

Short head of BICEPS brachii

356
Q

The greater tubercle of the humerus serves as attachment site for 3/4 rotator cuff muscles. Which ones?

A

Supraspinatus

Infraspinatus

Teres minor

357
Q

What runs through the intertubercular sulcus groove?

A

Long head of biceps brachii muscle

358
Q

Tendons of which 3 muscles attach to the lip of the intertubercular sulcus of humerus?

A

Pectoralis major

Teres major

Latissimus dorsi

359
Q

Which is more medial, greater or lesser humeral tubercle?

A

Lesser

360
Q

Surgical neck fracture of the humerus is a risk to which 2 neurovascular structures?

A

Axillary nerve + posterior circumflex artery

361
Q

Axillary nerve damage will result in paralysis to which muscles?

A

Deltoid + teres minor

362
Q

What would be the effect of damage to the axillary nerve?

A

Patient will have difficulty performing abduction of affected limb.

Loss of sensation in the lower deltoid area

363
Q

What is the deltoid tuberosity?

A

A roughened surface on lateral side of the humeral shaft where the deltoid muscle attaches

364
Q

What is the radial groove?

A

A shallow depression that runs diagonally down the posterior surface of the humerus, parallel to the deltoid tuberosity.

365
Q

What lies in the radial groove?

A

Radial nerve + profunda brachii artery

366
Q

Which 4 muscles attach to the humerus along the anterior shaft?

A

Coracobrachialis, deltoid, brachialis, brachioradialis

367
Q

Which muscles attach to the humerus along the posterior shaft?

A

Medial and lateral heads of the triceps

368
Q

In the event of a mid-shaft fracture of humerus which neurovascular structures could be damaged

A

Radial nerve + profunda brachii artery

369
Q

Injury to the radial nerve causes paralysis to the extensors of the wrist. What would this cause?

A

Unopposed flexion of the wrist

Wrist drop

370
Q

There are 3 muscles located in the anterior compartment of the upper arm. What is the mnemonic I use?

A

BBC

Biceps brachii

Brachialis

Corcacobrachialis

371
Q

What are all 3 muscles of the anterior compartment of the upper arm innervated by?What artery supplies the?

A

Musculocutaneous nerve.

Muscular branches of brachial artery

372
Q

Where does the biceps brachii muscle originate + insert?

A

Originate:

  • Long head = supraglenoid tubercle of scapula
  • Short head = coracoid process of scapula

Insert:
- Radial tuberosity = a connective tissue sheet is given off (bicipital aponeurosis) which forms the roof of the cubital fossa

373
Q

Generally what is the function of the anterior compartment of the upper limb muscles?

A

Flexion (at elbow, shoulder, or wrist)

374
Q

Which lies deeper:

  • brachialis
  • coracobrachialis
  • biceps brachii
A

Both coracobrachialis + brachialis lie deep to biceps brachii

375
Q

Which muscle of the upper arm is most distal?

A

Brachialis

376
Q

Where does coracobrachialis muscle attach?

A

Origin - coracoid process of scapula.

Inserts - medial side of humeral shaft at level of deltoid tubercle

377
Q

Function of coracobrachialis + brachialis muscles?

A

Coracobrachialis - flexion of arm at shoulder + weak adduction.

Brachialis - flexion at elbow

378
Q

Which upper arm muscle inserts into the ulna tuberosity?

A

Brachialis

379
Q

Rupture of any tendon in the body is rare.

The long head of the biceps brachii is one of the more common tendons to rupture.

What characteristic sign does it produce on flexing the elbow?

A

A bulge where the muscle belly is, called the ‘Popeye Sign’

The patient wouldn’t notice much weakness in upper limb due to action of brachialis + supinator muscles

380
Q

What muscle is found in the posterior compartment of the upper arm?

A

Triceps brachii - 3 heads

381
Q

Which upper arm muscle has 2 heads?

A

Biceps brachii

382
Q

Which upper arm muscle has 3 heads?

A

Triceps brachii

383
Q

Which nerve supplies the flexor carpi ulnaris?

A

Ulnar nerve

384
Q

Which nerve innervates palmaris longus, flexor carpi radialis, pronator teres?

A

Median nerve

385
Q

From medial to lateral name the muscles of the anterior compartment (superficial group) of the forearm?

FPFP mnemonic .

A

Flexor carpi ulnaris.

Palmaris longus.

Flexor carpi radialis.

