31 NAVEDTRA 14295B CORPSMAN MANUAL Flashcards
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE KEY TO SERVICE WITH DISTINCTION?
PROFESSIONAL ETHICS
ASSIGN. 1-1
THE IMPORTANCE OF HAVING MEDICAL CARE ONBOARD NAVAL VESSELS WAS REINFORCED ON _______.
MARCH 2, 1799
ASSIGN. 1-2
THE ARE CALLED THE SICK BAY TODAY WAS ORIGINALLY REFERRED TO AS WHAT?
COCKPIT
ASSIGN. 1-3
THE FIRST MEMBER OF THE HOSPITAL CORPS TO BE AWARDED THE MEDAL OF HONOR WAS?
HOSPITAL APPRENTICE ROBER STANLEY
ASSIGN. 1-4
THE FOUNDATION FOR THE CURRENT SYSTEM OF RANK STRUCTURE CAME IN WHAT YEAR?
1916
ASSIGN. 1.5
THE FIRST HOSPITAL CORPS SCHOOL FOR WOMEN ACCEPTED FOR VOLUNTEER EMERGENCY SERVICE WAS COMMISSIONED WHERE?
NATIONAL NAVAL MEDICAL CENTER BETHESDA, MD
ASSIGN. 1-6
THE HONORABLE JAMES FORRESTAL WAS SERVING IN WHAT POSITION WHEN HE PUBLICALLY THANKED THE HOSPITAL CORPS FOR ITS SERVICE AND CONTRIBUTION DURING WWII?
SECRETARY OF THE NAVY
ASSIGN. 1-7
WHAT WAS THE ORIGINAL RATING INSIGNIA OF THE HOSPITAL CORPS?
RED CROSS
ASSIGN 1-8
SHOCK TRAUMA PLATOONS (STP) WERE THE FIRST DEPLOYED DURING THE AFGHANISTAN PHASE OF THE WAR ON TERROR. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 1-9
SOFT POWER WAS FIRST ARTICULATED AS A POSSIBLE MILITARY POLICY IN 1911 BY PRESIDENT THEODORE ROOSEVELT. TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE
ASSIGN. 1-10
THE DENTAL TECHNICIAN RATING WAS ESTABLISHED _______.
12-DEC-1947
ASSIGN. 1-11
MOST OF THE NAVY’S MEDICAL ENLISTED TRAINING WILL BE RELOCATED TO _____ ALONG WITH THE ARMY AND AIR FORCE AS OF 2011.
SAN ANTONIO, TX
ASSIGN. 1-12
WHAT PERCENTAGE OF ALL DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY MEDALS OF HONOR HAS BEEN EARNED BY HOSPITAL CORPSMEN?
50%
ASSIGN. 1-13
THE FOLLOWING SHOULD BE REPORTED TO THE OOD FOR INCLUSION INTO THE DUTY LOG.
- BACTERIA IN POTABLE WATER
- SERVICE MEMBER WITH A BROKEN LEG
(ASSIGN. 2-1)
SAMS IN AN ADMINISTRATIVE MANAGEMENT TOOL THAT TRACKS:
- SICK CALL LOG
- POTABLE WATER TESTING RESULTS
- MEDICAL TRAINING
(ASSIGN. 2-2)
WHAT SPECIFIC 3-M SYSTEM REGULATES SCHEDULED EQUIPMENT MAINTENANCE?
PLANNED MAINTENANCE SYSTEM
ASSIGN. 2-3
WHICH TYPE OF DIRECTIVE REGULATES POLICY?
PERMANENT
ASSIGN. 2-4
CHANGE TRANSMITTALS SHOULD BE FILED WITH _____ ON TOP?
MOST CURRENT CHANGE
ASSIGN. 2-5
THE DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY INFORMATION SECURITY PROGRAMS GIVES DIRECTION ON HOW TO PREPARE NAVAL CORRESPONDENCE. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 2-6
THE 5000 SERIES OF CORRESPONDENCE RELATES TO _______.
GENERAL ADMINISTRATION AND MANAGEMENT
ASSIGN. 2-7
WHAT IS THE PROCESS CALLED THAT IS USED TO DETERMINE THE CORRECT SUBJECT GROUP UNDER WHICH DOCUMETNS SHOULD FILED?
CLASSIFYING
ASSIGN. 2-8
HM’S SHOULD USE THEIR BEST JUDGEMENT TO DISPOSE OF QUESTIONABLE DIRECTIVES. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 2-9
MEDICAL AND DENTAL PERSONNEL MUST BE AWARE OF PLANNED OPERATIONS SO THEY CAN ________.
- PLAN FOR SUPPLIES
- PLAN FOR POSSIBLE INJURIES
- PLAN FOR EXTENDED WORK HOURS
(ASSIGN. 2-10)
WHICH ELEMENT OF MEDICAL READINESS IS USEED TO CORRECT INDIVIDUAL MEDICAL READINESS DEFICIENCIES?
PHA:
- PERIODIC
- HEALTH
- ASSESSMENT
(ASSIGN. 2-11)
PERSONNEL IN THESE DENTAL CLASSIFICATIONS GO TO THE HEAD OF THE LINE FOR TREATMENT PRIOR TO DEPLOYMENT.
CLASS 3 AND 4
ASSIGN. 2-12
A PATIENT IN CLASS 2 DENTAL STATUS MEANS?
SERVICE MEMBER IS DEPLOYABLE
ASSIGN. 2-13
THE PRIMARY MISSION OF THE FMF MEDICAL BATTALION IS TO PROVIDE:
SPECIALIZED SURGERY
ASSIGN. 2-14
FMF DENTAL UNITS MAINTAIN DENTAL READINESS DURING ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT:
EMERGENCY ENVIRONMENTS
ASSIGN. 2-15
FLEET HOSPITAL MISSION AND PERSONNEL REQUIREMENTS ARE SET BY ________.
COMBATANT COMMANDER (COCOM)
ASSIGN. 2-16
FLEET HOSPITALS ARE USED IN OPERATIONS THAT ARE LESS THAN 60 DAYS IN DURATION. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 2-17
WHO DIRECTS THE ACTION OF THE NAVAL MOBILE CONSTRUCTION BATTALION WHEN RESPONDING TO A NATURAL DISASTER, I.E. HURRICANE KATRINA?
COGNIZANT AUTHORITY
ASSIGN. 2-18
A WARFARE QUALIFICATION SIGNIFIES _______.
THE HM’S UNDERSTAND THE UNITS SPECIFIC MISSION.
ASSIGN. 2-19
WHICH OF HTE FOLLOWING IS NOT A HM ADMINISTRATIVE RESPONSIBILITY DURING THE OPERATIONS OF A MEDICAL CLINIC?
OPENING THE CLINIC AND MAKING COFFEE
ASSIGN. 3-1
WHICH SYSTEMS WERE IMPLEMENTED TO ASSIST IN THE PROJECTION AND ALLOCATION OF COST FOR HEALTHCARE PROGRAMS?
DEERS
ASSIGN. 3-2
INSTANCES WHERE THE BENEFICIARY HAS A VALID ID CARD AND DEERS SHOWS THE INDIVIDUAL INELIGIBLE OR NO IN THE DATABASE ELIGIBILITY VERIFICATION BY ID CARD OVERRIDES DEERS. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 3-3
IN CASES WHERE A PATIENT PRESENTS WITHOUT A VALID ID CARD AND DOES NOT APPEAR IN DEERS, NON-EMERGENT CARE WILL STILL BE RENDERED. TRUE OR FALSE?F
FALSE
ASSIGN. 3-4
HOW MANY DAYS AFTER RECEIVING TREATMENT DOES A PTIENT HAVE TO PRESENT A VALID ID CARD BEFORE BEING BILLED AS A CIVILIAN HUMANITARIAN NON-INDIGENT?
30 DAYS
ASSIGN. 3-5
WHO MAY DELAY BILLING ON A PATIENT NO PRESENTING WITH A VALID ID?
COMMANDING OFFICER
ASSIGN. 3-6
WHAT IS THE LENGTH OF TIME A NEWBORN CAN BE TREATED WITHOUT PRESENTING A VALID ID CARD?
60 DAYS
ASSIGN. 3-7
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FOREIGN MILITARY PERSONNEL ARE NOT ELIGIBLE FOR CARE AT NAVAL MTF’S?
FOREIGN MILITARY ON VACATION
ASSIGN. 3-8
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A TYPE OF DENTAL CARE?
SPECIAL
ASSIGN. 3-9
TREATMENT THAT IS NECESSARY TO RELIEVE PAIN, CONTROL BLEEDING, AND MANAGE SEPTIC CONDITIONS FALLS UDNER SPECIAL TYPES OF DENTAL CARE. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 3-10
OF THE FOLLOWING, WHO WILL BE THE FIRST TO RECEIVE DENTAL CARE?
FAMILY OF ACTIVE DUTY EMERGENCY
ASSIGN. 3-11
WHAT PROGRAM IS USED OT EVALUATE THE DEGREE OF EXCELLENCE IN CARE DELIVERED AND ITS RESULTS FOR FUTURE IMPROVEMENT?
QUALITY ASSURANCE
ASSIGN. 3-12
MEDICAL CARE RENDERED BY HEALTHCARE PROVIDERS TO NAVY BENEFICIARIES IS SOMETIMES CONSIDERED SUBPAR DUE TO WHAT FACT?
LACK OF INTERPERSONAL RELATIONSHIP SKILLS
ASSIGN. 3-13
THE PATIENT RELATION PROGRAM IS THE ONLY PROGRRAM THAT STRIVES TO ENHANCE CHANNELS OF COMMUNICATION BETWEEN THE HOSPITAL, STAFF, AND PAITENT POPULATIONS. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 3-14
WHICH PROGRAM ALLOWS PATIENTS TO VOICE THEIR SATISFACTION OR UNSATISFACTORY COMPLAINTS INCLUDING THOSE CONCERNING TREATMENT?
PATIENT CONTACT POINT PROGRAM
ASSIGN. 3-15
WHERE WOULD THE HM LOOK TO FIND MORE INFORMATION IN THE AREA OF MEDICAL TREATMENT RECORDS?
MANMED CHAPTER 16
ASSIGN. 3-16
THE FAMILY ADVOCACY PROGRAM IDENTIFIES, TREATS, AND MONITORS NAVY PERSONNEL ENGAGING IN WHICH TYPES OF BEHAVIOR?
- SPOUSAL ABUSE
- CHILD ABUSE
- SEXUAL ABUSE
(ASSIGN. 3-17)
PHYSICAL READINESS TESTING IS REQUIRED TO BE CONDUCTED Y SUBORDINATE COMMANDS, WHO’S MEDICAL DEPARTMENTS ARE RESPONSIBLE FORE ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT?
PROCESS WAIVERS FOR COMPLETING THE PRT
ASSIGN. 3-18
FAILURE TO CONSENT PRIOR TO INITIATION OF MEDICAL TREATMENT MAY RSULT IN MEDICAL MALPRACTICE AND/OR ASSAULT AND BATTERY. TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE
ASSIGN. 3-19
WHO IS OBLIGATED TO PROVIDE THE PATIENT WITH ALL NECESSARY INFORMATION TO MAKE A KNOWLEDGEABLE DECISION ON A PROPOSED MEDICAL PROCEDURE?
- MEDICAL PROVIDER
- THE DUTY RESTS WITH THE PROVIDER
- THIS RESPONSIBLITY CANNOT BE DELEGATED
(ASSIGN. 3-20)
CONSENT PRIOR TO INITIATION OF MEDICAL TREATMENT IS REQUIRED IN ALL ROUTINE, EMERGENCY, AND ELECTIVE PROCEDURES. TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE
ASSIGN. 3-21
WHAT LEGAL DOCTRINE SERVES AS THE FINAL AUTHORITY OVER ADN DETERMINES THE CONTROL OF SUBSTITUTE CONSENT?
IT IS THE LAW OF THE STATE IN WHICH THE HOSPITAL IS LOCATED THAT CONTROLS THE QUESTION “SUBSTITUTE CONSENT.”
(ASSIGN. 3-22)
WHO IS RECOMMENDED TO ACT AS A WITNESS WHEN THE PATIENT IS CONSENTING TO A MEDICAL PROCEDURE?
STAFF MEMBER NOT INVOLVED IN THE PROCEDURE
ASSIGN. 3-23
UNDER THE FREEDOM OF INFORMATION ACT THE NAVY MUST MAKE ALL DOCUMENTS AVAILABLE EXCEPT THOSE THAT ARE EXEMPT. TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE
ASSIGN. 3-24
WHICH POLICY WAS ESTABLISHED TO PROVIDE A BALANCE BETWEEN THE PUBLIC AND THE PRIVACY OF AN INDIVIDUAL?
PRIVACY ACT OF 1974
ASSIGN. 3-25
THE HIPAA PRIVACY RULE ALLOWS FOR DISCLOSURE OF WHAT INFORMATION?
PROTECTED HEALTH INFORMATION
ASSIGN. 3-26
PERSONAL HEALTH INFORMATION IS REQUIRED TO BE DISCLOSED FOR ALL OF THE FOLLOWING REASONS EXCEPT?
SECURITY
ASSIGN. 3-27
UNDER WHAT ACT IS IT UNLAWFUL FOR THEUNITED STATES MILITARY TO BE USED AS AN ENFORCER OR TO ASSIST IN THE ENFORCEMENT OF FEDERAL OR STATE LAW?
POSSE COMITATUS ACT
ASSIGN. 3-28
WHO IS AUTHORIZED TO DELIVER AN ACTIVE DUTY MEMBER TO FEDERAL LAW ENFORCEMENT AUTHORITIES AND BASED UPON WHAT ACTION?
COMMANDING OFFICER PRESENTATION OF A FEDERAL WARRANT
ASSIGN. 3-29
PRISONERS AS PATIENTS CATEGORIZED UNDER ALL OF THE FOLLOWING CATEGORIES EXCEPT?
FAMILY MEMBER PRISONERS
ASSIGN. 3-30
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TYPES OF PRISONERS ARE ONLY ALLOWED EMERGENCY MEDICAL TREATMENT?
NON-MILITARY FEDERAL PRISONERS
ASSIGN. 3-31
ALL MILITARY PRISONERS WITH ACTIVE SENTENCES ARE ALLOWED TO RECEIVE MEDICAL CARE. TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE
ASSIGN. 3-32
WHERE CAN THE HM LOCATE GUIDANCE ON CARE, EVALUATION, AND MEDICO LEGAL DOCUMENTATION FOR A VICTIM OF ALLEGED SEXUAL ASSAULT?
NAVMEDCOMINST 6310.3
ASSIGN. 3-33
WHAT IS THE REASON MANY LEGAL BATTLES ARE LOST?
FAILURE TO ADHERE TO PROPER ADMINISTRATIVE PROCEDURES
ASSIGN. 3-34
CUSTODY OF HEALTH RECORDS IS GENERALLY VESTED IN THE MEDICAL DEPARTMENT. ON SHIPS WITHOUT A MEDICAL DEPARTMENT REPRESENTATIVE AN INDIVIDUAL RETAINS CUSTODY OF THE RECORD UNTIL WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TIMES IF ANY?
NEVER
ASSIGN. 4-1
WHEN A MEMBER IS HOSPITALIZED IN A FOREIGN NATION AND THE SHIP DEPARTS PORT, THE HEALTH RECORD IS?
FORWARDED TO THE NEAREST CONSULATE OR EMBASSY
ASSIGN. 4-2
THE HEALTH RECORD JACKET OF PO3 WALTER T DOOR, 333-44-5555, WOULD BE WHAT COLOR?
BLUE
ASSIGN. 4-3
THE HEALTH JACKETS OF FLAG OR GENERAL OFFICERS SHOULD BE ANNOTATED TO REFLECT THEIR RANK. TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE
ASSIGN. 4-4
WHEN HREC IS OPENED ON A SERVICE MEMBER, THE MEMBER SHOULD BE DIRECTED TO READ AND SIGN THE PRIVACY ACT STATEMENT INSIDE THE BACK COVER OF THE HREC. TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE
ASSIGN. 4-5
ENTRIES TO THE CHRONOLOGICAL RECORD OF MEDICAL CARE, SF600, WHEN ARE NOT TYPEWRITTEN, SHOULD BE MADE IN WHICH COLOR(S) OF INK?
BLACK OR BLUE-BLACK
ASSIGN. 4-6
WHAT IS THE PREFERRED FORM ON WHICH TO RECORD ADMISSION TO THE HOSPITAL?
SF 509, MEDICAL RECORD-PROGRESS REPORT
ASSIGN. 4-7
A HEALTH RECORD IS OPENED IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CASES?
ALL OF THE ABOVE:
(1) WHEN A MEMBER RETURNS TO ACTIVE DUTY FROM THE RETURNED
(2) WHEN THE ORIGINAL RECORD HAS BEEN LOST
(3) WHEN FIRST BECOMING A MEMBER OF THE NAVAL SERVICE
(ASSIGN. 4-8)
A WELL KNOWN RESEARCH GROUP REQUEST INFORMATION TO USE AS PART OF THE BASIS OF A STUDY IT IS PERFORMING. WHAT ACTION, IF ANY, SHOULD BE TAKEN PRIOR TO RELEASE?
COMMANDING OFFICER OF THE MTF SHOULD FORWARD THE REQUEST TO BUMED FOR GUIDANCE
(ASSIGN. 4-9)
IN WHICH OF HTE FOLLOWING CIRCUMSTANCES SHOULD THE HEALTH RECORD BE VERIFIED?
ALL OF THE ABOVE:
(1) REPORTING TO A NEW COMMAND
(2) WHEN TRANSFERRING
(3) ANNUALLY
(ASSIGN. 4-10)
UNDER WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CIRCUMSTANCES WOULD A MEMBER’S HEALTH RECORD NOT BE CLOSED?
TRANSFERS TO A NEW DUTY STATION
ASSIGN. 4-11
ON WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DOCUMENTS WOULD A NOTATION BE MADE CONCERNING A MEMBERS STATUS AS A DESERTER?
SF600
ASSIGN. 4-12
A MEMBER SEPARATED FOR DISABILITY SHOULD RECEIVE A COPY OF THE HREC TO PRESENT TO THE VA SO THAT THE MEMBER’S CLAIM CAN BE PROCESSED EXPEDITIOULY. TRUE OR FALSE. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 4-13
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FMP CODES WILL BE PLACED IN THE TWO DIAMONDS PRECEDING THE SSN FOR AN ACTIVE DUTY MEMBER?
20
ASSIGN. 4-14
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PHRASES IS WRITTEN IN TH ELOWER PORTION OF THE PATIENTS IDENTIFICATION BOX FOR RETIRED O-7 AND ABOVE PERSONNEL?
FLAG/GENERAL OFFICER
ASSIGN. 4-15
WHICH OF THE FOLLOW SYMBOLS AND WHICH COLOR OF FELT-TIP PEN IS USED IN THE ALERT BOX IF THE PATIENT HAS AN ALLERGY OR SENSITIVITY?
“X” BLACK
ASSIGN. 4-16
WHICH, IF ANY, OF THE FOLLOWING COLOR FELT-TIP PENS IS USED TO MARK THE ANNUAL VERIFICATION SECTION ON THE RIGHT-HAND SIDE OF THE DENTAL RECORD JACKET?
NONE OF THE ABOVE:
- NOT RED
- NOT BLUE
- NOT BLACK
(ASSIGN. 4-17)
THE FORM PRINTED ON THE INSIDE OF THE FRONT JACKEET COVER SHOULD BE COMPLETED IN WHAT TYPE OF WRITING UTENSILS?
PENCIL
ASSIGN. 4-18
WHERE IS THE DD2005, PRIVACY ACT STATEMENT LOCATED IN THE NAVMED 6150/21-30?
FRONT OF CENTER PAGE (PART II)
ASSIGN. 4-19
WHERE IS THE DISCLOSURE ACCOUNTING RECORD LOCATED IN THE NAVMED 6150/21-30?
BACK OF CENTER PAGE (PART III)
ASSIGN. 4-20
WHAT FORM IS THE DENTAL HEALTH QUESTIONNAIRE?
NAVMED 6600/3
ASSIGN. 4-21
WHAT FORM IS ROUTINELY USED FOR INPATIENT ADMISSION AND FILED IN THE IREC?
SF509
ASSIGN. 4-22
WHAT IS THE PRIMARY FORM FOR ALL OUTPATIENT CARE?
SF600
ASSIGN. 4-23
WHAT IS THE ADULT PREVENTATIVE AND CHRONIC CARE FLOW SHEET?
DD 2766
ASSIGN. 4-24
WHAT IS THE EYEWEAR PRESCRIPTION?
DD 771
ASSIGN. 4-25
WHAT FORM IS THE CONSULTATION SHEET?
SF 513
ASSIGN. 4-26
WHAT FORM IS A MEMBER’S PERSONAL RECORD OF IMMUNIZATION?
PHS-731
ASSIGN. 4-27
WHAT IS THE DENTAL EXAM FORM?
EZ603
ASSIGN. 4-28
WHAT IS THE DENTAL TREATMENT FORM?
DENTAL TREATMENT FORM
ASSIGN. 4-29
DENTAL EXAM FORMS SHOULD BE FILED IN WHICH SECTION OF THE NAVMED 6150/21-30?
BACK OF THE CENTER PAGE (PART III)
ASSIGN. 4-30
WHERE IS THE FORENSIC EXAMINATION FORM LOCATED IN THE NAVMED 6150/21-30?
INSIDE THE BACK COVER (PART IV)
ASSIGN. 4-31
THE MOST CURRENT DENTAL TREATMENT FORM EZ603A IS FILED IN WHICH SECTION OF THE NAVMED 6150/21?
INSIDE BACK COVER (PART IV)
ASSIGN. 4-32
WHEN USING THE TERMINAL FILING SYSTEM, HOW MANY EQUAL SECTIONS ARE THE CENTRAL FILES DIVIDED INTO?
100
ASSIGN. 4-33
ALL FORMS DOCUMENTING PATIENT CARE PLACED IN THE NAVMED 6150-21/30 WILL CONTAIN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PATIENT INFORMATION?
ALL OF THE FOLLOWING (ABOVE):
(1) FMP AND SPONSOR’S SSN
(2) NAME - LAST, FIRST, MIDDLE INITIAL
(3) SPONSOR’S BRANCH OF SERVICE AND STATUS
(ASSIGN. 4-34)
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING NAVMED FORMS IS THE HEALTH RECORD RECEIPT?
NAVMED 6150/7
ASSIGN. 4-35
SEQUENTIAL BITEWING RADIOGRAPHS SHOULD BE FILED IN WHICH SECTION OF THE NAVMED 6150/21-30?
INSIDE FRONT COVER
ASSIGN. 4-36
WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM TIME ALLOWED FOR THE RETENTION OF LOOSE TREATMENT FORMS?
1 YEAR
ASSIGN. 4-37
WHERE WOULD THE HM LOCATE THE POLICIES AND GUIDANCE FOR OPERATING AND MANAGING PROCEDURES OF SUPPLY DEPARTMENTS AND ACTIVITIES?
NAVSUP P-485
ASSIGN. 5-1
THE AGREEMENT TO CONTRACT WITH A VENDOR WITHOUT THE APPROPRIATE LEVEL OF AUTHORITY IS ALSO KNOWN AS?
