3rd bimonth Flashcards by katherine canete

“Terminal end of the spinal cord:
A. Conus medullaris
B. Ligamentum denticulatum
C. Cauda equina
D. Filum terminale”

Conus Medullaris

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Which of the following does not form during the fetal period?
A. Thoracic curve
B. Cervical curve
C. Sacral curve
D. Thoracic and sacral curve

B. Cervical curve

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Fibrous extension of the pia mater that anchors spinal cord to coccyx
a. cauda equina
b. conus medullaris
c. ligamentum denticulatum
d. filum terminale

Filum terminale

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The only veretebral ligament that limits extension.
a. supraspinous ligament
b. Ligamentum flavum
c. Anterior Longitudinal Ligament
d. Posterior Longitudinal Ligament

Anterior Longitudinal Ligament

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What part of vertebrae is for proprioception and vibration sense?

A. Nucleus cunatus
B. Nucluus gracilis
C. dorsal/posterior columns
D. spinothalamic tract

C. Dorsal/ Posterior columns

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Which of the ff is characterized by loss of proprioception and vibration and contralateral loss of pain and temperature?

A. Central Cord Syndrome
B. Posterior Cord Syndrome
C. Tabes Dorsalis
D. Brown-Sequard Syndrome

Brown-Sequard Syndrome

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Which of the following refers to Cervical 1 fracture?
A. Hangman’s Fracture
B. Jefferson’s Fracture
C. Clay Shoveler’s Fracture
D. Bennett’s Fracture

B. Jefferson’s Fracture

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The most common herniation of the nucleus pulposus.

a. C6-C7
b. T11-T12
c. L4-L5
d. L1-L2

c. L4-L5

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Responsible for metatstaic spread of prostate, breast CA
A. Posterior spinal artery
B. Artery of Adamkiewics
C. Batson’s plexus
D. forgot

c. Batson’s plexus

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At what level do you do lumbar tap in adults?
A. L4-L5
B. L2-L3
C. T12-L1
D. S1-S2

L4-L5

(always mentioned by Doc Lucero & Doc Toom na L4 jd]

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Which structure is primarily responsible for the formation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
a. Hypothalamus
b. Choroid plexus
c. Pineal Gland
d.Ependymal cells of spinal cord

B. Choroid Plexus

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The space between the periosteum lining the bony wall of vertebral canal and the dura mater
A. Subarachnoid space
B. Leptomeningeal Space
C. Extradural (Epidural) Space
D. Arachnoid Granulations

C. Extradural (Epidural) Space

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The vertebral arteries will pass through the transverse foramina, except
a. Atlas
b. Axis
c. C7
d. C6

c. C7

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What condition is characterized by an abnormal lateral deviation of the vertebral column?
A. Kyphosis
B. Lordosis
C. Scoliosis
D. Endosmosis

C. Scoliosis

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This structure allows communication between 3rd and 4th ventricles:
A. Foramen of Luschka
B. Foramen of Magendie
C. Sylvian aqueduct
D. Arachnoid granulation

C. Sylvian aqueduct

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Which of the ff movement occurs in bilateral action of splenius capitis?
A. Flexion of Neck
B. Extension of Neck
C. Lateral bending of the neck
D. Rotation of the neck

Extension

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Which of this following is innervated by spinal accessory nerve?
A. Latissimus dorsi
B. trapezius
C. Levator scapulae
D. Rhomboids

Trapezius

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The interspinales muscle connects the spinous process of a vertebra to?
A. Spinous process
B. Angle of rib
C. Transverse process
D. Neck of rib

Spinous process

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What muscle is the most lateral of the erector spinae muscles?
a. longissimus
b. spinalis
c. semispinalis
d. illiocostalis

Iliocostalis muscle

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What muscle of the deep layer of the back arises from the transverse process of a vertebrae to the transverse process of an adjacent vertebrae?
a. rotatores
b. interspinalis
c. intertransversarii
d. multifidus

c. intertransversarii

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Its origin is at the posterior arch of the posterior tubercle of vertebra C2 and inserts at the transverse process of vertebra C1.
a. Rectus capitis posterior major
b. Rectus capitis posterior minor
c. Obliquus capitis inferior
d. Obliquus capitis superior

Obliquus capitis inferior

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The suboccipital muscle that inserts at the occipital bone between the superior and inferior nuchal lines.
a. rectus capitis posterior major
b. rectus capitis posterior minor
c. obliquus capitis inferior
d. obliquus capitis superior
e. semispinalis capitis

d. obliquus capitis superior

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What suboccipital muscle originates from the spinous process of the C2 vertebra?
A. Rectus capitis posterior major
B. Rectus capitis posterior minor
C. Obliquus capitis inferior
D. Obliquus capitis superior
E. Semispinalis capitis

Rectus capitis posterior major

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Which of the ff originates from the posterior tubercle of the posterior arch of the C2(Axis)?
A. Rectus capitis posterior major
B. Rectus capitis posterior minor
C, Obliquus capitis inferior
D. Obliquus capitis superior

C. Obliquus capitis inferior

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The superomedial boundary of suboccipital triangle A. Rectus capitis posterior major B. Rectus capitis posterior minor C. Obliquus capitis inferior D. Obliquus capitis superior E. Semispinalis capitis

A. Rectus capitis posterior major

The superolateral boundary of suboccipital triangle A. Rectus capitis posterior major B. Rectus capitis posterior minor C. Obliquus capitis inferior D. Obliquus capitis superior E. Semispinalis capitis

Obliquus capitis superior

The inferolateral boundary of suboccipital triangle A. Rectus capitis posterior major B. Rectus capitis posterior minor C. Obliquus capitis inferior D. Obliquus capitis superior E. Semispinalis capitis

C. Obliquus capitis inferior

This forms the roof of the suboccipital triangle A. Rectus capitis posterior major B. Rectus capitis posterior minor C. Obliquus capitis inferior D. Obliquus capitis superior E. Semispinalis capitis

Semispinalis capitis

This muscle is responsible for lateral flexion at the atlanto-occipital joint A. Rectus capitis posterior major B. Rectus capitis posterior minor C. Obliquus capitis inferior D. Obliquus capitis superior E. Semispinalis capitis

Obliquus capitis superior

Which of the following is true about the suboccipital nerve a. originates form posterior ramus of spinal nerve c2 b. originates from posterior ramus of spinal nerve c1 c. originates from anterior ramus of spinal nerve c1 d. emerges inferior from runs beneath the obliquus capitis inferior posterior scalp e. runs between the cranium and C1 vertebra to reach suboccipital triangle

b. originates from posterior ramus of spinal nerve c1 e. runs between the cranium and C1 vertebra to reach suboccipital triangle

Which of these back muscles contribute to the border of the auscultatory triangle? A. trapezius and serratus posterior superior B. trapezius and serratus posterior inferior C. trapezius and latissimus dorsi D. latissimus dorsi and levator scapulae

C. trapezius and latissimus dorsi

2. Which is not part of the transversospinales muscles? A. Longissimus B. Semispinales C. Multifidus D. Rotatores

A. Longissimus

Which of the following transversospinalis muscle is/are attached inferiorly to the sacrum and ilium? A. Semispinalis B. Rotatores C. Multifudus D. Longissimus

C. Multifidus

Which of the following muscles of the back elevate the ribs during respiration and assist in the lateral flexion of the vertebral column? Levator scapulae Levatores costarum Intertransversarii Rotatores

Levatores costarum

Which of these muscles is responsible for the lateral bending of the neck following unilateral contraction? A. Splenius cervicis B. Multifidus C. Longus coli D. Semispinalis muscles

Splenius cervicis

What structure should lie in the same vertical plane as the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)? A. ischial tuberosity B. iliac crest C. pubic symphysis D. Obturator foramen

C. Pubic symphysis

The anterior pelvic wall are formed by which bones? A. Sacrum and coccyx B. Ilium and ischium C. Pubic bones and symphysis pubis D. Femur and tibia

C. Pubic bones and symphysis pubis

Which of the following contributes to the posterior pelvic wall? A. Obturator internus B. Piriformis C. Iliacus D. Psoas major

B. Piriformis

Auricular surface of ilium articulates to which bone? A. Ischium B. Sacrum C. Coccyx D. Pubis

B. Sacrum

What divides the pelvis into greater and lesser pelvis? A. Ileopectineal line B. Arcuate line C. Gluteal line D. Ilea terminales

A. Ileopectineal line

The distance between two ischial spines should be? a. 7.5 b. 9 c. 8.5 d. 10.5

d. 10.5

The sciatic notches are divided by what ligaments into the greater and lesser sciatic foramina? A. Sacrotuberous and sacrospinous ligaments B. Iliolumbar and sacroiliac ligaments C. Inguinal and pubofemoral ligaments D. Obturator and transverse acetabular ligaments

A. Sacrotuberous and sacrospinous ligaments

What joint links the axial skeleton to the lower appendicular skeleton? a. pubic symphysis b. sacroiliac joint c. lumbosacral joint d. sacrococcygeal joint

b. sacroiliac joint

When performing pudendal block, what landmark is identified in order to administer local anesthetic A. Sacral promontory B. Ischial spines C. Sacrosciatic notches D. Ischial tuberosity

B. Ischial spines

Which artery is the anterior branch of Internal Iliac Artery? A. Inferior gluteal artery B. Iliolumbar artery C. Lateral sacral artery D. Superior gluteal artery

A. Inferior gluteal artery

What is true of the female pelvis: a) Heart-shaped inlet b) Deep greater pelvis c) > 80 angle d) Thick greater pelvis

c. >80 angle

Which conjugate can be clinically determined during pelvic exam? a. Obstetrical Conjugate b. Diagonal Conjugate c. True Conjugate d. Anatomical Conjugate

b. Diagonal Conjugate

What is the most anterior pelvic muscle? a. pubococcygeus b. iliococcygeus c. puborectalis d. coccygeus

c. Puborectalis

This muscle will laterally rotate the femur at the hip joint A. Obturator internus B. Levator ani C. Bulbocavernous D. Coccygeus

Obturator internus

This pelvic bone is characterized by horizontal oval shape, >90 inclined backward sacral angle straight sacrum A. android B. gynecoid C. anthropoid D. platypelloid

D. platypelloid

Structure that separates the parietal and temporal bones from the occipital bone a. Coronal suture b. Sagittal suture c. Lambdoid suture d. Squamous suture

C. Lambdoid suture (Trans ANA_3.1 - Head and Neck, p. 3)

Which of the following bones contributes to the formation of pterion? A. Body of the sphenoid B. Squamous part of the temporal bone C. Ethmoid Bone D. Occipital Bone

Squamous part of temporal bone

Which of the following structures is found in the middle cranial fossa? A. Foramen magnum B. Foramen cecum C. Foramen spinosum D. Hypoglossal Canal

Foramen spinosum

Which of the ff facial muscles is inserted in the angle of mouth a. Depressor labii inferioris b. Zygomaticus minor c. Risorius d. Levator labii superioris

Risorius

When the sternocleidomastoid unilaterally contracts, which of the following movements is elicited? A. Flexion of the head B. Rotation of the head to one side C. Elevation of the sternum and manubrium D. Extension of the head

Rotation of head to one side

What structure passes through the carotid triangle A. internal jugular vein B. anterior jugular vein C. internal carotid artery D. submandibular artery

A. internal jugular vein

What structure in the carotid triangle to the occipital is spared when stabbed? A. Subclavian artery B. Carotid sheath C. Brachial plexus D. Internal jugular vein

A. Subclavian artery

Which of the following blood vessels come from the external carotid artery? a. Inferior labial artery b. Lingual artery c. Mandibular artery d. Pterygopalatine artery

b. Lingual artery

(paraphrased) Which nerve senses the pain when the lower lip is bitten? a. opthalmic nerve b. marginal branch of mandibular nerve c. mandibular nerve d. maxillary nerve