Pronator teres

** flexor digitorum superficialis is deep to the others listed above but still part of superficial anterior forearm compartment

386
Q

List the 3 deep anterior forearm muscles.

A

Flexor digitorum profundus (most medial and largest)

Flexor pollicis longus.

Pronator quadratus (most distal)

387
Q

Which nerves innervate the flexor digitorum profundus muscle?

A

Medial half - ulnar nerve.

Lateral half - anterior interosseous branch of median nerve

388
Q

Where does flexor pollicis longus (FPL) lie compared to the flexor digitorum profundus (FDP)?

A

Laterally to the FDP

389
Q

Which nerve innervates flexor carpi radialis?

A

Median nerve

390
Q

What is the action of pronator teres?

A

Pronation of the forearm

391
Q

Which of joints does flexor digitorum superficialis NOT act on but flexor digitorum profundus does?

A

Distal interphalangeal

392
Q

Which nerve innervates the lateral half of flexor digitorum profundus?

A

Median nerve

393
Q

Why is brachioradialis a paradoxical muscle?

A

It’s origin + innervation are characteristic of an extensor muscle, but it is actually a flexor at the elbow

It’s part of the posterior forearm compartment.

394
Q

What is the acton of the brachioradialis?

A

Flexion of the elbow

395
Q

What nerve innervates all the muscles in the posterior forearm?

A

Radial

396
Q

What is the main action of extensor digiti minimi?

A

Extension of the little finger

397
Q

What is the action of anconeus?

A

Abducts ulnar in pronation Also extends at elbow joint

398
Q

What is the common site of origin for posterior forearm muscles?

A

Lateral epicondyle

399
Q

Which of muscle tendon contribute to the borders of the anatomical snuffbox?

A

Abductor pollicis longus

400
Q

Which border of the anatomical snuffbox does the tendon of extensor pollicis longus form?

A

Medial

401
Q

Which joints does extensor pollicis brevis act on?

A

Metacarpophalangeal joints of the thumb

402
Q

Muscles acting on the hand can be divided into which 2 groups?

A

Extrinsic + intrinsic

403
Q

Where are extrinsic muscles located?

A

Anterior + posterior compartment of forearm

404
Q

Where are intrinsic muscles of the hand located?

A

In the hand itself (not the forearm)

405
Q

Extrinsic hand muscles control what type of movements?

A

Produce a forceful grup

406
Q

Intrinsic muscles of the hand control what type of movements?

A

Fine motor function of the hand

407
Q

Anatomy of the intrinsic muscles of the hand include what?

A

Adductor pollicis,

Palmaris brevis,

Interossei,

Lumbricals,

Thenar,

Hypothenar muscles

408
Q

The thenar muscles are 3 short muscles located at the base of the thumb. What produces a bulge known as the thenar eminence?

A

The muscle bellies of the thenar muscles

409
Q

Which nerve innervates all the thenar muscles?

A

Median nerve

410
Q

What lies lateral to the trochlea?

A

Capitulum

411
Q

What does the capitulum articulate with?

A

Radius

412
Q

What does the trochlea articulate with?

A

Ulna

413
Q

What is immediately distal to the supra-epicondylar ridges?

A

Lateral + medial epicondyles (projections of the distal humerus)

414
Q

Which nerve passes into the forearm along the posterior side of the medial epicondyle?

A

Ulnar nerve

415
Q

How do supraepicondylar fractures occur?

A

Falling on a flexed elbow - it is a transverse fracture, spanning between the 2 epicondyles

416
Q

What is Volkmann’s ischaemic contracture?

A

Uncontrolled flexion of the hand, as flexor muscles become fibrotic + short due to direct damage or selling to blood supply of the forearm from the brachial artery

417
Q

Which nerve could a medial epicondyle fracture damage?

A

Ulnar nerve

418
Q

What does ulnar nerve damage in a medial epicondyle fracture result in?

A

Ulnar claw

And loss of sensation over the medial 1.5 fingers of the hand, on both the dorsal + palmar surfaces

419
Q

Which muscle does not attach to the greater tubercle of the humerus?

Supraspinatus

Infraspinatus

Teres minor

Subscapularis

A

Subscapularis - it attaches to the lesser tubercle of the humerus

420
Q

Which nerve can be damaged in a surgical neck fracture of the humerus?

A

Axillary nerve - located very close to surgical neck of humerus

421
Q

Damage to which nerve causes hand of benediction?

A

Median nerve at forearm or elbow

422
Q

Which digits are affected in ulnar claw and hand of benediction?

