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NAVY ADVANCEMENT SEP 2020 > 32 CHEATSHEET 307 > Flashcards

32 CHEATSHEET 307 Flashcards

1
Q

WHAT IS SSIC CODE 1000?

A

MILITARY PERSONNEL (1 OF 307)

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2
Q

WHAT IS SSIC CODE 2000?

A

TELECOM (2 OF 307)

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3
Q

WHAT IS SSIC CODE 3000?

A

OPERATIONS AND READINESS (3 OF 307)

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4
Q

WHAT IS SSIC CODE 4000?

A

LOGISTICS (4 OF 307)

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5
Q

WHAT IS SSIC CODE 5000?

A

ADMINISTRATION (5 OF 307)

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6
Q

WHAT IS SSIC CODE 6000?

A

MEDICAL/DENTAL (6 OF 307)

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7
Q

WHAT IS SSIC CODE 7000?

A

FINANCIAL (7 OF 307)

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8
Q

WHAT IS SSIC CODE 8000?

A

ORDNANCE (8 OF 307)

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9
Q

WHAT IS SSIC CODE 9000?

A

SHIP’S DESIGN (9 OF 307)

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10
Q

WHAT IS SSIC CODE 10000

A

GENERAL MATERIAL (10 OF 307)

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11
Q

WHAT IS SSIC 11000?

A

FACILITIES (11 OF 307)

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12
Q

WHAT IS SSIC CODE 12000?

A

CIVILIAN PERSONNEL (12 OF 307)

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13
Q

WHAT IS SSIC CODE 13000?

A

AERONAUTICAL (13 OF 307)

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14
Q

WHAT IS SSIC 16000?

A

COAST GUARD (14 OF 307)

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15
Q

AT WHAT TEMPERATURE DOES PSYCHROPHILLIC BACTERIA REPRODUCE?

A

REPRODUCES AT 15-20 DEGREES CELSIUS (15 OF 307)

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16
Q

AT WHAT TEMPERATURE DOES MESOPHILLIC BACTERIA REPRODUCE?

A

REPRODUCES AT 20-45 DEGREES CELSIUS (16 OF 307)

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17
Q

AT WHAT TEMPERATURE DOES THERMOPHILLIC BACTERIA REPRODUCE?

A

REPRODUCES AT 50-55 DEGREES CELSIUS (17 OF 307)

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18
Q

MICROAEROPHILLIC BACTERIA

A

LIVES IN REDUCED O2 (18 OF 307)

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19
Q

AUTOTROPHIC BACTERIA

A

SELF-NOURISHING (19 OF 307)

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20
Q

HETEROTROPHIC BACTERIA

A

NOT SELF-NOURISHING (20 OF 307)

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21
Q

OBLIGATED OXYGEN

A

FREE O2 (21 OF 307)

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22
Q

AEROBIC BACTERIA

A

GROWS IN O2 (22 OF 307)

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23
Q

ANAEROBIC BACTERIA

A

GROWS WITHOUT O2 (23 OF 307)

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24
Q

FACULTATIVE BACTERIA

A

WITH OR WITHOUT O2 (24 OF 307)

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25
Q

WHAT IS THE BACTERIAL SHAPE OF COCCUS (PLURAL: COCCI)?

A

SPHERICAL SHAPE(25 OF 307)

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26
Q

WHAT IS THE BACTERIAL SHAPE OF BACILLUS (PLURAL: BACILLI)?

A

ROD SHAPED (26 OF 307)

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27
Q

WHAT IS THE BACTERIAL SHAPE OF SPIRILLUM (NO PLURAL)?

A

SPIRAL/COMMA SHAPE (27 OF 307)

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28
Q

HOW MANY POSSIBLE BACTERIAL GROWTH REQUIREMENTS ARE THERE?

A

FOUR. (28 OF 307)

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29
Q

DO ALL BACTERIA NEED ALL THE BACTERIAL GROWTH REQUIREMENTS?

A

NO. (29 OF 307)

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30
Q

WHAT IS BACTERIAL GROWTH REQUIREMENT 1?

A

MOISTURE - NEEDED FOR ALL TYPES OF BACTERIA (30 OF 307)

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31
Q

WHAT IS BACTERIAL GROWTH REQUIREMENT 2?

A

OXYGEN - DEPENDS ON TYPE SOME NEED IT (AEROBIC), SOME NEED ITS ABSENCE (ANAEROBIC) (31 OF 307)

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32
Q

WHAT IS BACTERIAL GROWTH REQUIREMENT 3?

A

TEMPERATURE - DIFFERENT TEMPS PER TYPE OF BACTERIA (32 OF 307)

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33
Q

WHAT IS BACTERIAL GROWTH REQUIREMENT 4?

A

NUTRIENT - SOME PRODUCE THEIR OWN (AUTOROPHIC), SOME NEED TO GET IT FROM THE ENVIRONMENT (HETEROTROPHIC) (33 OF 307)

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34
Q

WHAT IS NAVMED P-117?

A

MANMED (34 OF 307)

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35
Q

WHAT IS NAVMED P-117 (MANMED) CHAPTER 1?

A

MEDICAL DEPT. (35 OF 307)

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36
Q

WHAT IS NAVMED P-117 (MANMED) CHAPTER 6?

A

DENTAL (36 OF 307)

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37
Q

WHAT IS NAVMED P-117 (MANMED) CHAPTER 9?

A

HOSPITAL CORPS (37 OF 307)

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38
Q

WHAT IS NAVMED P-117 (MANMED) CHAPTER 15?

A

PHYSICAL EXAMS (38 OF 307)

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39
Q

WHAT IS NAVMED P-117 (MANMED) CHAPTER 16?