C. Mandibular nerve Sensory nerves derived from Mandibular nerve include the Mental nerve which innervates lower lip

Which of the following is typically observed in a patient with suspected Bell's palsy? A. Bilateral flattening of basolabial fold B. Can gently and forecefully close eyes C. Can raise both eyebrows D. Altered taste sensation

Altered taste sensation Bell's Palsy = ipsilateral manifestation

Which of the following contributes approximately 20 diopters to the total refractive power of the eye? A. Lens B. Vitreous humor C. Aqueous humor D. Tear film

Lens (ANA_3.2 - Eye, Orbit, Orbital Region, and Eyeball, p.8)

Which area in the eye is associated with the highest visual acuity? A. Macula B. Optic disk C. Fovea D. Ora serrata

Fovea centralis - most specific answer Fovea - choice sa actual quiz

Sudden dropping of Right Eyelid, OD 6mm 20/30, OS 20/30; Right Eye Inferolaterally A. Cranial Nerve IV Palsy B. Cranial Nerve III Palsy C. Cranial Nerve V Palsy D. Cranial Nerve VI Palsy

CN III palsy

In an eye examination, having the patient look superolaterally tests the action of which muscle? A. Superior Rectus B. Superior Oblique C. Inferior Oblique D. Inferior Rectus

Superior rectus

Which structure represents the anterior termination of the optic retina? A. Pupillary border B. Posterior pigmented epithelium of the iris C. Ciliary border D. Ora serrata

D. Ora serrata

Acid spill resulting in a chemical injury to the right eye. 80% corneal epithelial abrasion, 90% limbic ischemia, severe injections, conjuctival edema, hypopyon, IOP 20mmHg. Which is the most concerning and why? a. 80% corneal epithelial abrasion: scarring b. 90% limbal ischema: affects healing and reepithelization c. severe injections, conjunctival edema, hypopyon: risk for infection d. IOP 20 mmHg: glaucomatous

B. 90% limbic ischemia; affects healing and re-epithelialization

What important structure is an extension of the periorbita along the orbital rims, and serves to separate the orbit from the eyelid?

Orbital septum (Trans ANA_3.2 Eye, Orbit, Orbital Region, and Eyeball, p.2)

2 month old baby, exhibits epiphora or spilling over of tears of the right eye. Where is the most likely pathology? a. lower puncta b. lower cannaliculi c. common cannaliculi d. Valve of Hasner

D. Valve of Hasner (Trans ANA_3.2B - Eye Quibowl, p. 7)

Posterior of fovea, considered the physiologic blind spot of the eye a. Macula b. Optic disc c. Fovea d. Optic cup

B. Optic disc (Snell's Clinical Anatomy 9e, p. 560 & Trans ANA_3.2 Eye, Orbit, Orbital Region, and Eyeball, p.7)

Which of the following muscle primarily functions to elevate the eyelids a. levator palpebral superioris b. superior rectus c. superior oblique d. both superior rectus and oblique

A. Levator palpebrae superioris (Trans ANA_3.2-Eye, Orbit, Orbital Region, and Eyeball, p.9)

Which of the following structures is found superior to the sphenoidal sinus? A. Internal Carotid Artery B. Optic Nerve C. Pituitary Gland D. Cribriform Plate

C. Pituitary Gland (Trans ANA_3.3-Nose and Ears, p.4)

The largest sinus: A. Frontal Sinus B. Ethmoid Sinus C. Maxillary Sinus D. Sphenoid Sinus

C. Maxillary Sinus

Which of the following does not drain into the middle meatus? A. Frontal B. Ethmoid C. Maxillary D. Sphenoid

Bonus B. Ethmoid or D. Sphenoid (Dr. Lucero)

The largest blood supply of the internal nose A. Sphlenopalatine B. Angularis C. Ethmoidal D. Superior Labial

A. Sphlenopalatine

What is drained by the inferior meatus? A. nasolacrimal duct B. sphenoid sinus (not sure) C. anterior ethmoid sinus D. posterior ethmoid sinus

A. nasolacrimal duct

Where is the location of the olfactory epithelium in the nasal cavity? A. Inferior meatus B. Nasal floor C. Superior portion of nasal septum D. Vomer

C. Superior portion of nasal septum

A 19 year old basketball player who developed a nose bleed came into the E.R. after getting hit in the nose during a basketball game. Blood was noticed to come out of the anterior aspect of the nostril. Upon examination, it was noted that blood was coming from the anterior portion of the nasal septum. Which part is most likely affected? a. Kiesselbach plexus b. Woodruf's plexus c. Inferior turbinate d. Middle turbinate

A. Kiesselbach's plexus

A nerve that innervates the external canal that is responsible for the cough reflex during ear cleaning. a. Trigeminal nerve b. Chorda tympani c. Arnold's nerve d. Jacobson's nerve

C. Arnold's nerve

Which of the following statement is correct regarding the external auditory canal? a. The external ear consists of a cartilaginous outer one-third and bony inner two-third portions b. The external ear consists of a cartilaginous outer two-thirds and bony inner two-thirds portions c. The external ear consists of a cartilaginous outer one-fourth and bony inner three-fourth portions d. The external ear consists of a cartilaginous outer three-fourth and bony inner one-fourth portions

A. The external ear consists of a cartilaginous outer one-third and bony inner two-third portions

Which of the following is not part of the vestibular apparatus? A. Superior semicircular canal B. Inferior semicircular canal C. Posterior semicircular canal D. Lateral semicircular canal

B. Inferior semicircular canal

What connects the middle ear to nose? a. tympanic membrane b. external auditory meatus c. uhhhhhmmmm heheheheh (unrecalled) d. pharyngotympanic tube

D. Pharyngotympanic tube

Where is the stapes attached? a. Tympanic Membrane b. Round Window c. Oval Window d. Pharyngotympanic tube

C. Oval window

What innervates the Stapedius Muscle? A. Trigeminal B. Facial C. Glossopharyngeal D. Vagus

B. Facial Nerve

What is the nerve supply of the tensor tympani muscle? A. Trigeminal nerve B. Facial Nerve C. Glossopharyngeal nerve D. Vagus nerve

A. Trigeminal nerve

A 15 year old patient with an untreated external ear infection developed a parotid inflammation. What structure or pathway is responsible for this extension of the problem? A. Pinna B. Pharyngotympanic tube C. Fissure of Santorini D. Tympanic membrane

C. Fissure of Santorini

If the left hypoglossal nerve is damaged, then: A. The right side of the tongue will atrophy B. The left side of the tongue will be unaffected C. The tongue will deviate to the left D. The tongue will not move at all

C. The tongue will deviate to the left

Extrinsic muscle of the tongue that pulls the root of the tongue upward and backward and narrows the oropharyngeal isthmus A. Hyoglossus B. Palatoglossus C. Genioglossus D. Styloglossus

B. Palatoglossus Snell’s 9th Ed p. 625

Which of the following divides the parotid gland into two lobes? a. Stensen's duct b. Glossopharyngeal Nerve c. Facial Nerve d. Great auricular nerve

C. Facial nerve Snell’s 9th Ed p. 630

A developing fetus in 9th week age of gestation had prominent communication between nasal and oral cavities. This would likely result into: A. Thyroglossal duct cyst B. Persistence of stomodeum C. Enlarged epiglottis D. Cleft palate

D. Cleft palate

Oral vestibule is the space between: a. Teeth and cheeks/lips b . Between the dental arches c. Floor and roof of the mouth d. I forgot guys huhu

A. Teeth and cheeks/lips

Innervation to the palate is primarily provided by A. Facial Nerve B. Trigeminal Nerve C. Glossopharyngeal Nerve D. Hypoglossal Nerve

B. Trigeminal nerve

A v-shaped groove on the dorsum of the tongue is called the: a. terminal sulcus b. foramen cecum c. lingual frenulum d. vallate papillae

A. Terminal sulcus

The largest and most prominent papillae of the tongue. a. Filiform papillae b. Fungiform papillae c. Foliate papillae d. Vallate papillae

d. Vallate papillae

Primary hormone produced by the thyroid gland a. Insulin b. Thyroxine c. Cortisol d. Estrogen

B. Thyroxine

Which of the following involves inflammation of the salivary glands? a. Sialolithiasis b. Sialadenitis c. Xerostomia d. Hyperplasia

B. Sialadenitis

which artery mainly supplies to the thyroid? a. inferior thyroid artery b. superioir thyroid artery

B. Superior thyroid artery

Which branch does the inferior thyroid artery originate from? A. Brachiocephatlic artery B. Thyroid ima C. Thyrocervical trunk D. External carotid artery

C. Thyrocervical trunk

13. Which of the following is the function of calcitonin? A. Increase Calcium B. Decrease Calcium Blood Levels C. Increase Thyroid Hormone Production D. Increase Metabolism

B. Decrease blood calcium levels

The isthmus of the thyroid gland connects the A. right and left lobes B. superior and inferior lobes C. anterior and posterior lobes D. medial and lateral lobes

A. Right and left lobes

What cells in the thyroid gland produce thyroxine? A. Follicular cells B. Parafollicular C. Chief cells D. C cells

A. Follicular cells

The intersection between the coronal suture and sagittal suture A. lambda B. lambdoid C. bregma D. glabella

C. Bregma (Trans ANA_3.1 -Head and Neck, p.1)

Patient is showing rhinorrhea. What bone could be damaged? A. Sphenoid B. Ethmoid C. Maxilla D. Frontal

Ethmoid bone

3. What cranial nerve will be fractured following trauma to the middle cranial fossa? A. Olfactory nerve (CN I) B. Oculomotor nerve (CN III) C. Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) D. Vagus nerve (CN X)

B. Oculomotor nerve (CN III)

Which of the following layers of the scalp contains the emissary veins? a. Skin b. Aponeurotic c. Loose areolar tissue d. Periosteum

Loose areolar tissue layer

Which of these facial muscles originate from the lateral aspect of the zygomatic bone and inserts into the angle of the mouth? A. Risorius B. Levator Labii Superioris C. Orbicularis Oris D. Zygomaticus Major

D. Zygomaticus Major Moore's 8th Ed Table 8.3, p. 854

Which of the following is the least likely to be affected following injury to the facial nerve? A. Masseter B. Buccinator C. Orbicularis Oris D. Frontalis

A. Masseter

Which of the following will be seen in a patient with Bell's palsy? [modified question] able to raise both eyebrows unable to close eyes affected side unable to chew/swallow affected side intact taste anterior tongue

Unable to close eyes in affected side

Which of the following nerves supplies the motor function of the sternocleidomastoid muscle A. Facial B. Trigeminal C. Cervical nerves 2 and 3 D. Spinal accessory nerve

Spinal accessory nerve

Distal attachment of middle scalene muscle? a. Manubrium b. Clavicle c. 1st rib d. 2nd rib

1st rib

Which of the following is seen within the submandibular triangle of the neck? A. Hypoglossal nerve. B. Submental lymph nodes C. Thyroid Gland D. Deep Cervical lymph nodes

Hypoglossal nerve

This particular structure contributes to the subdivision of the anterior triangle into 4 smaller triangles of the neck A. Sternocleidomastoid B. Trapezius C. Mylohyoid D. Omohyoid

Omohyoid muscle Trans ANA_3.1 Head and Neck (page 14)

What is the terminal artery of external carotid artery? a. Facial artery b. Superior thyroid artery c. Superficial temporal artery d. Lingual artery

Superficial temporal artery

Which branch of the External carotid artery enters the facial region by passing through the inferior border of the mandible and anterior border of masseter muscle a. facial artery b. maxillary artery c. lingual artery d. superior thyroid artery

facial artery

14. Facial vein that drains from the superior and inferior eyelid through which of the following tributaries A. Supraorbital vein B. Supratrochlear vein C. Deep vein D. Angular vein

Angular vein

What nerve perceives the pain felt when the below the lower lip is bitten? A. Opthalmic branch of the tigeminal nerve B. Maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve C. Mandibualr branch of the trigeminal nerve D. Facial nerve

C. Mandibular branch of trigeminal

Which of the following is a branch of ophthalmic nerve a. Anterior and Posterior Ethmoid Arteries b. Angular artery c. Sphenopalatine d. Superior labial artery