UNAUTHORIZED COMMITMENT
ASSIGN. 5-2
WHEN A REQUISITION EXCEEDS THE CURRENT COMPETITIVE THRESHOLD, THE HM MUST RECEIVE QUOTES FROM HOW MANY ADDITIONAL VENDORS?
3
ASSIGN. 5-3
ANY ITEM THAT HAS AN APPLICATION AND APPEARS ON APL, SNSL, ISL, OR NAVAL SHIP SYSTEMS COMMAND IS KNOWN AS WHAT?
REPAIR PART
ASSIGN. 5-4
HOW MANY DIGITS ARE INCLUDED IN THE FEDERAL SUPPLY CLASSIFICATION?
2
ASSIGN. 5-5
WHAT IS THE FEDERAL SUPPLY CLASSIFICATION? (BELOW)
6515-00-123-4567
A B C D
6515
A
(ASSIGN. 5-6)
WHAT IS THE NATIONAL CODIFICATION BUREAU CODE? (BELOW)
6515-00-123-4567
A B C D
00
B
(ASSIGN. 5-7)
THE SUM TOTAL OF THE OPERATING LEVEL AND SAFETY LEVEL IS ALSO KNOWN AS WHAT?
STOCKAGE OBJECTIVE
ASSIGN. 5-8
A CONTROLLED SUBSTANCE INVENTORY IS CONDUCTED HOW OFTEN?
MONTHLY
ASSIGN. 5-9
THE END USER MUST COMPLETE ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT UPON RECEIPT OF ITEMS?
PLACE A CHECK BY EACH ITEM RECEIVED
ASSIGN. 5-10
WHAT IS THE MOST COMMON RECEIPT DOCUMENT THAT IS ENCOUNTERED?
DD 1348
ASSIGN. 5-11
WHEN THE HM ENCOUNTERS A SHIPPING OR PACKAGING DISCREPANCY ON BEHALF OF THE SHIPPER, THE HM SHOULD SUBMIT A ______?
REPORT OF DISCREPANCY
ASSIGN. 5-12
A ROD IS SUBMITTED ON WHAT FORM?
SF364
ASSIGN. 5-13
THE FIRST IN, FIRST OUT METHOD IS A PROCESS OF ISSUING ITEMS TO THE FIRST PERSON WHO ARRIVES. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 5-14
THE FIRST IN, FIRST OUT. METHOD IS MOST IMPORTANT WHEN DEALING WITH ITEMS THAT HAVE A SHELF LIFE OR EXPIRATION CODE?
TRUE
ASSIGN. 5-15
WHEN THE BODY IS IN THE ANATOMICAL POSITION THE THUMBS POINT______?
LATERALLY
ASSIGN. 6-1
A PERSON LYING ON HIS/HER BACK IS IN WHAT POSITION?
SUPINE
ASSIGN. 6-2
THE PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL BREAKDOWN OF THE FOOD WE EAT IS CALLED _____?
DIGESTION
ASSIGN. 6-3
THE TRANSFER OF FLUIDS ACROSS THE PLASMA MEMBRANE OF A CELL FROM AN AREA OF HIGHER CONCENTRATION TO AN AREA OF LOWER CONCENTRATION IS A PROCESS KNOWN AS _______?
DIFFUSION
ASSIGN. 6-4
HOMEOSTASIS IS DEFINED AS ______?
SELF-REGULATING CONTROL OF THE BODY’S INTERNAL ENVIRONMENT
ASSIGN. 6-5
THAT PORTION OF A CELL CONTAINING ALL THE GENETIC MATERIAL IMPORTANT IN THE CELL’S REPRODUCTION IS CALLED THE ______?
NUCLEUS
ASSIGN. 6-6
THE SECRETION OF DIGESTIVE FLUIDS AND THE ABSORPTION OF DIGESTED FOODS AND LIQUIDS IS THE CHIEF FUNCTION OF WHICH TISSUE?
COLUMNAR
ASSIGN. 6-7
THE BODY’S PRIMARY THERMO-REGULATORY ACTION IS A FUNCTION OF DILATING AND CONTRACTING BLOOD VESSELS AND THE _____?
SWEAT GLANDS
ASSIGN. 6-8
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE THE TWO MOST PROMINENT MINERAL ELEMENTS OF BONE?
PHOSPHOROUS AND CALCIUM
ASSIGN. 6-9
THE BONES OF THE WRIST ARE CLASSIFIED AS WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING BONES?
SHORT
ASSIGN. 6-10
BONES OF THE CRANIUM INCLUDE WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?
OCCIPITAL
ASSIGN. 6-11
THE AXIAL SKELETON IS COMPOSED OF WHICH TWO REGIONS OF THE SKELETAL SYSTEM?
SKULL AND VERTEBRAL COLUMN
ASSIGN. 6-12
THE UPPER THREE RIBS OKN EACH SIDE ARE KNOWN AS WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TYPES?
TRUE RIBS
ASSIGN. 6-13
THE CONCAVITY INTO WHICH THE HEAD OF THE HUMERUS ARTICULATES IS CALLED THE ____?
GLENOID FOSSA
ASSIGN. 6-14
THE INNOMINATE BONES IS COMPOSED OF THREE PARTS THAT ARE UNITED IN ADULTS TO FORM A CUPLIKE STRUCTURE CALLED THE _______?
ACETABELUM
ASSIGN. 6-15
THE PROMINENCE EASILY FELT ON TH EINNER AND OUTER ASPECTS FO THE ANKLE ARE CALLED _____?
MEDIAL AND LATERAL MALLEOLUS
ASSIGN. 6-16
BONES THAT DEVELOP WITHIN A TENDON ARE KNOWN AS WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?
SEISMOID
ASSIGN. 6-17
MOVING AN EXTREMITY AWAY FROM THE BODY IS CALLED?
ABDUCTION
ASSIGN. 6-18
THE ACT OF STRAIGHTENING A LIMB IS KNOWN AS?
EXTENSION
ASSIGN. 6-19
THE PRIMARY FUNCTION OF THE MUSCLES INCLUDES ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT ______?
PRODUCING RED BLOOD CELLS
ASSIGN. 6-20
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROPERTIES DESCRIBES THE ABILITY OF MUSCLES TO RESPOND TO A STIMULUS?
IRRITABILITY
ASSIGN. 6-21
THE ABILITY OF MUSCLES TO REGAIN THEIR ORIGINAL FORM WHEN STRETCHED IS KNOWN AS ______?
ELASTICITY
ASSIGN. 6-22
ACTIN AND MYOSIN ARE TWO PROTEIN SUBSTANCES INVOLVED IN ____?
MUSCLE CONTRACTION
ASSIGN. 6-23
IF A GENERALLY SEDENTARY PERSON IN LESS THAN GOOD PHYSICAL HEALTH ENTERS A MARATHON WITH THE INTENT TO COMPLETE THE RACE, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING OUTCOMES CAN HE/SHE BE EXPECTED TO ENCOUNTER?
HE/SHE RUNS THE RISK OF MUSCLE DAMAGE
ASSIGN. 6-24
INTRAMUSCULAR INJECTIONS ARE FREQUENTLY GIVEN IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MUSCLES?
DELTOID
ASSIGN. 6-25
INTRAMUSCULAR INJECTIONS ARE USUALLY GIVEN IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MUSCLES?
GLUTEUS MAXIMUS
ASSIGN. 6-26
THE TOTAL BLOOD VOLUME IN THE AVERAGE ADULT IS IN WHAT RANGE?
5 TO 6 LITERS
ASSIGN. 6-27
A DECREASED RED BLOOD CELL (RBC) COUNT COULD BE THE RESULT OF A MEDICAL CONDITION AFFECTING THE _____?
RED MARROW
ASSIGN. 6-28
A WHITE BLOOD CELL (WBC) COUNT OF 18,000 MAY INDICATE WHAT CONDITION?
INFECTION
ASSIGN. 6-29
IN AN ACCIDENT VICTIM SUFFERING FROM A FIBRINOGEN DEFICIENCY, THE RESCUER MAY HAVE DIFFICULTY PERFORMING WHICH OF HTE ACTIONS BELOW?
CONTROLLING HEMORRHAGE
ASSIGN. 6-30
IN ADDITION TO PREVENTING EXCESSIVE BLOOD LOSS, THE FORMATION OF A BLOOD CLOT SERVES WHICH, IF ANY, OF THE FOLLOWING PURPOSES?
TO FORM THE FOUNDATION FOR NEW TISSUE GROWTH
ASSIGN. 6-31
THE VALVES OF THE HEART INCLUDE ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT _____?
VAGUS
ASSIGN. 6-32
OXYGENATED BLOOD IS CARRIED BY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING VEIN(S)?
PULMONARY
ASSIGN. 6-33
THE CONTRACTION PHASE OF THE HEART IS ______?
SYSTOLE
ASSIGN. 6-34
THE PULSE PRESSURE IS THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MEASUREMENT?
SYSTOLE AND DIASTOLE
ASSIGN. 6-35
THE VENOUS SYSTEM THAT CARRIES THE DIGESTED MATERIALS FORM THE INTESTINAL TRACT IS CALLED THE ______?
PORTAL
ASSIGN. 6-36
LYMPH NODES PARTICIPATE IN ALL OF THE FOLLOWING FUNCTIONS EXCEPT ______?
PRODUCTION OF HORMONES
ASSIGN. 6-37
WINDPIPE IS ANOTHER TERM FOR _______?
TRACHEA
ASSIGN. 6-38
THE PRIMARY MUSCLE OF RESPIRATION IS KNOWN AS THE _____?
DIAPHRAGM
ASSIGN. 6-39
OF THE FOLLOWING NERVES, WHICH, IF ANY, CONTROLS THE LARYNX DURING THE PROCESS OF BREATHING?
VAGUS
ASSIGN. 6-40
A NERVE CELL OR NEURON IS COMPOSED OF ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT A/AN _______?
SYNAPSE
ASSIGN. 6-41
THE IMPULSE RECEPTORS OF A NERVE ARE CALLED ______?
DENDRITES
ASSIGN. 6-42
THE SPACE THROUGH WHICH A NERVE IMPULSE PASSES FROM ONE NEURON TO ANOTHER IS CALLED A/AN ______?
SYNAPSE
ASSIGN. 6-43
BALANCE, COORDINATION OR MOVEMENT, AND HARMONY OF MOTION ARE FUNCTIONS OF WHAT PART OF THE BRAIN?
CREBELLUM
ASSIGN. 6-44
CIRCULATION AND RESPIRATION ARE CONTROLLED PRIMARILY FROM WHAT AREA OF THE BRAIN?
MEDULLA
ASSIGN. 6-45
THE MENINGES, WHICH COVER THE OUTER PORTION OF THE BRAIN AND SPINAL CORD ARE COMPOSED OF ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT ________?
FORAMEN MAGNUM
ASSIGN. 6-46
IN WHAT PART OF THE BODY IS CEREBRAL SPINAL FLUID PRODUCED?
CENTRAL VENTRICLES
ASSIGN. 6-47
THE 12 PAIRS OF CRANIAL AND 31 PAIRS OF SPINAL NERVES FORM WHAT NERVOUS SYSTEM?
PERIPHERAL
ASSIGN. 4-48
THIS NERVE CONTROLS THE MUSCLES OF THE TONGUE. (CRANIAL NERVE)
HYPOGLOSSAL 14
ASSIGN. 6-49
THIS NERVE ALLOWS YOU TO STICK OUT YOUR TONGUE. (CRANIAL NERVE)
GLOSSOPHARYNGEAL 9
ASSIGN. 6-50
THIS NERVE RECEIVES SENSORY INPUT FROM THE FACE. (CRANIAL NERVE)
FACIAL 7
ASSIGN. 6-51
THE AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM IS COMPOSED OF TWO MAIN DIVISIONS.
SYMPATHETIC AND PARASYMPATHETIC SYSTEMS
ASSIGN. 6-52
CONSERVATION AND RESTORATION OF ENERGY ARE THE RESULT OF NERVE IMPULSES ARISING FROM WHICH, IF ANY, OF THE FOLLOWING NERVOUS SYSTEMS?
PARASYPATHETIC
ASSIGN. 6-53
WHAT IS THE NERVOUS SYSTEM RESPONSIBLE FOR INCREASED HEART RATE?
SYMPATHETIC
ASSIGN. 6-54
WHAT IS THE NERVOUS SYSTEM RESPONSIBLE FOR VISUAL ACUITY?
PERIPHERAL
ASSIGN. 6-55
WHAT NERVOUS SYSTEM DECREASES HEART RATE TO WITHIN NORMAL LIMITS?
PARASYMPATHETIC
ASSIGN. 6-56
WHAT NERVOUS SYSTEM IS RESPONSIBLE FOR THE REFLEX ARC?
PERIPHERAL
ASSIGN. 6-57
HORMONES SECRETED BY THE ENDOCRINE SYSTEM ARE ____?
SECRETED INTO THE CIRCULATORY SYSTEM
ASSIGN. 6-58
THE OVERPRODUCTION OF WHICH HORMONE LEADS TO ACGROMEGALY?
SOMATOTROPIN
ASSIGN. 6-59
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DISEASES IS CHARACTERIZED BY A DEFICIENCY OF THE ANTIDIURETIC HORMONE?
DIABETES INSIPIDUS
ASSIGN. 6-60
AN INSUFFICIENT SECRETION OF THYROXIN IS CHARACTERIZED BY ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT ______?
PROFUSE SWEATING
ASSIGN. 6-61
CALCIUM LEVELS IN THE BLOOD ARE CONTROLLED BY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING HORMONES?
THYROXIN
ASSIGN. 6-62
ELECTROLYTE BALANCE IS A FUNCTION OF THE HORMONE PRODUCED BY THE _____?
POSTERIOR LOBE OF THE PITUITARY GLAND
ASSIGN. 6-63
A METABOLIC RESPONSE TO EPINEPHRINE INCLUDES WHICH, IF ANY, OF THE SYMPTOMS LISTED BELOW?
INCREASED BLOOD PRESSURE
ASSIGN. 6-64
WHAT HORMONE IS PRODUCED BY THE ALPHA CELLS OF THE ISLANDS OF LANGERHANS IN THE PANCREAS?
GLUCAGON
ASSIGN. 6-65
THE CORNEA IS PART OF THE PROTECTIVE OUTER LAYER OF THE EYE CALLED THE ______?
SCLERA
ASSIGN. 6-66
THE INNER PART OF THE EYE DERIVES ITS DIMENSIONAL NOURISHMENT PRIMARILY FROM WHAT VASCULAR TISSUE?
CHOROID
ASSIGN. 6-67
THE DILATION OF THE PUPIL, A MUSCULAR RESPONSE OF THE IRIS, NORMALLY OCCURS AS A RESULT OF WHAT?
DECREASED INTENSITY OF LIGHT
ASSIGN. 6-68
OF THE ELEMENTS LISTED BELOW, WHICH MAKES SEEING IN THE DARK POSSIBLE?
RODS
ASSIGN. 6-69
BY WHAT PROCESS IS THREE DIMENSIONAL VISION PRODUCED?
CONVERGENCE
ASSIGN. 6-70
THE MECHANICAL TRANSMISION OF SOUND FROM THE TYMPANIC MEMBRANE TOTHE INNER EAR IS A FUNCTION OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?
AUDITORY OSSICLES
ASSIGN. 6-71
WHAT STRUCTURE(S) OF THE INNER EAR PROVIDE(S) NERUAL STIMULI USED TO MAINTAIN EQUILIBRIUM?
SEMICIRCULAR CANALS
ASSIGN. 6-72
THE CONVERSION OF MECHANICAL IMPULSES (SOUND WAVES) TO NEURAL IMPULSES THAT CAN BE INTERRUPTED BY THE BRAIN IS A FUNCTION OF THE ______?
ORGAN OF CORTI
ASSIGN. 6-73
THE ENZYMATIC ACTION OF AMYLASE RESULTS IN THE CHEMICAL BREAKDOWN OF ______?
STARCHES TO COMPLEX SUGARS
ASSIGN. 6-74
ABSORPTION OF FOOD OCCURS PRDOMINATLY IN WHIHC OF THE FOLLOWING AREAS OF THE INTESTINES?
SMALL INTESTINES
ASSIGN. 6-75
OF THESE LISTED BELOW, WHICH FUNCTION AS THE ACCESSORY ORGANS OF DIGESTION FOR SMALL INTESTINES?
PANCREAS, LIVER, AND GALLBLADDER
ASSIGN. 6-76
THE GALLBLADDER PERFORMS WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PURPOSES?
STORES BILE
ASSIGN. 6-77
THE FUNCTIONAL UNIT FO THE KIDNEY IS CALLED THE ____?
NEPHRON
ASSIGN. 6-78
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS/ARE (A) FUNCTION(S) OF THE KIDNEYS?
- TO MAINTAIN ACID-BASE BALANCE
- TO REMOVE EXCESS WASTE FROM THE BLOOD
- FORMATION OF URINE
(ASSIGN. 6-79)
WHAT IS THE APPROXIMATE TOTAL CAPACITY OF THE ADULT BLADDER?
600 mL
ASSIGN. 6-80
TESTOSTERONE PRODUCTION IS A FUNCTION OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING GLANDS?
TESTES
ASSIGN. 6-81
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS/ARE CONSIDERED THE PRIMARY FEMALE REPRODUCTIVE ORGANS?
OVARIES
ASSIGN. 6-82
FERTILIZATION OF AN OVUM NORMALLY TAKES PLACE IN THE _____?
FALLOPIAN TUBES
ASSIGN. 6-83
THE LIMITATIONS IMPOSED UPON A HEALTHCARE PROVIDER ARE BASED ON LOCAL REGULATIONS AND WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ELEMENTS?
THE PROVIDERS TRAINING AND EXPERIENCE
ASSIGN. 6-84
DENTAL DEVELOPMENT USUALLY BEGINS IN WHICH WEEK OF PRENATAL LIFE?
6TH
ASSIGN. 7-1
HOW MANY TOTAL TOOTH BUDS ARE PRESENT IN THE PRENATAL MAXILLARY AND MANDIBULAR ARCH?
10
ASSIGN. 7-2
WHAT IS THE NAME OF THE LAST PERIOD OF TOOTH GROWTH?
HISTODIFFERENTIATION
ASSIGN. 7-3
HOW MANY YEARS DOES IT TAKE PERMANENT TEETH TO EMERGE AFTER CROWN COMPLETION?
3
ASSIGN. 7-4
WHEN PRIMARY TEETH GET READY TO FALL OUT AN DMAKE WAY FOR THE ERUPTION OF PERMANENT TEETH, WHAT IS THE NAME OF THIS PROCESS?
EXFOLIATION
ASSIGN. 7-5
THE PART OF THE CROWN THAT IS VISIBLE IN THE MOUTH IS KNOWN BY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TERMS?
CLINICAL CROWN
ASSIGN. 7-6
WHAT IS THE NAME OF THE REGION WHERE THE ROOTS SEPARATE?
FURCATION
ASSIGN. 7-7
THE TIP OF EACH ROOT IS KNOWN BY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TERMS?
APEX
ASSIGN. 7-8
WHEN THERE IS A SLIGHT INDENTATION THAT ENCIRCLES THE TOOTH AND MARKS THE JUNCTION OF THE CROWN WITH THE ROOT, IT IS KNOWN BY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TERMS?
CERVICAL LINE
ASSIGN. 7-9
ENAMEL IS FORMED BY WHAT TYPE OF EPITHELIAL CELLS?
AMELOBLASTS
ASSIGN. 7-10
WHAT IS THE CHIEF FUNCTION OF THE PULP?
FORMATION OF DENTIN
ASSIGN. 7-11
WHAT PORTION OF THE MAXILLA AND MANDIBLE ARE TEETH EMBEDDED?
ALVEOLAR PROCESS
ASSIGN. 7-12
WHEN VIEWED BY A RADIOGRAPH, THE TRABECULAR BONE WILL HAVE WHAT TYPE OF APPEARANCE?
WEB-LIKE
ASSIGN. 7-13
A TOOTH IS SUSPENDED IN ITS SOCKET BY WHAT LIGAMENT?
PERIODONTAL
ASSIGN. 7-14
THE ORAL MUCOSA CONSISTS OF HOW MANY TOTAL TYPES OF MUCOSA?
3
ASSIGN. 7-15
THE HARD PALATE IS COVERED WITH WHAT TYPE OF MUCOSA?
MASTICATORY
ASSIGN. 7-16
WHAT IS THE TERM GIVEN TO THE PORTION OF GINGIVA THAT EXTENDS FROM THE GINGIVAL CREST TO THE CREST OF THE BONE?
UNATTACHED GINGIVA
ASSIGN. 7-17
WHAT AREA IS THE FIRST TO SHOE THE SYMPTOMS OF GINGIVITIS?
GINGIVAL MARGIN
ASSIGN. 7-18
WHAT AREA PREVENTS FOOD FROM PACKING BETWEEN THE TEETH?
INTERDENTAL PAPILLA
ASSIGN. 7-19
WHAT TYPE OF TISSUE IS FOUND ON THE INSIDE OF THE LIPS, CHEEKS, VESTIBULE, SOFT PALATE, AND UNDER THE TONGUE?
LINING MUCOSA
ASSIGN. 7-20
HOW MANY DENTAL QUADRANTS ARE IN THE MOUTH?
4
ASSIGN. 7-21
HOW MANY PRIMARY TEETH ARE THERE IN A NORMAL DECIDUOUS MOUTH?
20
ASSIGN. 7-22
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING REASONS AFFECT HOW TEETH ARE FORMED?
CUTTING, TEARING, AND GRINDING
ASSIGN. 7-23
WHAT TYPE OF SHAPE DOES THE LINGUAL SURFACE OF AN INCISOR HAVE?
SHOVEL
ASSIGN. 7-24
CUSPIDS ARE DESIGNED TO PERFORM WHAT TYPE OF FUNCTION?
CUTTING AND TEARING
ASSIGN. 7-25
WHAT IS THE NAME OF THE SYSTEM THAT IS USED BY THE ARMED FORCES TO IDENTIFY TEETH?
UNIVERSAL NUMBERING
ASSIGN. 7-26
PRIMARY TEETH ARE IDENTIFIED BY WHICH LETTERS OF THE ALPHABET?
A TO T
ASSIGN. 7-27
THE MESIAL SURFACE OF A TOOTH IS LOCATED IN WHICH AREA?
CLOSEST TO THE MIDLINE OF THE ARCH
ASSIGN. 7-28
THE DISTAL SURFACE OF A TOOTH IS LOCATED IN WHICH AREA?
AWAY FROM THE MIDLINE OF THE ARCH
ASSIGN. 7-29
A TOOTH HAS HOW MANY PROXIMAL SURFACES?
2
ASSIGN. 7-30
THE INTER-PROXIMAL SPACE IS OCCUPIED BY WHAT TYPE OF ANATOMY?
INTERDENTAL PAPILLA
ASSIGN. 7-31
THE ANTERIOR POSTERIOR CURVE IS REFERRED TO BY WHAT TERM?
CURVE OF SPEE
ASSIGN. 7-32
IF A PATIENT’S PROFILE IS CHARACTERIZED AS “NORMAL,” IT IS A CLASS _______ ANGLE.
CLASS I
ASSIGN. 7-23
THE MESIAL MARGIN OF A MAXILLARY CENTRAL INCISOR MEETS THE INCISAL EDGE AT ALMOST WHAT DEGREE ANGLE?