A

HEALTH RECORDS (39 OF 307)

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40
Q

WHAT IS NAVMED P-117 (MANMED) CHAPTER 17?

A

DECEDENT AFFIARS (40 OF 307)

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41
Q

WHAT IS NAVMED P-117 (MANMED) CHAPTER 18?

A

MEDICAL DISPOSITION (41 OF 307)

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42
Q

WHAT IS NAVMED P-117 (MANMED) CHAPTER 19?

A

FMF (42 OF 307)

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43
Q

WHAT IS NAVMED P-117 (MANMED) CHAPTER 21?

A

PHARMACY (43 OF 307)

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44
Q

WHAT IS NAVMED P-117 (MANMED) CHAPTER 22?

A

PREVENTATIVE MEDICINE (44 OF 307)

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45
Q

WHAT IS NAVMED P-117 (MANMED) CHAPTER 23?

A

ADMINISTRATION (45 OF 307)

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46
Q

WHAT IS NAVMED P-5010?

A

PREV MED MANUAL (46 OF 307)

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47
Q

WHAT IS NAVMED P-5010 (PREV MED MANUAL) CHAPTER 1?

A

FOOD SANITATION (47 OF 307)

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48
Q

WHAT IS NAVMED P-5010 (PREV MED MANUAL) CHAPTER 2?

A

LIVING SPACES (48 OF 307)

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49
Q

WHAT IS NAVMED P-5010 (PREV MED MANUAL) CHAPTER 3?

A

VENTILATION (49 OF 307)

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50
Q

WHAT IS NAVMED P-5010 (PREV MED MANUAL) CHAPTER 4?

A

SWIMMING/BATHING (50 OF 307)

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51
Q

WHAT IS NAVMED P-5010 (PREV MED MANUAL) CHAPTER 5?

A

WATER ASHORE (51 OF 307)

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52
Q

WHAT IS NAVMED P-5010 (PREV MED MANUAL) CHAPTER 6?

A

WATER AFLOAT (52 OF 307)

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53
Q

WHAT IS NAVMED P-5010 (PREV MED MANUAL) CHAPTER 7?

A

WASTE WATER (53 OF 307)

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54
Q

WHAT IS NAVMED P-5010 (PREV MED MANUAL) CHAPTER 8?

A

ENTOMOLOGY (54 OF 307)

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55
Q

WHAT IS NAVMED P-5010 (PREV MED MANUAL) CHAPTER 9?

A

GROUND FORCES (55 OF 307)

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56
Q

WHAT PERCENTAGE OF THE BODY IS THE FACE ACCORDING TO THE RULE OF NINES?

A

4.5% (56 OF 307)

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57
Q

WHAT PERCENTAGE OF THE BODY IS THE FRONT OF THE TORSO ACCORDING TO THE RULE OF NINES?

A

18% (57 OF 307)

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58
Q

WHAT PERCENTAGE OF THE BODY IS THE FRONT OF LEFT ARM (PALM UP) ACCORDING TO THE RULE OF NINES?

A

4.5% (58 OF 307)

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59
Q

WHAT PERCENTAGE OF THE BODY IS THE FRONT OF THE RIGHT ARM ACCORDING TO THE RULE OF NINES?

A

4.5% (59 OF 307)

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60
Q

WHAT PERCENTAGE OF THE BODY IS THE CROTCH ACCORDING TO THE RULE OF NINES?

A

1% (60 OF 307)

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61
Q

WHAT PERCENTAGE OF THE BODY IS THE FRONT OF RIGHT LEG ACCORDING TO THE RULE OF NINES?

A

9% (61 OF 307)

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62
Q

WHAT PERCENTAGE OF THE BODY IS THE FRONT OF THE LEFT LEG ACCORDING TO THE RULE OF NINES?

A

9% (62 OF 307)

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63
Q

WHAT PERCENTAGE OF THE BODY IS THE BACK OF HEAD ACCORDING TO THE RULE OF NINES?

A

4.5% (63 OF 307)

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64
Q

WHAT PERCENTAGE OF THE BODY IS THE BACK OF TORSO ACCORDING TO THE RULE OF NINES?

A

18% (64 OF 307)

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65
Q

WHAT PERCENTAGE OF THE BODY IS THE BACK OF THE RIGHT LEG ACCORDING TO THE RULE OF NINES?

A

9% (65 OF 307)

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66
Q

WHAT PERCENTAGE OF THE BODY IS THE BACK OF LEFT LEG ACCORDING TO THE RULE OF NINES?

A

9% (66 OF 307)

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67
Q

WHAT IS THE MICROSCOPE POWER OF THE GREEN OBJECTIVE LENS?

A

100x (LOW POWER) (67 OF 307)

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68
Q

WHAT IS THE MICROSCOPE POWER OF THE YELLOW OBJECTIVE LENS?

A

450x (HIGH POWER) (68 OF 307)

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69
Q

WHAT IS THE MICROSCOPE POWER OF THE RED OBJECTIVE LENS?

A

1000x (OIL IMMERSION) (69 OF 307)

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70
Q

WHAT DO YOU USE TO REMOVE DUST FROM A MICROSCOPE LENS?

A

CAMEL HAIR BRUSH (70 OF 307)

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71
Q

WHAT DO YOU USE TO DISSOLVE OIL ON A MICROSCOPE LENS?

A

XYLENE (71 OF 307)

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72
Q

WHAT DO YOU NEVER USE TO CLEAN OIL OFF A MICROSCOPE LENS?

A

NEVER USE ALCOHOL (72 OF 307)

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73
Q

HOW MANY STEPS ARE THERE IN NBC DECONTAMINATION?