Ethmoid

What is true regarding the borders of the orbit? A. Roof: Frontal, lesser wing of spenoid B. Medial: maxilla, ethmoid, lacrima, greater wing of sphenoid C. Floor: maxilla, palatine, ethmoid D. lateral: zygomatic, lesser wing of sphenoid

A. Roof: Frontal, lesser wing of spenoid

Which of the following structures pass through the superfior orbital fissue pasing outside the annulus of zin? A. Optic nerve, Abducens nerve, Ophthalmic artery, Nasociliary nerve B)Trochlear nerve, Lacrimal nerve, Frontal nerve, Superior division of oculomotor nerve, Superior ophthalmic veins C) Optic nerve, Abducens nerve, Frontal nerve, Superior ophthalmic vein D) Oculomotor nerve (both divisions), Trochlear nerve, Optic nerve, Nasociliary nerve

B)Trochlear nerve, Lacrimal nerve, Frontal nerve, Superior division of oculomotor nerve, Superior ophthalmic veins

19. Which of the following is TRUE about the Extraocular muscles A. LR is supplied by CN IV B. SO is supplied by CN VI C. SR, levator palpebrae superioris, and MR are supplied by the superior division of CN III D. IO, MR, and IR are supplied by the inferior divisions of CN III

D. Inferior oblique, medial rectus, and inferior rectus muscles are supplied by the inferior division of CN III

What constitutes the major refractive element of the eye? A. lens B. vitreous humor C. air tear film interface of cornea D. aqueous humor

C. air tear film interface of cornea

Eyelid laceration on the medial 1/3 up to the medial canthal A. Canalicular transection B. Trauma C. Injury to palpebral conjunctiva D. Injury to bulbular conjunctiva

canalicular transection

A patient was punched in the eye by an unknown assailant. Upon examination, you noted blood in the anterior chamber. Which of the following correctly describes this finding? a. hypopyon b. hyphema c. central retinal artery occlusion d. subconjunctival hemorrhage

hyphema

A patient who came in for orbital trauma, complaining of diplopia with limited upgaze excursion, is most likely fractured in which common location? a. roof b. orbital rim c. superomedial d. inferolateral

inferolateral

56/M complains of painless blurring of vision. Upon examination, you noticed that the vision is hand motions. Which of the following symptoms support the diagnosis of central retinal artery occlusion? a. cherry red spot on the macula b. flame shaped hemorrhages along the vascular plane c. optic disk swelling where the artery enters the eye d. multiple retinal hemorrhages

a. cherry red spot on the macula

Which of the following is true?

thinnest wall is in the medial where the lamina papyracea is found

What structure of the ocular surface helps the stability of the tear film? a. meibomian/tarsal glands b. cilliary bodies c. plica semilunaris d. trabecular meshwork

a. Meibomian/tarsal gland

Narrowing of the palpebral fissure due to the loss of sympathetic innervation of the Muller's Muscle, what is its clinical presentation? a. Exopthalmus b. Blepharoptosis c. Logopthalmus d. Chalazia

blepharoptosis

A 60/F presented with excessive tearing with spilling over on the right eye. What is the most likely pathology? A. blockage in the trabecular meshwork B. parasympathetic stimulation of the lacrimal gland C. unrecalled D. obstruction of the nasolacrimal duct

D. obstruction of nasolacrimal duct

What important structure is an extension of the periorbita along the orbital rims, and serves to separate the orbit from the eyelid? A. Ora serrata B. Ciliary bodies C. Orbital septum D. Lacrimal glands (Choices modified)

orbital septum

Which of the following statements is completely true about the uvea? A. It is composed of choroid, ciliary body, iris, limbus B. It is supplied by central retinal artery C. It supplies the outer RPE and photoreceptor layers of the retina. D. It is the main blood supply of the avascular lens

C. It supplies the outer RPE and photoreceptor layers of the retina

True of the iris? A. In Dim light, sympathetic system causes mydriasis B. In Dim light, parasympathetic system causes miosis C. Anterior iris and pupillary border is continuous with non reflective retina D. Iris is reflective etc

A. In Dim light, sympathetic system causes mydriasis

true of the retina: A. foveola is the physiologic blind spot B. orrata serrata anterior termination of the retina C. unrecalled D. optic disk is the highest visual acuity

Ora serata is the anterior termination of visual retina

Which muscle primarily acts to elevate the eyelid? A. Levator Palpebrae superioris B. Superior rectus C. Orbicularis oculi D. Lateral rectus

Levator palpebrae superiosis

Which of the following structures forms the medial border of the external ear? A. Helix B. Auricle C. Tragus D. Tympanic membrane

Tympanic membrane

This nerve innervates the external ear that is responsible for the cough reflex during ear cleaning a. Trigeminal nerve b. Chorda tympani c. Arnold's nerve d. Jacobsen's nerve

Arnold's nerve

A 6-year old male with an untreated external ear infection developed a parotid inflammation. What structure or pathway is responsible for this extension of the problem? A. Pinna B. Pharyngotympanic tube C. Fissure of Santorini D. Tympanic membrane

C. Fissure of Santorini [Anatomy Trans 3.3- Nose and Ear; p 4]

14 yo girl with tonsillitis, sore throat, and ear pain. what structure is affected a. Facial Nerve b. vagus nerve c. Glossopharyngeal Nerve d. Trigeminal Nerve

c. Glossopharyngeal Nerve

Ossicle directly attached to tympanic membrane a. umbo b. malleus c. incus d. staped

Malleus

"Which of the following statement is correct regarding the external auditory canal? a. The external ear consists of a cartilaginous outer one-third and bony inner two-third portions b. The external ear consists of a cartilaginous outer two-thirds and bony inner two-thirds portions c. The external ear consists of a cartilaginous outer one-fourth and bony inner three-fourth portions d. The external ear consists of a cartilaginous outer three-fourth and bony inner one-fourth portions"

a. the external ear consists of a cartilaginous outer one-third and bony inner two-third portions

40. what does the stapes attach to? A. Cochlea B. Tympanic Membane C. Oval Window D. Round Window

oval window

Innervation of Stapedius A. Trigeminal Nerve (CN V) B. Facial Nerve (CN VII) C. Glossopharyngeal Nerve (CN IX) D. Vagus Nerve (CN X)

Facial Nerve (CN VII)

Which is not part of the middle ear? a. malleus b. mastoid c. cochlea d. pharyngotympanic tube

cochlea

Where is the cochlear nerve located inside the internal acoustic meatus? A. super-anterior B. infero-anterior C. supero-posterior D. infero-posterior

infero anterior

Location of the facial nerve in the internal acoustic meatus A. Supero Anterior Quadrant B. Infero Anterior Quadrant C. Supero Posterior Quadrant D. Infero Posterior Quadrant

supero anterior quadrant

Which of the following is not part of the vestibular apparatus? A. Superior semicircular canal B. Inferior semicircular canal C. Posterior semicircular canal D. Lateral semicircular canal

B. Inferior semicircular canal

Which portion of the eardrum does not move during vibration? A. Pars tensa B. Pars flaccida C. Cone of light D. Umbo

A. Pars flaccida

What is the dilated end of each semicircular canal? A. ampulla B. saccule C. utricle D. cochlear promontory

A. ampulla

Which of the following structures connects middle ear to nose? A. Malleus B. Eustachian tube C. Tympanic membrane D. Incus

Eustachian tube

Which of the following innervates the tensor tympani? a. trigeminal nerve b. facial nerve c. glossopharyngeal nerve d. vagus nerve

trigeminal nerve

The middle part of the tympanic membrane is called? A. Umbo B. Pars Flaccida C. Pars Tensa D. Annulus Fibrosus

A. Umbo

In surface anatomy, this structure connects the nasal tip to the subnasale A. radix B. rhinion C. columella D. nasal septum

C. Columella (Trans ANA3_3-Nose-Ears, p.1-2)

Apex of the nose? A. Rhinion B. Radix C. Nasal tip D. Columella

C. Nasal tip

What is the nerve supply of the tensor tympani muscle? A. Trigeminal nerve B. Facial Nerve C. Glossopharyngeal nerve D. Vagus nerve

A. Trigeminal nerve

6 year old patient, which sinus cannot be seen in water’s view? A. Maxillary B. Frontal C. Ethmoid D. Sphenoid

Frontal

Where is the location of the olfactory epithelium for the sense of smell? A. Inferior Turbinate B. Nasal Floor C. Superior Part of the Nasal Septum D. Vomer

C. Superior Part of the Nasal Septum

Cribriform plate is part of what bone in the internal nose? A. Frontal B. Ethmoid C. Maxilla D. Sphenoid

B. Ethmoid

Blood supply of the external nose a. angular artery b. splenopalatine artery c. greater palatine aw

Angular artery

The inferior-posterior portion of the nasal cavity is innervated by this nerve. A. Ophthalmic branch of the Trigeminal nerve B. Maxillary branch of the Trigeminal nerve C. Mandibular branch of the Trigeminal nerve D. Facial nerve

B. Maxillary branch trigeminal

Dentitions close to the maxillary sinus a. central and lateral incisors b. canines c. 1st and 2nd premolars d. 1st and 2nd molars

1st and 2nd molars

Which of the following structures is found and sitting superior to the sphenoidal sinus? A. Internal Carotid Artery B. Optic Nerve C. Pituitary Gland D. Cribriform Plate

Pituitary gland

This structure separates the anterior ethmoid from the posterior ethmoid cells A. Superior turbinate B. Middle turbinate C. Inferior turbinate D. Highest turbinate

Middle turbinate Moore's pp. 968

Which of the ff does not drain into middle meatus? a. Frontal sinus b. Ethmoid sinus c. Maxillary Sinus d. Sphenoid Spinus

Sphenoid Sinus

Largest sinus a. facial sinus b. ethmoid sinus c. maxillary sinus d. sphenoid sinus

Maxillary sinus

64. An internal nose artery that originates from ICA intercranially? A. Sphenopalatine artery B. Greater palatine artery C. Superior labial artery D. Ethmoidal artery

Ethmoidal artery

What is drained by the inferior meatus? A. nasolacrimal duct B. anterior ethmoid sinus C. posterior ethmoid sinus D. sphenoid sinus

Nasolacrimal duct

Major supply for internal nose A. Sphenopalatine Artery B. Angular Artery C. Greater palatine Artery D. Superior Labial Artery

Sphenopalatine artery

What supplies the infraorbital nerve A. Opthalmic Nerve B. Maxillary Nerve C. Mandibular Nerve D. Facial nerve

Maxillary nerve

The foramen cecum in adults is a remnant of which embryological structure? A) Thyroid gland B) Rathke's pouch C) Primitive pharynx D) Ductus arteriosus

Thyroid gland

69. The pharynx is continuous with the esophagus at what level A. I forgot B. 1st thoracic ver C. 4th cervical ver D. 6th cervical ver

D. 6th cervical vertebrae

Which of the follow statements of the submandibular gland is true? A. partically located below the mandible B. located entirely in the neck C. located behind the tongue D. located below the external acoustic meatus

A. partically located below the mandible

What salivary gland is located below the external acoustic meatus? A. Submandibular gland B. Sublingual gland C. Parotid gland D. All of the above

C. Parotid gland

Which of the following statements is correct about the dentin of the tooth? a. it is the hardest substance of the body b. coarsely fibrillated bone that provides site of attachment of the tooth c. makes up bulk of the tooth, composed of 80% inorganic matter d. composed of fibers that radiate in different directions

bulk of the tooth, 80% inorganic matter

The blood supply to the parotid gland is primarily from the: a. internal carotid artery b. external carotid artery c. facial artery d. sublingual artery

External carotid artery

What characterizes the mucosa of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue? a. smoothness b. thick layer of keratin c. absence of taste buds d. presence of numerous papillae

Numerous papillae

The human jaw can exert a bite force as much as: A. 55 lbs B. 145 lbs C. 200 lbs D. 560 lbs

200 pounds

At what location does the duct of the parotid gland enter the oral cavity? a. at the floor of the mouth b. opposite the second upper molar tooth c. anterior region at the gingivae frenulum d. pierces the buccinator at lower incisors

b. opposite the 2nd upper molar Moore's p.915 ➡️

Patient present with unilateral cleft palate, at what age should be the intervention for the child to live as normal as possible? a. 24 hours after delivery b. 6 years old c. 4-5 years old d. 1-2 years old

1-2 years old

Why would a patient with Frey's Syndrome present with sweating around the parotid area? A. Nerves that recover go outside to the superficial skin stimulating the sweat glands B. something affects the hypothalamus that stimulate sweating C. D.

