3.3 Flashcards

Exam 3 Long's prework 3

1
Q

HHV stands for?

A

Human Herpesviruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What mechanisms does HHV use?

A

Replication cycle and viral shedding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What HHVs have latency in sensory ganglia?

A

HSV-1, HSV-2, and VZV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What HHV have latency in T-cells?

A

CMV and HHV-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What HHV have latency in B-Cells

A

EBV and HHV-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

HSV -1 signs

A

Cold Sores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How long does someone have HSV -1 and when will signs show up?

A

You have HSV-1 for LIFE and the cold sores will reoccur throughout the persons life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How is HSV -1 transmitted

A

saliva and direct contact with the cold sores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the symptoms of HSV-2

A

genital herpes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pathogenesis: HSV

A
  • host cell’s RNA polymerase transcribes the HSV DNA into mRNA
  • host cell translates portions of mRNA to produce:
  • DNA polymerase: helps further replicate the HSV genome
  • thymidine kinase: phosphorylates thymidine for viral DNA replication
  • anti-herpes drugs such as acyclovir and penciclovir are phosphorylated by this enzyme and
    subsequently antagonize replication of HSV DNA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is gingivostomatitis?

A

infection of the mouth and gums

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is herpes labialis?

A

fever blisters/cold sores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is neonatal HSV?

A
  • acquired during passage through birth canal
  • HSV-2 infections more common
  • CNS (encephalitis) herpes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is keratitis?

A

Corneal ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is herpetic whitlow?

A

painful infection of the hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is HHV -3 and how do you get it.

A
  • Varicella Zoster Virus (VZV/Shingles)
  • You have Chicken Pox first and the later in life develop shingles.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Transmission of VZV

A

primary infections spread by respiratory route with latency established in ganglia neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Pathogenesis of VZV

A
  • pustules then dry up and itchy scab/lesions
  • he varicella virus can also migrate to sensory ganglia where may not be cleared by the immune system;
    inside the ganglion, the virus becomes dormant (latent) and can be reactivated as zoster virus later in life
  • reactivation occurs when the virus travels from sensory ganglia to the peripheral
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Epidemiology of VZV

A

reactivation of herpes zoster virus most
often occur in elderly >60 and persons that have T-cell immunodefiencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Manifestations of VZV

A
  • complication of zoster is risk of post-herpetic neuralgia (PHN) which can cause chronic pain
    (stabbing) at the infection site
  • ophthalmic zoster can also result in corneal ulceration
  • recurrent/chronic VZV is prevalent in persons with low CD4+ counts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is another name and explain HHV -4?

A
  • Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)
  • primary infection is most often asymptomatic and occurs in childhood
  • classical infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever)
  • has also been associated with neoplastic diseases in immunocompromised people
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Transmission of EBV

A

mostly spread by asymptomatic salivary shedding; close oral contact (kissing disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Pathogenesis of EBV

A

Results in the classical triad of signs of mononucleosis: splenomegaly (large spleen), exudative
pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy (swollen glands)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is another name and explain HHV -5?

A
  • Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
  • CMV establishes laten infection in T cells
  • CMV is a STD with semen containing the highest titer levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Epidemiology of CMV

A

Cause of congenital defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Transmission of CMV

A

Transplacental

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Manifestations of CMV

A
  • CMV retinitis is an inflammation of the retina that can lead to blindness
  • occurs predominantly in
    immunocompromised patients
  • in neonates, CMV can damage the CNS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is another name and explain HHV -8

A
  • Kaposi’s Sarcoma-associated Herpesvirus
  • Infects B cells
  • mostly in immunocompromised patients
  • Infected cells form benign tumors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