A

SIX (73 OF 307)

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74
Q

WHAT IS THE PRIORITY OF NBC DECONTAMINATION STEP 1?

A

CONTROL MASSIVE HEMORRHAGE (74 OF 307)

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75
Q

WHAT IS THE PRIORITY OF NBC DECONTAMINATION STEP 2?

A

1ST AID FOR SEVERE WOUND, SHOCK (75 OF 307)

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76
Q

WHAT IS THE PRIORITY OF NBC DECONTAMINATION STEP 3?

A

DECONTAMINATE SKIN & EYES (76 OF 307)

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77
Q

WHAT IS THE PRIORITY OF NBC DECONTAMINATION STEP 4?

A

REMOVAL OF CONTAMINATED CLOTHES (IF ENVIRONMENT ALLOWS (77 OF 307)

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78
Q

WHAT IS THE PRIORITY OF NBC DECONTAMINATION STEP 5?

A

ADJUSTMENT OF MASK (IF NECESSARY) (78 OF 307)

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79
Q

WHAT IS THE PRIORITY OF NBC DECONTAMINATION STEP 6?

A

1ST AID FOR LESS SEVERE WOUNDS (79 OF 307)

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80
Q

WHAT IS YOUNG’S RULE?

A

ADULT DOSE x (AGE/(AGE+12)) = CHILD’S DOSE (80 OF 307)

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81
Q

WHAT IS CLARK’S RULE?

A

ADULT DOSE x (WEIGHT/150) = CHILD’S DOSE (81 OF 307)

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82
Q

VITAMIN A

A

RETINOL (82 OF 307)

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83
Q

VITAMIN B1

A

THIAMINE (83 OF 307)

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84
Q

VITAMIN B2

A

RIBOFLAVIN (84 OF 307)

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85
Q

VITAMIN B6

A

PYRIDOXINE HCl (85 OF 307)

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86
Q

VITAMIN D

A

SUNSHINE (86 OF 307)

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87
Q

VITAMIN E

A

TOCOPHEROL (87 OF 307)

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88
Q

VITAMIN K

A

MENIDIONE (88 OF 307)

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89
Q

IS VITAMIN A FAT SOLUBLE?

A

YES (89 OF 307)

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90
Q

IS VITAMIN B1 FAT SOLUBLE?

A

NO (90 OF 307)

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91
Q

IS A VITAMIN B2 FAT SOLUBLE?

A

NO (91 OF 307)

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92
Q

IS VITAMIN B6 FAT SOLUBLE?

A

NO (92 OF 307)

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93
Q

IS VITAMIN B12 FAT SOLUBLE?

A

NO (93 OF 307)

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94
Q

IS VITAMIN C FAT SOLUBLE?

A

NO (94 OF 307)

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95
Q

IS VITAMIN D FAT SOLUBLE?

A

YES (95 OF 307)

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96
Q

IS VITAMIN E FAT SOLUBLE?

A

YES (96 OF 307)

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97
Q

IS VITAMIN K FAT SOLUBLE?

A

YES (97 OF 307)

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98
Q

VITAMIN A DEFICIENCY CAUSES WHAT?

A

VISION PROBLEMS @ NIGHT (98 OF 307)

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99
Q

VITAMIN B1 DEFICIENCY CAUSES WHAT?

A

BERIBERI (99 OF 307)

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100
Q

VITAMIN B2 DEFICIENCY CAUSES WHAT?

A

PELLAGRA (100 OF 307)

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101
Q

WHAT VITAMIN B6 DEFICIENCY CAUSES WHAT?

A

NEURITIS (101 OF 307)

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102
Q

VITAMIN B12 DEFICIENCY CAUSES WHAT?

A

PERNICIOUS ANEMIA (102 OF 307)

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103
Q

VITAMIN C DEFICIENCY CAUSES WHAT?

A

SCURVY (103 OF 307)

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104
Q

VITAMIN D DEFICIENCY CAUSES WHAT?

A

RICKETS (104 OF 307)

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105
Q

VITAMIN E DEFICIENCY CAUSE WHAT?

A

RENAL DISEASE (105 OF 307)

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106
Q

VITAMIN K DEFICIENCY CAUSES WHAT?

A

BLOOD CLOTTING (106 OF 307)

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107
Q

WHAT ARE SOURCES OF VITAMIN A?

A

VEGGIES, LIVER, DAIRY (107 OF 307)

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108
Q

WHAT ARE SOURCES OF VITAMIN B1?

A

PORK, FISH, EGGS (108 OF 307)

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109
Q

WHAT ARE SOURCES FOR VITAMIN B2?

A

ORGAN MEATS (109 OF 307)

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110
Q

WHAT ARE SOURCES OF VITAMIN B6?

A

PORK, POTATOES, LIVER (110 OF 307)

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111
Q

WHAT ARE SOURCES OF VITAMIN B12?

A

LIVER, EGGS, DAIRY, FISH (111 OF 307)

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112
Q

WHAT ARE SOURCES OF VITAMIN C?

A

CITRUS, TOMATOES (112 OF 307)

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113
Q

WHAT ARE SOURCES OF VITAMIN D?

A

SUNLIGHT, MILK, TUNA (113 OF 307)

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114
Q

WHAT ARE SOURCES OF VITAMIN E?

A

AVOCADO, EGGS, MILK (114 OF 307)

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115
Q

WHAT ARE SOURCES OF VITAMIN K?

A

GREEN LEAFY VEGGIES (115 OF 307)

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116
Q

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF IODINE IN THE BODY?

A

NORMAL FUNCTION OF THE THYROID GLAND (116 OF 307)

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117
Q

FUNCTION OF SODIUM IN THE BODY?