A. Nerves that recover go outside to the superficial skin stimulating the sweat glands

What is the clinical significance of Piriform fossa? A. B. C. It is common site of foreign bodies D.

Common site for foreign bodies

Which papillae is least developed in humans? A. Foliate B. Fungiform C. Filiform D. Vallate

A. Foliate

Pierces and holds onto food A. Incisor B. Canine C. Molar D. Premolar

Canine

Where does whartons duct originate? a. parotid b. sublingual c. cowpers d. submandibular

d. submandibular

What part of the oral cavity arises from the ectoderm? A. Epithelium of hard palate B. Floor of the mouth C.Lingual tonsil D. Soft palate

Epithelium of the hard palate

The lymphoid tissue that surrounds the openings of the respiratory and digestive systems forms a ring known as: A. Peyer’s patches B. Waldeyer’s ring C. Hassall’s corpuscles D. BALT

Waldeyer's Ring

What mineral is essential in production of thyroid hormone? a. Potassium b. Calcium c. Iodine d. Iron

Iodine

What is the function of thyroid-stimulating hormone? A. To inhibit hormone production of thyroid B. Regulate calcium levels C. Stimulate thyroid gland to thyroid hormone D. To stimulate the parathyroid gland

C. Stimulate thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormone (Calcium homeostasis is primarily regulated by parathyroid hormone and calcitonin. The thyroid gland produces calcitonin via parafollicular (C cells), but this is not related to TSH function.) Image from Moore's 2018, Viscera of the Neck. p. 1029

Goiter is commonly associated with an imbalance of: a. Calcium b. Iodine c. magnesium d. sodium

B. Iodine

Where the parathyroid gland is located a. liver b. adrenal cortex c. within pancreas d. behind thyroid

Behind the thyroid gland

What is the role of PTH? a. stops bone resorption b. decreases bone resorption c. increases bone resorption

c. Increase bone resorption

90. what gland increases calcium levels in the blood? A. Parotid B. Thyroid C. Adrenal Gland D. Parathyroid

D. Parathyroid

Function of parathyroid hormone A. Increase blood calcium levels B. Decreases blood calcium levels

Increases blood calcium levels

What hormone works in opposition to the parathyroid hormone? A. Aldosterone B. Cortisol C. Insulin D. Calcitonin

Calcitonin

What is the largest salivary gland? A. sublingual gland B. submandibular gland C. parotid gland D. minor salivary glands

Parotid gland

What is the major secretion of Parotid Gland? A, Serous B. Mucous C. Mixed; Majorly Mucous D. Mixed; Majorly Serous

A, Serous

What is the primary function of saliva? A. Digestion of proteins B. Lubrication and enzymatic breakdown of carbohydrates C. Bone formation D. Hormone regulation

B. Lubrication and enzymatic breakdown of carbohydrates

Which structure does the Wharton’s duct primarily drain? A. Parotid gland B. Sublingual gland C. Submandibular gland

Submandibular Gland

What is the primary enzyme of the saliva that begins the digestion of starches? a. lipase b. amylase c. pepsin d. lactase

b. amylase

Which cells of the salivary glands secrete mucous? a. acinar cells b. myoepithelial cells c. serous cells d. mucous cells

Mucous Cells

What salivary gland produces & secretes watery, enzyme-rich saliva? A. Parotid Gland B. Submandibular Gland C. Sublingual Gland D. AOTA

Parotid Gland

The submandibular gland primarily secretes into? A. To the oral cavity B. To the esophagus C. To the stomach D. To the nasal cavity

A. To the oral cavity

1. The pterion is formed by the union if the cranial bones including A. Body of sphenoid B. Occipital bone C. Squamous part of temporal bone D. Ethmoid bone

2. The cavernous sinuses are hollow spaces located under the brain, behind each eye socket. A thrombosis in this part can carry the clot to the brain via the? A. Petrosal veins B. Axillary veins C. Optic veins D. Ophthalmic veins

3. The following forms the borders of the medial cranial fossa, except? A. anterior: lesser wing of the sphenoid anteriorly B. posterior: superior borders of the petrous parts of the temporal bones C. lateral: squamous parts of the temporal bones D. medial: ethmoid bone

4. Which of the following is true about the maxillary nerve? A. It is the largest division of the trigeminal nerve. B. It branches off as the infraorbital and zygomatic nerve. C. It is a branch of the facial nerve. D. It passes through the superior orbital fissure.

5. Which of the following forms the anterior border of the posterior cranial fossa? A. Squamous part of temporal bone B. Petrous part of temporal bone C. Frontal bone D. Lesser wing of sphenoid bone

6. What structure passes through the jugular foramen? A. Maxillary Nerve B. Mandibular Nerve C. Glossopharyngeal Nerve D. Facial Nerve

7. What is the posterior boundary of the posterior triangle of the neck? A. Trapezius Muscle B. Sternocleidomastoid Muscle C. Levator Scapulae D. Splenius Capitis

8. What blood vessel is associated with the pterion? A. Middle Meningeal Artery B. Emissary Veins C. Superficial Temporal Artery D. Dural Veins

9. What is true of the orbital walls? A. Roof: frontal & greater wing of sphenoid B. Medial: lacrimal, greater wing of sphenoid, ethmoid, maxilla C. Floor: maxilla, palatine, & zygomatic D. Lateral: body of sphenoid, & zygomatic

10. Which passes through the superior orbital fissure outside the Annulus of Zinn? A. Optic nerve B. Trochlear nerve C. Oculomotor nerve D. Abducens nerve

11. Which of the following is true of extraocular muscle innervation? A. Lateral rectus is innervated by CN IV B. Superior oblique is innervated by CN VI C. Levator Palpebrae Superioris, Superior rectus is innervated by the superior branch of CN III D. Lateral Rectus, Inferior Oblique and Inferior Rectus is innervated by the inferior branch of CN III

12. Which of the following contributes 20D to the refractive element of the eye? A. Lens B. Vitreous body C. Aqueous humor D. Air-tear film interface of the cornea

13. Patient previously had a corneal repair due to penetrating injury with 3 mm pus settling in the anterior chamber. A. Hyphema B. Hypopyon C. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion D. Hyperopia

14. A 70/M presented with blurring of vision with the absence of pain. Retinal occlusion was noted upon further examination. Which of the following most likely explains the case? A. Problem is in the light photoreceptor B. Cherry red spot in the macula C. Flamed retina D. Multiple retinal hemorrhage

15. Which of the following is true about the orbit? A. Lateral walls are situated 90 degree angles from each other B. The bones the make up the orbit includes maxillary, lacrimal, ethmoid, and mandible C. Medial walls are parallel, separated by the frontal sinuses resulting in a roughly 45 degree orbital axis D. The base is directed posteriorly

16. Which condition, characterized by narrowing of the palpebral fissure, results from loss of sympathetic innervation in the Muller muscle or a pathology in the superior division of CN III? A. Exophthalmos B. Blepharoptosis C. Lagophthalmos D. Ptosis

17. A 60/F came in with epiphors in her left eye. What is the most likely pathology of this condition? A. Obstruction of the trabecular meshwork B. Parasympathetic stimulation of the lacrimal gland C. Inflammation of the conjunctiva D. Obstruction of nasolacrimal duct

18. A 14 year old female complained of tonsillitis but aside from sore throat, she also complained of severe ear pain. Which anatomical structure involved most likely caused this symptom? A. Facial nerve B. Vagus nerve C. Glossopharyngeal nerve D. Trigeminal nerve

19. Which of the following statements is correct? A. the external ear consists of a cartilaginous outer one-third and bony inner two-third portions B. the external ear consists of a cartilaginous outer two-thirds and bony inner two-third portions C. the external ear consists of a cartilaginous outer one-fourth and bony inner three-fourth portions D. the external ear consists of a cartilaginous outer three-fourth and bony inner one-fourth portions

20. Where does the stapes attached? A. Tympanic Membrane B. Eustachian tube C. Round window D. Oval window

21. What is the innervation of the stapedius muscle? A. Facial nerve B. Trigeminal Nerve C. Optic nerve D. Vestibulocochlear nerve

22. Where is the cochlear nerve located in the internal acoustic meatus? A. Superior-anterior quadrant B. Inferior-posterior quadrant C. Superior-posterior quadrant D. Inferior-anterior quadrant

23. They are known as chief extensors of the cell. A. Erector spinae B. Transversospinales C. Suboccipital muscles D. Deep muscles

24. What is the innervation of tensor tympani? A. Facial nerve B. Trigeminal nerve C. Vagus nerve D. Glossopharyngeal nerve

25. Middle part of the tympanic membrane is called? A. Umbo B. Pars Flaccida C. Pars Tensa D. Annulus

26. In surface anatomy, the structure connects the nasal tip to the subnasale. A. Rhinion B. Columella C. Radix D. Nasal Septum

27. A 6 year old had taken a Water’s view X-ray of her nose. Which if the following is not found in the image? A. Maxillary Sinus B. Frontal Sinus C. Sphenoid Sinus D. Ethmoid Sinus

28. The cribriform plate is part of which bone of the skull? A. Frontal Bone B. Sphenoid Bone C. Ethmoid Bone D. Occipital Bone

29. What structure sits on the roof of the sphenoid sinus? A. Cribriform plate B. Pituitary gland C. Pineal gland D. Lamina papyracea

30. Which of the following does not drain to the middle meatus? A. Maxillary Sinus B. Ethmoid sinus C. Frontal Sinues D. Sphenoid sinus

32. Which of the following drains into the inferior meatus? A. Sphenoid B. Anterior ethmoid C. Posterior ethmoid D. Nasolacrimal duct

33. What divides the anterior ethmoid sinus and the posterior ethmoid sinus? A. Superior turbinate B. Middle turbinate C. Inferior turbinate D. Lateral turbinate

34. Which of the four intrinsic muscles of the tongue alters the shape of the tongue mass, being entirely confined to the tongue without an extra glossal attachment and functions to flatten and broaden the tongue? A. Genioglossus B. Palatoglossus C. Longitudinal Muscle D. Vertical Muscles

35. This muscle is responsible for the lateral flexion of the atlanto-occipital joint A. Rectus capitis posterior major B. Rectus capitis posterior minor C. Obliquus capitis inferior D. Obliquus capitis superior E. Semispinalis capitis

36. The Stensen’s duct, where the saliva coming from the parotid gland exits, is usually found opposite or adjacent to the __________. A. Upper 1st molar B. Upper 2nd molar C. Lower 1st molar D. Lower 2nd molar

37. Which of the following is not innervated by the hypoglossal nerve? A. Hyoglossus B. Palatoglossus C. Styloglossus D. Genioglossus

38. The main function of this Extrinsic Tongue muscle is for tongue protrusion. a. Hyoglossus b. Palatoglossus c. Styloglossus d. Genioglossus

39. How many milk teeth are there? A. 30 B. 32 C. 18 D. 20

40. After mastoidectomy the patient lost his senses of taste of his anterior 2/3rd of his tongue, what nerve was affected? A. Facial B. Trigeminal C. Vagus D. Hypoglossal

41. What structure marks the separation of the anterior and posterior tongue? A. Palatoglossus B. Epiglottis C. Circumvallate papillae D. Uvula