A

Ulnar claw - digits 4 + 5

Hand of Benediction - digits 2 + 3

423
Q

What bone does the trochlea of the humerus articulate with?

A

Ulna

424
Q

5 A’s of Alzheimer’s?

A

Amnesia–memory

Aphasia–speech

Apraxia–motor

Agnosia–recognition

Associated features:
• Affective disorders
• Perceptual disorders
• Thought disorders
• Personality changes
• Behavioural disorders
425
Q

Posterior circulation occlusion

A
o	Occlusion in vertebral, basilar, posterior cerebral arteries (supply brainstem, cerebellum, posterior occipital lobe)
	Vertigo – damaged to CN VIII  N+V 
	Ataxia – balance problems
	Paresis – motor tracts
	Paraesthesia – sensory tracts
	Isolated hemianopia
	Branch occlusion
426
Q

Perforating essel occlusion

A

o Symptoms of lacunar stroke:
 Pure motor stroke – contralateral loss of power
 Pure sensory stroke – contralateral loss of light touch + proprioception
 Dysarthria – slurred speech
 Ataxic hemiparesis
 Sensorimotor stroke

o All the ascending + descending tracts rung through internal capsule, so small infarct here  large deficit

427
Q

Large vessel occlusion?

A

Acute blockage of proximal great vessels (e.g. carotid artery)

Symptoms of carotid artery occlusion:
 Contralateral hemiplegia, hemisensory disturbance (blurring vision in ipsilateral eye)
 Homonymous hemianopia (half vision lost, same side in both eyes)
 Deterioration in consciousness level – because of increased intracranial pressure from large area of damage
 Gaze palsy (eyes deviated to side of lesion)
 Dominant hemisphere global aphasia
 Expressive dysphasia (Broca’s) – difficult putting words together in meaningful way
 Receptive dysphasia (Wernicke’s) – difficulty comprehension

428
Q

Branch vessel occlusion:

A

Symptoms of middle cerebral artery occlusion:
 Contralateral hemiplegia, hemianaesthesia, hemianopia
 Dominant hemisphere – aphasia, acalculia, agraphia, alexia
 Non-dominant hemisphere – sensory neglect, dressing apraxia, failure to recognise faces

429
Q

Increased ICP can occur in 4 stages

A

Stage 1:
 Compensatory reduction in CSF + blood volume –> no rise in ICP
 Clinical S+S: none

Stage 2:
 When the volume continues to increase beyond the point of compensation
 ICP has no other resource but to increase
 Clinical S+S: drowsy, headache

Stage 3:
 Sustained increased ICP w/ dramatic changes in ICP w/ small changes in volume
 Falling cerebral perfusion pressure
 Clinical S+S: deteriorating conscious level; intermittent elevations in BP + bradycardia

Stage 4:
 Cerebral perfusion pressure ceases
 Widespread necrosis begins
 Compression of brainstem respiratory centres –> respiratory arrest –> death
 Clinical S+S: coma, fixed dilated pupils, death

430
Q

Lesion on L optic nerve causes?

A

Monocular vision loss (only R eye will work)

431
Q

Lesion at the L or R optic tract?

A

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia

432
Q

Posterior cerebral artery is occluded. What type of visual loss will occur as a result?

A

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

433
Q

Miosis

A
o	Pupil constriction
o	Iris sphincter active
o	Iris dilator relaxed
o	Response to light increase
o	Parasympathetic control 
o	Relaxed state
o	Also helps focus (accommodation)
434
Q

Mydriasis

A
o	Pupil dilation
o	Iris sphincter relaxed
o	Iris dilator active
o	Response to light decreases
o	Sympathetic control
o	Elevated emotional/aroused state
o	Let’s in more light
435
Q

Cataracts

A

o Cataracts is a leading cause for blindness worldwide
o Definition: opacification (clouding) of the lens caused by compaction + protein deposition
o Treatment: outpatient surgery – lens is removed under local anaesthesia + replaced w/ artificial lens
o Risk factors: aging, trauma, diabetes, smoking, UVB light (radiation) exposure, genetic

436
Q

Glaucoma treatment

A
Treatment:
o	 b blockers,
o	 a-2-adrenoceptor agonist,
o	 carbonic anhydrase,
o	 prostaglandin analogues,
o	 miotics (muscarinic agonist)
437
Q

Causes of Horner’s syndrome?