A

REGULATES OSMOTIC PRESSURE, pH BALANCE, HEARTBEAT (117 OF 307)

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118
Q

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF POTASSIUM IN THE BODY?

A

REGULATES OSMOTIC PRESSURE. CONSTITUENT OF ALL CELLS. (118 OF 307)

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119
Q

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF IRON IN THE BODY?

A

CARRIES OXYGEN THROUGHOUT THE BODY (119 OF 307)

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120
Q

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF CALCIUM IN THE BODY?

A

BLOOD CLOTTING, REGULATES HEARTBEAT, BONE STRENGTH (120 OF 307)

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121
Q

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF SULPHER IN THE BODY?

A

PROMOTES HAIR AND NAIL FORMATION (121 OF 307)

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122
Q

WHAT IS A SOURCE OF IODINE?

A

SEAFOOD, WATER, IONIZED SALT (122 OF 307)

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123
Q

WHAT IS A SOURCE OF SODIUM?

A

TABLE SALT SEAFOOD ANIMAL PRODUCTS (123 OF 307)

124
Q

WHAT IS THE SOURCE OF POTASSIUM?

A

AVOCADOES, BANANAS, ORANGES, POTATOES (124 OF 307)

125
Q

WHAT IS A SOURCE OF IRON?

A

LIVER, EGG YOLKS, LEGUMES, DRIED FRUIT (125 OF 307)

126
Q

WHAT IS A SOURCE OF CALCIUM?

A

DAIRY PRODUCTS, GREEN VEGGIES, SALMON (126 OF 307)

127
Q

WHAT IS A SOURCE OF SUPHER?

A

PROTEIN FOODS (127 OF 307)

128
Q

HEALTH RECORD COLOR FOR SECOND-TO-LAST NUMBER: 0

A

ORANGE (128 OF 307)

129
Q

HEALTH RECORD COLOR FOR SECOND-TO-LAST NUMBER: 1

A

GREEN (129 OF 307)

130
Q

HEALTH RECORD COLOR FOR SECOND-TO-LAST NUMBER: 2

A

YELLOW (130 OF 307)

131
Q

HEALTH RECORD COLOR FOR SECOND-TO-LAST NUMBER: 3

A

GREY (131 OF 307)

132
Q

HEALTH RECORD COLOR FOR SECOND-TO-LAST NUMBER: 4

A

TAN (132 OF 307)

133
Q

HEALTH RECORD COLOR FOR SECOND-TO-LAST NUMBER: 5

A

BLUE (133 OF 307)

134
Q

HEALTH RECORD COLOR FOR SECOND-TO-LAST NUMBER: 6

A

WHITE (134 OF 307)

135
Q

HEALTH RECORD COLOR FOR SECOND-TO-LAST NUMBER: 7

A

ALMOND (135 OF 307)

136
Q

HEALTH RECORD COLOR FOR SECOND-TO-LAST NUMBER: 8

A

PINK (136 OF 307)

137
Q

HEALTH RECORD COLOR FOR SECOND-TO-LAST NUMBER: 9

A

RED (137 OF 307)

138
Q

WHAT DOES BUMED 6220.12 CONCERN?

A

MEDICAL EVENTS REPORTING (138 OF 307)

139
Q

WHAT DOES BUMED 6260.3 CONCERN?

A

MERCURY CONTROL (139 OF 307)

140
Q

WHAT DOES BUMED 6280.1 CONCERN?

A

INFECTIOUS WASTE (140 OF 307)

141
Q

WHAT DOES BUMED 6440.5?

A

HSAP PROGRAM (141 OF 307)

142
Q

WHAT DOES BUMED 6600.10 CONCERN?

A

DENTAL INFECTION CONTROL (142 OF 307)

143
Q

WHAT DOES BUMED 6700.13 CONCERN?

A

AMAL/ADAL (143 OF 307)

144
Q

WHAT DOES NAVMED 5360.1 CONCERN?

A

DECEDENT AFFAIRS (144 OF 307)

145
Q

WHAT DOES NAVMED 6230.2 CONCERN?

A

MALARIA CONTROL (145 OF 307)

146
Q

WHAT DOES OPNAV 5100.19 CONCERN?

A

NAVOSH (146 OF 307)

147
Q

WHAT DOES SECNAV M5210.1 CONCERN?

A

RECORDS MAINTENANCE (147 OF 307)

148
Q

WHAT DOES DD771 CONCERN?

A

EYEWEAR PRESCRIPTION (148 OF 307)

149
Q

WHAT DOES DD1300 CONCERN?

A

REPORT OF CASUALTY (149 OF 307)

150
Q

WHAT DOES SF88 CONCERN?

A

MEDICAL EXAM (150 OF 307)

151
Q

WHAT DOES SF93 CONCERN?

A

REPORT OF MEDICAL HISTORY (151 OF 307)

152
Q

WHAT DOES SF513 CONCERN?

A

CONSULTATION SHEET (152 OF 307)

153
Q

WHAT DOES SF522 CONCERN?

A

REQUEST FOR ANESTHESIA (153 OF 307)

154
Q

WHAT DOES SF545 CONCERN?

A

LABORATORY DISPLAY (154 OF 307)

155
Q

WHAT DOES SF550 CONCERN?

A

URINALYSIS (155 OF 307)

156
Q

WHAT DOES SF600 CONCERN?

A

CHRONOLOGICAL RECORD OF CARE (156 OF 307)

157
Q

WHAT DOES SF601 CONCERN?

A

IMMUNIZATION RECORD (157 OF 307)

158
Q

WHAT IS THE INDICATION FOR THE SOFT DIET?