42. Which of the following muscles does not contribute to the elevation of the mandible? A. Temporalis B. Masseter C. Medial pterygoid D. Lateral pterygoid

43. The coccyx is fused into how many bones? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

44. During parotidectomy, a nerve traversing superficially the middle 3rd of SCM was injured, leaving the overlying skin affected post-op. Which nerve is affected? A. Auriculotemporal nerve B. Great auricular nerve C. Glossopharyngeal nerve D. Spinal accessory nerve

45. Which of the following is not embedded in the parotid gland? A. Parotid plexus of CN VII B. Parotid lymph node C. Retromandibular vein D. External carotid artery

46. Superior thyroid artery is the first branch of? A. External Carotid Artery B. Internal Carotid Artery C. Facial Artery D. Maxillary Artery

47. The thyroid isthmus is located overlying the trachea at what level? A. 1st and 2nd tracheal rings B. 2nd and 3rd tracheal rings C. 3rd and 4th tracheal rings D. 4th and 5th tracheal rings

48. The middle scalene muscle is inserted distally to which of the following structure? A. Clavicle B. 1st rib C. 2nd rib D. 4th rib

49. Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding the parathyroid gland? A. Most people have four parathyroid glands. A. Inferior parathyroid glands are more constant in position B. The inferior parathyroid glands are usually near the inferior poles of the thyroid gland C. In 1–5% of people, an inferior parathyroid gland is deep in the superior mediastinum

50. What is the main hormone secreted by the parathyroid gland? A. Thyroid hormone B. Parathormone C. Calcitonin D. ADH

51. It is the fibrous extension or the prolongation of pia mater that serves to anchor it to the coccyx. A. Filum Terminale B. Conus Medullaris C. Cauda equina D. Sacrococcygeal junction

52. Which of the following is a fracture in the C1 vertebrae? A. Hangman B. Jefferson C. Clay Shoveller D. Bateson

53. Spinal hemisection injury which results to ipsilateral loss of touch, contralateral loss of pain and temperature, and body weakness A. Anterior Cord Syndrome B. Brown-Sequard Syndrome C. Tabes Dorsalis D. Central Cord Syndrome

54. What is the name of the condition where there is a fracture of the C1 vertebra? A) Jefferson’s Fracture B) Hangman’s Fracture C) Whiplash D) Clay Shoveler’s Fracture

55. Most common location of herniation of nucleus pulposus A. C5-C6 B. L4-L5 C. T11-T12 D. Sacrum and coccyx B. L4-L5

56. Responsible for the hematogenous spread of lung, breast and prostate cancer to the vertebrae and brain. A. Artery of Adamkiewicz B. Basivertebral vein C. Batson’s plexus D. Lumbosacral plexus

57. In doing lumbar tap in an adult patient, the needle is inserted between the spinous processes of _ A. L1 and L2 B. S1 and S2 C. L4 and L5 D. S4 and S5

58. The main site of CSF production. A. Arachnoid villi B. Choroid plexus C. Cerebral Aqueduct D. Foramen of magendie

59. Space between the periosteum lining bony wall of the vertebral canal and the dura mater A. Subdural space B. Arachnoid space C. Extradural space D. Leptomeningeal

60.This is the abnormal lateral deviation of the vertebra A. Kyphosis B. Lordosis C. Scoliosis D. None of the above

61. Which type of pelvis has a wider AP diameter than its transverse diameter? A. Android B. Anthropoid C. Gynecoid D. Platypoid

62. This is a projection of the C2 that allows C1 to rotate. A. Foramen Transversus B. Laminae C. Dens D. Cervical Prominens

63. When performing a lumbar puncture, what is the structure that is pierced by the needle after the interspinous ligament? A. Posterior Longitudinal Ligament B. Supraspinous ligament C. Ligamentum flavum D. Dura mater

64. Lateral bending of the neck is caused by unilateral contraction of this muscle: A. Longus coli B. Splenius cervicis C. Semispinalis cervicis D. Semispinalis capitis

65. Which muscle is located in the most lateral column of the erector spinae? A. Semispinalis capitis B. Splenius cervicis C. Longissimus D. Iliocostalis

66. This intrinsic muscle in the back has fibers that run obliquely superomedially covering the entire spinous process of the vertebra A. Spinales B. Semispinales C. Multifidus D. Iliocostalis

67. The base of the auscultatory triangle of the back is formed by which of the following structures/muscles? A. Serratus posterior superior B. Subscapularis C. Trapezius D. Latissimus dorsi

68. What muscle of the back aids during respiration by elevating the ribs during inspiration? A. Multifidus B. Rotatores C. Levator costarum D. Intertransversarii

69. Which of the following is the anterior boundary of the petit’s triangle? A. Posterior border of the external oblique muscles B. Thoracolumbar fascia C. Inferior border of the scapula D. Latissimus dorsi

70. Which deep back muscle group spans only one vertebral segment and is located between adjacent spinous processes? A) Rotatores B) Interspinales C) Multifidus D) Semispinalis

71. The rotatores muscle is best developed in what region? A. Lumbar B. Thoracic C. Sacral D. Coccygeal

72. What is the inferior border of the auscultatory triangle? A. Trapezius B. Latissimus Dorsi C. Levator Scapulae D. Inferior Angle of Scapulae

73. What back muscle is innervated by the spinal accessory nerve? a. Trapezius b. Latissimus dorsi c. Iliocostalis d. Multifidus

74. This group of muscles belongs to the Erector Spinae group of the muscles of the back, except? A. Splenius B. Iliocostalis C. Longissimus D. Semispinales

75. What muscle of the back aids during respiration by elevating the ribs during inspiration? A. Multifidus B. Rotatores C. Levator costarum D. Intertransversarii

76. In the Petit’s triangle, what structure forms the inferior border? A. Trapezius B. Latissimus dorsi C. Posterior border of external abdominal oblique m. D. Iliac crest

77. What suboccipital muscle does not attach to the occipital bone? A. Obliquus capitis superior B. Obliquus capitis inferior C. Rectus capitis posterior major D. Rectus capitis posterior minor

79. This muscle comprises the superolateral boundary of the suboccipital triangle A. Rectus capitis posterior major B. Rectus capitis posterior minor C. Obliquus capitis inferior D. Obliquus capitis superior

80. What muscle is the inferolateral border of the suboccipital triangle? A. Rectus capitis posterior major B. Rectus capitis posterior minor C. Obliquus capitis superior D. Obliquus capitis inferior E. Semispinalis capitis

81. Which of the following is the roof of the suboccipital triangle? A. Semispinalis capitis B. Vertebral artery C. Rectus capitis posterior superior D. Obliquus capitis

82. The sensory innervation of the upper lip A. CN V3 B. CN V1 C. CN VII D. CN V2

83. Causes lateral flexion of the neck, except: A. sternocleidomastoid B. obliquus capitis superior C. rectus capitis lateralis D. rectus capitis anterior E. splenius capitis

84. All of these permits cervical intervertebral rotation except: a. Rotatores b. Semispinalis capitis c. Splenius capitis d. Longissimus capitis e. Splenius cervicis

85. Suboccipital muscle that can extend, rotate and laterally flex the neck A. Rectus capitis posterior major B. Rectus capitis posterior minor C. Obliquus capitis inferior D. Obliquus capitis superior E. Semispinalis capitis

86. What structures passes both through the greater and lesser sciatic notch? A. Nerve to obturator internus B. Pudendal nerve C. Posterior thigh nerve D. Sciatic nerve

87. This muscle originates from the transverse process of vertebra C1 and inserts to the occipital bone between superior and inferior nuchal lines A. Rectus Capitis Posterior Major B. Rectus Capitis Posterior Minor C. Obliquus Capitis Superior D. Obliquus Capitis Inferior E. Semispinalis Capitis

88. Which of the following limits extension of the atlatooccipital joints? A. Rectus capitis superior and inferior B. Obliquus capitis superior C. Suprahyoid and infrahyoid muscles D. Splenius capitis E. Longissimus muscle

89. An obstetric resident is preparing to do a nerve block to anesthetize the perineum during delivery (pudendal block). What structure does the resident need to palpate to perform this procedure? A. Ala of the sacrum B. Ischial spine C. Sacrotuberous ligament D. Ischial tuberosity

90. The masseteric artery is at what level of the maxillary artery? A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth

91. Which type of pelvis has a greater transverse diameter than the AP diameter? A. Gynecoid B. Platypelloid C. Anthropoid D. Android

92. What structure passes through both the greater and lesser sciatic foramen? A. Sciatic nerve B. Posterior femoral cutaneous nerve C. Pudendal nerve D. Nerve to the obturator E. Anterior femoral cutaneous nerve

93. A 70 year old man had an incapability of penile erection after rectal surgery with prostatectomy. What nerve most likely has a lesion? A. Pelvic splanchnic nerve B. Sacral splanchnic nerve C. Dorsal nerve of penis D. Hypogastric nerve

94. What muscle separates the greater sciatic foramen into superior and inferior segments? A. Quadratus femoris B. Obturator internus C. Gluteus maximus D. Gluteus minimus E. Piriformis

95. Which of the following is the anterior border of the pelvic inlet? A. Superior Ramus of Ischium B. Pubic Symphysis C. Tip of coccyx D. Sacral Promontory E. Iliopectineal line

96. Which of these describes the gynecoid pelvis? A. Tall and Slim B. Narrow outlet C. Wide and Broad D. Funnel-shaped

97. Which type of pelvis has a wider AP diameter than its transverse diameter? A. Android B. Anthropoid C. Gynecoid D. Platypoid

98. A radiologist interprets a lymphangiogram for a 29-year-old patient with metastatic carcinoma. Upper lumbar nodes most likely receive lymph from which of the following structures? A. Lower part of the anal canal B. Labia majus C. Clitoris D. Testis E. Scrotum

99. Posterior border of pelvic outlet A. Ischial spine B. Sacral Promontory C. Sacroiliac joint D. Tip of coccyx

100. This structure can be observed on the pelvic surface A. Intermediate sacral crest B. Sacral promontory C. Transverse ridge D. Ischial tuberosity

The terminal portion of the spinal cord A. Conus medullaris B. Ligamentum denticulatum C. Cauda equina D. Filum terminale

A. Conus Medullaris

Which of the following does not form during the fetal period? A. Thoracic curve B. Cervical curve C. Sacral curve D. Thoracic and sacral curve

B. Cervical curve

Fibrous extension of the pia mater that anchors spinal cord to coccyx a. Cauda equina b. Conus medullaris c. Ligamentum denticulatum d. Filum terminale

D. Filum terminale

The only veretebral ligament that limits extension a. Supraspinous Ligament b. Ligamentum Flavum c. Anterior Longitudinal Ligament d. Posterior Longitudinal Ligament

Anterior Longitudinal Ligament

In adults, the spinal cord usually ends inferiorly at this level A. Lower Border of S2 B. Upper Border of S1 C. Lower Border of S4 D. Lower Border of L1

D. Lower Border of L1

This part of the spinal cord is responsible for proprioception and vibratory sense A. Nucleus gracilis B. Nucleus cuneatus C. Dorsal/Posterior column D. Spinothalamic tract

C. Dorsal/Posterior column

Which of the ff is characterized by loss of proprioception and vibration and contralateral loss of pain and temperature? A. Central Cord Syndrome B. Posterior Cord Syndrome C. Tabes Dorsalis D. Brown-Sequard Syndrome

Brown-Sequard Syndrome

Which of the following refers to Cervical 1 fracture? A. Hangman's Fracture B. Jefferson's Fracture C. Clay Shoveler's Fracture D. Bennett's Fracture

B. Jefferson's Fracture

Site for common herniation of IV disc a. C6-C7 b. T11-T12 c. L1-L2 d. L4-L5

What is Responsible for the hematogenous metastatic spread of prostate, breast Cancer? A. Posterior spinal artery B. Artery of Adamkiewics C. Batson's plexus D. Forgot

C. Batson's PLexus

To perform a lumbar puncture (spinal tap) in an adult, the needle is introduced between the spinous processes of these vertebrae A. L4-L5 B. L2-L3 C. S1-S2 D. T12-L1