FDA approved uses for Acyclovir

A
  • HSV -1
  • HSV -2
  • Herpes Zoster
  • Varicella
30
Q

Others uses of Acyclovir

A

Good CSF penetration for viral meningitis

31
Q

FDA approved uses Penciclovir

A
  • HSV -2
  • Herpes Zoster
32
Q

Brand for Ganciclovir

A

Cytovene

33
Q

Ganciclovir is an analog for _______

A

Guanosine

34
Q

Prodrug of Ganciclovir

A

Valganciclovir

35
Q

Brand for Valganciclovir

A

Valcyte

36
Q

FDA approved uses for Ganciclovir

A

CMV

37
Q

MOA of Ganciclovir

A

viral thymidine kinase phosphorylates inhibits herpes DNA polymerase

38
Q

Black Box Warning for Ganciclovir

A

cytopenia

39
Q

Cidofovir is an analog for _____

A

cytidine

40
Q

FDA approved uses for cidofovir

A
  • CMV
  • acyclovir-resistant HSV
41
Q

MOA of cidofovir

A

inhibits herpes DNA polymerase

42
Q

Adverse reactions of cidofovir

A

dose-dependent nephrotoxicity

43
Q

Black box warning for Cidofovir

A

renal impairment

44
Q

FDA approved for Foscarnet

A
  • CMV
  • acyclovir-resistant HSV infections
45
Q

MOA of Foscarnet

A

inhibits herpes DNA polymerase

46
Q

Adverse Reactions of Foscarnet

A
  • nephrotoxicity
  • electrolyte imbalance (Ca+, Mg+, K+)
  • bone marrow suppression
47
Q

CNS Infections most commonly arise from ……

A

hematogenous spread from primary infection site

48
Q

What is encephalitis?

A

Inflammation of the brain

49
Q

What is a Brain Abscess?

A

Collection of pus in the brain

50
Q

What is Meningitis?

A

inflammation of the meninges

51
Q

The cortex and spinal cord are surrounded by the ______

A

Meninges

52
Q

When bacteria gain entry to the _____, the ______ are the first tissue to become inflamed

A

CSF and Meninges

53
Q

2 most common bacteria responsible for bacterial Meningitidis

A
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Neisseria meningitidis
54
Q

Most Common Bacteria for Neonates Meningitidis

A

Streptococcus agalactiae (Group B)

55
Q

Most Common Bacteria for Infant Meningitidis

A

S. pneumoniae

56
Q

Most Common Bacteria for Children-teens Meningitidis

A

N. meningitidis

57
Q

Most Common Bacteria for adults Meningitidis

A

S. pneumoniae

58
Q

T/F antimicrobials can more readily enter CSF when meninges are inflamed?

A

True

59
Q

Classical manifestations of Meningitidis

A

Fever, neck stiffness (nuchal rigidity),
headache, and altered mental status.

60
Q

S/S specific to N. meningitidis Menigitis

A

Severe rash and purpura/petechiae

61
Q

What is the Number 1 cause of Bacterial meningitidis?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

62
Q

T/F S. pneumoniae possess β-lactamase

A

False

63
Q

Meningococcal meningitis naturally inhabits what?

A

The nasopharynx

64
Q

What type of Meningococcal meningitis is associated with outbreaks in U.S. Colleges

A

Type C (Long didn’t go into detail about any of the types)

65
Q

Pathophysiology of Meningococcal meningitis

A
  • LPS induce inflammation that facilitates entry into the CNS
  • petechial eruption → purpura (hallmark sign)
  • Waterhouse-Frederichsen syndrome w/ hemorrhage
66
Q

Explain Haemophilus influenzae meningitis

A

encapsulated form (type Hib) of H. influenzae

67
Q

Pathophysiology of Haemophilus influenzae meningitis

A

Capsule helps penetrate nasopharynx epithelia and invade the blood

68
Q

Explain Encephalitis

A
  • inflammation of the brain parenchyma due to infection usually through hematogenous spread
  • viruses are the primary cause of encephalitis
69
Q

Etiologies: Encephalitis

A
  • HSV is the most common
  • HSV-2 is most common in neonates → acquired during delivery
  • viruses: VZV
70
Q

Treatments for Encephalitis caused by HSV

A

Acyclovir