A

STEP BETWEEN NPO AND REGULAR (158 OF 307)

159
Q

WHAT IS THE INDICATION FOR THE HIGH CALORIE DIET?

A

POST-OP, RECOVERING FROM BURNS, TRAUMA, OR TB (159 OF 307)

160
Q

WHAT IS THE INDICATION FOR THE HIGH PROTEIN DIET?

A

HIGH PROTEIN >1.5g PROTEIN/kg OF BODYWEIGHT. FOR PATIENTS RECOVERING FORM MAJOR ILLNESS OR SURGERY. IF PATIENT IS RECOVERING FROM BURNS OR RADIATION, INCREASE PROTEIN TO 3g/kg OF BODYWEIGHT. (160 OF 307)

161
Q

WHAT IS THE INDICATION FOR HIGH RESIDUE DIET?

A

CONSTIPATION, IBS, DIVERTICULOSIS (161 OF 307)

162
Q

WHAT IS THE INDICATION FOR THE LOW CALORIE DIET?

A

WEIGHT LOSS. ENSURE PROTEIN DOES NOT DROP BELOW 0.8 g/kg OF BODY WEIGHT. GIVE VITAMINS IF DAILY CALORIES < 1200 (162 OF 307)

163
Q

WHAT IS THE INDICATION FOR THE HIGH PROTEIN/LOW CARB DIET?

A

HYPOGLYCEMIA (163 OF 307)

164
Q

WHAT IS THE INDICATION FOR THE LOW RESIDUE DIET?

A

ULCERS, GASTRIC DISORDERS, DIVERTICULITIS (164 OF 307)

165
Q

WHAT IS THE INDICATION FOR THE LOW PROTEIN DIET?

A

RENAL OR LIVER DISEASE (165 OF 307)

166
Q

WHAT IS THE INDICATION FOR THE BLAND DIET?

A

HYPERACIDITY (166 OF 307)

167
Q

TO WHAT DOES SHIPPING CODE B APPLY?

A

CORROSIVE/POISON (167 OF 307)

168
Q

TO WHAT DOES SHIPPING CODE I APPLY?

A

FLAMMABLE (168 OF 307)

169
Q

TO WHAT DOES SHIPPING CODE F APPLY?

A

DAMAGED BY FREEZING (169 OF 307)

170
Q

TO WHAT DOES SHIPPING CODE Q APPLY?

A

DRUGS (170 OF 307)

171
Q

TO WHAT DOES SHIPPING CODE R APPLY?

A

ALCOHOL (171 OF 307)

172
Q

TO WHAT DOES SHIPPING CODE W APPLY?

A

KEEP FROZEN (172 OF 307)

173
Q

TO WHAT DOES SHIPPING CODE G APPLY?

A

REFRIGERATE (173 OF 307)

174
Q

TO WHAT DOES SHIPPING CODE M APPLY?

A

PRECIOUS METAL (174 OF 307)

175
Q

TO WHAT DOES SHIPPING CODE P APPLY?

A

POTENCY PERIOD (175 OF 307)

176
Q

WHAT IS THE TOTAL RBC FOR MALES?

A

4.2-6.0 mil/mm^3 (176 OF 307)

177
Q

WHAT IS THE TOTAL RBC FOR FEMALES?

A

3.6-5.6 mil/mm^3 (177 OF 307)

178
Q

WHAT IS THE TOTAL RBC FOR NEWBORNS?

A

5.0-6.5 mil/mm^3 (178 OF 307)

179
Q

WHAT IS THE HEMOGLOBIN PERCENTAGE FOR MALES?

A

97-124% (WHAT?) (179 OF 307)

180
Q

WHAT IS THE HEMOGLOBIN PERCENTAGE FOR FEMALES?

A

83-110% (WHAT?) (180 OF 307)

181
Q

WHAT IS THE HEMOGLOBIN PERCENTAGE FOR NEWBORNS?

A

97-138% (WHAT?) (181 OF 307)

182
Q

WHAT IS THE TYPE OF ACTION OF A NERVE AGENT?

A

ANTICHOLINESTERASE (182 OF 307)

183
Q

WHAT IS THE TYPE OF ACTION OF A BLOOD AGENT?

A

SYSTEMIC POISON (183 OF 307)

184
Q

WHAT IS THE TYPE OF ACTION OF A CHOKING AGENT?

A

LUNG IRRITANT (184 OF 307)

185
Q

WHAT IS THE TYPE OF ACTION OF A BLISTER AGENT?

A

VESICANT (185 OF 307)

186
Q

WHAT IS THE TYPE OF ACTION OF A VOMITING AGENT?

A

STERNUTATOR (186 OF 307)

187
Q

WHAT IS THE TYPE OF ACTION OF A TEAR AGENT?

A

LACRIMATOR (187 OF 307)

188
Q

WHAT IS THE TYPE OF ACTION OF A PSYCHOLOGICAL AGENT?

A

INCAPACITATOR (188 OF 307)

189
Q

WHAT ARE THE 4 NERVE AGENTS?

A

GB, GA, GD, VX (189 OF 307)

190
Q

WHAT ARE 2 BLOOD AGENTS?

A

AC, CK (190 OF 307)

191
Q

WHAT ARE 3 CHOKING AGENTS?

A

CL, CG, DP (191 OF 307)

192
Q

WHAT ARE 4 BLISTER AGENTS?

A

HN, HD, L, CX (192 OF 307)

193
Q

WHAT IS THE 1 VOMITING AGENT?

A

DM, (193 OF 307)

194
Q

WHAT ARE THE 3 TEAR AGENTS?