A. L4-L5 Moore's Ch. 2 pp. 138

Cauda equina has ff structures: a. Spinal nerve s1-3 b. Anterior rami spinal nerves L1-L3 c. Posterior rami spinal nerves L1 to coccygeal 1 d. Anterior and posterior roots below L1 spinal segment (taas ni nga choice)

d. Anterior and posterior roots below L1 spinal segment

Which of the ff characteristics is not in the lumbar vertebra A. Transverse pocess does not have foramina B. Transverse process is short and thick C. Massive kidney shaped body D. Spine is short flat and quadrangular E. Superior articular process faces medially

B. Transverse process is short and thick

14. These following statements are true regarding internal venous plexus except? A. It drains blood from vertebral bodies B. It permits metastatic cells from prostate to metastasize to skull C. It does not possess competent valves D. Its venous flow is indirectly affected by intra abdominal pressure E. It does not have communication in the veins within the thorax

Which of the following cervical vertebrae does not transmit vertebral arteries through the transverse foramen? A. Atlas B. Axis C. C6 D. C7

Lateral deviation of spine A. Scoliosis B. Lordosis C. Kyphosis D. Fracture

A. Scoliosis

What is false regarding intervertberal disc herniation? A. herniates posteriorly B. corresponds to the number of the lumbar level below it C. it is thinner anteriorly D. it occurs due to compression of the posterior region

C. it is thinner anteriorly

Which of thhe following is NOT true about the LUMBAR VERTEBRAE? A. heart shaped vertebral body B. Long and slender transverse process C. Short and sturdy, hatchet shaped spinous process D. Triangular shaped vertebral foramen

A. heart shaped vertebral body

The IV discs are found all throughout the spine except A. L4-L5 B. T6-T7 C. C1-C2 D. L5-S1

C. C1-C2

The anatomical landmark formed by the line connecting the two posterior superior iliac spines and the superior border of the intergluteal (natal) cleft between the buttocks. It is the common site of pain from lower back sprains? a. post median furrow b. sacral ala c. sacral triangle d. sacral promontory

c. sacral triangle

It is primarily responsible for the hematogenous spread of prostate, lung, and breast cancer to the vertebrae? A. Internal Venous Plexus B. External Venous Plexus C. Basivertebral Vein D. All of the above

D. All of the above

The joint between the superior and inferior articular processes of the vertebrae which is most susceptible to injury: a. Zygapophyseal joint b. Pars interarticularis c. Annulus fibrosus d. Unconvertebral joint of Luschka

b. Pars interarticularis

The projection of the second cervical vertebra that allows the rotation of the first cervical vertebra (atlas) is called the: a. foramen transversarium b. lamina c. cervical prominence d. odontoid process (dens)

d. odontoid process (dens)

Which of the following is incorrect? a. a typical vertebrae consists of body, arch, and seven processes b. the body of the vertebrae increases inferiorly c. marked at T8 inferiorly, vertebra becomes larger in order to bear greater body weight d. Vertebral body is more massive and roughly cylindrical in the anterior part to give strength to the vertebral column and support the body weight

c. marked at T8 inferiorly, vertebra becomes larger in order to bear greater body weight

Which of the following is NOT a typical cervical vertebra? A. C3 B. C5 C. C7 D. C8

C. C7

Normal enlargements of the spinal cord: A. Thoracic B. Lumbar C. Cervical & Lumbar D. Thoracic & Lumbar

C. Cervical & Lumbar

Fracture common in atheletes involved in sports requiring repeated spinal hyperextension A. spondylolysis B. Spondylolisthesis B. Vertebral Osteoporosis C. Ankylos spondylitis

A. spondylolysis

Yes joint: A. atlanto-axial joint B. atlanto-ocipital joint C. zygapophyseal joint D. joint of Luschka

B. atlanto-occipital joint

All of the following are characteristics of a lumbar vertebra, except? A. Triangular vertebral foramen B. Short, bifid spinous process C. Long slender transverse process D. Superior facets directed medially

B. Short, bifid spinous process

This ligament limits flexion and directs disc herniation posterolateral A. Supraspinous ligament B. Ligamentum flavum C. Anterior longitudinal ligament D. Posterior longitudinal ligament

D. Posterior longitudinal ligament

unrecalled, but question was from QUIZ

C. trapezius and latissimus dorsi

Which of the following produces lateral flexion of the neck? A. Bilateral contraction of Iliocostalis cervicis B. Bilateral contraction of intertransversarii C. Unilateral contraction of Splenius cervicis D. Unilateral contraction of Semispinalis cervicis

C. Unilateral contraction of Splenius cervicis

Lateral most column of erector spinae muscles A. Iliocostalis B. Spinalis C. Longissimus D. Semispinais

A. Iliocostalis

This intrinsic muscle of the back has fibers that run obliquely superiomedially that covers the entire lenght of the spinous process of the vertebra a. Spinalis b. Semispinales c. Multifidus d. Iliocostalis

C. Multifidus

What is a superficial extrinsic muscle of the back? A. Levator scapulae B. Serratus posterior superior C. Splenius capitis D. Longus colli

A. Levator scapulae

This muscle originates from the lower part of the nuchal ligamentum and upper four thoracic spine and inserts into the upper cervical vertebrae A. Splenius capitis B. Splenius cervicis C. Serratus posterior superior D. Semispinalis capitis

B. Splenius cervicis

What back muscle is innervated by the anterior rami? a. multifudus b. levator scapulae c. splenius capitis d. iliocostalis

b. levator scapulae

What muscle is innervated by the intercostal nerves? a. Semispinalis b.Spinalis c. Serratus posterior d. Interspinales

c. Serratus posterior

40. Which muscle extends inferolaterally from a transverse process to C7 and T1–T11 to the rib between Tubercle and Angle A. Levator Costarum Muscle B. Semispinalis Capitis C. Splenius Capitis D. Intertransversarii Muscle

A. Levator Costarum

Which of the groups of muscles serve as chief extensors of the vertebral column (sorry guys wa nako naapil og memorize ang choices huhu paexcuse lang unta ko ani kay kalimot kog assign para kay novelle :'> -ally)

A. Erector spinae muscles

What is the collective term given to a group of muscles that are attached to the transverse and spinous processes of the vertebra of the neck and head? A. Transversospinales muscles B. Erector spinales muscles C. Deep muscles of the back D. Thoracolumbar fascsia

A. Transversospinales muscles

Which of these structures does the splenius capitis muscle insert into? A. Spinous process of upper cervical vertebra B. Transverse process of upper cervical vertebra C. Mastoid process D. Styloid Process

C. Mastoid process

Which intrinsic muscle of the back attaches from the superior part of the spinous process of one vertebra to the inferior part of the spinous process of the next vertebra A. Rotatores B. Intespinalis C. Intertransversarii D. Levator coastarum

B. Intespinalis

What muscle is the most superficial layer of the transversospinalis group arising from the transverse processes of the cervical and thoracic vertebrae attaching to the spinous process of the more superior vertebrae? A. Multifidus muscle B. Iliocostalis muscle C. Semispinalis muscle D. Rotatores muscle

C. Semispinalis muscle

Which deep back muscle group spans only one vertebral segment and is located between adjacent spinous processes? A. Rotatores B. Interspinales C. Multifidus D. Semispinalis

B. Interspinales

Which of this following is innervated by spinal accessory nerve? A. Latissimus dorsi B. trapezius C. Levator scapulae D. Rhomboids

B. Trapezius

Which of the following does not belong to the Erector Spinae group of the muscles of the back? A. Spinalis B. Longissimus C. Iliocostalis D. Splenius

D. Splenius

49. Muscle of back that elevates the ribs - A.Levator costarum B.Erector spinae C. Spinalis D. Longissimus,

A.Levator costarum✅

What is the lateral border of Petit's Triangle A. Iliac Crest B. Latissimus Dorsi C. Free end of External Oblique D. Trapezius

C. Free End of External Oblique

The only capitis muscle without an attachment to the cranium A. Rectus capitis posterior major B. Rectus capitis posterior minor C. Obliquus capitis inferior D. Obliquus capitis superior E. Semispinalis capitis

C. Obliquus capitis inferior

A. Rectus capitis posterior major

This muscle is responsible for the lateral flexion of the atlanto-occipital joint A. Rectus capitis posterior major B. Rectus capitis posterior minor C. Obliquus capitis inferior D. Obliquus capitis superior E. Semispinalis capitis

D. Obliquus capitis superior

This forms the roof of the suboccipital triangle A. Rectus capitis posterior major B. Rectus capitis posterior minor C. Obliquus capitis inferior D. Obliquus capitis superior E. Semispinalis capitis

Semispinalis capitis

This muscle is responsible for lateral flexion of the atlanto-occipital joint A. Rectus Capitis Posterior Major Muscle B. Rectus Capitis Posterior Minor Muscle C. Obliquus Capitis Inferior Muscle D. Obliquus Capitis Superior Muscle E. Semispinalis Capitis Muscle

D. Obliquus Capitis Superior Muscle

This nerve travels from the posterior rami of C2 and supplies the neck and the head A. Suboccipital B. Greater occipital C. Lesser occipital D. Lesser suboccipital E. Posterior rami

B. Greater occipital

Runs between the cranium and c1 to reach the suboccipital triangle [same choices but not the exact order] A. Lesser suboccipital B. Greater occipital C. Lesser occipital D. Spinal nerve C3 to C7 E. Suboccipital nerve

Suboccipital nerve

Originates from the posterior spinal rami of C1, to supply the suboccipital muscles A. Lesser suboccipital B. Greater occipital C. Lesser occipital D. Spinal nerve C3 to C7 E. Suboccipital nerve

E. Suboccipital nerve

Produces lateral flexion of the neck except: a. Sternocleidomastoid b. Obliquus capitis superior c. Rectus capitis lateralis d. Rectus capitis anterior e. Splenius capitis

What muscle attaches to the transverse process of the first cervical vertebra and the occiput? A. Rectus Capitis Posterior Major B. Rectus Capitis Posterior Minor C. Obliquus Capitis Superior D. Obliquus Capitis Inferior D. Semispinalis muscle

C. Obliquus Capitis Superior

The following muscles produce rotation of the cervical intervertebral joints, except: A. Rotatores B. Semispinalis capitis C. Semispinali cervicis D. Splenius cervicis E. Longisimuss capitis

E. Longisimuss capitis Moore's Ch. 2 pp. 122

Patient cannot flex his neck. These structures are likely affected except: A. Longus colli B. Scalenus C. Splenius capitis D. SCM

Splenius capitis

This suboccipital muscles rotates and flexes the head laterally A. Rectus Capitis Posterior Major B. Rectus Capitis Posterior Minor C. Obliquus Capitis Superior D. Obliquus Capitis Inferior

C. Obliquus Capitis Superior

This suboccipital muscles flexes and extends the head laterally A. Rectus Capitis Posterior Major B. Rectus Capitis Posterior Minor C. Obliquus Capitis Superior D. Obliquus Capitis Inferior

B. Rectus Capitis Posterior Minor

A suboccipital muscle that originates at the posterior arch of the posterior tubercle of vertebra C2 and inserts at the transverse process of vertebra C1. a. Rectus capitis posterior major b. Rectus capitis posterior minor c. Obliquus capitis inferior d. Obliquus capitis superior

c. Obliquus capitis inferior

66. Suboccipital muscle originates in transverse process of c1 A. Obliquus Capitis Superior B. Rectus Capitis Posterior Major C. Obliquus Capitis Inferior D. Rectus Capitis Posterior Minor

Obliquus Capitis Superior✅

What is false regarding the suboccipital nerve? A. it is sensory and motor B. originates posterior ramifications c1 C. courses with the vertebral artery D. innervates suboccipital muscle

A. it is sensory and motor

The following causes Extension of atlanto-occipital joint EXCEPT: A. Splenius capitis B. Rectus capitis posterior C. Suprahyoid and Infrahyoid D. Trapezius