90
ASSIGN. 7-34
WHAT ARE THE FIRST PERMANENT TEETH TO ERUPT?
MANDIBULAR LATERAL INCISOR
ASSIGN. 7-35
WHAT IS THE TERM USED TO DESCRIBE THE APPEARANCE OF A MANDIBULAR FIRST BICUSPID?
BELL-CROWNED
ASSIGN. 7-36
WHAT TOOTH WILL HAVE A FIFTH CUSP ON IT?
MANDIBULAR SECOND MOLAR
ASSIGN. 7-37
WHAT DENTAL ANATOMY HAS A ROUNDED OR ANGULAR DEPRESSION OF VARYING SIZES FOUND ON THE SURFACE OF A TOOTH?
CUSP
ASSIGN. 7-38
WHAT IS THE NAME OF THE DENTAL ANATOMY THAT HAS SMALL, ROUNDED PROJECTIONS OF ENAMEL FROM THE INCISAL EDGES OF NEWLY ERUPTED ANTERIOR TEETH?
MAMELONS
ASSIGN. 7-39
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS DOES THE SCIENCE OF ORAL PATHOLOGY NOT TREAT?
SURGICAL PROCEDURES
ASSIGN. 8-1
WHO IS RESPONSIBLE FOR INFORMING A PATIENT WHEN AN ORAL DISEASE IS FOUND?
DENTAL OFFICER
ASSIGN. 8-2
ABOUT HOW MANY MILLILITERS (mL) OF SALIVA DO THE SALIVARY GLANDS SECRETE ON A DAILY BASIS?
1500 mL
ASSIGN. 8-3
WHAT IS AN ENCLOSED POUCH OR SAC THAT CONTAINS FLUID OR SEMI-SOLID MATERIAL?
CYST
ASSIGN. 8-4
WHAT MAY BE CAUSED BY BITING, DENTURE IRRITATION, TOOTHBRUSH INJURY, VIRUSES, OR OTHER IRRITANTS?
ULCERS
ASSIGN. 8-5
WHAT IS A ROUND PINPOINT NON-RAISED, LESION WITH PURPLISH-RED SPOTS?
PETICHIAE
ASSIGN. 8-6
WHAT IS A LOCAL COLLECTION OF BLOOD THAT ESCAPED FROM BLOOD VESSELS BECAUSE OF TRAUMA?
HEMATOMA
ASSIGN. 8-7
WHAT IS A SMALL ELEVATION THAT CONTAINS FLUID?
VESICLES
ASSIGN. 8-8
WHAT IS A LARGE, PURPLISH-RED AREAS CAUSED BY BLOOD UNDER THE SKIN OR MUCOSA?
ECCHYMOSES
ASSIGN. 8-9
WHAT IS COMMONLY CAUSED BY A BACTERIAL INFECTION?
ABCESS
ASSIGN. 8-10
WHEN DENTAL CARIES FIRST APPEAR ON ENAMEL, WHAT IS THAT APPEARANCE?
A CHALKY WHITE SPOT
ASSIGN. 8-11
WHAT TYPE OF BACTERIA HAS BEEN LINKED TO TOOTH DECAY?
STREPTOCOCCI
ASSIGN. 8-12
RECURRENT CARIES WILL OCCUR IN A TOOTH IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CIRCUMSTANCES?
LEAKY MARGINS
ASSIGN. 8-13
PIT AND FISSURES CARIES DEVELOP IN WHAT AREA OF A TOOTH?
DEPRESSION
ASSIGN. 8-14
SMOOTH SURFACE CARIES DEVELOP IN WHAT AREA OF A TOOTH?
PROXIMAL SURFACES
ASSIGN. 8-15
PULPAGIA COMMONLY OCCURS AFTER WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROCEDURES HAS BEEN PERFORMED ON TOOTH?
AFTER A RESTORATION
ASSIGN. 8-16
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DEFINITIONS BEST DESCRIBES PULPITIS?
INFLAMMATION OF THE DENTAL PULP
ASSIGN. 8-17
IF A PERIAPICAL ABCESS IS LEFT UNTREATED, IN WHAT AREA OF A TOOTH WILL BONE LOSS OCCUR?
APEX
ASSIGN. 8-18
DEAD PULPAL TISSUE WILL DECOMPOSE AND PRODUCE WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING RESULTS?
TOXINS
ASSIGN. 8-19
WHAT CHRONIC DISEASE IS THE MOST PREVALENT IN MANKIND?
PERIODONTAL
ASSIGN. 8-20
MARGINAL GINGIVITIS USUALLY STARTS IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING AREAS?
TIPS OF THE PAPILLAE
ASSIGN. 8-21
THE ULCERATION OF THE GINGIVAL CREST IN NUG RESULTS IN WHAT TYPE OF AN APPEARANCE?
PUNCHED OUT
ASSIGN. 8-22
WHEN PERIODONTITIS PROGRESSES, THE GINGIVAL TISSUES WILL APPEAR AS WHAT COLOR?
BLUISH RED
ASSIGN. 8-23
DURING POCKET FORMATION, WHAT TYPE OF PROJECTIONS OF CALCULUS FORM BETWEEN THE TEETH?
SHELF-LIKE
ASSIGN. 8-24
THE GINGIVA SURROUNDING A PERIODONTAL ABCESS WILL HAVE WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING APPEARANCES?
INFLAMED AND SWOLLEN
ASSIGN. 8-25
RECURRENT APHTHOUS STOMATITIS ARE LESIONS OF WHAT TYPE?
ULCERS
ASSIGN. 8-26
WHAT TYPE OF HERPES SIMPLEX VIRUS IS MOST COMMONLY DIAGNOSED IN ORAL PATHOLOGY?
HSV-I
ASSIGN. 8-27
RECURRENT HERPES SIMPLEX LESIONS THAT AFFECT ROUTINE DENTAL TREATMENT SHOULD BE RESCHEDULED FOR WHAT PERIOD OF TIME?
AFTER THE ACTIVE PHASE
ASSIGN. 8-28
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ORAL MANIFESTATIONS ARE A SIGN OF HIV INFECTION?
- CANDIDIASIS
- HAIRY LEUKOPLAKIA
- KAPOSI’S SARCOMA
(ASSIGN. 8-29)
WHAT ARE THE TWO TYPES OF NEOPLASMS THAT CAN BE DIAGNOSED IN ORAL CANCER?
BENIGN AND MALIGNANT
ASSIGN. 8-30
THE GROWTH OR SPREAD OF MALIGNANT TUMORS FROM ONE AREA TO ANOTHER IS KNOWN BY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS?
METASTASIS
ASSIGN. 8-31
THE AREA WHERE THE USER OF SMOKELESS TOBACCO DEVELOPS AN ORAL PRECANCEROUS LESIONS IS DEFINED AS WHAT TYPE PATHOLOGY?
SNUFF-DIPPERS KERATOSIS
ASSIGN. 8-32
WHEN DOES A CONGENITAL DISORDER OCCUR?
AT BIRTH
ASSIGN. 8-33
WHAT CONDITION MUST EXIST FOR AN IMPACTION TO OCCUR?
PHYSICAL BARRIER
ASSIGN. 8-34
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS CAUSES ATTRITION?
WEAR INVOLVING TEETH AGAINST TEETH
ASSIGN. 8-35
WHICH DISORDER AFFECTS PATIENTS WITH BULIMIA?
EROSION
ASSIGN. 8-36
A _____ IS ANY ANIMAL CAPABLE OF TRANSMITTING PATHOGENS OR PRODUCING HUMAN OR ANIMAL DISCOMFORT OR INJURY.
VECTOR
ASSIGN. 9-1
THE FINDINGS OF FOOD-SERVICE INSPECTIONS ARE DOCUMENTED ON WHAT FORM?
NAVMED 6240/1
ASSIGN. 9-2
WHAT INSTRUCTION SETS THE STANDARD FOR DRINKING WATER FOR U.S. NAVAL ESTABLISHMENTS BOTH ASHORE AND AFLOAT?
BUMEDINST 6240.1
ASSIGN. 9-3
THE MEDICAL DEPARTMENTS ABOARD SHIPS ARE NOT REQUIRED TO INCLUDE ICE SAMPLES IN BACTERIOLOGICAL ANALYSES PERFORMED ON WATER. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE. “THE MEDICAL DEPARTMENTS ABOARD SHIPS ARE REQUIRED TO INCLUDE ICE SAMPLES IN ANY BACTERIOLOGICAL ANALYSES THE PERFORM ON WATER.” PG. 9-4
(ASSIGN. 9-4)
____ ARE INSTRUMENTS THAT FREQUENTLY CONTACT MUCOUS MEMBRANES, BUT CANNOT BE STERILIZED BECAUSE OF THEIR DESIGN OR INABILITY TO WITHSTAND HEAT.
SEMICRITICAL ITEMS
ASSIGN. 9-5
SPRAY-WIPE-SPRAY IS ______.
AN ACCEPTABLE METHOD OF CLEANING AND DISINFECTING.
ASSIGN. 9-6
WHEN SHOULD THE HM WASH HIS/HER HANDS?
- AT THE BEGINNING OF THE DAY
- BEFORE HANDLING FOOD
- BETWEEN PATIENTS
(ASSIGN. 9-7)
WHAT IS NOT A CHARACTERISTIC OF RESIDENT FLORA?
ARE NOT FIRMLY ATTACHED TO THE SKIN.
ASSIGN. 9-8
WHAT TYPE OF HAND WASHING AGENT USUALLY HAS 4 PERCENT ISOPROPYL ALCOHOL IN A SUDSY BASE?
CHLOROHEXIDINE GLUCONATE
ASSIGN. 9-9
WHEN THE HM IS PREPARING FOR A SURGICAL CASE, WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM LENGTH OF THE FINGERNAIL?
NO LONGER THAN THE TIPS OF THE FINGERS
ASSIGN. 9-10
WHAT TYPE OF GLOVES ARE TH HIGHEST QUALITY AND BEST FITTING?
STERILE GLOVES
ASSIGN. 9-11
WHERE CAN CLINICAL APPAREL BE WORN?
IN THE MTF/DTF ONLY
ASSIGN. 9-12
PROTECTIVE EYEWEAR MUST HAVE SLOTTED SPLASH SHIELDS TO PROVIDE MAXIMUM PROTECTION. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE. “EYEWEAR OR GOGGLES MUST HAVE SOLID SIDE SHIELDS TO PROVIDE MAXIMUM PROTECTION.” PG. 9-11
(ASSIGN. 9-13)
NAME A TRANSMISSION-BASED PRECAUTION.
- AIRBORNE
- DROPLET
- CONTACT
(ASSIGN. 9-14)
WHAT TYPE OF MASK SHOULD BE WORN IN CONTACT WITH A PATIENT DIAGNOSED WITH TUBERCULOSIS?
N95 RESPIRATOR
ASSIGN. 9-15
WHAT TRANSMISSION-BASED PRECAUTION REQUIRES A NEGATIVE AIR PRESSURE ROOM?
AIRBORNE
ASSIGN. 9-16
WHAT DOES THE ACRONYM MRSA STAND FOR?
METHICILIN-RESISTANT STAPHYLOCOCCUS AUREUS
ASSIGN 9-17
WHAT PERSONAL PROTECTIVE EQUIPMENT ITEM IS NOT NECESSARILY WORN WHILE TREATING A PATIENT UNDER CONTACT PRECAUTIONS?
MASK
ASSIGN. 9-18
WHAT TRANSMISSION-BASED PRECAUTION REQUIRES LIMITED TRANSPORT EXCEPT FOR ESSENTIAL PURPOSES?
DROPLET
ASSIGN. 9-19
WHAT ARE DAILY MEASURES TAKEN TO CONTROL THE SPREAD OF PATHOGENIC ORGANISMS?
CONCURRENT DISINFECTION
ASSIGN. 9-20
IN A DTR, AT THE BEGINNING OF THE DAY, THE UNIT WATER LINES ANDHOSES SHOULD BE FLUSHED FOR HOW LONG?
1 MINUTE. “FOR DTR’S, AT THE BEGINNING OF THE DAY FLUSH EACH OF THE UNIT WATER LINES AND HOSES FOR AT LEAST 1 MINUTE EVEN IF THEIR USE IS NOT ANTICIPATED AND FLUSH FOR AT LEAST 30 SEC BETWEEN PATIENTS” PG. 9-15
(ASSIGN. 9-21)
FOR EQUIPMENT THAT IS DIFFICULT TO CLEAN, WHAT SHOULD BE DONE BEFORE USING IT ON A PATIENT?
A STERILE OR CLEAN DRAPE
ASSIGN. 9-22
TO PERFORM HAND PIECE MAINTENANCE ON DENTAL HAND PIECES THE HM SHOULD REMOVE HAND PIECES, LUBRICATE, AND RUN THEM FOR HOW LONG?
30 SECONDS
ASSIGN. 9-23
WHICH ONE OF THESE CHOICES SHOULD BE PLACED IN A BIOHAZARDOUS WASTE RECEPTACLE?
USED I.V. CATHETER
ASSIGN. 9-24
WHILE IN THE PROCESS OF DOING A MINOR PROCEDURE THE HM’S GLOVE IS PUNCTURED BY A SUTURE AND IT BREAKS THE SKIN, SHOULD THE HM REPORT IT TO OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH?
YES ANY PUNCTURE WITH POSSIBLE CONTAMINATED FLUID SHOULD BE REPORTED
(ASSIGN. 9-25)
NEEDLES, SCALPELS, AND SUTURES SHOULD BE DISPOSED OF IN WHAT CONTAINER?
RIGID, PUNCTURE RESISTANT, RED CONTAINER WITH A BIOHAZARD SYMBOL
(ASSIGN. 9-26)
BED LINENS, TOWELS, SMOCKS, TROUSERS, AND OTHER PROTECTIVE ATTIRE ARE CLASSIFIED AS WHAT?
ORDINARY LAUNDRY
ASSIGN. 9-27
WHAT IS THE TERM USED TO DESCRIBE THE STERILIZATION, STORAGE, AND HANDLING OF ARTICLES TO KEEP THEM FREEE OF PATHOGENIC ORGANISMS?
SURGICAL ASEPTIC TECHNIQUE
ASSIGN. 9-28
WHAT GEAR MUST BE WORN TO ENTER A SURGICAL SUITE?
- SCRUBS
- HAIR COVER
- MASK
(ASSIGN. 9-29)
IF A STERILE ITEM’S STERILITY IS IN QUESTION THE HM SHOULD _________.
NOT USE IT IF THERE IS ANY QUESTION ABOUT THE STERILITY
ASSIGN. 9-30
IF THE SURGEION ASKS FOR A SPECIFIC KIND OF SUTURE IN THE MIDDLE OF A SURGICAL CASE WHO SHOULD RETRIEVE IT?
THE CIRCULATOR
ASSIGN. 9-31
WHILE GOWNING THE SURGEON WHO IS RESPONSIBLE FOR TYING THE GOWN?
CIRCULATOR
ASSIGN. 9-32
DISINFECTION IS MORE LETHAL PROCESS THAN STERILIZATION. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 10-1
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING LEVELS OF DISINFECTANTS ARE CLASSIFIED BY THE EPA?
INTERMEDIATE, HIGH, AND LOW
ASSIGN. 10-2
WHAT TWO TYPES OF MICRO-ORGANISMS ARE KILLED BY AL THREE LEVELS OF DISINFECTION?
LIPID VIRUSES AND VEGETATIVE BACTERIA
ASSIGN. 10-3
WHAT ARE THE THREE FACTORS THAT INFLUENCE GERMICIDAL PROCEDURES?
BIOBURDEN, NATURE OF THE MATERIAL, AND ORGANIC DEBRIS PRESENT
(ASSIGN. 10-4)
WHAT LEVELS OF A GLUTARALDEHYDE-BASED SOLUTIONS ARE FDA-REGISTERED?
2.0-3.2
ASSIGN. 10-5
WHAT LEVEL OF A DISINFECTANT AND STERILANT ARE GLUTARALDEHYDE-BASED SOLUTION CLASSIFIED?
HIGH
ASSIGN. 10-6
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A DISADVNATAGE WHEN USING CHLORINE DIOXIDE-BASED SOLUTIONS?
- HAS A 24-DAY USE LIFE AS A STERILANT
- DOES NOT READILY PENETRATE IN ORGANIC DEBRIS
- MUST BE DISCARDED DAILY
(ASSIGN. 10-7)
PROTECTIVE EYEWEAR AND GLOVES ARE NOT REQUIRED WHEN USING CHEMICAL AGENTS. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE.
ASSIGN. 10-8
THE BIOCIDAL ACTIVITY OF IODOPHORS IS ACCOMPLISHED WITH HOW MANY MINUTES OF EXPOSURE?
10-25 MINUTES
ASSIGN. 10-9
WHAT LEVEL OF DISINFECTION ARE IODOPHORS AND PHENOLICS CLASSIFIED?
INTERMEDIATE.
ASSIGN. 10-10
ALL SEMI-CRITICAL CATEGORY ITEMS SHOULD RECEIVE WHAT LEVEL OF DISINFECTION?
HIGH.
ASSIGN. 10-11
ALL NONCRITICAL CATEGORY ITEMS REQUIRE AT LEAST WHAT LEVEL OF DISINFECTION?
INTERMEDIATE.
ASSIGN. 10-12
WHAT ARE OF THE TREATMENT FACILITY IS DESIGNED FOR RECEIVING, CLEANING, PROCESSING, STERILIZING, STORING, AND ISSUING INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT?
CSR (CENTRAL STERILIZATION ROOM)
ASSIGN. 10-13
WHAT CHART TELLS CSR PERSONNEL THE SPECIFIC ORDER EQUIPMENT, INSTRUMENTS, AND MATERIALS ARE TO BE PROCESSED?
FUNCTIONAL FLOW
ASSIGN. 10-14
IN WHAT ARE OF THE CSR WILL THE DISINFECTION, CLEANING AND LUBRICATION OF DENTAL HAND PIECES TAKE PLACE?
RECEIVING AND CLEANING
ASSIGN. 10-15
IN WHAT ARE OF THE CSR WILL THE HM TAKE CONTAMINATED INSTRUMENTS AFTER COMPLETION OF A PATIENT’S TREATMENT?
RECEIVING.
ASSIGN. 10-16
WHAT CLEANING PROCESS IS SAFER AND MORE EFFECTIVE THAN MANUAL SCRUBBING”
AUTOMATED PROCESSOR
ASSIGN. 10-17
HOW MANY SINKS ARE NEEDED TO ALLOW PERSONNEL TO PERFORM THE MANUAL SCRUBBING METHOD?
THREE.
ASSIGN. 10-18
WHAT TYPE CLEANING EFFECT DOES AN ULTRASONIC CLEANER PROVIDE?
CAVITATION.
ASSIGN. 10-19
FOR PROPER OPERATION THE ULTRASONIC RESERVOIR SHOULD BE FILLED TO WHAT LEVEL WITH ULTRASONIC SOLUTION?
1/2 TO 3/4’S FULL
ASSIGN. 10-20
HOW OFTEN MUST ULTRASONIC SOLUTION BE CHANGED?
- DAILY ONLY
- WHEN VISIBLY CONTAMINATED ONLY
(ASSIGN. 10-21)
YOU SHOULD REMOVE INSTRUMENTS FROM THE ULTRASONIC UNIT BY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MEANS?
MESH BASKET
ASSIGN. 10-22
AFTER DRYING THE INSTRUMENT, WHAT IS THE NEXT STEP IN THE STERILIZATION PROCESS?
INSPECTION.
ASSIGN. 10-23
HOW ARE HINGED INSTRUMENTS ARRANGED DURING PACKAGING?
OPEN
ASSIGN. 10-24
TO ALLOW STEAM TO CIRCULATE FREELY, HOW SHOULD PACKS BE WRAPPED?
LOOSELY.
ASSIGN. 10-25
THE PERIOD DURING WHICH STERILIZED ITEMS ARE CONSIDERED SAFE FOR USE IS KNOWN BY WHIC OF THE FOLLOWING TERMS?
- EVENT-ROTATED SHELF LIFE
- EXPIRATION DATE ONLY
(ASSIGN. 10-26)
WHAT TYPE OF RELATED SHELF LIFE PRESUMES CONTINUED STERILITY UNTIL THE PACKAGE IS DAMAGED, WET, OR TORN?
EVENT
ASSIGN. 10-27
WHAT TYPE OF RELATED SHELF LIFE PRESUMES THAT AFTER THE EXPIRATION DATE THE ITEM IS CONSIDERED OUTDATED AND SHOULD NOT BE USED?
TIME.
ASSIGN. 10-28
WHAT IS THE SHELF LIFE FOR NONWOVEN BLUE WRAP USING THE TIME-RELATED METHOD?
30 DAYS.
ASSIGN. 10-29
WHAT OCCURS WHEN FRESHLY STERILIZED ITEMS ARE PLACED ON METAL OR COLD SURFACES?
CONTAMINATION.
ASSIGN. 10-30
WHEN STORING STERILIZED ITEMS, HOW SHOULD THEY BE ARRANGED?
EXPIRATION, WITH LATER DATES TOWARD THE REAR.
ASSIGN. 10-31
AT WHAT TEMPERATURE ARE ALL KNOWN ORGANISMS KILLED?
250 DEGREES FAHRENHEIT
ASSIGN. 10-32
A STEAM STERILIZER MAY BE REFERRED TO BY WHAT OTHER NAME?
AUTOCLAVE.
ASSIGN. 10-33
WHEN PLACING PACKAGES IN A STERILIZER, HOW ARE THEY PLACED?
ON THE EDGES
ASSIGN. 10-34
WHAT TYPE OF STERILIZER WAS DESIGNED TO OVERCOME THE TRAPPING OF AIR IN THE CHAMBER?
PREVACUUM STEAM (AUTOCLAVE)
ASSIGN. 10-35
WHAT IS THE LEAST EXPENSIVE FORM OF HEAT STERILIZATION?
DRY HEAT.
ASSIGN. 10-36
ALL NAVY PREVACUUM STERILIZERS WILL BE TESTED HOW OFTEN USING A BOWIE-DICK TYPE TEST?
DAILY.
ASSIGN. 10-37
HOW OFTEN IS THE INTERIOR OF A STEAM STERILIZER CLEANED BEFORE HEATING?
DAILY.
ASSIGN. 10-38
WAHT IS THE TYPICAL STANDING DRY HEAT CYCLE?
90 MINUTES AT 320-345 DEGREES FAHRENHEIT
ASSIGN. 10-39
WHAT PERCENT OF WATER CONTENT, IF ANY OCCURS WITH CHEMICAL VAPOR STERILIZATION?
15
ASSIGN. 10-40
INSTRUMENTS BEING STERILIZED IN THE STERRAD DO NOT NEED TO BE COMPLETELY DRY.
FALSE.
ASSIGN. 10-41
WHAT TYPE OF STERILIZATION IS STERRAD?
PLASMA.
ASSIGN. 10-42
WHAT TYPE OF STERILIZATION INDICATOR WILL CHANGE COLOR UPON SHORT EXPOSURE TO STERILIZATION CONDITIONS SUCH AS STEAM DRY HEAT, OR CHEMICAL VAPOR?
INTERNAL.
ASSIGN. 10-43
WHAT TYPE OF STERILIZATION WILL ASSESS WHETHER STERILIZATION ACTUALLY OCCURRED?
BIOLOGICAL.