A

CS, CN, CA (194 OF 307)

195
Q

WHAT IS 1 PSYCHOLOGICAL AGENT?

A

BZ (195 OF 307)

196
Q

WHAT IS GB?

A

SARIN (196 OF 307)

197
Q

WHAT IS GA?

A

TABUN (197 OF 307)

198
Q

WHAT IS GD?

A

SOMAN (198 OF 307)

199
Q

WHAT IS VX?

A

US ONLY (199 OF 307)

200
Q

WHAT IS AC?

A

CYANOGEN Cl (200 OF 307)

201
Q

WHAT IS CK?

A

HYDOCYANIC ACID (201 OF 307)

202
Q

WHAT IS Cl (OR CL)?

A

CHLORINE GAS (202 OF 307)

203
Q

WHAT IS CG?

A

PHOSGENE (203 OF 307)

204
Q

WHAT IS DP?

A

DIPHOSGENE (204 OF 307)

205
Q

WHAT IS HN?

A

NITROGEN MUSTARD (205 OF 307)

206
Q

WHAT IS HD?

A

MUSTARD (206 OF 307)

207
Q

WHAT IS L?

A

LEWISITE (207 OF 307)

208
Q

WHAT IS CX?

A

PHOSGENE OXIDE (208 OF 307)

209
Q

WHAT IS DM?

A

ADAMSITE (209 OF 307)

210
Q

WHAT IS CS?

A

ORTHOCHLOROBENZINE (210 OF 307)

211
Q

WHAT IS CN?

A

CHLORACEPHONE (211 OF 307)

212
Q

WHAT IS CA?

A

BROMBENZYL CYANIDE (212 OF 307)

213
Q

WHAT IS BZ?

A

QUINUCLIDINYL BENZILATE(213 OF 307)

214
Q

WHAT IS THE NERVE GAS ODOR?

A

ODORLESS (214 OF 307)

215
Q

WHAT IS THE AC ODOR?

A

ALMONDS (215 OF 307)

216
Q

WHAT IS THE ODOR OF CK?

A

IRRITATING ODOR (216 OF 307)

217
Q

WHAT IS THE ODOR OF THE CHOKING AGENT?

A

NEW MOWN GRASS (217 OF 307)

218
Q

WHAT IS THE ODOR OF HN?

A

FISH (218 OF 307)

219
Q

WHAT IS THE ODOR OF HD?

A

HORSERADISH (219 OF 307)

220
Q

WHAT IS THE ODOR OF L?

A

GERANIUMS (220 OF 307)

221
Q

WHAT IS THE ODOR OF CX?

A

DISAGREEABLE (221 OF 307)

222
Q

WHAT IS THE ODOR OF DM?

A

FIREWORKS (222 OF 307)

223
Q

WHAT IS THE TEAR AGENT ODOR?

A

PEPPER-LIKE (223 OF 307)

224
Q

WHAT IS THE BZ ODOR?

A

ODORLESS (224 OF 307)

225
Q

WHAT IS THE NERVE AGENT RATE OF ACTION?

A

VERY RAPID IF INHALED. SLOW IF ABSORBED THROUGH THE SKIN (225 OF 307)

226
Q

WAHT IS THE BLOOD AGENT RATE OF ACTION?

A

RAPID (226 OF 307)

227
Q

WHAT IS THE CHOKING AGENT RATE OF ACTION?

A

IMMEDIATE TO 3 HOURS DEPENDING ON QUANTITY INHALED (227 OF 307)

228
Q

WHAT IS THE HN AND HD RATE OF ACTION?

A

SEVERAL HOURS (228 OF 307)

229
Q

WHAT IS THE RATE OF ACTION FOR L AND CX?

A

RAPID AND INTENSE (229 OF 307)

230
Q

WHAT IS THE VOMITING AGENT RATE OF ACTION?

A

IMMEDIATE (230 OF 307)

231
Q

WHAT IS THE TEAR AGENT RATE OF ACTION?

A

IMMEDIATE (231 OF 307)

232
Q

WHAT IS THE PSYCHOLOGICAL AGENT RATE OF ACTION?

A

DELAYED (232 OF 307)

233
Q

WHAT IS THE NERVE AGENT TREATMENT?

A

ATROPINE 3 SYRINGES OF 2 mg (6 mg OF ATROPINE MAX CAN BE GIVEN BY NON-MEDICAL STAFF) 2 PAM Cl 3 SYRINGES OF 600 mg VALIUM 1 SYRINGE OF 10 mg (233 OF 307)

234
Q

WHAT IS THE BLOOD AGENT TREATMENT?

A

AMYL NITRATE AMPULES UNDER GAS MASK. SODIUM THIOSULFATE IV 100-200 mg/kg OF BODY WEIGHT (234 OF 307)

235
Q

WHAT IS THE CHOKING AGENT TREATMENT?

A

REST AND OXYGEN (235 OF 307)

236
Q

WHAT IS HN AND HD TREATMENT?

A

PAIN RELIEF ONLY (236 OF 307)

237
Q

WHAT IS THE TREATMENT OF L?

A

BRITISH ANTI-LEWISITE (237 OF 307)

238
Q

WHAT IS THE TREATMENT FOR CX?

A

SODIUM BICARBONATE (238 OF 307)

239
Q

WHAT IS THE VOMITING AGENT TREATMENT?

A

SUPPORTIVE (239 OF 307)

240
Q

WHAT IS THE TEAR AGENT TREATMENT?

A

REMOVE TO FRESH AIR (240 OF 307)

241
Q

WHAT IS THE PSYCHOLOGICAL AGENT TREATMENT?