C. Suprahyoid and Infrahyoid muscles

A 20 yr old was stabbed in the suboccipital region, injuring the suboccipital nerve between the vertebral artery and posterior arch of atlas. Which of the ff is least likely affected? A. Rectus capitis posterior major B. Obliquus capitis C. Semispinalis capitis D. Splenius capitis

D. Splenius

The following muscles permit the rotation of the patient's head to the left by contaction, except: a. left obliquus capitis inferior b. left longgisimus capitis c. right sternocleidomastoid d. left semispinalis capitis e. left splenius capitis

d. left semispinalis capitis

The obturator foramen is bounded by which of the following structures? A. Sacrum and ilium B. Pubis and ischium C. Ilium and pubis D. Sacrum and pubis

B. Pubis and Ischium

The true pelvis or also known as the lesser pelvis is located a. Above the pelvic brim b. Anterior to false pelvis c. Below the pelvic brim d. Lateral to false pelvis

c. Below the pelvic brim

A fracture at one site of the true pelvis is usually: a. unstable and displaced b. stable and non-displaced c. comminuted d. results in an open fracture

b. stable and non-displaced

An athele riding a parachute heavily lands on the greater trochanter of his femur. Which of the following pelvic structures is most likely to become injured? a. ischial spine b. sacrum c. pubic symphysis d. acetabulum

d. acetabulum

Avulsion of the ASIS is caused by the contraction of: A. Rectus femoris B. Sartorius C. Hamstrings D. Gluteus Maximus

B. Sartorius

Which of the following is a potential complication of pelvic fructure? A. injury to the kidney B. intussusception C. internal iliac injury D. appendix rupture

C. Internal Iliac Injury

The male urethra is often damaged during: A. Vertical shear stress B. Stable fracture C. Avulsed fracture D. Comminuted fracture

A. Vertical shear stress

The abdominal cavity is continuous with the pelvic cavity through: A. Pelvic inlet B. Pelvic outlet C. Obturator canal D. Greater Sciatic foramen

A. Pelvic inlet

Which of the ff is the inferior limitation of the pelvis? A. Pubic symphisis B. Piriformis C. Pelvic diaphragm D. Pelvic brim

C. Pelvic Diaphragm

The sacral plexus lies in the posterior pelvic wall and is in front of A. Obturator internus B. Piriformis C. Iliacus D. Psoas major

B. Piriformis

unrecalled, but question was from QUIZ

The superior hypogastric plexus is located in front of: a. sacral hiatus b. sacrum c. coocyx d. sacral promontory

d. sacral promontory

The external iliac artery become the femoral artery after it crosses which structure? A. Pubic tubercle B. Pelvic girdle C. Sacroiliac joint D. Inguinal ligament

D. Inguinal ligament

Forgot

Superior rectal artery is a branch of: a. Common iliac artery b. Internal iliac artery c. External iliac artery d. Inferior mesenteric artery

d. inferior mesenteric artery

The sacral plexus is comprised of which anterior ramus of nerves? A. L3, L4, L5, S1-S3 B. L4, L5, S1-S5 C. L4, L5, S1-S4 D. L3, L4, L5, S1-S4

C. L4, L5, S1-S4

87. Which of the following statements about the testicular artery is true? A. It enters the inguinal canal but does not enter the pelvic cavity. B. It arises from the abdominal aorta at the level of the 5th lumbar vertebra. C. It is a branch of the internal iliac artery. D. The right testicular vein drains into the inferior vena cava, while the left drains into the left renal vein.

D. The right testicular vein drains into the inferior vena cava, while the left drains into the left renal vein.

What artery arises from the superior vesical artery? a. obturator artery b. umbilical artery c. inferior vesical artery d. inferior pudendal artery

b. umbilical artery

Superior rectal artery is a continuation of what artery? a. middle mesenteric artery b. superior mesenteric artery c. external iliac artery d. inferior mesenteric artery

d. inferior mesenteric artery

90. Where did the Ovarian Artery originate From? A. Common Iliac Artery B. Femoral Artery C. Abdominal Aorta D. External Iliac Artery

C. Abdominal Aorta

A narrower anterior and posterior diameter results in the heart-shaped inlet of what pelvis? A. Android B. Gynecoid C. Anthropoid D. Platypelloid

A. Android

What muscle fixes the 12th rib during inspiration? A. Quadratus lumborum B. Psoas muscle C. Iliacus D. Pyriformis

A. Quadratus lumborum

What is the largest nerve in the body? A. Femoral nerve B. Spinal accessory nerve C. Obturator nerve D. Sciatic nerve

D. Sciatic nerve

Which of the following muscle is innervated by the inferioir gluteal nerve A. Gluteus Minimus B. Gluteus maximus C. Gluteus medius D. Tensor fasciae latae

B. Gluteus maximus

What is being affected by the local anesthesia during paracervical block? A. Hypogastric nerves B. Parasympathetic nerve plexus C. Frankenhauser plexus D. Hesselbach plexus

C. Frankenhauser plexus

An obstetric resident is preparing lidocaine to do a nerve block to anesthetize the perineum during delivery. What nerve is affected? A. Sciatic nerve B. Femoral nerve C. Hypogastric nerve D. Pudendal nerve

D. Pudendal nerve

Paracervical block is a regional anesthesia technique to provide labor pain relief. If it is based on a clock, what positions should be avoided? A. 3 and 9 o’clock B. 6 and 12 o’clock C. 2 and 10 o’clock D. 4 and 8 o’clock

A. 3 and 9 o’clock

Pain in the pelvic wall reach the central nervous system via: A. Phrenic nerve B. Intercostal nerve C. Phrenic nerve D. Obturator nerve

D. Obturator nerve

This can cause colic pain A. skin laceration B. intestinal obstruction C. muscle strain D. bone fracture

B. intestinal obstruction

When performing hysterectomy (surgical removal of uterus), care must be done when ligating the uterine arteries because? A. Hemorrhage may occur if the uterine artery ruptures B. Loss of blood supply to the other pelvic organs C. Ureters run underneath the uterine artery D. Pudendal nerve may be injured causing loss of innervation to the ovaries

C. Ureters run underneath the uterine artery

1. Which of the following branches of the external carotid artery gives off transverse facial artery? A. Maxillary artery B. Superficial temporal artery C. Facial artery D. Ascending pharyngeal artery

2. Which branch of the external carotid artery, aside from the superficial temporal artery, exhibits a palpable pulse? A. Maxillary artery B. Occipital artery C. Lingual artery D. Facial artery

3. Which of the following bones make up the pterion? A. Temporal B. Body of ethmoid C. Occipital D. Body of sphenoid

4. Which of the following is a tributary of the facial vein? A. Transverse facial vein B. Infraorbital vein C. Superficial temporal vein D. Anterior jugular vein

5. This structure in the scalp contains emissary veins that are responsible for transmitting infection to the brain. A. Skin B. Connective tissue C. Aponeurosis D. Loose areolar tissue E. Pericranium

6. Which of the following forms the anterior border of the posterior cranial fossa? A. Squamous part of the Temporal Bone B. Petrous Part of the Temporal Bone C. Frontal Bone D. Lesser Wing of the Sphenoid Bone

7. Lymph from the tongue, floor of mouth, and central lower lip drains to what level of lymph nodes? A. Level IA B. Level IB C. Level IXA D. Level XB

8. Correct about CN V1. A. It passes through the superior orbital fissure. B. The nasociliary nerve innervates the eyeball and nose. C. It forms the geniculate ganglion. D. It gives off the infraorbital and zygomatic branches as it enters the face.

9. The cribriform plate, which is a thin bone at the skull base is also part of the internal bone of the nose is part of?

ETHMOID BONE

10. Which of the following is true about facial nerve? A. It is the sensory innervation of facial muscles. B. It is divided into three divisions. C. It has no sensory component. D. It is the motor innervation of facial muscles.

11. What structure passes through the jugular foramen? A. Maxillary Nerve B. Mandibular Nerve C. Glossopharyngeal Nerve D. Facial Nerve

12. The posterior triangle of the neck is bounded posteriorly by which of the following structures? A. Clavicle B. Trapezius muscle C. Sternocleidomastoid muscle D. Mastoid bone

13. Which structures are related to the Pterion? A. Middle Meningeal Artery B. Emissary Veins C. Superficial Temporal Artery D. Dural Veins

14. Which of the following facial muscles act together with the tongue to keep the food along the occlusal surfaces of the teeth thereby preventing the accumulation in the oral vestibule? A. Orbicularis oris and buccinator B. Buccinator and zygomaticus major C. Orbicularis oris and zygomaticus minor D. None of the above

15. Which of the following does not drain to the middle meatus? A. Maxillary sinus B. Sphenoid C. Ethmoid D. frontal

16. What triangle is the brachial plexus located? A. Carotid Triangle B. Cervical Triangle C. Submental Triangle D. Occipital Triangle

17. Which Of the following is true of the orbital walls? A. roof: frontal & greater wing of sphenoid B. lateral: zygomatic & body of sphenoid C. floor: maxilla, palatine, zygomatic D. medial: lacrimal, lesser wing of sphenoid, ethmoid, maxilla

18. Which of the following structures pass through the superior orbital fissure? A. Oculomotor nerve, optic nerve, sympathetic nerve of carotid plexus B. Lacrimal, frontal, trochlear nerve C. Ophthalmic artery, nasociliary nerve, sympathetic nerve of carotid plexus, abducens nerve D. Zygomatic and infraorbital nerve

19. Which of the following is true of extraocular innervation? A. Lateral rectus is innervated by CN IV B. Superior oblique is innervated by CN VI C. Levator Palpebrae Superioris, Superior rectus is innervated by the superior branch of CN III D. Lateral Rectus, Inferior Oblique and Inferior Rectus is innervated by the inferior branch of CN III

20. Which of the following contributes to the 20D of the refractive index of the eye? A. Lens B. Tear-film C. Cornea D. Iris

21. Eyelid transection at the medial canthus affects? A. Canaliculi B. Lacrimal gland ductule C. Orbital septum D. Palpebral duct

22. Patient previously had a corneal repair due to penetrating injury with 3 mm pus settling in the anterior chamber. A. Hyphema B. Hypopyon C. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion D. Hyperopia

23. Patient exhibits diplopia and limited upgaze excursion. Which of the following may provide an explanation for this clinical presentation? A. Entrapment of inferior orbital muscles B. Oculomotor nerve palsy C. Superior rectus muscle hypertrophy D. Trochlear nerve injury

24. A 70/M presented with blurring of vision with the absence of pain. Retinal occlusion was noted upon further examination. Which of the following most likely explains the case? A. Problem is in the light photoreceptor B. Cherry red spot in the macula C. Flamed retina D. Multiple retinal hemorrhage

26. Responsible for stability of tear film? A. Tarsal gland B. Cornea C. Iris D. Ciliary Process

27. Patient complains of blurring of the eye and upon examination there was drooping of the right eye. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Exophthalmos B. Blepharoptosis C. Chalazion D. Eyelid retraction *choices are modified

28. A 60/F came in with epiphora in her left eye. What is the most likely pathology in this condition? A. Inflammation of the conjunctiva B. Increased pressure within the eye leading to optic nerve damage C. Detachment of retina from its original position D. Obstruction of nasolacrimal duct *choices are modified

29. Which of the following is true about the uvea? A. consists of iris, retina, and choroid B. uveal vessels directly perfuse the ciliary body and iris to support their metabolic needs C. when the ciliary muscle relaxes during accommodation, the lens thickens, shortening its focal length D. the most posterior portion of the uvea is the iris *choices are modified

30. Which of the following statements are true about the eye? A. In dim light, the parasympathetic reflex is activated resulting in mydriasis B. In dim light, the sympathetic reflex is activated resulting in mydriasis C. In bright light, the sympathetic reflex is activated resulting in mydriasis D. In bright light, the parasympathetic reflex is activated resulting in mydriasis