A
	idiopathic,
	 cluster headache, 
	 carotid pathology,
	 lateral medullary pathology,
	 Pancoast syndrome, 
	C8/T1 pathology

 Most common cause = tumour eroding the cervicothoracic ganglion (apical lung tumour)

438
Q

Cranial nerve III, IV and VI palsies.

A

 CN III – eye adopts a position known as ‘down + out’

 CN IV – no obvious effect of the resting orientation of eyeball

 CN VI – affected eye will be adducted by resting tone of medial rectus

439
Q

3 different cones - summary

A

 ‘L’ – Long wavelength: Often called red cones (sensitive to long wavelength end of spectrum – red, orange, yellow)

 ‘M’ – Middle wavelength: Often called green cones (sensitive to medium wavelength of spectrum - mainly green)

 ‘S’ – Short wavelength: Often called blue cones (sensitive to short wavelength of spectrum - mainly blue)

440
Q

Dichromats have 2 cones working

A
  • Protanopes – lack L (red) cones
  • Deuteranopes – lack M (green) cones
  • Tritanopia – lack S (blue) cones, not X-linked (chromosome 7)
441
Q

Anomalous trichromats (people with 3 cone types, but one is ‘weak’, this is more common than dichromacy)

A

Protanomalous trichromat
o Weak red cones, they shift their sensitivity to higher wavelength (more sensitive to green) making it difficult to distinguish between red + green

Deuteranomalous trichromat
o Weak green cones, they shift their sensitivity to lower wavelength (more sensitive to red) making it difficult to distinguish between red + green

Tritanomalous trichromat
o Weak blue cones

442
Q

Visual cortex

A

 Primary visual cortex (striate cortex) – receives information directly from the LGN (lateral geniculate nucleus)

 Visual information the flows through a hierarchy, these areas include V2, V3, V5 and area V5/MT

 These secondary visual areas (extrastriate visual cortex) process a wide variety of visual primitives

443
Q

Arterial supply to the cerebrum - summary

A

Anterior Cerebral Arteries:
 Branches of internal carotid arteries, supplying the anteromedial aspect of the cerebrum

Middle Cerebral Arteries:
 Continuation of internal carotid arteries, supplying most of the lateral portions of cerebrum

Posterior Cerebral Arteries:
 Branches of basilar arteries, supplying the medial + lateral sides of cerebrum posteriorly

444
Q

Cerebellum 3 functional/anatomical sections - summary

A
  • Vermis (vestibulocerebellum) – balance + equilibrium
  • Paravermis (spinocerebellum) – postural tone
  • Cerebellar hemispheres (pontocerebellum/cerebrocerebellum) – fine co-ordination
445
Q

DCML (sensory tracts)

A

 Fine touch, vibrations, proprioception

 Contralateral – decussate in medulla

 In the spinal cord, info travels via the dorsal (posterior) columns

 In brainstem, it is transmitted through the medial lemniscus
 3 groups of neurones:

446
Q

Spinothalamic tracts (sensory tracts)

A
  • Anterior spinothalamic tract – crude touch + pressure
  • Lateral spinothalamic tract – pain + temperature

Contralateral – decussate in spinal cord (2-3 levels above entry)

447
Q

Spinocerebellar tracts (sensory)

A

 Unconscious proprioceptive
 Ipsilateral
 They transmit info from muscles to cerebellum

448
Q

Pyramidal descending tracts

A
Corticospinal:
•	Voluntary skilled motor activity:
o	Lateral controls distal movement
o	Anterior controls proximal movements
•	Contralateral – 90% decussate in medulla (lateral), 10% decussate in spinal cord (anterior)
•	Dorsolateral

Corticobulbar:
• Muscles of face + neck
• They are the upper motor neurons of cranial nerves

449
Q

Extrapyramidal tracts (descending) summary

A

Vestibulospinal
• Balance, posture
• Ipsilateral
• Ventromedial

Tectospinal
• Orientation, flinching, navigational
• Contralateral
• Ventromedial

Reticulospinal
• Large movements of trunk + limbs
• Ipsilateral
• Ventromedial

Rubrospinal
• Distal arm + hand movement
• Contralateral
• Dorsolateral

450
Q

Real Twats Don’t Call Back

A

Mnemonic for brachial plexus.

Roots - C5,6,7,8, T1

Trunks - Superior, Middle, Inferior

Divisions - Anterior + Posterior divisions of the trunks

(anterior: flexors + adductors)
(posterior: extensors + abductors)

Cords - Lateral cord, Posterior cord, Medial cord

(posterior division cords posterior cord, anterior division forms lateral cord + medial cord)

Branches - 5 major branches (musculocutaneous, axillary, median, radial, ulnar)

451
Q

Which nerve supplies the gluteus maximus?