A

NONE AVAILABLE. ENSURE VICTIMS DO NOT HURT THEMSELVES OR OTHERS WHILE HALLUCINATING (241 OF 307)

242
Q

WHAT ARE THE SYMPTOMS FOR NERVE AGENT SYMPTOMS?

A

SLUDGE IS DITTY FOR SX OF NERVE AGENTS: S-SALIVATION, L-LACRIMATION, U-URINATION, D-(NONE), G-GASTROINTESTINAL, E-EXCRETIONS, GENERAL. ACRONYM IS SLUDGE (242 OF 307)

243
Q

WHAT HAPPENS TO SOMEONE THAT IS EXPOSED TO A BLOOD AGENT?

A

AFTER EXPOSURE TO THE GAS VICTIM WILL TAKE A FEW DEEP BREATHS, BEGIN CONVULSIONS AFTER 20-30 SECONDS, AND IE AFTER A FEW MINUTES (243 OF 307)

244
Q

WHAT AND WHERE WAS THE FIRST CHOKING AGENT USED?

A

CHLORINE WAS THE FIRST CHEMICAL USED IN MODERN WARFARE BY THE GERMANS AT YPRES, BELGIUM WWI (244 OF 307)

245
Q

WHAT IS THE BEST TREATMENT OF A BLISTER AGENT?

A

BEST TREATMENT IS TO USE SAND, DIRT, OR ANYTHING ELSE AVAILABLE TO REMOVE THE AGENT BEFORE ITS ABSORBED BY THE SKIN (245 OF 307)

246
Q

WHAT CAN BE DONE TO IMPROVE THE SYMPTOMS OF A VOMITING AGENT?

A

EXERCISE SHORTENS SYMPTOMS (246 OF 307)

247
Q

WHAT TEAR AGENT IS USED IN TRAINING BY THE US MILITARY?

A

CS IS USED BY US MILITARY TO TRAIN ITS TROOPS (247 OF 307)

248
Q

HOW IS EXPOSURE TO A PSYCHOLOGICAL AGENT PERCEIVED?

A

THIS CHEMICAL IS TASTELESS AND ODORLESS. MOST LIKELY USE WOULD BE TO INTRODUCE IT INTO THE WATER OR FOOD SUPPLY (248 OF 307)

249
Q

WHAT TEMPERATURE SHOULD FRUIT AND VEGETABLES BE KEPT?

A

<40 DEGREES FAHRENHEIT (>40 = CO2) (249 OF 307)

250
Q

AT WHAT TEMPERATURE SHOULD MEAT BE KEPT FOR CUTTING?

A

50 DEGREES FAHRENHEIT (250 OF 307)

251
Q

AT WHAT TEMPERATURE SHOULD BERTHING/MEDICAL BE KEPT?

A

70 DEGREES FAHRENHEIT (251 OF 307)

252
Q

AT WHAT TEMPERATURE SHOULD THE GALLEY BE KEPT?

A

80 DEGREES FAHRENHEIT (252 OF 307)

253
Q

AT WHAT TEMPERATURE DO FATS BREAKDOWN?

A

120 DEGREES FAHRENHEIT (253 OF 307)

254
Q

AT WHAT TEMPERATURE IS FOOD BAKED ON A DISH?

A

140 DEGREES FAHRENHEIT (254 OF 307)

255
Q

AT WHAT TEMPERATURE IS A FREEZER KEPT?

A

0-32 DEGREES FAHRENHEIT (255 OF 307)

256
Q

AT WHAT TEMPERATURE IS THE DAIRY BOX KEPT?

A

32-34 DEGREES FAHRENHEIT (256 OF 307)

257
Q

AT WHAT TEMPERATURE IS THE CHILL BOX KEPT?

A

33-36 DEGREES FAHRENHEIT (257 OF 307)

258
Q

AT WHAT TEMPERATURE IS THE THAW BOX KEPT?

A

36-38 DEGREES FAHRENHEIT (258 OF 307)

259
Q

AT WHAT TEMPERATURE IS THE REACH-IN FRIDGE KEPT?

A

34-40 DEGREES FAHRENHEIT (259 OF 307)

260
Q

AT WHAT TEMPERATURE SHOULD EGGS BE KEPT?

A

32 DEGREES FAHRENHEIT (260 OF 307)

261
Q

AT WHAT TEMPERATURE SHOULD MILK BE KEPT?

A

32-40 DEGREES FAHRENHEIT (261 OF 307)

262
Q

AT WHAT TEMPERATURE SHOULD FRESH FISH BE KEPT?

A

28-35 DEGREES FAHRENHEIT (262 OF 307)

263
Q

AT WHAT TEMPERATURE SHOULD DEAD BODIES BE KEPT?

A

36-40 DEGREES FAHRENHEIT (263 OF 307)

264
Q

AT WHAT TEMPERATURE SHOULD BIOLOGICALS (VACCINES, SAMPLES?) BE KEPT?

A

35.6-46.4 DEGREES FAHRENHEIT (264 OF 307)

265
Q

AT WHAT TEMPERATURE SHOULD FROSTBITE BE THAWED OUT?

A

100-105 DEGREES FAHRENHEIT (265 OF 307)

266
Q

WHAT IS A SITZ BATH TEMPERATURE?

A

100 DEGREES FAHRENHEIT (266 OF 307)

267
Q

WHAT IS THE TEMPERATURE OF A HOT COMPRESS?

A

110 DEGREES FAHRENHEIT (267 OF 307)

268
Q

WHAT TEMPERATURE SHOULD A HOT WATER BOTTLE BE?

A

125 DEGREES FAHRENHEIT (268 OF 307)

269
Q

WHAT TEMPERATURE SHOULD A GI SANITIZING RINSE BE?