ASSIGN. 10-44
WHAT IS THE FIRST STEP TO BE PERFORMED WHEN POSITIVE BIOLOGICAL MONITORING OCCURS?
NOTIFY ICO
ASSIGN. 10-45
THE CONCEPTS OF HEALTH INCLUDE _____?
- THE ABSENCE OF DISEASE AND DISABILITY
- SOUNDNESS OF MIND, BODY, AND SPIRIT
(ASSIGN. 11-1)
PATIENT RIGHTS AND RESPONSIBILITIES ARE STANDARDS ADDRESSED BY WHAT ORGANIZATION?
THE JOINT COMMISSION (TJC)
ASSIGN. 11-2
THE STANDARD OF PRACTICE OF LIMITIATION IMPOSED UPON A HEALTHCARE PROVIDER ARE BASED ON LOCAL REGULATIONS AND WHICH OR THE FOLLOWING ELEMENTS?
THE PROVIDERS TRAINING EXPERIENCE
ASSIGN. 11-3
IN THE HEALTHCARE FIELD, ACCOUNTABILITY MEANS THAT PROVIDERS _______.
- ARE HEALD RESPONSIBLE FOR THEIR ACTIONS
- MUST CONTINUE THEIR EDUCATION IN THE HEALTHCARE FIELD
- PROVIDE THE BEST HEALTHCARE POSSIBLE
(ASSIGN. 11-4)
A PATIENT REQUESTS THE HM’S ADVICE CONCERNING THE CARE THEY ARE UNDERGOING. WHICH, IF ANY, OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE APPROPRIATE RESPONSE?
REFER THE PATIENT TO THE NURSE OR PHYSICIAN RESPONSIBLE FOR THE CARE.
(ASSIGN. 11-5)
PERSONNEL AND MEDICAL INFORMATION LEARNED ABOUT A PATIENT AS THE RESULT OF THE HM POSITION IS PRIVILEGED AND MUST NOT BE SHARED WITH UNAUTHORIZED INDIVIDUALS. TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE.
ASSIGN. 11-6
INTERPERSONAL RELATIONS
HOW ONE RESPONDS AND REGARDS OTHERS
ASSIGN. 11-7
CULTURE
LEARNED AND SHARED BEHAVIOR PATTERNS AND STANDARDS
ASSIGN. 11-8
RACE
INHERITED CHARACTERISTICS
ASSIGN. 11-9
A PATIENT WHO IS PROFESSED ATHIEST IS PLACED ON VERY SERIOUS LIST (VSL) WITH A POR PROGNOSIS FOR RECOVERY. ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ACTIONS BY THE STAFF ARE CONSIDERED APPROPRIATE AND ETHICAL EXCEPT ______?
ATTEMPTING TO CONVINCE THE PATIENT TO ACCEPT A RELIGIOUS BELIEF
(ASSIGN. 11-10)
THE COMMUNICATION PROCESS TAKES PLACE ONLY THROUGH THE WRITTEN OR SPOKEN WORD? TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE.
ASSIGN. 11-11
COMMUNICATIONS BARRIERS INHIBIT THE FLOW OF INFORMATION AND MAY CONSIST OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FACTORS?
- HEARING IMPAIRMENT
- AGE
- EDUCATION
(ASSIGN. 11-12)
THE MOST COMMON CAUSE OF INEFFECTIVE COMMUNICATION AND THE MOST DIFFICULT OBSTACLE TO IDENTIFY IS WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING BARRIERS?
PSYCHOLOGICAL
ASSIGN. 11-13
IN THE COMMUNICATION PROCESS, LISTENING IS A CRITICAL SKILL AND CAN BE IMPROVED BY DEVELOPING WHICH, IF ANY, OF THE FOLLOWING ATTITUDES AND BEHAVIORS?
MANAGING DISTRACTIONS
ASSIGN. 11-14
THE PURPOSE OF THERAPEUTIC COMMUNICATION INCLUDES ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT?
EDUCATING A PATIENT REGARDING HEALTH AND HEALTHCARE
ASSIGN. 11-15
DEVELOP A PATIENT’S HISTORY OF COMPLAINT.
THERAPEUTIC COMMUNICATION
ASSIGN. 11-16
EXPLAINING THE NECESSITIES AND METHODS OF PERSONAL HYGIENE TO THE PARENT OF A YOUNG PATIENT.
CONTACT POINT COMMUNICATION
ASSIGN. 11-17
PROVIDING SELF-CARE INSTRUCTIONS TO A PATIENT RELEASED TO CONVALESCENT LEAVE.
THERAPEUTIC COMMUNICATION
ASSIGN. 11-18
DIRECTING A PAITENT TO THE PHARMACY TO FILL A PRESICRIPTION.
CONTACT POINT COMMUNICATION
ASSIGN. 11-19
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE GOALS OF PATIENT HEALTH EDUCATION?
- PROMOTING PATIENT SELF-CARE
- PROMOTING BEHAVIOR MODIFICATION
- INFLUENCING A PATIENT’S ATTITUDE TOWARDS HEALTH AND DISEASE
(ASSIGN. 11-20)
PATIENT EDUCATION IS THE RESPONSIBILITY OF ______>
ALL MEMBERS OF THE HEALTHCARE TEAM
ASSIGN. 11-21
IN THE EMERGENCY ROOM, THE HM IS EXAMINING A PATIENT WHO SUDDENLY VOMITS AND STATES THAT HE HAS BEEN FEELING NAUSEOUS FOR THE PAST SEVERAL HOURS.
BOTH SUBJECTIVE AND OBJECTIVE OBSERVATIONS
ASSIGN. 11-22
A PATIENT CLAIMS TO HAVE SWALLOWED MANY RESPIRATORY PROBLEMS PILLS AND COMPLAINS OF SLEEPINESS AND NAUSEA
SUBJECTIVE OBSERVATIONS ONLY
ASSIGN. 11-23
A PATIENT COMPLAINS OF CHEST PAIN AND DIFFICULTY BREATHING
SUBJECTIVE OBSERVATIONS ONLY
ASSIGN. 11-24
WHEN PICKING UP A PATIENT’S DINNER TRAY, THE HM NOTICES THAT ONLY HTE LIQUIDS HAVE BEEN CONSUMED AT THIS MEAL ALTHOUGH THE PATIENT HAS NORMALLY EATEN FULL MEALS BEFORE THIS.
OBJECTIVE OBSERVATION ONLY
ASSIGN. 11-25
AN EKG PERFORMED ON A PATIENT IS INTERPRETED AS NORMAL AND THE PATIENT’S BREATHING IMPROVES WITH OXYGEN THERAPY
OBJECTIVE OBSERVATIONS ONLY
ASSIGN. 11-26
A MEDICAL PATIENT IS PRESCRIBED THERAPEUTIC BED REST PRIMARILY FOR WHAT REASON?
TO PREVENT FURTHER DAMAGE TO BODY SYSTEMS
ASSIGN. 12-1
A HEALTHCARE PROVIDER CAN REASONABLY EXPECT THAT ALL PATIENTS ADMITTED FOR SURGICAL PROCEDURES WILL EXHIBIT WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CHARACTERISTICS?
BE FEARFUL AND ANXIOUS
ASSIGN. 12-2
SF 522, REQUEST FOR ADMINISTRATION OF ANESTHESIA AND FOR PERFORMANCE OF OPERATION AND OTHER PROCEDURES, IS NORMALLY SIGNED BY A PARENT, LEGAL GUARDIAN, OR SPOUSE EXCEPT WHEN?
A MEMBER OF THE ARMED FORCES
ASSIGN. 12-3
WHEN A REGIONAL ANESTHETIC IS ADMINISTERED, THE PATIENT CAN EXPECT WHAT EFFECT?
PAIN WILL BE REDUCED OR ELIMINATED IN THE BODY PART INJECTED OR SWABBED
(ASSIGN. 12-4)
IN GENERAL ANESTHESIA A STIMULATION OF VITAL SIGNS IS EVIDENCE OF WHAT LEVEL OF ANESTHESIA INDUCTION?
STAGE 2
ASSIGN. 12-5
DROPPING A METAL BASIN ON THE OPERATING ROOM FLOOR MAY CAUSE A VIOLENT RESPONSE FROM A GENERAL ANESTHESIA PATIENT IN WHAT STAGE OF ANESTHESIA?
STAGE 2
ASSIGN. 12-6
IN THE IMMEDIATE POSTOPERATIVE RECOVERY PHASE, A PATIENT’S SKIN COLOR MAY BE INDICATIVE OF ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT WHAT?
THE PATIENT’S ABILITY TO RECOVER FROM THE ANESTHETIC AGENT
ASSIGN. 12-7
WHEN PERMITTED, POSTOPERATIVE PATIENTS SHOULD BE ENCOURAGED TO AMBULATED TO IMPROVE THE FUNCTIONS OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PHYSIOLOGIC SYSTEMS?
RENAL SYSTEM
ASSIGN. 12-8
WHEN CARING FOR A YOUNG OTHERWISE HEALTHY ORTHOPEDIC PATIENT REQUIRING IMMOBILIZATION, THE HM CAN ANTICIPATE ALL OF THE. FOLLOWING EXCEPT WHAT?
SYMPTOMS OF EMOTIONAL STRESS
ASSIGN. 12-9
UNLESS OTHERWISE DIRECTED BY THE PHYSICIAN, WHEN ONE IS APPLYING A. CASET TO AN ARM, THE PATIENT’S WRISTS IS GENERALLY IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING POSITIONS?
IN THE NEUTRAL POSITION
ASSIGN. 12-10
CANE HEIGHT IS MEASURED FROM THE FLOOR TO THE ______.
WRIST
ASSIGN. 12-11
THE CANE IS USED ON THE UNAFFECTED SIDE OF THE BODY. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 12-12
AUXILIARY CRUTCHES SHOULD BE FITTED SO THAT THE PATIENT’S ELBOWS ARE MAINTAINED WITH A _____ TO _____ DEGREE BEND.
15 TO 30
ASSIGN. 12-13
WHEN CLIMBING STAIRS THE PATIENT SHOULD BE TAUGHT TO GO “UP WITH THE BAD AND DOWN WITH THE GOOD.”
FALSE
ASSIGN. 12-14
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE SAFE TO WALK ON WITH CRUTCHES WITHOUT MUCH THOUGHT TO SAFETY?
NONE OF THE FOLLOWING:
- UNEVEN SIDEWALK
- THICK CARPET
- HARDWOOD FLOOR WITH THROW RUGS
(ASSIGN. 12-15)
WHICH AMBULATORY DEVICE PROVIDES THE MOST STABILITY?
WALKERS
ASSIGN. 12-16
A PATIENT WHO HAS BEEN FITTED IWTH A CAST SHOULD BE INSTRUCTED TO RETURN TO THE MEDICAL TREATMENT FACILITY AS SOON AS POSSIBLE UNDER WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CIRCUMSTANCES?
THE EXTREMITY AFFECTED BY THE CAST IS NUMB
ASSIGN. 12-17
IN THE THEORY OF DEATH AND DYING, IT IS SUGGESTED THAT MOST PEOPLE EXHIBIT FIVE STAGES. THE STAGE WHERE THE TERMINAL PATIENT BECOMES CONCERNED ABOU THE STATE OF HIS OR HER AFFAIRS AND FAMILY MEMBERS IS KNOWN AS THE STAGES OF ______.
ACCEPTANCE
ASSIGN. 12-18
PATIENT FALLS MAY BE AVOIDED BY TAKING WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PREVENTATIVE MEASURES?
ALL OF THE ABOVE:
- PROPER USE OF BED/GURNEY SIDE RAILS
- KEEPING FLOORS DRY AND UNCLUTTERED
- INSTRUCTING PATIENTS ON PROPER USE OF WALKING AIDS (CRUTCHES, CANES, ETC.)
(ASSIGN. 12-19)
ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONIC EQUIPMENT POSES SIGNIFICANT INJURY HAZARDS OF THE FOLLOWING, WHICH IS AUTHORIZED MEANS OF REDUCING THIS HAZARD?
HAVING MEDICAL REPAIR PERFORM ELECTRICAL SAFETY CHECKS ON ALL NEW SAFETY EQUIPMENT
(ASSIGN. 12-20)
SKIN CONTACT BURNS CAN BE CAUSED BY ICE BAGS OR HYPOTHERMIA BLANKETS. TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE
ASSIGN. 12-21
DURING A FIRE EVACUATION, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROCEDURES IS NOT CONSIDERED APPROPRIATE?
CLEAR ALL POSSIBLE EXITS
ASSIGN. 12-22
ENVIRONMENTAL HYGIENE IS DIRECITED TOWARD PRODUCING A HEALTHY ENVIRONMENT AND INCLUDES SUCH PRACTICES AS MAINTAINING UNIT CLEANLINESS AND ______.
ALL OF THE ABOVE:
- PROVIDING FOR ADEQUATE VENTILATION
- LIMITING NOISE LEVELS
- PROPER DISPOSAL OF SOILED ARTICLES
(ASSIGN. 12-23)
WHAT IS TH LEADING CAUSE OF NUTRITION RELATED DISEASE IN THE ENVIRONMENT IN WHIHC HUMANS LIVE?
WEIGHT GAIN
ASSIGN. 13-1
WHICH O FTHE FOLLOWING IS NOT ONE OF THE SIX ESSENTIAL NUTRIENTS NEEDED FOR THE GROWTH AND MAINTENANCE OF THE BODY?
NIACIN
ASSIGN. 13-2
WHAT ARE THE THREE NUTRIENTS USED BY THE BODY THAT CONTAIN CALORIES?
CARBOHYDRATES, PROTEINS, AND FATS
ASSIGN. 13-3
WATER IS THE MEDIUM IN WHICH ALL CHEMICAL REACTIONS IN THE BODY TAKE PLACE. TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE
ASSIGN. 13-4
WHAT IS TOTAL AMOUNT OF WATER THAT A MALE NEEDS TO CONSUME ON A DAILY BASIS?
3.7 LITERS
ASSIGN. 13-5
WHAT IS TOTAL AMOUNT OF WATER THAT A FEMALE NEEDS TO CONSUME ON A DAILY BASIS?
2.7 LITERS
ASSIGN. 13-6
AFTER CONSUMING FOOD A MALE NEEDS TO CONSUME AN AVERAGE OF HOW MUCH FREE WATER?
3 LITERS
ASSIGN. 13-7
WHAT PERCENTAGE LOSS OF BODY WATER WILL CAUSE HEAT INJURY OR DEATH?
5 TO 7%
ASSIGN. 13-8
MONO SACCHARIDES CONTAIN HOW MANY CARBON MOLECULES?
1
ASSIGN. 13-9
DISACCHARIDES CONTAIN HOW MANY CARBON MOLECULES?
2
ASSIGN. 13-10
SOME POLYSACCHARIDES ARE KNOWN TO CONTAIN UP TO HOW MANY CARBON MOLECULES?
THOUSANDS
ASSIGN. 13-11
WHAT IS THE SIMPLEST TYPE OF SUGAR?
GLUCOSE
ASSIGN. 13-12
MATCH THE SIMPLE SUGAR TO THE CARBOHYDRATE CLASS FOR SUCROSE.
DISACCHARIDE
ASSIGN. 13-13
MATCH THE SIMPLE SUGAR TO THE CARBOHYDRATE CLASS FOR FRUCTOSE.
MONOSACCHARIDE
ASSIGN. 13-14
MATCH THE SIMPLE SUGAR TO THE CARBOHYDRATE CLASS FOR GALACTOSE.
MONOSACCHARIDE
ASSIGN. 13-15
MATCH THE SIMPLE SUGAR TO THE CARBOHYDRATE CLASS FOR GLUCOSE.
MONOSACCHARIDE
ASSIGN. 13-16
MATCH THE SIMPLE SUGAR TO THE CARBOHYDRATE CLASS FOR LACTOSE.
DISACCHARIDE
ASSIGN. 13-17
GLYCOGEN IS THE STORAGE FORM OF GLUCOSE FOR HUMANS. TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE
ASSIGN. 13-18
THE RECOMMENDED FIBER INTAKE FOR WOMEN IS _____?
25 GRAMS
ASSIGN. 13-19
THE RECOMMENDED FIBER INTAKE FOR MALES IS _____?
37 GRAMS
ASSIGN. 13-20
DEXTROSE, WHICH IS COMMONLY USED CARBOHYDRATE, IS NORMALLY USED IN WHAT FORM?
INTRAVENOUS
ASSIGN. 13-21
PROTEINS CONTAIN WHAT AMOUNT OF CALORIES PER GRAM?
4
ASSIGN. 13-22
THERE ARE 20 AMINO ACIDS THAT MAKE UP ALL THE PROTEINS THE BODY NEEDS, HOW MANY OF THOSE ARE CONSIDERED ESSENTIAL AMINO ACIDS NOT MADE BY THE BODY?
9
ASSIGN. 13-23
FOR A PERSON WHO WEIGHS 185 lbs. WHAT IS THE RECOMMENDED AMOUNT OF PROTEIN THA TSHOULD BE CONSUMED DAILY?
67 GRAMS
ASSIGN. 13-24
INFANTS AND CHILDREN REQUIRE A GREATER DAILY PROTEIN INTAKE THAN ADULTS. TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE
ASSIGN. 13-25
THE MAIN ROLE OF FATS IS TO ______?
SUPPLY ENERGY TO THE BODY
ASSIGN. 13-26
WHAT VITAMINS ARE FAT SOLUBLE?
A, D, E, AND K
ASSIGN. 13-27
TRANS FATS ARE NATURALLY OCCURRING FATS AND ARE GENERALLY NOT CONSIDERED A HEALTHY FAT. TRUE AND FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 13-28
OMEGA-3 FATTY ACIDS HAVE BEEN LINKED TO LESSENING THE RISK OF HEART DISEASE. TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE.
ASSIGN. 13-29
THE MOST COMMON PHOSPHOLIPIDS IS BILE; WHERE IS IT PRODUCED?
LIVER
ASSIGN. 13-30
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A WATER SOLUBLE VITAMIN?
A
ASSIGN. 13-31
WHICH VITAMIN INTERFERES WITH ANTI-CLOTTING MEDICATIONS SUCH AS WARFARIN?
K
ASSIGN. 13-32
SURGICAL PATIENTS SHOULD EAT CANTALOUPE AND STRAWBERRIES CONTAINING VITAMIN _____ IN ORDER TO SUPPORT WOUND HEALING.
C
ASSIGN. 13-33
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT CONSIDERED A MAJOR MINERAL?
FLOURIDE
ASSIGN. 13-34
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT CONSIDERED A TRACE MINERAL?
CALCIUM
ASSIGN. 13-35
INFUSING TOO MUCH _____ IN AN INTRAVENOUS LINE CAN CAUSE DEATH?
POTASSIUM
ASSIGN. 13-36
SURGICAL PATIENTS WHO DO NOT CONSUME ENOUGH OF _____ MINERAL FOUND IN SHELLFISH COULD HAVE POOR WOUND HEALING.
ZINC
ASSIGN. 13-37
WHAT TYPE OF DIET IS NORMALLY ORDERED FOR AN INDIVIDUAL WHO HAS NOT EATEN FOR A FEW DAYS OR RECOVERING FROM SURGERY?
CLEAR LIQUID DIET
ASSIGN. 13-38
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DIETS IS NOT NUTRITIONALLY COMPLETE?
CLEAR LIQUID DIET
ASSIGN. 13-39
A DENTAL LIQUID DIET IS USUALLY INDICATED FOR A PATIENT WHO?
HAS MOUTH WIRED SHUT
ASSIGN. 13-40
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DIETS IS USUALLY LOWER IN FIBER?
PURÉED DIET
ASSIGN. 13-41
CALORIE RESTRICTED DIETS SHOULD BE AT LEAST HOW MANY CALORIES PER DAY?
1200
ASSIGN. 13-42
WHAT TYPE OF DIET IS INDICATIVE OF RENAL OR HEPATIC DISEASE?
PROTEIN RESTRICTED DIET
ASSIGN. 13-43
A PERSON ON CHOLESTEROL RESTRICTION OF 300 mg PER DAY SHOULD HAVE NO MORE THAN HOW MANY WHOLE EGGS PER DAY?
1 (ONE)
ASSIGN. 13-44
WHAT IS THE MOST AGGRESSIVE TYPE OF NUTRITIONAL THERAPY?
PARENTERAL
(VEIN)
(ASSIGN. 13-45)
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROVIDES A WAY FOR ENTERAL NUTRITIONAL THERAPY?
- NG TUBE
- J TUBE
(ASSIGN. 13-46)
THE BASE OF A GOOD HEALTHY DIET ALWAYS BEGINS WITH _____?
FOOD PYRAMID
ASSIGN. 13-47
WHAT TWO AGENCIES HAVE ESTABLISHED UNIFORM PHYSICAL STANDARDS FOR ENTRY INTO MILITARY SERVICE?
DoD AND DON
ASSIGN. 14-1
AFTER A PHYSICAL EXAM HAS BEEN PERFORMED AND DOCUMENTED BY AN IDC WHO IS REQUIRED TO COUNTERSIGN THE EXAM?
ACCREDITED GENERAL MEDICAL OFFICER
ASSIGN. 14-2
WHERE IS THE ORIGINAL DOCUMENTATION FROM A COMPLETED PHYSICAL EXAMINATION PERMANENTLY FILED?
HEALTH RECORD
ASSIGN. 14-3
ACCORDING TO SECNAVINST 6120.3 SERIES A PERIODIC HEALTH ASSESSMENT (PHA) SHALL BE CONDUCTED _____ ON EACH SERVICE MEMBER.
ANNUALLY
ASSIGN. 14-4
A MEMBER SEPARATING AFTER SERVING 30 OR LESS CONSECUTIVE DAYS ON ACTIVE DUTY, BEING FOUND UNFIT FOR CONTINUED SERVICE, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MAY BE APPROPRIATE?
CITED MEBR
ASSIGN. 14-5
WHO IS GIVEN AUTHORITY TO PERFORM SPECIAL DUTY EXAMINATIONS?
LICENSED GENERAL MEDICAL OFFICER, DoD CIVLIANS
ASSIGN. 14-6
IN ACCORDANCE WTIH BUMEDINST 1300.2 SERIES, AFTER RECEIPT OF ORDERS AN OVERSEAS/OPERATION SUITABILITY SCREENING MUST BE COMPLETED WITHIN HOW MANY DAYS?
30
ASSIGN. 14-7
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PUBLICATION CONTAINS FURTHER GUIDANCE ON THE MEDICAL SURVEILLANCE PROGRAM?
OPNAVINST 5100.23
ASSIGN. 14-8
WHO IS RESPONSIBLE FOR REVIEWING THE ABBREVIATED MEDICAL BOARD REPORT FOR ACCURACY IN CONTENT AND PROCESSING TIME?
LIMDU COORDINATOR
ASSIGN. 14-9
WHAT MEDICAL FORMS ARE USED AS DOCUMENTATION OF A ROUTINE PHYSICAL EXAMINATION?
DD2808 AND DD2807
ASSIGN. 14-10
WHAT FORM IS USED IN THE SUBMISSION OF A MEDICAL EVALUATION BOARD (MEB)?
NAVMED 6100/5
ASSIGN. 14-11
PATIENTS SHOULD BE INSTRUCTED TO DO ALL OF THE FOLLOWING WHNE THE RETURN FOR A VISUAL ACUITY EXAMINATION EXCEPT?