A

Inferior gluteal nerve (L5- S2)

452
Q

Which nerve supplies the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus + tensor fasciae latae.

A

Superior gluteal nerve (L4-S1)

453
Q

Medial to lateral list the contents of the femoral triangle.

A

C VAN

Femoral Canal
Femoral Vein
Femoral Artery
Femoral Nerve

454
Q
  • Myotomes most strongly associated with each movement
A
C5 – Elbow flexion
C6 – Wrist extension
C7 – Elbow extension
C8 – Finger flexion
T1 – Finger abduction
L2 – Hip flexion
L3 – Knee extension
L4 – Ankle dorsiflexion
L5 – Great toe extension
S1 – Ankle plantarflexion
455
Q

Action of gluteus medius?

A

Abduction of the thigh.

Internal rotation of thigh.

456
Q

Where is the thickest region of the fascia lata?

A

Superiorlateral aspect of the thigh, originating from the fascial condnsations from gluteus maximus + medius

457
Q

Where is the fascia lata thinnest

A

Where is covers the adductor muscle of the medial thigh

458
Q

What does the deepest aspect of the fascia lata give rise to?

A

3 intermuscular septa that attach centrally to the femur.

This divides the thigh musculature into 3 compartments: anterior, medial, posterior

459
Q

Which intermuscular septum is the strongest of the 3 due to reinforcement iliotibial tract?

A

Lateral

460
Q

Where does the fascia lata end

A

At the prominences of the tibia it continues to become the deep fascia of the leg (crural fascia)

461
Q

Where does the fascia lata begin most proximally?

A

Around iliac crest and inguinal ligament

462
Q

Name the ovoid hiatus present in the fascia lata just inferior to the inguinal ligament

A

Saphenous opening.

N.B. Efferent lymphatic vessels and great saphenous vein passes through the opening

463
Q

What does the great saphenous vein drain into?

A

Femoral vein

464
Q

What is the tensor fascia lata?

A

A gluteal muscle that acts as a flexor, abductor + internal rotator of the hip.

It also tenses the fascia lata

465
Q

What does the cribiform fascia cover?

A

The saphenous opening (ovoid hiatus) which develops inferomedially from a sharp margin of the gap (the falciform margin)

466
Q

Which part of the brain is involved in planning and programming of skilled movements?

A

Premotor area

467
Q

Which part of the brain is involved in speech prpduction?

A

Frontal lobe

Broca’s area is a region in the frontal lobe of the dominant hemisphere, usually the left.

468
Q

Brodmann’s area 8

A

The frontal eye fields (FEF) are a region located in the frontal cortex, more specifically in Brodmann area 8 of the primate brain.

(FEF) plays an important role in the control of visual attention and eye movements.

In humans, it can be more accurately said to lie in a region around the intersection of the middle frontal gyrus with the precentral gyrus, consisting of a frontal and parietal portion.

469
Q

What is the function of the insula?

A

The insula is believed to process convergent information to produce an emotionally relevant context for sensory experience

470
Q

Where is the insula?

A

The insula is a small region of the cerebral cortex located deep within the lateral sulcus.

Lateral sulcus = large fissure that separates frontal + parietal lobes from temporal lobe.

471
Q

Main function of subscapularis muscle?

A

Internal rotation of humerus

472
Q

Which muscles does the suprascapular nerve supply?

A

2/4 rotator cuff muscles.
Supraspinatus + Infraspinatus.

N.B.

    • Teres minor is innervated by axillary nerve.
    • Subscapularis is innervated by subscapular nerve
473
Q

Which 2 ligaments make up the coracoclavicular ligament?

A

Trapezoid + conoid

474
Q

Which ligament connects lateral scapula to lesser tubercle of humerus?

A. Acromioclavicular ligament
B. Coracoacromial ligament
C. Coracoclavicular ligament
D. Coracohumeral ligament
E. Glenohumeral ligament
A

E

475
Q

Which ligament connects coracoid process of scapular to greater tubercle of humerus?

A. Acromioclavicular ligament
B. Coracoacromial ligament
C. Coracoclavicular ligament
D. Coracohumeral ligament
E. Glenohumeral ligament
A

D

476
Q

Which ligament connects the clavicle to acromion of scapula?