A

212 DEGREES FAHRENHEIT (269 OF 307)

270
Q

WHAT VACCINES ARE DERIVED FROM EGGS?

A

TYPHUS, INFLUENZA, MEASLES, YELLOW FEVER (270 OF 307)

271
Q

WHAT ARE DISEASES THAT ALWAYS REQUIRE QUARANTINE?

A

PLAGUE, SMALLPOX, CHOLERA, YELLOW FEVER (271 OF 307)

272
Q

WHAT IS THE pH OF URINE?

A

4.6-8.0 (272 OF 307)

273
Q

WHAT IS THE SPECIFIC GRAVITY OF URINE?

A

1.015-1.03 (273 OF 307)

274
Q

WHAT IS THE DAILY VOLUME OF URINE?

A

800 mL TO 2 L

275
Q

HOW DOES TOLUENE PRESENT IN URINE?

A

FILM ON TOP (275 OF 307)

276
Q

WHAT DOES THYMOL IN URINE DO?

A

CAN CAUSE FALSE POSITIVES (276 OF 307)

277
Q

WHAT CAUSES MILKY APPEARANCE IN URINE?

A

CHYLE (277 OF 307)

278
Q

WHAT CAUSES AN ORANGE COLOR IN URINE?

A

PYRIDIUM (278 OF 307)

279
Q

WHAT CAUSES A REDDISH BROWN URINE COLOR?

A

BLOOD (279 OF 307)

280
Q

WHAT CAUSES A BLUISH-GREEN URINE COLOR?

A

METHYLENE (280 OF 307)

281
Q

WHAT CAUSES GREEN TO BROWN URINE COLOR?

A

BILE (281 OF 307)

282
Q

WHAT CAUSES OLIVE TO BLACK URINE COLOR?

A

PHENOLS (282 OF 307)

283
Q

HOW IS A 24 HOUR URINE TEST CONDUCTED?

A

FROM 0800-0800 DUMP OUT 1ST SAMPLE OF DAY 1, KEEP 0800 SAMPLE OF DAY 2(283 OF 307)

284
Q

WHAT IS CONTROLLED/CONDUCTED BY THE 1ST CRANIAL NERVE?

A

OLFACTORY (284 OF 307)

285
Q

WHAT IS CONTROLLED/CONDUCTED BY THE 2ND CRANIAL NERVE?

A

OPTIC (285 OF 307)

286
Q

WHAT IS CONTROLLED/CONDUCTED BY THE 3RD CRANIAL NERVE?

A

OCCULOMOTOR (286 OF 307)

287
Q

WHAT IS CONTROLLED/CONDUCTED BY THE 4TH CRANIAL NERVE?

A

TROCHLEAR (287 OF 307)

288
Q

WHAT IS CONTROLLED/CONDUCTED BY THE 5TH CRANIAL NERVE?

A

TRIGEMINAL (288 OF 307)

289
Q

WHAT IS CONTROLLED/CONDUCTED BY THE 6TH CRANIAL NERVE?

A

ABDUCENS (289 OF 307)

290
Q

WHAT IS CONTROLLED/CONDUCTED BY THE 7TH CRANIAL NERVE?

A

FACIAL (290 OF 307)

291
Q

WHAT IS CONTROLLED/CONDUCTED BY THE 8TH CRANIAL NERVE?

A

ACOUSTIC (291 OF 307)

292
Q

WHAT IS CONTROLLED/CONDUCTED BY THE 9TH CRANIAL NERVE?

A

GLOSSOPHARYN (292 OF 307)

293
Q

WHAT IS CONTROLLED/CONDUCTED BY THE 10TH CRANIAL NERVE?

A

VAGUS (293 OF 307)

294
Q

WHAT IS CONTROLLED/CONDUCTED BY THE 11TH CRANIAL NERVE?

A

ACCESSORY (294 OF 307)

295
Q

WHAT IS CONTROLLED/CONDUCTED BY THE 12TH CRANIAL NERVE?

A

HYPOGLOSSAL (295 OF 307)

296
Q

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE OLFACTORY NERVE?

A

SENSE OF SMELL (296 OF 307)

297
Q

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE OPTIC NERVE?

A

VISION (297 OF 307)

298
Q

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE OCCULOMOTOR NERVE?

A

EYE FOCUS & MOVEMENT (298 OF 307)

299
Q

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE TROCHLEAR NERVE?

A

EYE MOVEMENT (299 OF 307)

300
Q

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF TRIGEMINAL NERVE?

A

SENSATION OF HEAD AND FACE (300 OF 307)

301
Q

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE ABDUCENS NERVE?

A

ABDUCTION OF EYE (301 OF 307)

302
Q

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE FACIAL NERVE?

A

FACIAL EXPRESSIONS, SALIVA, TASTE (302 OF 307)

303
Q

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF ACOUSTIC NERVE?

A

HEARING AND BALANCE (303 OF 307)

304
Q

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF GLOSSOPHARYN NERVE?

A

TASTE AND SWALLOWING MOTIONS(304 OF 307)

305
Q

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE VAGUS NERVE?

A

SENSATIONS OF MOVEMENT (E.G. DECREASE IN HEART RATE, INCREASE IN PERISTALSIS) VOICE PRODUCTION (305 OF 307)

306
Q

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF THE ACCESSORY NERVE?

A

MOVEMENT OF HEAD AND SHOULDERS (306 OF 307)

307
Q

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF HYPOGLOSSAL NERVE

A

TONGUE MOVEMENTS (307 OF 307)

NAVY ADVANCEMENT SEP 2020 (9 decks)

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