BRING IN CONTACT LENSES
ASSIGN. 14-12
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE PREFERRED METHOD FOR THE TESTING OF DISTANT VISUAL ACUITY?
SNELLEN CHART
ASSIGN. 14-13
THE ARMED FORCES VISION TESTER, IS USED FOR WHICH TYPE OF VISION TEST?
DISTANT, NEAR
ASSIGN. 14-14
WHAT IS THE PREFERRED METHOD WHEN TESTING COLOR DISCRIMINATION OF AN ACTIVE DUTY SERVICE MEMBER?
FALANT
ASSIGN. 14-15
PEROSNNEL WHO HAVE RECEIVED A COLOR VISION DISCRIMINATION TEST ON PIP MUST BE RETESTED AS SOON AS A FALANT IS AVAILABLE. TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE
ASSIGN. 14-16
AUDIOMETRIC TESTING MAY BE PERFORMED BY ANY UNCERTIFIED HEALTHCARE PROVIDER (I.E. HOSPITAL CORPSMAN, NURSE) THAT IS AVIALABLE TO PERFORM THE TEST. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 14-17
HOW MANY LEADS ARE USED IN A 12-LEAD EKG?
10
ASSIGN. 14-18
ALONG WHAT PLANE DO THE PRECORDIAL LEADS RECORD THE HEARTS ELECTRICAL CONDUCTION?
HORIZONTAL
ASSIGN. 14-19
ALONG WHAT INTERCOSTAL SPACE ARE LEADS V4, V5, AND V6 PLACED?
5TH
ASSIGN. 14-20
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROCEDURES IS ONE OF THE BASIC PROFESSIONAL SERVICES PROVIDED ON AN ANNUAL BASIS TO SAILORS BY THE NAVY DENTAL TEAM?
DENTAL EXAMINATION
ASSIGN. 15-1
WHEN SEATING THE PATIENT FOR A DENTAL EXAM, WHERE SHOULD THE DENTAL LIGHT BE POSITIONED TO AVOID SHINING THE LIGHT IN THE PATIENT’S EYE.
BENEATH THE PATIENT’S CHIN
ASSIGN. 15-2
WHAT IS THE PRIMARY PURPOSDE FOR CONDUCTING ANNUAL DENTAL EXAMINATIONS?
TO ACCESS THE READINESS STATUS OF ACTIVE DUTY PERSONNEL
ASSIGN. 15-3
DENTAL EXAMINATIONS ARE CLASSIFIED BY WHAT TOTAL NUMBER OF EXAMINATION TYPES?
FOUR
ASSIGN. 15-4
WHAT TYPE OF EXAMINATION IS A COMPREHENSIVE HARD AND SOFT TISSUE EXAMINATION ROUTINELY DONE WITH STUDY MODELS?
TYPE I
ASSIGN. 15-5
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PERSONNEL MAY PERFORM A TYPE 4 DENTAL SCREENING EVALUATION?
- A DENTAL OFFICER
- A DENTAL HYGIENIST
- A QUALIFIED DENTAL ASSISTANT
(ASSIGN. 15-6)
WHAT FORM SHOULD BE USED TO DOCUMENT THE FINDINGS OF A DENTAL EXAMINATION FOR OVERSEAS SCREENING?
NAVMED 1300/1
ASSIGN. 15-7
A MEMBER’S COMMANDING OFFICER CAN APPROVE A MEMBER FOR OVERSEAS ASSIGNMENT EVEN WHEN THE DENTAL OFFICER RECOMMENDS DISAPPROVAL. TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE.
ASSIGN. 15-8
WHAT DENTAL CLASSIFICATION INDICATES THAT THE PATIENT’S DENTAL CONDITION, IF NOT TREATED OR FOLLOWED UP, COULD HAVE THE POTENTIAL, BUT IS NOT EXPECTED TO, RESULT IN DENTAL EMERGENCIES WITHIN THE NEXT 12 MONTHS?
CLASS 2
ASSIGN. 15-9
WHEN RECORDING THE USE OF COPAL VARNISH IN THE DENTAL TREATMENT RECORD, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ABBREVIATIONS SHOULD BE USED?
COP
ASSIGN. 15-10
WHAT ABBREVIATION SHOULD BE USED WHEN RECORDING THE PATIENT WAS INFORMED OF EXAMINATION FINDINGS AND TREATMENT PLAN?
PTINF
ASSIGN. 15-11
WHEN IDENTIFYING AND LOCATING CARIES OR EXISTING RESTORATIONS, HOW SHOULD AN 8-MID DESIGNATION BE WRITTEN OUT?
MESIAL, INCISAL, DISTAL ASPECTS OF A RIGHT MAXILLARY CENTRAL INCISOR
(ASSIGN. 15-12)
WHEN CHARTING THE TOP SECTION OF THE FORENSIC EXAMINATION FORM, WHAT SYMBOL SHOULD BE USED TO INDICATE MISSING TEETH OR TEETH NOT VISIBLE IN THE PATIENT’S MOUTH?
X
ASSIGN. 15-13
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TERMS IS OFTEN USED WHEN REFERRING TO A DOUBLE OCCLUSAL RESTORATION?
SNAKE EYES
ASSIGN. 15-14
DRAWING AN ARCING LINE THROUGH THE LONG AXIS OF THE TOOTH IS AN EXAMPLE OF A PARTIALLY ERUPTED TOOTH. TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE
ASSIGN. 15-15
NONMETALLIC RESTORATIONS ARE MADE OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TYPES OF MATERIALS?
- ACRYLIC RESIN
- GLASS IONOMER
- FISSURE SEALANT
(ASSIGN. 15-16)
A NONMETALLIC RESTORATION IS ANNOTATED BY DRAWING AN OUTLINE OF THE RESTORATION SHOWING SIZE LOCATION, SHAPE, AND INSCRIBING VERTICAL LINES WITHIN THE OUTLINE. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 15-17
WHEN CHARTING A FORENSIC EXAMINATION, WHAT METHOD, IF ANY, SHOULD BE SUED TO DESRIBE THE DIFFERENCES BETWEEN GOLD AND OTHER ALLOY RESTORATIONS?
INDICATE IN THE “REMARKS” SECTIONO THE SPECIFIC RESTORATION ALLOY
(ASSIGN. 15-18)
WHEN CHARTING, HOW SHOULD IT BE INDICATED THA TGOLD MATERIAL WAS USED IN A FIXED PARTIAL DENTURE?
INSCRIBE DIAGONAL PARALLEL LINES
ASSIGN. 15-19
WHAT PROCEDURE SHOULD BE USED TO CHART THE PRESENCE OF SUPERNUMERARY TEETH?
- INSERT AN “S” IN THE LOCATION ON THE TOOTH NUMBER LINE
- DRAW AN OUTLINE OF THE TOOTH IN ITS APPROXIMATE LOCATION
(ASSIGN. 15-20)
THE REMARKS SECTION OF THE FORENSIC DENTAL EXAM IS USED TO DIFFERENTIATE BETWEEN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TYPES OF DENTAL MATERIALS?
- SEALANTS
- TEMPORARIES
- COMPOSITES
(ASSIGN. 15-21)
WHAT NUMBER OF ANGLE CLASSIFICATION COULD BE USED ON THE FORENSIC EXAMINATION FORM?
THREE
ASSIGN. 15-22
ON THE FORENSIC EXAMINATION, WHAT METHOD SHOULD BE USED TO INDICATE THAT A PATIENT DOES NOT HAVE A SOFT TISSUE CONDITION?
LEAVE BLANK IF A CONDITION DOES NOT EXIST
ASSIGN. 15-23
WHERE IN THE OCCLUSION SECTION OF THE FORENSIC EXAMINATION SHOULD THE HM DOCUMENT AND RECORD ANY OTHER OCCLUSAL CONDITIONS NOT LISTED?
REMARKS
ASSIGN. 15-24
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING NON-PATHOLOGICAL FINDINGS SHOUDL BE ANNOTATED IN THE “HARD TISSUE REMARKS” SECTION ON THE FORENSIC EXAMINATION FORM?
- TORI
- ROTATED TEETH
- INTRINSIC STAINING
(ASSIGN. 15-25)
WHAT PROCEDURE SHOULD BE USED WHEN A PATIENT REQUIRES THE COMPLETION OF A NEW CURRENT STATUS FORM?
TRANSFER THE INFORMATION FROM THE PREVIOUS FORMS TO THE NEW FORM
(ASSIGN. 15-26)
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS SHOULD BE ANNOTATED IN PENCIL IN BOX 1 OF THE CURRENT STATUS FORM?
- CARIOUS LESIONS
- PERIRIDICULAR LESIONS
- INDICATIONS FOR ROOT CANAL TREATMENT
(ASSIGN. 15-27)
WHAT DOES AN EVEN LINE DRAWN ON THE ROOT OF THE TOOTH INDICATE?
RESORPTION OF THE ROOT
ASSIGN. 15-28
PENCIL ENTRIES ARE AUTHORIZED FOR USE IN BOX 2 OF THE CURRENT STATUS FORM. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 15-29
IF A MEDICAL ALERT EXISTS, THE WORD “ALERT” IS WRITTEN OR STAMPED IN BOX 3 OF THE CURRENT STATUS FORM IN LARGE RED LETTERS WITH A BRIEF EXPLANATION. TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE
ASSIGN. 15-30
WHICH DENTAL FORM PROVIDES A RECORD OF INITIAL ACCESSION EXAM AND ALL SUBSEQUENT PERIODIC, ANNUAL, RECALL, AND SEPARATION EXAMS?
EZ603
ASSIGN. 15-31
WHAT PART OF THE S.O.A.P. INCLUDES THE REASON FOR THE VISIT AND A STATEMENT OF THE CHIEF COMPLAINT?
SUBJECTIVE
ASSIGN. 15-32
WHAT PART OF THE S.O.A.P. IS GENERALLY USED BY THE EXAMINER TO MAKE A DIAGNOSIS?
ASSESSMENT
ASSIGN. 15-33
WHICH PART OF THE S.O.A.P. INCLUDES THE PATIENT’S TREATMENT NEEDS?
PLAN
ASSIGN. 15-34
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING REFERENCES SHOULD BE USED TO COMPLETE THE DENTAL EXAMINATION FORM?
MANMED, CHAPTER 6
ASSIGN. 15-35
THE BACK OF THE EZ603 MAY BE OVERPRINTED WITH A COMMAND SPECIFIC FORMAT. TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE.
ASSIGN. 15-36
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FORMS SHOULD BE USED TO DOCUMENT DENTAL TREATMENT COMPLETED FROM THE TREATMENT PLAN, DENTAL EMERGENCIES AN DANY OTHER NARRATIVE DENTAL FINDINGS?
EZ603A
ASSIGN. 15-37
WHAT COLOR INK SHOULD BE USED FOR THE MEDICAL ALERT ENTRY ON THE EZ603A?
RED
ASSIGN. 15-38
WHICH FORM SHOULD BE USED TO RECORD THE DENTAL EXAMINATION COMPLETED IN CONJUNCTION WITH A MEDICAL PHYSICAL?
DD2808
ASSIGN. 15-39
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ENTRIES SHOULD BE ANNOTATED IN BOX 44 ON THE REPORT FO THE MEDICAL EXAMINATION FORM?
PATIENT’S DENTAL DEFECTS
ASSIGN. 15-40
WHICH FORM SHOULD BE USED TO REFER A PATIENT TO ANOTHER SPECIALIST OR TO MEDICAL FOR FURTHER EVALUATION OR TREATMENT?
SF513
ASSIGN. 15-41
WHICH SECTION OF THE CONSULTATION SHEET SHOULD BE LEFT BLANK FOR THE PERSON RECEIVING THE FORM TO DOCUMENT HIS OR HER FINDINGS?
CONSULTATION REPORT
ASSIGN. 15-42
THE DENTAL CHAIR SHOULD BE PLACED IN WHICH FO THE FOLLOWING POSITIONS TO DISMISS THE PATIENT?
ARM RAISED, LOWEST, UPRIGHT POSTION
ASSIGN. 15-43
WHEN PATIENTS COMPLETE THEIR DENTAL EXAMINATION THEY SHOULD BE DIRECTED TO MAKE FUTURE DENTAL APPOINTMENTS AT WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DEPARTMENTS?
FRONT DESK
ASSIGN. 15-44
OPERATIVE DENISTRY IS CONCERNED WITH THE PREVENTION AND TREATMENT OF DEFECTS OF WHAT TOOTH SURFACES?
ENAMEL AND DENTIN
ASSIGN. 16-1
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING INSTRUMENTS IS USED PRIMARILY TO REMOVE DEBRIS FROM TOOTH CAVITIES?
SPOON EXCAVATORS
ASSIGN. 16-2
AN EVEN-NUMBERED GINGIVAL MARGIN TRIMMER IS DESIGNED FOR USE ON WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TOOTH SURFACES?
DISTAL
ASSIGN. 16-3
AN ODD-NUMBERED GINGIVAL MARGIN TRIMMER IS DESIGNATED FOR USE ON WHICH OFHTE FOLLOWING TOOTH SURFACES?
MESIAL
ASSIGN. 16-4
WHAT TYPE OF WORKING END DOES AN MALGAM CARRIER HAVE FOR TRANSPORTATION?
HOLLOW
ASSIGN. 16-5
AN AMALGAM CONDENSER IS OFTEN REFERRED TO AS WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING INSTRUMENTS?
PLUGGERS
ASSIGN. 16-6
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING INSTRUMENTS IS DESIGNED FOR CARVING ALL INTERPROXIMAL TOOTH SURFACES?
HOLLENBACK #1/2
ASSIGN. 16-7
WHAT IS AN ADVANTAGE OF USING A PLASTIC INSTRUMENT FOR PLACING COMPOSITE RESTORATIONS?
WILL NOT DISCOLOR
ASSIGN. 16-8
WHAT NUMBER SPATULA IS USED TO MIX SMALL QUANTITIES OF CEMENT?
313
ASSIGN. 16-9
WHAT LENGTH NEEDLE MEASURED IN INCHES, IS NORMALLY USED FOR MANDIBULAR INJECTIONS?
1 7/8
ASSIGN. 16-10
THE WORKING END OF A RUBBER DAM PUNCH IS DESIGNED WITH WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MECHANISMS?
PLUNGER AND WHEEL
ASSIGN. 16-11
A “W” PREFIX ON A RUBGER DAM CLAMP INDICATES WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DESIGNS?
WITHOUT WINGS
ASSIGN. 16-12
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING RUBBER DAM FRAMES IS THE MOST POPULAR?
YOUNG
ASSIGN. 16-13
WHAT TYPE OF MATERIAL IS ALWAYS TIED AROUND A RUBBER DAM CLAMP BEFORE PLACEMENT IN THE MOUTH?
DENTAL FLOSS
ASSIGN. 16-14
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TYPES OF MATRIX BANDS IS MOST COMMONLY USED IN RESTORATIVE DENTISTRY?
STRAIGHT #1
ASSIGN. 16-15
EXTENSIONS ON THE WIDE #2 MATRIX BANDS ARE KNOWN BY WHICH TERM?
APRONS
ASSIGN. 16-16
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE MSOT COMMONLY USED MATRIX RETAINER?
UNIVERSAL ADULT
ASSIGN. 16-17
WOOD OR CLEAR PLASTIC WEDGES MEASURE ABOUT HOW LONG IN LENGTH?
1/2 INCH
ASSIGN. 16-18
THE OPERATOR’S ZONE FOR A RIGHT HANDED DENTIST IS LOCATED BETWEEN WHICH POSITIONS?
8 AND 11 O’CLOCK
ASSIGN. 16-19
THE ASSISTANT’S ZONE FOR A RIGHT HANDED DENTIST IS LOCATED BETWEEN WHICH POSITIONS?
2 AND 4 O’CLOCK
ASSIGN. 16-20
THE TRANSFER ZONE IS LOCATED BETWEEN WHICH POSITIONS?
4 AND 8 O’CLOCK
ASSIGN. 16-21
THE STATIC ZONE IS LOCATED BETWEEN WHICH POSITIONS?
11 AND 2 O’CLOCK
ASSIGN. 16-22
HOW MANY INCHES SHOULD THE DENTIST’S EYE BE AWAY FROM THE TREATMENT SITE IF THE PATIENT IS PROPERLY POSITIONED?
14 TO 16
ASSIGN. 16-23
IN WHAT ZONE WILL THE INSTRUMENT EXCHANGE BETWEEN THE DENTIST AND THE ASSISTANT TAKE PLACE?
TRANSFER
ASSIGN. 16-24
DENTAL MATERIAL IS EXCHANGED BETWEEN THE DENTIST AND THE ASSISTANT IN WHAT ZONE?
TRANSFER
ASSIGN. 16-25
THE NEEDLE END OF A CARPULE IS SEALED WITH A RUBBER MEMBRANE HELD IN PLACE BY WHAT TYPE OF MATERIAL?
METAL BAND
ASSIGN. 16-26
IF YOU MLUST RECAP A NEEDLE, WHAT TECHNIQUE SHOULD BE USED?
ONE HANDED SCOOP
ASSIGN. 16-27
WHAT DEVICE IS USED TO REMOVE BLOOD, PUS, SALIVA, AND DEBRIS FROM THE ORAL CAVITY?
HIGH VOLUME EVACUATOR
ASSIGN. 16-28
WHAT TYPE OF CAVITY IS PRESENT WHEN THREE OR MORE SURFACES ARE INVOLVED?
COMPLEX
ASSIGN. 16-29
WHEN DENTIST HAS FINISHED REMOVING THE TOOTH STRUCTURE IN A CAVITY PREPARATION, WHAT TYPE OF FEELING WILL THE DENTIN HAVE WHEN FELT BY AN EXPLORER?
FIRM
ASSIGN. 16-30
WHAT IS THE LAST CUTTING STEP IN THE PREPARATION OF A CAVITY?
FINISHING THE ENAMEL WALLS
ASSIGN. 16-31
STUBBORN PARTICLES OF DEBRIS MAY BE REMOVED FROM A CAVITY PREPARATION BY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MATERIALS DAMPENED WITH WATER OR HYDROGEN PEROXIDE?
SMALL COTTON PELLET
ASSIGN. 16-32
WHAT TWO MATERIALS ARE USED IN A CAVITY PREPARATION TO PROTECT THE PULP?
BASES AND CAVITY LINERS
ASSIGN. 16-33
WHAT MATERIAL IS USED TO SEAL THE DENTINAL TUBULES TO HELP PREVENT MICROLEAKAGE IN A CAVITY PREPARATION?
CAVITY VARNISH
ASSIGN. 16-34
WHAT INSTRUMENT WILL THE DENTIST USE TO BRING ANY EXCESS MERCURY FROM THE AMALGAM TO THE TOP OF THE RESTORATION?
BURNISHER
ASSIGN. 16-35
WHAT BUMED INSTRUCTION CONTAINS INFORMATION OF THE MERCURY CONTROL PROGRAM (MCP)?
6260.30
ASSIGN. 16-36
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MATERIALS MAY BE USED TO REMOVE ROUGHNESS OR OVER HANGING AMALGAM IN THE PROXIMAL AREA?
METAL FILING STRIP
ASSIGN. 16-37
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING COMPOSITE RESINS IS AVAILABLE FOR USE IN OPERATIVE DENTISTRY?
- HYBRID
- MACROFILLED
- MICROFILLED
(ASSIGN. 16-38)
WHAT COMPOSITE SHADE WILL APPEAR IF THE TOOTH BECOMES DEHYDRATED?
LIGHTER
ASSIGN. 16-39
WHAT TYPE OF MATRIX MAY BE PLACED ON THE TOOTH BEFORE THE ACID PROCEDURE BEGINS?
CELLUOID
ASSIGN. 16-40
GLASS IONOMER CEMENT WILL BOND DIRECTLY WITH WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TOOTH SURFACES?
- ENAMEL
- DENTIN
- CEMENTUM
(ASSIGN. 16-41)
WHICH SCIENTIST FIRST DISCOVERED X-RAYS?
WILHELM KONRAD ROENTGEN
ASSIGN. 17-1
WHAT IS THE NAME OF TH ETUBE THAT WAS DISCOVERED IN 1895?
CROOKE’S TUBE
ASSIGN. 17-2
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A CHARACTERISTIC PROPERTY OF X-RAYS?
THEY TRAVEL AT THE SPEED OF SOUND
ASSIGN. 17-3
THE RULE THAT APPLIES TO THE PRINCIPLE OF THE RADIATION SAFETY IS _____?
ALARA
ASSIGN. 17-4
WHEN TAKING RADIOGRAPHS ALWAYS DRAPE THE PATIENT WITH A LEAD APRON. TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE.
ASSIGN. 17-5
THE TIME SETTING ON THE X-RAY MACHINE IS MEASURED BY USING WHICH FO THE FOLLOWING METHODS?
FRACTIONS OF A SECOND OR MILLIAMPERES
ASSIGN. 17-6
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTION IS MOST IMPORTANT WHEN ORDERING RADIOGRAPHS FOR FEMALE PATIENTS?
ASK THE PATIENT IF SHE IS PREGNANT
ASSIGN. 17-7
THE FILM BADGE SHOULD BE PLACED BEHIND THE LEAD-LINED BARRIER AT LEAST WHAT NUMBER OF FEET FROM THE TUBE HEAD?
6
ASSIGN. 17-8
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A SAFETY PRECAUTION FOR TAKING RADIOGRAPHS?
HOLD THE FILM PACKET IN THE PATIENT’S MOUTH DURING EXPOSURE IF NECESSARY
(ASSIGN. 17-9)
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PERSONNEL ARE AUTHORIZED TO ORDER AND DIAGNOSTICALLY INTERPRET DENTAL RADIOGRAPHS?
DENTAL OFFICERS
ASSIGN. 17-10
HOW OFTEN SHOULD THE SURFACES IN THE DARK ROOM BE DISINFECTED?
DAILY
ASSIGN. 17-11
OF THE FOLLOWING PERSONNEL WHO IS NOT ALLOWED TO ORDER RADIOGRAPHS?
HM
ASSIGN. 17-12
ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE INDICATION FOR A PA OF THE CHEST, EXCEPT?
RASH AND STREAKING
ASSIGN. 17-13
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ORGANS WILL NOT BE SEEN IN A KUB RADIOGRAPH?
LIVER
ASSIGN. 17-14
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STRUCTURES WILL BE SEEN IN THE AP PROJECTION OF THE CERVICAL SPINE?
C3-T1
ASSIGN. 17-15
A PATIENT PRESENTING WITH CHRONIC CERVICAL SPINE PAIN SHOULD BE ORDERED WHAT TYPE OF RADIOGRAPH?
AP CERVICAL SPINE
ASSIGN. 17-16
AT APPROXIMATELY WHAT ANGLE SHOULD THE ANKLE BE WHEN TAKING AN OBLIQUE RADIOGRAPH?
90
ASSIGN. 17-17
WHAT SHOULD BE SHIELDED WHEN YOU ARE TAKING AN X-RAY?
REPRODUCTIVE ORGANS
ASSIGN. 17-18
THE PARALLELING DEVICE CONSISTS OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PARTS?
ALL OF THE ABOVE:
- A LOCATOR RING
- AN INDICATOR ROD
- A BITE BLOCK
(ASSIGN. 17-19)
THE BISECTING ANGLE TECHNIQUE IS THE PREFERRED METHOD AND RECOMMENDED FOR ROUTINE USE WHEN TAKING PERIAPICAL RADIOGRAPHS. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 17-20
WHEN TAKING RADIOGRAPHS, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FACTORS SHOULD YOU CONSIDER BEFORE USING THE BISECTING-ANGLE TECHNIQUE?