A. Acromioclavicular ligament
B. Coracoacromial ligament
C. Coracoclavicular ligament
D. Coracohumeral ligament
E. Glenohumeral ligament
A

A

477
Q

Which ligament connects coracoid process of scapula to process of scapula?

A. Acromioclavicular ligament
B. Coracoacromial ligament
C. Coracoclavicular ligament
D. Coracohumeral ligament
E. Glenohumeral ligament
A

B

478
Q

Which joint is frequently injured by falling on outstretched hands?

AKA FOOSH injury

A

Acromioclavicular joint

479
Q

Are the following structures found anterior, posterior, superior or inferior around the shoulder?

Long head of triceps muscle, Axillary nerve, Posterior circumflex humeral vessels

A

Inferior

No (rotator cuff) muscles are on inferior portion of shoulder so dislocations are most common inferiorly

480
Q

Are the following structures found anterior, posterior, superior or inferior around the shoulder?

Subscapularis muscle, Axillary vessels, Brachial plexus

A

Anterior

481
Q

Are the following structures found anterior, posterior, superior or inferior around the shoulder?

Supraspinatus muscle, Subacromial bursa, Coracoacromial ligament, Deltoid muscle

A

Superior

482
Q

Are the following structures found anterior, posterior, superior or inferior around the shoulder?

Infraspinatus muscle, Teres minor muscle

A

Posterior

483
Q

Drugs used for bone protection (falls prevention)?

A

Bisphosphonates

Vitamin D/Calcium

HRT

484
Q

S+S of RA?

A

Slow onset

Joint swelling that is symmetrical

MCPs, MTPs + wrists affected

Early morning stiffness lasting an hour

Dramatic NSAID response

485
Q

Which cytokine in RA causes the systemic symptoms?

A

TNF alpha.

Acts on endothelium:

  • angiogenesis, hepatocytes
  • increase CRP, synoviocytes
  • articular cartilage degredation
486
Q

Basic pathology in RA

A

Hypertrophy in synovial fluid.

Inflammation of synovial cells.

Damage to cartilage surface.

Reduced joint space.

Damage to bone.

487
Q

Consequences of chronic systemic inflammation (RA)?

A

Early ischaemic heart disease

Sarcopenia (weak muscles)

Hypercholesterolaemia

Pain sensitisation

Osteoporosis

Insulin resistance

Dementia

488
Q

S+S of OA?

A

Older presentation than RA.

PIP + DIP, knees, hip + lower back affected.

Worse after activity.

Early morning stiffness lasts 15 minutes.

489
Q

Prevalence of RA + OA?

A

RA = 1%

OA = 10-20% and increases with age. 80% in over 75s.

490
Q

Causes of pain in OA?

A

Prostaglandins and cytokines

Synovitis

Periosteal elevation

Muscle spasms

Venous congestion

Biochemical effects

491
Q

Modifiable risk factors of gout?

A

Hyperuricaemia
High-purine diet
Alcohol - beer
Certain meds - thiazide diuretics

492
Q

Pathophysiology of gout?

A

Hyperuricaemia - uric acid crystals, enzyme xanthine oxidase drives this process.

Cause by either :

1) overproduction of urate or
2) underexcretion of urate (renal).

Sharp crystals deposits in joints and kidneys.

Repeated –> destruction of a joint

493
Q

Classic presentation of septic arthritis

A

Joint swelling, recent increase
systemic: fever, sweats, rigors, confusion.

Predisposing: trauma, infection, IV drugs.

Drugs: steroids, antibiotics.

494
Q

Antibiotic choice in septic arthritis?

A

Normally flucloxacillin

If high risk of gram -ve - cephalosporin

MRSA risk - vancomycin

495
Q

MoA of bisphosphonates?

A

Decrease OC activity, increase OC apoptosis.

There are 2 types of bisphosphonates:

    • Non-N containing - etridronate, inhibits ATP-dependent intracellular enzymes.
  • – N-containing, more potent.
496
Q

5 classes of drug used to treat RA?

A
NSAIDs (-coxib)
Steroids
DMARDs
Biological agents
Immunosuppression
497
Q

Examples of DMARDs?

A

Hydroxycholorquine,

Methotrexate - also an anticancer drug.

Sulphasalazine - also used for Crohn’s disease.

498
Q

What are cyclophosphamide and cyclosporin used for in RA?

A

Immunosuppression in RA

499
Q

What are these?

Raloxifene
Tamoxifen

A

Selective oestrogen receptor modulators