31. Which of the following statements is true of the retina? A. The optic disc is an area of most acute vision B. The foveola is the physiologic blind spot C. The opthalmic artery is a branch of the external carotid artery and supplies the inner layer of the retina D. The ora serrata is the anterior termination of the retina

32. A 5/M was rushed to the ER for blunt trauma (baseball to the left eye). On examination, you noted periorbital ____, limited upgaze, diplopia, hypoglobus, and enophthalmos _____. On imaging, you noted a tear drop sign on the inferior orbital wall. What could you do in this situation? A. Repair is not needed since ossification is not complete at this age B. There is entrapment of the inferior oblique and inferior rectus C. Repair is a must to avoid muscle ischemia and oculocardiac reflex D. Repair must be avoided since at this age ossification is not complete and there is risk of midfacial deformation when the bones are touched at this age

33. Which of the following is the main blood supply of the external nose? A. Angular artery B. Sphenopalatine artery C. Greater palatine artery D. Lateral nasal artery

34. Which of the following is the Medial Border of the External Ear? A. Promontory B. Auricle C. Tegmentum D. Tympanic Membrane

35. What nerve innervates the external auditory canal that causes a cough reflex during ear cleaning? A. Trigeminal nerve B. Chorda tympani C. Arnold's nerve D. Jacobson's nerve

36. A 5-year-old came in with ear infection and an inflamed parotid gland. What structure is responsible for the spread of infection? A. Foramen of Huschke B. Fissures of Santorini C. External acoustic meatus D. Tympanic membrane

37. A 14-year old is experiencing sore throat and probably tonsillitis. However, he also experiences ear pain. What structure is involved in this situation? A. Vagus Nerve B. Facial Nerve C. Glossopharyngeal Nerve D. Trigeminal Nerve

38. The ossicle that is directly attached to the Tympanic Membrane A. Malleus B. Incus C. Stapes D. All of the above

39. Which of the following statements is correct? A. the external ear consists of a cartilaginous outer one-third and bony inner two-third portions B. the external ear consists of a cartilaginous outer two-thirds and bony inner two-third portions C. the external ear consists of a cartilaginous outer one-fourth and bony inner three-fourth portions D. the external ear consists of a cartilaginous outer three-fourth and bony inner one-fourth portions

40.The stapes is attached to the A. Tympanic Membrane B. Eustachian tube C. Round window D. Oval window

41. What is the innervation of the stapedius muscle? A. CN V B. CN VII C. CN IX D. CN X

42. Which of the following is not part of the middle ear? A. Malleus B. Mastoid C. Pharyngotympanic tube D. Cochlea

43. Which of the following connects the middle ear to the promontory? A. Tympanic Membrane B. Middle Turbinate C. Pharyngotympanic Tube D. Cochlea *choices are modified

44. Where is the facial nerve located in the internal acoustic meatus? A. Superior anterior quadrant B. Inferior anterior quadrant C. Superior posterior quadrant D. Inferior posterior quadrant

45. Which of the following is not part of the vestibular apparatus? A. Superior Semicircular Canal B. Inferior Semicircular Canal C. Posterior Semicircular Canal D. Lateral Semicircular Canal

46. Which portion of the eardrum does not move during vibration? A. Pars tensa B. Cone of light C. Umbo D. Pars flaccida

47. This is described as the dilated end of each semicircular canal. A. Ampulla B. Saccule C. Utricle D. Promontory

48. Which of the following is the Medial Border of the External Ear? A. Promontory B. Auricle C. Tegmentum D. Tympanic Membrane

49. Which cranial nerve provides innervation to the tensor veli palatini muscle? A. Facial nerve B. Trigeminal nerve C. Vagus nerve D. Hypoglossal nerve

50.What do you call the central part of the tympanic membrane? A. Umbo B. Pars Tensa C. Pars Flaccida D. Promontory

51. This extends from the radix or root to the apex or nasal tip. A. Columella B. Dorsum C. Nares D. Rhinion

52. This portion is lined by the olfactory epithelium. A. Superior turbinate B. Middle turbinate C. Inferior turbinate D. Nasal vestibule

53. A 6 year-old boy was playing football.The ball hit his nose causing injury to the anterior nasal septum resulting in bleeding (nose bleed). Which of the following is most likely involved? A. Angular Artery B. Kiesselbach area C. Dorsal Nasal Artery D. Lateral Nasal Artery

54. What connects the nasal tip to the nasal base and separates the nares? A. Rhinion B. Columella C. Nose Ridge D. Apex of Nose

55. Where is the olfactory epithelium situated in the nasal cavity? A. nasal vestibule B. superior nasal turbinate C. vomer D. middle nasal turbinate

56. The muscle that facilitates opening of the mouth.

LATERAL PTERYGOID

57. What is main blood supply of the external nose? A. Angular artery B. Sphenopalatine artery C. Great palatine artery D. Lateral nasal artery

58. What innervates the posterior-inferior part of the nasal cavity? A. Opthalmic branch of trigeminal nerve B. Maxillary branch of trigeminal nerve C. Mandibular branch of trigeminal nerve D. Facial nerve

59. These dentitions are closely related to the maxillary sinuses and may cause a spread of odontogenic (dental) diseases. A. Central and lateral incisors B. Canines C. 1st and 2nd Premolars D. 1st and 2nd Molars

60. Which structures are found on the roof of the Sphenoid Sinus? A. Internal Carotid Artery B. Optic Nerve C. Pituitary Gland D. Lamina Papyracea

61. What separates the anterior and posterior ethmoidal cells? A. Superior turbinate B. Middle turbinate C. Inferior turbinate D. All of these

62.patient with bell’s palsy, inability to deepen nasolabial sulcus affects which muscle? A. Risorius B. Zygomaticus minor C. Levator labii superioris D. Depressor labii inferioris

63. Largest paranasal sinus A. Frontal B. Ethmoidal C. Maxillary D. Sphenoid

64. Which artery supplies the internal nasal cavity that branches from the internal carotid artery and originates intracranially (from the brain)? A. sphenopalatine artery B. ethmoidal artery C. greater palatine artery D. superior labial artery

65. Which of the following paranasal sinuses become detectable at age 7? A. Frontal B. Ethmoid C. Maxillary D. Sphenoid

66. The main blood supply of the internal nose is the: A. Sphenopalatine artery B. Greater Palatine artery C. Ethmoidal artery D. Superior Labial Artery

67. Which of the following gives off infaorbital nerve? A. Maxillary nerve B. Mandibular nerve C. Ophthalmic nerve D. Facial nerve

68. This particular anatomical structure separates the anterior ethmoid from the posterior ethmoid cells. A. Supreme turbinate B. Superior turbinate C. Middle turbinate D. Inferior turbinate

69. Which of the following is not found in the hard palate? A. Incisive foramen B. Lesser palatine foramen C. Palatine glands D. Greater palatine foramen

70.Which cranial nerve provides sensory innervation to the upper lip? A. Trigeminal nerve (CN V) B. Facial nerve (CN VII) C. Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) D. Vagus nerve (CN X)

71. The Stensen’s duct, where the saliva coming from the parotid gland exits, is usually found opposite or adjacent to the __________. A. Upper 1st molar B. Upper 2nd molar C. Lower 1st molar D. Lower 2nd molar

73. The main function of this Extrinsic Tongue muscle is for tongue protrusion. A. Hyoglossus B. Palatoglossus C. Styloglossus D. Genioglossus

74. The innervation for the tensor veli palatini. A. Facial nerve B. Trigeminal nerve C. Glossopharyngeal nerve D. Hypoglossal nerve

75. Typically, how many deciduous or milk teeth are there? A. 10 B. 20 C. 28 D. 32

76. What is the blood supply of the upper lip? A. Lingual artery B. Facial artery C. Maxillary artery D. Ascending pharyngeal artery

77. Which of the following is NOT PART of the Oral Cavity? A. Gingiva B. Retromolar Trigone C. Hard Palate D. Posterior 1⁄3 of the Tongue

78. A 4-year-old patient was unable to curl his tongue with maximum effort. Which of the following extrinsic muscles is damaged or is underdeveloped? A. Styloglossus B. Palatoglossus C. Hyoglossus D. Genioglossus

79. A 40 yr old patient with ear infection underwent mastoidectomy. After waking up and eating his first meal, he noticed a change in his taste. What nerve is likely injured? A. Trigeminal nerve B. Facial nerve C. Glossopharyngeal nerve D. Vagus nerve

80. A 4-year-old was unable to curl his tongue on maximum effort. Which of the following extrinsic tongue muscles is not working well or undeveloped? A. Hyoglossus B. Palatoglossus C. Styloglossus D. Genioglossus

81. What muscle tenses the soft palate? A. Tensor Vali Palatini B. Pars Flaccida C. Levator veli palatini D. Tensor Tympani

82. Which muscle is not involved in the elevation of the mandible? A. Temporalis B. Masseter C. Lateral pterygoid D. Medial pterygoid

83. The following muscles depress the mandible except? A. Stylohyoid B. Masseter C. Digastric D. Mylohyoid

84. What is the muscle that the majority lies on the cheek? A. Zygomaticus major B. Buccinator C. Masseter D. Pterygoids

85. Which of the following muscles does not contribute to the elevation of the mandible? A. Temporalis B. Masseter C. Medial Pterygoid D. Lateral Pterygoid

86. What part of the maxillary artery is the masseteric artery? A. First part B. Second part C. Third part D. Fourth part

87. The TMJ is most commonly displaced where? A. posteriorly B. laterally C. medially D. anteriorly

88. Which of the following is correct about the infratemporal fossa? A. Has association with the temporal fossa near the zygomatic arch and maxilla B. Lateral border is the lateral pterygoid C. Has maxillary nerve D. Has tempomandibular joint

89. During parotidectomy, a nerve traversing superficially the middle 3rd of SCM was injured, leaving the overlying skin affected post-op. Which nerve is affected? A. Auriculotemporal nerve B. Great auricular nerve C. Glossopharyngeal nerve D. Spinal accessory nerve

90. A lesion in the superior laryngeal nerve causing changes in the voice, causes weakness of which of the following muscles? A. Inferior Pharyngeal Constrictor B. Middle Pharyngeal Constrictor C. Thyroarytenoid D. Thyrohyoid

91. Which of the following is true with regards to the parotid gland? A. The parotid gland is bounded by the ramus of the mandible medially B. Most of the tumors of the parotid gland are benign C. The facial nerve is sandwiched between the posterior lobe of the parotid gland and the deep lobe D. The parotid region is the anterolateral part of the facial region

92. What is not included in the parotid region? A. Parotid duct and cyst B. CN VII C. Retromandibular vein D. Internal carotid artery

93. Superior thyroid artery is the first branch of? A. External carotid artery B. Vertebral artery C. ... D. ....

94. Enlargement of the thyroid gland

GOITER

95. The isthmus of the thyroid gland overlies the trachea at what level? A. 1st and 2nd tracheal rings B. 2nd and 3rd tracheal rings C. 3rd and 4th tracheal rings D. 4th and 5th trachea rings

96. Which of the following is true regarding the recurrent laryngeal nerves? A. Right recurrent laryngeal nerve is related with inferior thyroid vein B. Left recurrent laryngeal nerve. is related to the superior pole of thyroid C. Bilateral damage to RLN causes hoarseness D. Ligation of inferior thyroid artery near the gland avoids damage to RLN *choices are modified

97. Post thyroidectomy, the patient develops tetany. What might have occurred during the surgery? A. Injury to recurrent laryngeal nerve B. Total removal of thyroid glands C. Removal of the superior thyroid glands (?) D. Injury to the phrenic nerve

98. Parathyroid glands drain lymph to the A. Prelaryngeal lymph nodes B. Middle ... C. Deep Cervical Lymph nodes

99. False about parathyroid glands A. B. Inferior parathyroid glands are more constant in position C. In 1-5% people, an inferior parathyroid gland is deep in the mandibular region

100. Main hormone produced by the parathyroid glands A. Calcitriol B. Parathormone C. Parafollicular hormone D. Calcitonin