ALL OF THE ABOVE:
- THERE ARE NO PARALLELING DEVICES AVAILABLE
- THE PATIENT CANNOT CLSOE MOUTH ON BITE BLOCK
- THE PATIENT HAS RUBBER DAM IN PLACE
(ASSIGN. 17-21)
WHAT LANDMARK IS USED WHEN EXPOSING TH EMAXILLARY BICUSPID AREA?
BELOW THE PUPIL OF THE EYE
ASSIGN. 17-22
THE POSITION OF THE PATIENT’S MID SAGITTAL PLANE MUST BE PERPENDICULAR TO THE FLOOR WHEN EXPOSING A PERIAPICAL RADIOGRAPH USING THE BISECTING-ANGLE TECHNIQUE. TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE
ASSIGN. 17-23
THE OCCLUSAL FILM PACKET CONTAINS TWO X-RAY FILMS. TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE
ASSIGN. 17-24
WHAT X-RAY MACHINE SETTINGS SHOULD YOU USE WHEN EXPOSING A MAXILLARY OCCLUSAL RADIOGRAPH ON AN ADULT?
10 mA, 90 KVp, AND 60 IMPULSES
ASSIGN. 17-25
WHAT VERTICAL ANGULATION SETTING SHOULD YOU USE WHEN EXPOSING A MAXILLARY ANTERIOR OCCLUSAL RADIOGRAPH?
+65 DEGREES
ASSIGN. 17-26
WHEN EXPOSING A MAXILLARY POSTERIOR OCCLUSAL RADIOGRAPH, YOU SHOULD USE WHA TVERTICAL ANGULATION SETTING?
+75 DEGREES
ASSIGN. 17-27
WHEN EXPOSING A MANDIBULAR ANTERIOR OCCLUSAL RADIOGRAPH, WHAT VERTICAL ANGULATION SHOULD YOU USE?
-10 DEGREES
ASSIGN. 17-28
A SAFE LIGHT IS THE ONLY SAFE SOURCE OF ILLUMINATION USED IN THE DARKROOM WHEN PROCESSING RADIOGRAPHS. TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE
ASSIGN. 17-29
WHEN CHECKING FOR LIGHT LEAKS IN THE DARKROOM, YOU SHOULD LEAVE THE PENNY ON THE X-RAY FILM FOR AT LEAST WHAT NUMBER OF MINUTES?
FIVE
ASSIGN. 17-30
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING METHODS IS MOST COMMONLY USED TO PROCESS DENTAL RADIOGRAPHS IN THE NAVY?
AUTOMATIC PROCESSING
ASSIGN. 17-31
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROCEDURES SHOULD BE INCLUDED IN THE DAILY MAINTENANCE OF THE X-RAY MACHINE?
DUSTING
ASSIGN. 17-32
YOU HSOULD WAIT WHAT NUMBER SECONDS BETWEEN FILMS BEFORE INSERTING ANOTHER FILM INTO THE AUTOMATIC PROCESSOR?
15
ASSIGN. 17-33
THE DEVELOPER AND FIXER SOLUTIONS IN THE AUTOMATIC PROCESSOR SHOULD BE CHANGED AT WHAT MINIMUM FREQUENCIES?
EVERY 3 TO 4 WEEKS
ASSIGN. 17-34
THE PROCESSING SOLUTIONS USED IN THE AUTOMATIC PROCESSOR ARE THE SAME AS THOSE USEED IN THE MANUAL PROCESSING PROCEDURE. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 17-35
THE CLEANING OF THE ROLLER TRANSPORTS AN DTHE SOLUTIONS IN THE AUTOMATIC PROCESSOR ARE ACCOMPLISHED AT WHAT MINIMUM INTERVALS?
MONTHLY
ASSIGN. 17-36
WHICH TEETH CAN BE IDENTIFIED RADIOGRAPHICALLY BY A LARGE WHITE REGION CAUSED BY THE BONE OF THE NASAL SEPTUM?
MAXILLARY INCISORS
ASSIGN. 17-37
WHEN MOUNTING RADIOGRAPHS, THE RAISED DIMPLE SHOULD BE FACING YOU. TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE
ASSIGN. 17-38
YOU SHOULD ATTEMPT TO COMPLETE ALL X-RAY REPAIRS YOURSELF. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 17-39
PHARMACOLOGY IS A BASIC MEDICAL SCIENCE THAT DEALS WITH THE STUDY OF WHICH SPECIALTY?
DRUGS
ASSIGN. 18-1
THE BRANCH OF PHARMACOLOGY THAT DEALS WITH THE PREPARATION, DISPENSING, AND PROPER USE MEDICATIONS IS?
PHARMACY
ASSIGN. 18-2
THE ACTUAL TITLE OF THE “BLUE BIBLE” OF PHARMACOLOGY IS?
REMINGTON’S THE SCIENCE AND PRACTICE OF PHARMACY
ASSIGN. 18-3
THE AMOUNT OF MEDICATION ADMINISTERED IS REFERRED TO AS WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?
DOSE
ASSIGN. 18-4
THE MINIMUMAND MAXIMUM AMOUNT OF A DRUG REQUUIRED TO PRODUCE THE DESIRED EFFECT IS REFERRED TO BY WHAT TERM?
DOSAGE RANGE
ASSIGN. 18-5
WHAT DOSE REFERS TO THE LEAST AMOUNT OF AT DRUG THAT CAN CAUSE DEATH?
MINIMUM LETHAL
ASSIGN. 18-6
THE MOST COMMON FACTOR INFLUENCING THE AMOUNT OF DRUG GIVEN TO A PATIENT IS?
AGE
ASSIGN. 18-7
WHAT TWO PRIMARY FACTORS, IF ANY, DETERMINE A DOSE?
AGE AND WEIGHT
ASSIGN. 18-8
WHAT IS THE PROPER DOSE IN MILLILITERS OF AMPICILLIN FOR AND 8-YEAR OLD CHILDE IF THE ADULT IS 15 ml?
8/(12+8) x 15 mL = 8/20 x 15 mL
= 2/5 x 15 mL
ANSWER = 6 mL
(ASSIGN. 18-9)
WHAT IS THE NAME OF THE RULE USED TO DETERMINE APPROPRIATE DOSAGE OF MEDICATION BASED ON A CHILD’S WEIGHT?
CLARK’S RULE
ASSIGN. 18-10
DETERMINE THE APPROPRIATE DOSE IN MILLIGRAMS OF MEDICATION FOR A CHILD WEIGHING 30 POUNDS IF THE AVERAGE DOSE FOR AN ADULT IS 600 mg.
30/150 x 600 = 600/5
= 120 mg
(ASSIGN. 18-11)
IN COMPUTING THE AMOUNT OF DRUG TO BE GIVEN TO AN UNDERWEIGHT FEMALE, WHAT ADJUSTMENTS TO THE NORMAL DOSAGE WOULD ORDINARILY BE MADE?
DECREASE THE DOSAGE BECAUSE OF HER SEX AND FURTHER DECREASE BECAUSE OF HER WEIGHT
(ASSIGN. 18-12)
A DRUG GIVEN CONTINUOUSLY TO A PATIENT OFTEN HAS TO BE INCREASED IN DOSAGE TO MAINTAIN THE DESIRED EFFECT. THE NEED FOR A LARGER DOSE IS PROBABLY CAUSED BY _____?
A CUMULATIVE EFFECT FROM HABITUAL USE
ASSIGN. 18-13
THE MOST COMMON METHOD OF ADMINISTERING MEDICATIONS IS _____.
ORALLY
ASSIGN. 18-14
WHAT TERM IS USED TO DEFINE A MEDICATION THAT IS PLACED UNDER THE TONGUE?
SUBLINGUAL
ASSIGN. 18-15
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN EXAMPLE OF A DRUG INJECTED INTRADERMALLY?
PURIFIED PROTEIN DERIVATIVE
ASSIGN. 18-16
WHAT TECHNIQUE INTRODUCES A DRUG DIRECTLY INTO A VEIN?
INTRAVENOUS
ASSIGN. 18-17
INWHAT FORM ARE MEDICATIONS INTRODUCED INTO THE BODY THROUGH INHALATION?
GAS
ASSIGN. 18-18
NORMALLY HOW MANY NAMES DO MEDICATIONS HAVE?
THREE
ASSIGN. 18-19
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A WAY DRUGS ARE GROUPED?
BY THEIR BRAND NAMES
ASSIGN. 18-20
ALUMINUM ACETATE, AN ASTRINGENT, IS OFTEN USED TO TREAT WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS?
ALL OF THE ABOVE:
- ATHLETES FOOT
- EXTERNAL OTITIS
- POION IVY
(ASSIGN. 18-21)
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A BRONCHOMUTROPIC AGENT?
GUAIFENESIN
ASSIGN. 18-22
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A CHARACTERISTIC SIDE EFFECT OF ANTIHISTAMINES?
DROWSINESS
ASSIGN. 18-23
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MEDICATIONS IS ADMINISTERED TO CONTROL MOTION SICKNESS?
MECLIZINE HYDROCHLORIDE
ASSIGN. 18-24
IN CONJUNCTION WITH ANTACIDS, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS USED TO TREAT DUODENAL ULCERS?
RANITIDINE
ASSIGN. 18-25
THE DRUG GROUP MOST OFTEN USED TO TREAT DYSPEPSIA IS ______?
ANTACIDS
ASSIGN. 18-26
IN ADDITION TO BEING AN ANTACID, MAGNESIUM HYDROXIDE MAY BE USED AS A/AN _____?
LAXATIVE
ASSIGN. 18-27
THE STANDARD BY WHICH ALL OTHER ANTISEPTICS ARE MEASURED IS _____?
PHENOL
ASSIGN. 18-28
THE PRIMARY PHARMACOLOGICAL ACTION OF SULFONAMIDES IS _____?
BACTERIOSTATIC
ASSIGN. 18-29
THE MOST COMMON USE FOR SYSTEMIC SULFONAMIDES IS IN THE TREATMENT OF WHICH OF THE CONDITIONS LISTED BELOW?
URINARY TRACT INFECTIONS
ASSIGN. 18-30
SILVER SULFADIAZINE IS USED ALMOST EXCLUSIVELY IN THE TREATMENT OF _____?
BURNS
ASSIGN. 18-31
THE DRUG OF CHOICE FOR UNCOMPLICATED GROUP A BETA-HEMOLYTIC STREPTOCOCCAL PHARYNGITIS IS _____?
PENICILLIN V POTASSIUM
ASSIGN. 18-32
PATIENT SENSITIVE TO PENICILLIN MAY ALSO EXHIBIT SENSITIVITY TO CEPHALO SPORINS. TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE
ASSIGN. 18-33
MILK OR MILK PRODUCTS MAY INTERFERE WITH THE ABSORPTION OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DRUGS?
TETRACYCLINE HYDROCHLORIDE
ASSIGN. 18-34
MACROLIDES ARE EFFECTIVE AGAINS WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ORGANISMS?
GRAM-POSITIVE COCCI
ASSIGN. 18-35
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN APPROPRIATE SUBSTITUTE FOR PENICILLIN WHEN PENICILLIN IS CONTRAINDICATED?
ERYTHROMYCIN
ASSIGN. 18-36
UNDECLYENIC ACID IS USED AS A/AN _____?
ANTIFUNGAL
ASSIGN. 18-37
SUPPLEMENTAL POTASSIUM MAY BE REQUIRED WITH WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CATEGORIES OF DRUGS?
DIURETICS
ASSIGN. 18-38
THE DRUG OF CHOICE FOE THE TREATMENT AND MANAGEMENT OF GRAND MAL SEIZURES IS _____?
PHENYTOIN SODIUM
ASSIGN. 18-39
PROCHLORPERIZINE I SUSED MAINLY TO _____?
TREAT SYMPTOMS OF NAUSEA AND VOMITING
ASSIGN. 18-40
MUSCLE RELAXANTS INCLUDE ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT ____?
METHYLPHENIDATE
ASSIGN. 18-41
WATER-SOLUBLE VITAMINS ARE NOT EXCRETED IN THE URINE AND ARE STORED IN THE BODY IN MODERATE AMOUNTS. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 18-42
THE VITAMIN DEFICIENCY ASSOCIATED WITH NIGHT BLINDNESS IS _____?
VITAMIN A
ASSIGN. 18-43
THE AGENT USED TO TREAT PERNICIOUS ANEMIA IS _____?
CYANOCOBALAMIN
ASSIGN. 18-44
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE VITAMIN INVOLVED IN ABSORPTION AND USE OF CALCIUM AND PHOSPHOROUS?
VITAMIN D
ASSIGN. 18-45
THE CORRECT ABBREVIATIONS FOR THE METRIC SYSTEMS OF PRIMARY UNITS OF MEASURE FOR WEIGHT, VOLUME, AND LINEAR DIMENSIONS ARE _____?
- GRAMS (g)
- LITERS (L)
- METERS (m)
(ASSIGN. 18-46)
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS EQUAL TO ONE-HUNDREDTH OF A LITER?
CENTILITER
ASSIGN. 18-47
A PRESCRIPTION REQUIRES TWO OUNCES OF A SUBSTANCE SUPPLIED IN LITERS. HOW MANY MILLILITERS ARE REQUIRED TO FILL THE PRESCRIPTION?
3.8 L/GAL x 1 GAL/128 oz. = 3800 mL/128 oz. x 2 = 60 mL
ASSIGN. 18-48
YOU HAVE 360 GRAMS OF A COMPOUND. IF 54 GRAMS OF THE COMPOUND IS SILVER NITRATE, WHAT IS THE PERCENTAGE STRENGTH OF SILVER NITRATE?
54/360 x 100 = 15%
ASSIGN. 18-49
ALL PHARMACIES THAT DISPENSE PRESCRIPTIONS ARE REQUIRED TO HAVE WHAT CLASS BALANCE?
CLASS A
ASSIGN. 18-50
WHAT DRUG INCOMPATIBILITY OCCURS WHEN AGENTS ANTAGONISTIC TO WONE ANOTHER ARE PRESCRIBED TOGETHER?
THERAPEUTIC
ASSIGN. 18-51
EUTEXIA IS AN EXAMPLE OF WHAT TYPE OF DRUG INCOMPATIBILITY MANIFESTATION?
PHYSICAL
ASSIGN. 18-52
A PROPERLY ADMINISTERED DRUG DOSAGE THAT HAS AN UNINTENDED OR HARMFUL EFFECT ON THE PATIENT IS THE DEFINITION OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TERMS?
ADVERSE REACTION
ASSIGN. 18-53
WHAT CHAPTER OF THE MANUAL OF THE MEDICAL DEPARTMENT GIVES GUIDANCE ON PHARMACY OPERATIONS AND DRUG CONTROL?
21
ASSIGN. 18-54
WHAT DD FORM IS USED TO PRESCRIBE CONTROLLED AND NONCONTROLLED MEDICATIONS?
FORM DD 1289
ASSIGN. 18-55
IN THE PRESCRIPTION BLOCK OF DD FORM 1289, WHAT PART LISTS THE NAME AND QUANTITY OF THE INGREDIENTS PRESCRIBED?
INSCRIPTION
ASSIGN. 18-56
IF, IN THE COURSE OF FILLING A PRESCRIPTION, THE HM FEELS THAT THERE MAY BE A DISCREPANCY OR INCOMPATIBILITY, THE HM SHOUL DTAKE WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ACTIONS?
CONSULT THE PRESCRIBER TO VERIFY THE PRESCRIPTION BEFORE FILLING
(ASSIGN. 18-57)
WHAT TYPES OF PRESCRIPTION MEDICATION HAVE THE POTENTIAL FOR ABUSE?
CONTROLLED
ASSIGN. 18-58
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A SCHEDULE III MEDICATION?
NON-BARBITUATE SEDATIVE
ASSIGN. 18-59
WHAT SCHEDULE OF MEDICATIONS CAN NEVER BE ORDERED WITH REFILLS?
SCHEDULE II
ASSIGN. 18-60
HOW MANY BOARD MEMBERS ARE ON THE CONTROLLED SUBSTANCE INVENTORY BOARD?
THREE
ASSIGN. 18-61
CONTROLLED SUBSTANCES MUST BE INVENTORIED AT LEAST?
QUARTERLY
ASSIGN. 18-62
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS CONSIDERED THE PREFERRED SOURCE FOR BLOOD SPECIMENS OBTAINED FOR CLINICAL EXAMINATION?
VENIPUNCTURE
ASSIGN. 19-1
WHEN PERFORMING A FINGER PUNCTURE, THE FIRST DROP SHOULD BE WIPED AWAY TO AVOID WHICH FO THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS?
DILUTION OF THE SPECIMEN WITH TISSUE FLUIDS
ASSIGN. 19-2
HOW FAR ABOVE THE PHLEBOTOMY SITE SHOULD THE TOURNIQUET BE PLACED?
3-4 INCHES ABOVE THE SITE
ASSIGN. 19-3
THE CORRECT NEEDLE POSITION FOR VENIPUNCTURE IS (A) WHAT DEGREE ANGLE AND (B) WITH THE BEVEL IN WHAT POSITION?
(A) 15-30
(B) UP
(ASSIGN. 19-4)
A TOURNIQUET IS NORMALLY APPLIED BEFORE TO AID IN THE PROCESS OF VENIPUNCTURE AT WHAT POINT IN TH EVENIPUNCTURE PROCEDURE SHOULD THE TOURNIQUET BE REMOVED?
ONCE BLOOD FLOWS FREELY INTO TUBES
ASSIGN. 19-5
WHEN SHOULD SPECIMENS BE LABELED?
BEFORE LEAVING PATIENT
ASSIGN. 19-6
WHICH COLOR TUBE IS THE BEST CHOICE FOR ROUTINE CHEMISTRY TESTS?
RED TOP
ASSIGN. 19-7
WHICH COLOR TUBE IS THE BEST CHOICE FOR A CBC?
LAVENDER TOP
ASSIGN. 19-8
THE PART OF THE MICROSCOPE ON WHICH THE PREPARED SPECIMEN IS PLACED FOR EXAMINATION IS CALLED THE _____.
MECHANICAL STAGE
ASSIGN. 19-9
WHAT OBJECTIVE SHOULD BE USED FOR A DETAILED SUTDY. OF STAINED BACTERIAL SMEARS?
OIL IMMERSION
ASSIGN. 19-10
A COMPLETE BLOOD COUNT INCLUDES WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?
- TOTAL RBC COUNT
- HEATOCRIT
- DIFFERENTIAL WBC COUNT
(ASSIGN. 19-11)
THE FUNCTION OF HEMOGLOBIN IN THE BODY IS TO _____?
TRANSPORT OXYGEN TO THE TISSUES
ASSIGN. 19-12
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FACTORS AFFECT THE HEMOGLOBIN VALUES?
- AGE
- SEX
- ALTITUDE
(ASSIGN. 19-13)
A LOW RBC COUNT MAY INDICATE THAT THE PATIENT HAS WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING LISTED CONDITIONS?
ANEMIA
ASSIGN. 19-14
THE NORMAL VALUE FOR MALE HEMOGLOBIN IS ____?
14-18
ASSIGN. 19-15
WHAT IS THE TERM USED FOR THE VOLUME OF ERYTHROCYTES EXPRESSED AS A PERCENTAGE OF THE VOLUME OF WHOLE BLOOD IN A SAMPLE?
HEMATOCRIT
ASSIGN. 19-16
HEMATOCRIT FOR A NORMAL, HEALTHY FEMALE IS WITHIN WHAT RANGE?
37-47 PERCENT
ASSIGN. 19-17
SELECT THE TERM USED TO DESCRIBE AN ABNORMALLY HIGH WBC COUNT.
LEUKOCYTOSIS
ASSIGN. 19-18
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS MAY CAUSE LEUKOPENIA?
EACH OF THE ABOVE:
- RADIATION
- PSITTACOSIS
- ANAPHYLACTIC SHOCK
(ASSIGN. 19-19)
WHICH STUDY WITHIN A CBC OFTEN PROVIDES THE MOST HELPFUL INFORMATION IN DETERMINING THESEVERITY AND TYPE OF INFECTION?
WBC DIFFERENTIAL
ASSIGN. 19-20
WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF LEUKOCYTES?
TO CONTROL VARIOUS DISEASE CONDITIONS
ASSIGN. 19-21
WHAT TYPE OF LEUKOCYTE COMPRISED THE LARGEST PERCENTAGE OF CELLS IN THE CIRCULATING BLOOD?
NEUTROPHIL
ASSIGN. 19-22
WHICH LEUKOCYTE FUNCTIONS BY INGESTING INVADING BACTERIA?
NEUTROPHIL
ASSIGN. 19-23
WHICH LEUKOCYTE HELPS RESPOND TO PARASITIC INFECTIONS?
EOSINOPHIL
ASSIGN. 19-24
WHEN PERFORMING A WBC DIFFERENTIAL, HWICH CELL HAS THE LARGE, SCATTERED DARK BLUE GRANULES THAT ARE DARKER THAN THE NUCLEUS?
BASOPHILS
ASSIGN. 19-25
WHICH LEUKOCYTE FIGHTS VIRAL INFECTIONS?
LYMPHOCYTE
ASSIGN. 19-26
THE LARGEST OF THE NORMAL WBC’S IS THE _____?
MONOCYTE
ASSIGN. 19-27
WHAT IS THE TERM USED FOR BACTERIA THAT CUSE DISEASE?
PATHOGEN
ASSIGN. 19-28
THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN ANAEROBES AND AEROBES IS THAT ANAEROBES NEED OXYGEN TO REPRODUCE. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 19-29
WHAT IS TH ETERM USED TO DEFINE BACTERIA THAT ARE ROUND IN SHAPE?
COCCI
ASSIGN. 19-30
IN THE GRAM’S STAIN, WHAT IS THE PRIMARY STAIN?
CRYSTAL VIOLET
ASSIGN. 19-31
GRAM POSITIVE BACTERIA STAIN WHAT COLOR?
DEEP BLUE OR PURPLE
ASSIGN. 19-32
WHICH BACTERIA CAUSES STREP THROAT?
STREPTOCOCCUS PYOGENES
ASSIGN. 19-33
WHICH BACTERIA CAUSES GONORRHEA?
NEISSERIA GONORRHOEAE
ASSIGN. 19-34
WHICH BACTERIA CAUSES TETANUS?
CLOSTRIDIUM TETANI
ASSIGN. 19-35
WHAT IS THE TERM USED FOR A SUBSTANCE THAT, WHEN INTRODUCED INTO AN INDIVIDUAL’S BODY, IS RECOGNIZED A FOREIGN TO THE BODY, AND CAUSES A DETECTABLE REACTION?
ANTIGEN
ASSIGN. 19-36
THE RPR IS A SPECIFIC TEST TO DIAGNOSE SYPHILIS. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 19-37
THE RPR TEST TO SCREEN FOR SYPHILIS IS BEST USED WITH WHAT TYPE OF SPECIMEN?
SERUM
ASSIGN. 19-38
IF THE MONOSPOT IS NEGATIVE, THE PATIENT DOES NOT HAVE INFECTIOUS MONONUCLEOSIS. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 19-39
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CHEMICAL PREPARATIONS IS FREQUENTLY USED TO DETECT FUNGI?
POTASSIUM HYDROXIDE
ASSIGN. 19-40
THE BEST URINE SPECIMEN FOR SCREENING PURPOSES IS THAT TAKEN DURING WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TIMES?
FIRST MORNING
ASSIGN. 19-41
WHAT IS THE DESIRED URINE SMAPLE VOLUME FOR ROUTINE TESTING?
12 mL
ASSIGN. 19-42
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING COLORS WOULD BE CONSIDERED ABNORMAL IN A URINE SAMPLE?
RED
ASSIGN. 19-43
WHICH URINE COLOR IS MOST RELATED WITH THE PRESENCE OF BLOOD?
RED
ASSIGN. 19-44
WHICH URINE COLOR IS MOST RELATED WITH THE PRESENCE OF BILE?
YELLOW OR BROWN
ASSIGN. 19-45
WHICH URINE COLOR IS MOST RELATED WITH A PATIENT BEING TREATED WITH PYRIDIUM?
DARK ORANGE
ASSIGN. 19-46
A REPORT ON URINE CLARITY IS VLAID REGARDLESS OF STANDING TIME. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 19-47
THE SPECIFIC GRAVITY OF A LIQUID IS THE WEIGHT OF THE SUBSTANCE AS COMPARED TO AN EQUAL VOLUME OF _____.
DISTILLED WATER
ASSIGN. 19-48
NORMAL SPECIFIC GRAVITY FOR ROUTINE URINALYSIS IS WITHIN WHAT RAINGE?
1.015-1.030
ASSIGN. 19-49
THE ADDITION OF ONE DROP OF 2 PERCENT ACETIC ACID TO URINE SEDIMENT WILL DISINTEGRATE WHICH CELL?
RED BLOOD CELLS
ASSIGN. 19-50
WHAT CELL IS NOT NORMALLY FOUND IN URINE?
- WHITE BLOOD CELL
- RED BLOOD CELL
- EPITHELIAL CELL
(ASSIGN. 19-51)
WHICH CRITICAL RSULT IS INDICATIVE OF UNCONTROLLED DIABETES?
GLUCOSE AND KETONES BOTH PRESENT IN URINE
ASSIGN. 19-52
WHAT OPERATIONAL PROGRAM MAY BE USED ON SOME OPERATIONAL PLATFORMS TO TREAT CRITICAL PATIENTS IN A MASS CASUALTY SITUATION WHE DELAY O FBLOOD PRODUCTS WOUIL DCAUSE A CRITICAL DELAY?
WBB
ASSIGN. 19-53
WHY IS THE SPICA OR FIGURE EIGHT BANDAGE USED AROUND THE ELBO?
ALLOWS FOR MOVEMENT WHILE HOLDING A COMPRESS
ASSIGN. 20-1
WHAT SIZE BANDAGE IS USED FOR APPLYING A ROLLER BANDAGE TO THE ANKLE OR FOOT?
3 INCH
ASSIGN. 20-2
WHAT IS A BARTON BANDAGE USED FOR?
FRACTURES FO THE LOWER JAW
ASSIGN. 20-3
THE AUTOMATED EXTERNAL DEFIBRILLATOR ANALYZES CARDIAC RHYTHM AND SELECTS THE APPROPRIATE STRENGTH OF ELECTRICAL THERAPY WHICH STOPS AN ARRHYTHMIA, ALLOWING THE HEAR TO RE-ESTABLISH A NORMAL RHYTHM. TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE
ASSIGN. 20-4
WHICH STATEMENT IS FALSE CONCERNING NORMAL SALINE?
THERE ARE NO DANGERS IN GIVING “TOO MUCH” NORMAL SALINE
ASSIGN. 20-5
HETASTARCH IS A SUBSTITUTE FOR BLOOD PLASMA AND HAS OXYGEN CARRYING CAPABILITIES. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 20-6
IN THE UNITED STATES, OXYGEN BOTTLES ARE COLORED GREEN. WHAT IS THE INTERNATIONAL COLOR CODE OF OXYGEN BOTTLES?
WHITE
ASSIGN. 20-7
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A TRUE STATEMENT CONCERNING OROPHARYNGEAL AIRWAYS?
AN AIRWAY OF PROPER SIZE IS MEASURED FROM THE TIP OF THE EARLOBE TO THE CORNER OF THE MOUTH
(ASSIGN. 20-8)
THE OROPHARYNGEAL AIRWAY IS THE AIRWAY OF CHOICE FOR PATIENTS WITH A GAG REFLEX. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 20-9
THE EFFECTIVE LIFE OF AN OXYGEN BREATHING APPARATUS (OBA) IS _____?
20-45 MINUTES
ASSIGN. 20-10
HOW MANY STAGES OF EXTRICATION ARE THERE?
5
ASSIGN. 20-11
WHICH IS A TRUE STATEMENT WHEN TREATING A PATIENT THAT IS RADIOACTIVELY CONTAMINATED?
TREATMENT OF L IFE THREATENING INJURIES TAKES PRECEDENCE OVER DECONTAMINATION PROCEDURES
(ASSIGN. 20-12)
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A CONCERN ABOUT THE DISTANCE A CASUALTY CAN BE CARRIED?
THE AMOUNT OF RADIATION WITH WHICH THE VICTIM IS CONTAMINATED
(ASSIGN. 20-13)
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A PHASE OF CARE OF PATIENT EN ROUTE?
MEDICAL EVACUATION CARE
ASSIGN. 20-14
LINE #3 IN THE MEDEVAC REQUEST IS _____?
NUMBER OF PATENTS BY PRECEDENCE
ASSIGN. 20-15
WHEN ESTABLISHING A HELICOPTER LANDING SITE, THE GROUND SLOPE CAN BE NO MORE THAN _____ DEGREES.
15
ASSIGN. 20-16
THE NATIONAL FIRE PROTECTION ASSOCIATION HAS DEVELOPED A LABELING SYSTEM FOR INDICATING THE HEALTH, FLAMMABILITY, AND REACTIVITY HAZARDS OF CHEMICALS. THE LABELS ARE MAD INTO SQUARES TO COMPRISE A DIAMOND SHAPED LABEL. WHAT DOES RED INDICATE?
INDICATES FLAMMABILITY
ASSIGN. 20-17
THE NATIONAL FIRE PROTECTION ASSOCIATION HAS DEVELOPED A LABELING SYSTEM FOR INDICATING THE HEALTH, FLAMMABILITY, AND REACTIVITY HAZARDS OF CHEMICALS. THE LABELS ARE MAD INTO SQUARES TO COMPRISE A DIAMOND SHAPED LABEL. WHAT DOES WHITE INDICATE?
INDICATES ANY SPECIAL HAZARDS
ASSIGN. 20-18
THE NATIONAL FIRE PROTECTION ASSOCIATION HAS DEVELOPED A LABELING SYSTEM FOR INDICATING THE HEALTH, FLAMMABILITY, AND REACTIVITY HAZARDS OF CHEMICALS. THE LABELS ARE MAD INTO SQUARES TO COMPRISE A DIAMOND SHAPED LABEL. WHAT DOES BLUE INDICATE?
INDICATES HEALTH HAZARDS
ASSIGN. 20-19
THE NATIONAL FIRE PROTECTION ASSOCIATION HAS DEVELOPED A LABELING SYSTEM FOR INDICATING THE HEALTH, FLAMMABILITY, AND REACTIVITY HAZARDS OF CHEMICALS. THE LABELS ARE MAD INTO SQUARES TO COMPRISE A DIAMOND SHAPED LABEL. WHAT DOES YELLOW INDICATE
INDICATES THE REACTIVITY
ASSIGN. 20-20
IN HAZMAT MANAGEMENT SITUATIONS, SITE CONTROL IS DIVIDED INTO 3 ZONES. IN WHICH ZONE DOES PERSONNEL DECONTAMINATION HAPPEN?
WARM ZONE
ASSIGN. 20-21
WHEN DECONTAMINATING PERSONNEL CONTAMINATED FROM A HAZMAT SITUATION, THE MOST FREQUENTLY APPROPRIATE METHOD OF DECONTAMINATION IS _____?
DILUTION
ASSIGN. 20-22
ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE MEASURES FIRST AID IS INTENDED TO ADDRESS EXCEPT?
REPLACE PROPER MEDICAL DIAGNOSIS AND TREATMENT
ASSIGN. 21-1
ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE RULES TO FOLLOW WHEN PROVIDING FIRST AID EXCEPT?
PANIC AT THE FIRST SIGHT OF BLOOD
ASSIGN. 21-2
WHICH ONE IS NOT RECOMMENDED WHEN PREPARING FOR EMERGENCY SITUATIONS?
FAMILIARIZING YOURSELF WITH YOUR EQUIPMENT WHILE RESPONDING TO AN EMERGENCY SCENE
(ASSIGN. 21-3)
CASUALTIES IN A NON-TACTICAL ENVIRONMENT WHOSE INJURIES ARE CRITICAL BUT WHO WILL REQUIRE ONLY MINIMAL TIME OR EQUIPMENT ARE?
PRIORITY 1
ASSIGN. 21-4
WHAT IS THE METHOD FOR SORGIN CASUALITES IN A MULTIPLE CASUALTY INCIDENT (MCI)?
S.T.A.R.T.
ASSIGN. 21-5
A PATIENT IN A TACTICAL SETTING WITH AN UPPER AIRWAY OBSTRUCTION AND LIFE THREATENING BLEEDING WOULD FALL INTO WHICH CATEGORY?
IMMEDIATE
ASSIGN. 21-6
WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM AMOUNT OF TIME ALLOWED FOR CONTINOUS SUCTIONING OF AN INFANT’S AIRWAY?
5 SECONDS
ASSIGN. 21-7
WHEN INSERTING THE COMBITUBE AND AFTER THE DEVICE IS SITTING BETWEEN THE TEETH AND PROPERLY ALIGNED BETWEEN THE PRINTED BLACK RINGS, WHAT IS THE NEXT STEP?
INFLATE THE BLUE CUFF
ASSIGN. 21-8
CASUALTIES WITH AT TOTAL UPPER AIRWAY OBSTRUCTION, INHALATION BURNS, OR MASSIVE MAXILLOFACIAL TRAUMA WHO CANNOT BE VENTILATED BY OATHER MENAS ARE CANDITATES FOR THE KING LT AIRWAY. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 21-10
WHEN PERFORMING A NEEDLE CHEST DECOMPRESSION, WHAT IS THE PREFERRED SIZE OF THE NEEDLE REQUIRED TO ADEQUATELY DECOMPRESS THE CHEST?
14 GAUGE
ASSIGN. 21-10
DISTRIBUTIVE SHOCK IS A LOSS OF INTRAVASCULAR VOLUME, WHIHC MAY OCCUR FROM BLOOD, PLAMA, OR FLUID LOSS. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 21-11
ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE STAGES OF SHOCK EXCEPT?
EARLY
ASSIGN. 21-12
NORMALLY, A LOSS OF APPROXIMATELY _____ OF THE PERSON’S BLOOD VOLUME WILL CREATE A LIFE-THREATENING CONDITION.
1 LITER
ASSIGN. 21-13
A PATIENT WITH A SKIN ASSESSMENT OF PALE AND COOL AND WHOSE BLOOD PRESSURE DROPPED BRIEFLY WOULD BE CONSIDERED TO BE IN WHAT TYPE OF SHOCK?
PSYCHOGENIC
ASSIGN. 21-14
APPROXIMATELY HOW LONG DOES IT TAKE FOR DEATH TO OCCUR FROM MASSIVE HEMMORAGE?
2 MINUTES
ASSIGN. 21-15
WHAT IS THE MOST COMMON CAUSE OF SHOCK THAT THE HM WILL ENCOUNTER?
UNCONTROLLED HEMORRAGE
ASSIGN. 21-16
ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE COMPONENTS OF THE SCENE SIZE UP EXCEPT?
TYPES OF INJURY
ASSIGN. 21-17
THE INDEX OF SUSPICION IS DERIVED DIRECTLY FROM WHIHC OF THE FOLLOWING?
MECHANISM OF INJURY
ASSIGN. 21-18
THE GENERAL IMPRESSION IS CRUCIAL TO IDENTIFYING WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?
ALL OF THE ABOVE:
- TRANSPORT DECISION
- PATIENT’S OVERALL SYSTEMIC CONDITION
- OBVIOUS SIGNIFICANT EXTERNAL PROBLEMS
(ASSIGN. 21-19)
AN INTERRUPTION OF ARTERIAL BLOOD FLOW TO THE BRAIN IS BEST DESCRIBED AS A/AN _____.
CEREBROVASCULAR ACCIDENT
ASSIGN. 21-20
ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE STEPS IN TREATING SYCOPE EXCEPT _____?
GIVING THE PATIENT SOMETHING TO EAT
ASSIGN. 21-21
WHAT DOES THE ACRONYM AVPU STAND FOR?
- ALERT
- VERBAL
- PAINFUL
- UNRESPONSIVE
(ASSIGN. 21-22)
WHAT IS THE ACRONYM USED WHEN ASSESSING A PATIENT DURING A RAPID PHYSICAL EXAM?
DCAP-BTLS
ASSIGN. 21-23
A PATIENT EXPERIENCING RESPIRATORY DISTRESS CAN RAPIDLY PROGRESS TO FULL ARREST. ALWAYS BE PREPARED TO UTILIZE _____.
ADVANCED AIRWAY PROCEDURES
ASSIGN. 21-24
A PATIENT EXPERIENCING RESPIRATORY DIFFICULTY SHOULD BE FORCED TO LIE DOWN IN ORDER TO EASE THEIR BREATHING AND REDUCE THE WORKLOAD ON THE BODY. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 21-25
THE HM CAN ADMINISTER A NEBULIZER TREATMENT WITHOUT A MEDICAL OFFICER’S ORDER. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 21-26
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A CONTRAINDICATION FOR USING ACTIVATED CHARCOAL FOR PATIENTS SUFFERING FROM POISON INGESTION?
UNABLE TO SPEAK
ASSIGN. 21-27
IF A PATIENT IS HYPOTENSIVE, THEN THE SYSTOLIC BLOOD PRESSURE IS BELOW WHAT?
90
ASSIGN. 21-28
IN CASES OF AIRWAY OBSTRUCTION FROM SEVERE GLOTTIC EDEMA WHAT PROCEDURE MAY BE NECESSARY?
CRICOTHYROIDOTOMY
ASSIGN. 21-29
DURING A PATIENT ASSESSMENT THE HM NOTICES THAT THE PATIENT SEEMS TO HAVE A FRUITY BREATH ODOR, THE HM SUSPECTS THE PATIENT IS SUFFERING FROM _____.
HYPERGLYCEMIA
ASSIGN. 21-30
THE HM SUSPECTS A PATIENT IS SUFFERING FROM A BRAIN INJURY. UPON ASSESSMENT THE HM DISCOVERS THE PATIENT HAS ASYMMETRICAL PUPILS, HEADACHE NAUSEA, AND VOMITING. THE HM SUSPECTS PATIENT IS SUFFERING FROM _____.
INCREASED INTRACRANIAL PRESSURE
ASSIGN. 21-31
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SIGNS AND SYMPTOMS IS CONSIDERED A LATE SIGN OF A HEMOTHORAX?
DEVIATED TRACHEA
ASSIGN. 21-32
WHEN TREATING A PATIENT WITH AN ABDOMINAL EVISCERATION, IT IS ACCEPTABLE TO PLACE THE ORGANS BACK INSIDE THE ABDOMINAL CAVITY IN ORDER TO KEEP THE ORGANS WARM AND MOIST AS WELL AS PREVENT INFECTION. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 21-33
AFTER THE BABY HAS BEEN DELIVERED AND THE CORD HAS BEEN CUT, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STEPS IS CORRECT WHEN DELIVERING THE PLACENTA?
WAIT APPROX. 10-20 MINUTES FOR THE PLACENTA TO DELIVER SPONTANEOUSLY
(ASSIGN. 21-34)
WHAT IS THE FIRST STEP IN THE MANAGEMENT PLAN FOR CARE UNDER FIRE?
RETURN FIRE/TAKE COVER
ASSIGN. 21-35
DURING TACTICAL FIELD CARE, WHAT IS THE BEST WAY TO CONTROL COMPRESSIBLE HEMORRAGE WHEN A TOURNIQUET IS NOT AMENDABLE?
ALL OF THE ABOVE:
- USE COMBAT GAUZE AS THE HEMOSTATIC AGENT OF CHOICE WITH AT LEAST 3 MINUTES OF DIRECT PRESSURE
- MAKE THE TOURNIQUET WORK
- USE A LARGE BATTLE DRESSING
(ASSIGN. 21-36)
WHAT IS THE USUAL DOSE OF MORPHINE FOR ADULT PATIENTS IN SEVERE PAIN?
10-20 mg
ASSIGN. 21-37
MORPHINE CAN BE GIVEN TO PATIENTS WHO HAVE SUFFERED A HEAD INJURY. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 21-38
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STEPS IN BLEEDING CONTROL ARE NO LONGER UTILIZED?
- APPLY TOURNIQUET
- ELEVATE THE EXTREMITY
(ASSIGN. 21-39)
AFTER BLEEDING HAS BEEN CONTROLLED BY A TOURNIQUET, HOW IS THE PATIENT MARKED?
A “T” WITH THE TIME MARKED ON THE FOREHEAD
ASSIGN. 21-40
WHAT IS THE FIRST STEP IN TREATING FOR HYPOVOLEMIC SHOCK?
TAKE BSI PRECAUTION
ASSIGN. 21-41
WHICH TYPE OF SUTURE MATERIAL IS BEST USED FRO SURFACE CLOSURES AND CAUSE VERY LITTLE TISSUE REACTION?
DERMALON
ASSIGN. 21-42
THE MOST COMMON METHOD OF ANESTHESIA USED BY THE HM IS THE INFILTRATION OF THE ANESTHETIZING AGENT INTO THE NERVE TRUNKS THAT INNERVATE THE FINGERS OR TOES. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 21-43
FOR A LARGE, GAPING, SOFT-TISSUE WOUND, A PRIMARY CLOSURE IS ACCEPTABLE. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 21-44
WHEN CUTTING SUTURES WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM ACCEPTABLE LENGTH FOR THE TAILS TO BE?
1/4 INCH
ASSIGN. 21-45
ANY PERSON WHOH HAS AN ACUTE PAIN IN THE BACK OR NECK AS WELL AS A SIGNIFICANT MECHANISM OF INJURY, SHOULD BE TREATED AS THOUGH THERE IS A FRACTURED SPINE, EVEN IF THERE ARE NO OTHER SYMPTOMS. TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE
ASSIGN. 21-46
WHEN IS IT ACCERPTABLE TO MOVE A PATIENT WITH A SUSPECTED PELVIC FRACTURE?
WHEN ABSOLUTELY NECESSARY AFTER MAST GARMENTS HAVE BEEN APPLIED TO STABILIZE THE PELVIC REGION
(ASSIGN. 21-47)
WHAT METHOD SHOULD BE UTILIZED WHEN OPENING THE AIRWAY OF A PATIENT WHO IS SUSPECTED OF HAVING A SPINAL CORD INJURY?
JAW THRUST
ASSIGN. 21-48
NEVER ATTEMPT TO REMOVE A FOREIGN BODY STUCK TO OR PENETRATING AN EYEBALL. TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE.
ASSIGN. 21-49
WHEN BANDAGING AN EYE WITH AN IMPALED FOREIGN OBJECT, WHAT SHOULD BE DONE?
BANDAGE BOTH EYES
ASSIGN. 21-50
WHEN APPLYING FIRST AID FOR REMOVING FOREIGN OBJECTS, WHICH STATEMENT BELOW IS NOT CORRECT?
REMOVE BULLETS TO AID IN STOPPING BLEEDING
ASSIGN. 21-51
WHEN APPLYING AID FOR ANIMAL BITES WHAT SHOULD NEVER DO?
CAUTERIZE AREAS THAT ARE BLEEDING TO AID IN TRANSPORT
ASSIGN. 21-52
WHAT DEGREE OF THERMAL BURNS TO THE SKIN IS CHARACTERIZED BY EPIDERMAL BLISTERS, MOTTLED APPEARANCE AND A RED BASE? DAMAGE EXTENDS INTO BUT NOT THROUGH THE DERMIS. RECOVER USUALLY TAKES 2 TO 3 WEEKS.
SECOND DEGREE BURN
ASSIGN. 21-53
THE RULE OF NINES ASSIGNS WHAT PERCENTAGE VALUE FOR BURNS OF THE ANTERIOR CHEST AND ANTERIOR NECK?
14
ASSIGN. 21-54
UNDER NORMAL CONDITIONS HEAT EXPOSURE INJURIES ARE PREVENTABLE INJURIES. TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE
ASSIGN. 21-55
WHAT IS THE MOST COMMON CONDITION CAUSED BY WORKING OR EXERCISING IN HOT ENVIRONMENTS?
HEAT EXHAUSTION
ASSIGN. 21-56
WHICH COLD INJURY IS MILD COLD INJURY THAT HAPPENS FROM PROLONGED EXPOSURE IN TEMPERATURES ABOVE FREEZING TO AS HIGH AS 60 DEGREES FAHRENHEIT.
CHILBLAIN
ASSIGN. 21-57
A DILUTED SOLUTION OF WHICH OF THE LISTED SUBSTANCES WILL NEUTRALIZE ALKALI BURNS TO THE SKIN?
VINEGAR
ASSIGN. 21-58
THE USUAL TREATMENT FOR CHEMICAL BURNS IS TO FLUSH WITH COPIUS AMOUNTS OF WATER. THE TWO EXCEPTION TO THIS RULE ARE IN THE CASE OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CHEMICALS?
DRY LIME AN CARBOLIC ACID
ASSIGN. 21-59
WHAT IS THE MOST EFFECTIVE METHOD OF RE-WARMING A VICTIM OF HYPOTHERMIA?
IMMERSION IN A TUB OF WARM WATER
ASSIGN. 21-60
HWO MANY ADDITIONAL ATMOSPHERES OF PRESSURE ARE APPLIED AT A DEPTH OF 33 FEET IN SEA WATER?
1
ASSIGN. 21-61
WHAT IS NOT ONE OF THE THREE PRINCIPLE CATEGORIES FOR INJURIES WHEN DISCUSSING DIVING RELATED DISORDERS?
TRAUMA
ASSIGN. 21-62
A MIDDLE EAR SQUEEZE IS CLASSIFIED UNDER WHICH TYPE OF DIVING INJURY?
BAROTRAUMA
ASSIGN. 21-63
THE TREATMENT FOR A MIDDLE EAR SQUEEZE CONSISTS OF ALL THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT?
ADMINISTER EAR DROPS FOR RUPTURED EAR DRUM
ASSIGN. 21-64
WHICH LAW DEAL WITH DECOMPRESSION SICKNESS (DCS)?
HENRY’S LAW
ASSIGN. 21-65
WHICH STATEMENT BELOW IS NOT APPLICABLE FOR TREATMENT OF DECOMPRESSION SICKNESS?
DO NOT PRESSURIZE THE CABIN OF AIRCRAFT WHEN TRANSPORTING TO TREATMENT FACILITY
(ASSIGN. 21-66)
POISONING IS DEFINED AS CONTACT WITH OR EXPOSURE TO A TOXIC SUBSTANCE. TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE
ASSIGN. 22-1
TOXICOLOGY IS DEFINED AS THE SCIENCE OF POISONS. TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE
ASSIGN. 22-2
A PATIENT PRESENTS WITH DILATED PUPILS, FEVER, DRY SKIN, URINARY RETENTION, DECREASED BOWEL SOUNDS, ADN INCREASED HEART RATE. WHAT TOXIDROME DOES THIS SET OF SYMPTOMS SUGGEST?
ANTIOCHOLINERGIC
ASSIGN. 22-3
A PATIENT PRESENTS WITH SALIVATION, LACRIMATION, URINATION, AND MSUCLE WEAKNESS. WHAT TOXIC SYNDROME DOES THIS SET OF SYMPTOMS SUGGEST?
CHOLINERGIC
“S.L.U.D.G.E.”
(ASSIGN. 22-4)
WHAT IS THE MOST COMMON ROUTE OF EXPOSURE TO TOXIC CHEMICALS IN THE HOME?
INGESTED
ASSIGN. 22-5
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE METHOD OF CHOICE FOR THE HM TO USE TO INDUCE VOMITING?
15-30 cc OF SYRUP OF IPECAC
ASSIGN. 22-6
WHEN A PATIENT INGESTS AN ACID OR BASE TREATMENT IS TO GIVE A NEUTRALIZING AGENT ORALLY. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 22-2
IF THE HM IS UNABLE TO REACH THE POISON CONTROL CENTER OR A PHYSICIAN FOR SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS, HOW SHOULD THE HM TREAT A VICTIM WHO HAS INGESTED TURPENTINE?
GIVE 1 TO 2 OUNCES OF VEGETABLE OIL ORALLY
ASSIGN. 22-8
OF THE FOLLOWING, WHICH IS CONSIDERED THE MOST COMMON AGENT IN INHALATION POISONING?
CARBON MONOXIDE
ASSIGN. 22-9
TREATMENT FOR AN INHALATION POISONING VICTIM INCLUDES ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT _____?
ADMINISTRATION OF STIMULANTS
ASSIGN. 22-10
A PATIENT PRESENTS EXHIBITING SIGNS OF ANAPHYLACTIC REACTION TO A BEE OR A WASP STING OF THE FOLLOWING, WHICH IS NOT CONSIDERED APPROPRIATE TREATMENT?
WARM PACKS OVER STING SITE
ASSIGN. 22-11
THE VICTIM OF A SCORPION STING MAY SAFELY BE GIVEN ANY OF THE FOLLOWING PHARMACEUTICALS EXCEPT ______?
ALL OF THE ABOVE:
- DEMEROL OR MORPHINE
- CALCIUM GLUCONATE
- VALIUM
(ASSIGN. 22-12)
SYMPTOMS OF A BLACK WIDOW SPIDER BITE MAY INCLUDE SEVER PAIN DYSPNEA, AND _____.
ABDOMINAL RIGIDITY
ASSIGN. 22-13
CROTALIDS ARE IDENTIFIED BY _____.
- SLIT-LIKE PUPILS OF THE EYES
- FLAT, TRIANGULAR HEADS
(ASSIGN. 22-14)
WHAT IS THE KEY IDENTIFYING FEATURE OF THE NORTH AMERICAN CORAL SNAKE THAT DISTINGUISHES IT FROM OTHER SNAKES WITH SIMILAR MARKINGS?
THE YELLOW BAND IS ALWAYS NEXT TO TH ERED BAND (RED AND BLACK VENOM LACK. RED AND YELLOW KILL A FELLOW)
(ASSIGN. 22-15)
ON PATROL, A MEMBER OF THE UNIT RECEIVES A RATTLESNAKE BITE JUST BELOW THE ELBOW WHAT FIRST AID TREATMENT SHOULD BE PERFORMED?
PLACE A CONSTRICTING BAND 2 INCHES PROXIMAL TO THE BITE SITE
ASSIGN. 22-16
VALUABLE INFORMATION ON THE ANTIVENOM IS FOUND IN THE PACKAGE INSERTS. TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE
ASSIGN. 22-17
THE PUFFER, SURGEON TRIGGER, AND PARROT FISH ARE KNOWN TO BE _____J.
POISONOUS AT ALL TIMES
ASSIGN. 22-18
A PERSON SUFFERING FROM A VENOMOUS FISH STING SHOULD _____?
SOAK THE WOUND IN HOT WATER FOR 30 TO 90 MINUTES
ASSIGN. 22-19
IDENTIFYING THE FISH WITH WHICH THERE IS ANTIVENOM AVIALABLE.
STONEFISH
ASSIGN. 22-20
ANTIVENIN IS AVAILABLE TO NEUTRALIZE THE EFFECTS OF THE FOLLOWING TYPES OF COELENTERATES?
SEA WASP, BOX JELLYFISH
ASSIGN. 22-21
HWO MANY HOURS AFTER THE LAST DOSE DOES NARCOTIC WITHDRAW NORMALLY PEAK?
72 HOURS
ASSIGN. 22-22
THE MOST WIDELY ABUSED DRUG(S) IS/ARE?
ETHANOL
ASSIGN. 22-23
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A SYMPTOM OF ALCOHOL ABUSE?
INCREASED LEVEL OF CONSCIOUSNESS
ASSIGN. 22-24
WITHDRAWAL FROM BARBITUATES IS LESS LIFE THREATENING THAN NARCOTIC WITHDRAWAL. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 22-25
CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM STIMULANTS ARE USED FOR ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT?
DECREASE MENTAL ALERTNESS
ASSIGN. 22-26
SIGNS AND SYMPTOMS OF STIMULANT INTOXICATION INCLUDE ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT _____?
INCREASED APPETITE
ASSIGN. 22-27
A PERSON MAY DISPLAY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SIGN(S) AFTER USING A HALLUCINOGENIC DRUG?
FLUSHED FACE
ASSIGN. 22-28
MARIJUANA FALLS INTO WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CATEGORIES OF DRUGS?
CANNABIS
ASSIGN. 22-29
PERSONS WHO REGULARLY ABUSE INHALANTS RISK WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING INJURIES?
ALL OF THE ABOVE:
- SEVERE BRAIN DAMAGE
- DAMAGED INTERNAL ORGANS
- DEATH
(ASSIGN. 22-30)
IN CARING FOR DRUG-INTOXICATED PERSONS, THE HM SHOULD PERFORM WHAT ACTIONS AS THE FIRST PRIORITY?
CHECK FOR AN ADEQUATE AIRWAY
ASSIGN. 22-31
WHEN WAS THE FIRST LARGE SCALE USE OF CHEMICAL AGENTS?
WWI
ASSIGN. 23-1
TERRORISTS WILL NOT USE CHEMCIAL AGENTS BECASUE THEY ARE DIFFICULT TO MAKE? TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 23-2
M9 CHEMICAL AGENT DETECTION PAPER TURNS WHAT COLOR IF A NERVE IS PRESENT?
RED
ASSIGN. 23-3
M8 CHEMICAL DETECTION PAPER TURNS WHAT COLOR WHEN IT COMES INTO CONTACT WITH VX?
GREEN
ASSIGN. 23-4
M8 CHEMICAL. DETECTION PAPER TURNS WHAT COLOR WHEN IT COMES INTO CONTACT WITH G CLASS NERVE AGENTS?
YELLOW
ASSIGN. 23-5
WHAT MOPP LEVEL AFFORDS THE MOST PROTECTION?
4
ASSIGN. 23-6
NERVE AGENTS ENHANCE THE NERVE IMPULSES. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 23-7
NERVE AGENTS ENTER THE BODY THROUGH WHAT AREA?
- EYES
- SKIN
- RESPIRATORY TRACT
(ASSIGN. 23-8)
A MARK I KIT CONSISTS OF _____?
- ATROPINE
- 2-PAM Cl
(ASSIGN. 23-9)
FOR SEVERE NERVE AGENT SYMPTOMS GIVE HOW MANY MARK I KITS IN A ROW?
3
ASSIGN. 23-10
HOW MANY MARK I KITS CAN A NON-MEDICAL PERSON GIVE?
3
ASSIGN. 23-11
HOW LONG DO YOU WAIT AFTER GIVING THE FIRST MARK I KIT BEFORE GIVING ANOTHER IN A PATIENT WITH MODERATE SYMPTOMS?
10 TO 15 MINUTES
ASSIGN. 23-12
TO DECONTAMINATE A PATIENT WITH NERVE AGENT YOU USE?
- SOAP AND WATER
- 0.5% HYPOCHLORITE SOLUTION
- M291
(ASSIGN. 23-13)
CHEMICAL AGENTS H, HD, AND HN ARE ALL WHAT TYPE OF AGENTS?
BLISTER
ASSIGN. 23-14
SYMPTOMS OF MUSTARD AGENT CONTACT ARE?
BLISTERS
ASSIGN. 23-15
WHAT ANTIDOTE IS USED FOR LEWISITE?
BAL
(BRITISH ANTI-LEWISITE)
(ASSIGN. 23-16)
DECONTAMINATION OF BLISTER AGENT WITHIN TWO MINUTES WILL REDUCE THE TOXIC EFFECTS BY _____?
50%
ASSIGN. 23-17
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A BLOOD AGENT?
AC
ASSIGN. 23-18
WHAT IS THE INITIAL TREATMENT FOR CYANIDES?
SODIUM NITRATE, IV
ASSIGN. 23-19
WHICH AGENT SMELLS LIKE NEW MOWN HAY?
CG
ASSIGN. 23-20
CS IS A HIGHLY TOXIC SUBSTANCE. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 23-21
LACRIMATORS ARE ALSO KNOWN AS _____?
TEAR GAS
ASSIGN. 23-22
DECONTAMINATION FOR HARASSMENT AGETNS GENERALLY CONSISTS OF _____?
WASHING WITH BABY SHAMPOO
ASSIGN. 23-23
THE FIRST PRIORITY FOR FIRST AID FOR A CHEMICAL AGENT PATIENT IS _____?
CONTROL MASSIVE HEMORRAGE
ASSIGN. 23-24
INITIAL MANAGEMENT OF A CHEMICAL AGENT CASUALTY IS _____?
- REMOVAL OF MOPP GEAR
- DECONTAMINATION WITH 0.5% HYPOCHLORITE SOLUTION
(ASSIGN. 23-25)
WHAT ARE THE THREE TYPES OF BIOLOGICAL AGENTS?
BACTERIA, VIRUSES, AND TOXINS
ASSIGN. 23-26
WHAT CLASS OF BIOLOGICAL AGENT IS ANTHRAX?
BACTERIA
ASSIGN. 23-27
WHAT CLASS OF BIOLOGICAL AGENT IS PLAGUE?
BACTERIA
ASSIGN. 23-28
WHAT CLASS OF BIOLOGICAL AGENT IS SMALLPOX?
VIRUS
ASSIGN. 23-29
WHAT CLASS OF BIOLOGICAL AGENT IS RICIN?
TOXIN
ASSIGN. 23-30
WHAT CLASS OF BIOLOGICAL AGENT IS MARBURG?
VIRUS
ASSIGN. 23-31
WHAT CLASS OF BIOLOGICAL AGENT IS BOTULISM?
TOXIN
ASSIGN. 23-32
WHAT CLASS OF BIOLOGICAL AGENT IS EBOLA?
VIRUS
ASSIGN. 23-33
BIOLOGICAL OUTBREAKS THAT OCCUR IN MULTIPLE GEOGRAPHICAL LOCATION ARE CLASSIFIED AS _____?
- NATURAL OCCURENCE
- INTENTIONAL RELEASE
(ASSIGN. 23-34)
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT AN INDICATOR OF BIOLOGICAL AGENT RELEASE?
- UNUSUAL DISEASE FOR THE GEOGRAPHIC AREA
- ABSENCE OF COMPETENT NATURAL VECTOR
- RESTRICTED GEOGRAPHICAL DISTRIBUTION, EPIDEMIOLOGICAL GROUPING OR CLUSTERING
(ASSIGN. 23-35)
VIRUSES CAN BE TREATED WITH THE USE O FANTIOBIOTICS. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE.
ASSIGN. 23-36
VIRAL HEMORRHAGIC FEVERS ARE SUSCEPTIBLE TO _____?
- PHENOLIC DISINFECTANTS
- 1% BLEACH SOLUTION
(ASSIGN. 23-37)
A DIRTY BOMB COULD BE USED BY A TERRORIST ORGANIZATION. TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE
ASSIGN. 23-38
WHAT TYPE OF RADIATION IS SOMETIMES CALLED PENETRATING RADIATION?
GAMMA
ASSIGN. 23-39
A LETHAL FULL BODY DOSE OF RADIATION IS _____?
4 TO 5 Sv
ASSIGN. 23-40
WHAT IS THE MOST EFFECTIVE SHIELDING?
LEAD
ASSIGN. 23-41
THE TIME OF ONSET OF WHICH SYMPTOMS WILL GIVE YOU AN ESTIMATE OF RADIATION DOSE/EXPOSURE?
NAUSEA AND VOMITING
ASSIGN. 23-42
ONCE A PATIENT IS REMOVED FROM A RADIATION SOURCE, CHRONIC RADIATION SYMPTOMS WILL RESOLVE. TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE
ASSIGN. 23-43
INJURIES RESULTING FROM A NUCLEAR EXPLOSION ARE TREATED DIFFERENTLY. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 23-44
A PATIENT CAN BE CERTIFIED DECONTAMINATED FROM A RADIOLOGICAL INCIDENT WITH _____?
AN/VDR 2
ASSIGN. 23-45
THE HM MAY PROVIDE TEMPORARY EMERGENCY DENTAL TREATMENT UNDER WHICH O FHTE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS?
- TO COMBAT INFECTION
- TO PROVIDE RELIEF FROM PAIN
- TO PREVENT FURTHER DAMAGE TOORAL STRUCTURES
(ASSIGN. 24-1)
IF A PATIENT REPORTS TO THE DENTAL CLINIC AFTER HOURS WITH A TOOTHACHE WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STEPS SHOULD THE DUTY HM FIRST TAKE?
NOTIFY THE DUTY DENTAL OFFICER
ASSIGN. 24-2
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWINGCHOICES BEST DESCRIBES A SYMPTOM?
THE PATIENT INFORMS THE HM OF A TOOTHACHE
ASSIGN. 24-3
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CHOICES BEST DESCRIBES A SIGN?
HM OBSERVES A LARGE HOLE IN A PATIENT’S TOOTH
ASSIGN. 24-4
WHEN PAIN FROM AN AFFECTED TOOTH MANIFESTS TO A HEALTHY, NON-INVOLVED TOOTH, WHAT IS THE CONDITION CALLED?
REFERRED PAIN
ASSIGN. 24-5
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS EXISTS IF A PATIENT IS EXPERIENCING PAIN CAUSED BY THE PRESSURE OF FLUID BUILDING UP INSIDE THE PULP CHAMBER?
ACUTE PULPITIS
ASSIGN. 24-6
WHICH CONDITION EXISTS WHEN SWELLING IS CONFINED TO A SMALL AREA AT THE SITE OF A SINUS TRACT?
GUMBOIL
ASSIGN. 24-7
WHEN PERFORMING AN EMERGENCY TREATMENT FOR A PERIAPICAL ABCESS, WHAT INSTRUMENT WILL BE USED TO DRAIN THE ABCESS?
EXPLORER
ASSIGN. 24-8
A PATIENT WITH A PERIAPICAL ABCESS MAY COMPLAIN OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SYMPTOMS?
THE TOOTH “FEELS LONGER” THAN THE OTHERS
ASSIGN. 24-9
WHAT TYPE OF INFLAMMATION IS PRESENT IN MARGINAL GINGIVITIS?
MILD
ASSIGN. 24-10
NECROTIZING ULCERATIVE GINGIVITIS (NUG) IS COMMONLY REFERRED TO BY WHAT TERM?
TRENCHWORM
ASSIGN. 24-11
WHAT COLORED MEMBRANE WILL BE COVERING THE GINGIVA IF A PATIENT HAS NUG?
GRAY WHITE
ASSIGN. 24-12
PERIODONTIS USUALLY RESULTS FROM WHAT UNTREATED CONDITION?
MARGINAL GINGIVITIS
ASSIGN. 24-13
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS EXIST IF A PAIENT COMPLAINS THAT THEIR GUMS ARE “ITCHING”?
PERIODONTITIS
ASSIGN. 24-14
WHAT IS THE CORRECT EMERGENCY TREATMENT FOR A PERIODONTAL ABCESS?
GENTLY PROBE THE AFFECTED AREA WITH A SCALER TO ESTABLISH DRAINAGE.
(ASSIGN. 24-15)
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SOLUTIONS SHOULD BE USED TO IRRIGATE THE TISSUE FLAP IF A PATIENT HAS PERICORONITIS?
WARM SALINE SOLUTION
ASSIGN. 24-16
WHAT ARE TWO COMMON TYPES OF STOMATITIS FOUND IN THE ORAL MUCOSA?
GENITAL HERPES AND APHTHOUS
ASSIGN. 24-17
BLEEDING FROM AN EXTRACTION SITE IS REFERRED TO BY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TERMS?
POSTEXTRACTION HEMORRAGE
ASSIGN. 24-18
POSTEXTRACTION ALVEOLAR OSTEITIS IS A CONDITION COMMONLY REFERRED TO BY WHAT TERM?
DRY SOCKET
ASSIGN. 24-19
TO TREAT POST EXTRACTION ALVEOLAR OSTEITIS, WHAT TYPE OF DENTAL MATERIAL IS PLACED IN A TOOTH SOCKET?
IODOFORM GAUZE WITH EUGENOL
ASSIGN. 24-20
TOOTH FRACTURES ARE CLASSIFIED INTO HOW MANY DIFFERENT TYPES?
4
ASSIGN. 24-21
FRACTURED TEETH CAN INFOLVE WHICHOF THE FOLLOWING AREAS OF A TOOTH?
ENAMEL, DENTIN, PULP, AND ROOT
ASSIGN. 24-22
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DENTALMATERIALS WILL BE USED TO TREAT A TYPE I FRACTURE?
CAVITY VARNISH
ASSIGN. 24-23
A TYPE II FRACTURE INVOLVES AN EXPOSURE OF THE PULP. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 24-24
HM’S WHO PROVIDE EMERGENCY TREATMENT OF A FRACTURED MANDIBLE WILL USE WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MATERIALS?
ELASTIC BANDAGES
ASSIGN. 24-25
ALL OF THE FOLLOWING DECEDENT AFFAIRS PROGRAMS ARE UTILIZED TO CARRY OUT STANDARD RESPONSIBILITIES EXCEPT _____?
- CURRENT DEATH
- GRAVES REGISTRATION
- CASUALT ASSISTANCE CALLS PROGRAM
(ASSIGN. 25-1)
WHICH PROGRAM IS INITIATED DURING MAJOR MILITARY OPERATIONS?
GRAVES REGISTRATION
ASSIGN. 25-2
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING WILL NOT REQUIRE SUBMISSION OF A PERSONNEL CASUALTY REPORT?
PRISONER OF WAR
ASSIGN. 25-3
THE PADD SHOULD BE NOTIFIED OF A DEAHT DURING WHAT HOURS OF OPERATION?
0500-2400
ASSIGN. 25-4
A CACO IS NORMALLY ASSIGNED TO ASSIST THE NEEDS OF FAMILY MEMBERS FOR WHAT PERIOD OF TIME?
90 DAYS
ASSIGN. 25-5
THE COMMANDING OFFICER MOST WRITE A LETTER OF CONDOLENCE TO THE APPROPRIATE NOK WITHIN WHAT TIME FRAME?
48 HOURS
ASSIGN. 25-6
WHEN AN INDIVIDUAL IS INVOLVED IN A MOTORCYCLE OR AUTOMOBILE ACCIDENT OR UNDER THE CARE OF A PHYSICIAN AND DEATH OCCURS, THEY MUST RECEIVE AN AUTOPSY. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 25-7
WHEN AN AUTOPSY IS DESIRED BUT NOT REQUIRED PERMISSION MUST BE GRANTED FROM THE PADD. TRUE OR FALSE?
TRUE
ASSIGN. 25-8
WHAT TYPE OF MESSAGE SHOULD BE USED TO NOTIFY BUMED AND NAVY MORTUARY AFFAIRS OF A DISASTER RESULTING IN THE DEATH OF NAVAL MEMBERS?
PRIORITY
ASSIGN. 25-9
WHEN A SERCH AND RECOVERY OPERATION CONTINUES LONGER THAN 36 HOURS HOW OFTEN IS A REPORT SUBMITTED BUMED?
24 HOURS
ASSIGN. 25-10
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DETERMINATIONS IS NOT MADE BY NAVY MORTUARY AFFAIRS?
UNIDENTIFIABLE
ASSIGN. 25-11
THE NAVY AWARDS ANNUAL MORTUARY CONTRACTS TO LOCAL FUNERAL HOMES ANTICIPATING WHAT MINIMUM NUMBER OF DEATHS PER YEAR?
3
ASSIGN. 25-12
WHAT TYPE OF CONTRACT IS UTILIZED WHEN THERE ARE NO MORTUARY CONTRACTS IN EFFECT?
ONE TIME CONTRACT
ASSIGN. 25-13
IN WHAT EXPENSE CATEGORY IS DRESSING?
PRIMARY EXPENSES
ASSIGN. 25-14
IN WHAT EXPENSE CATEGORY I S UNIFORM?
PRIMARY EXPENSES
ASSIGN. 25-15
IN WHAT EXPENSE CATEGORY IS REMOVAL FROM PLACE OF DEATH?
TRANSPORTATION EXPENSES
ASSIGN. 25-16
IN HWAT EXPENSE CATEGORY IS GRAVE PLOT?
SECONDARY
ASSIGN. 25-17
IN WHAT EXPENSE CATEGORY IS AUTOPSY PREPARATION?
PRIMARY EXPENSES
ASSIGN. 25-18
IN WHAT EXPENSE CATEGORY IS DELIVERY OF REMAINS TO CEMETERY?
TRANSPORTATION EXPENSES
ASSIGN. 25-19
PRIOR TO THE TRANSPORTATION OF REMAINS THEY MAY BE REFRIGERATED BELOW WHAT DEGREES FAHRENHEIT?
40 DEGREES
ASSIGN. 25-20
WHO MAY BE ABLE TO PROIDE MORTUARY SERVICES IF DEATH OCCURS IN AN AREA NOT SERVED BY NAVY FACILITIES?
DEPARTMENT OF STATE
ASSIGN. 25-21
WHAT FORM MUST ACCOMPANY THE REMAINS OF A MEMBER TO A CONUS POINT OF ENTRY FROM OCONUS?
DD 2064
ASSIGN. 25-22
HOW MANY COPIES OF THE STATEMENT OF RECOGNITION (DD565) MUST ACCOMPANY THE REMAINS?
2
ASSIGN. 25-23
WHAT ARE THE DIMENSIONS OF THE STANDARD AND OVERSIZED NAVAL CASKETS?
STANDARD: 23 x 78
ASSIGN. 25-24
WHEN THE MORTICIAN IS UNABLE TO SEIZE THE ODOR OF REMAINS, THEY WILL NOT BE ACCEPTED FOR BURIAL AT SEA. TRUE OF FALSE?
TRUE
ASSIGN. 25-25
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT AN AUTHORIZED METHOD OF PRIMARY TRANSPORTATION FOR REMAINS?
TRAIN
ASSIGN. 25-26
CREMATED RAMINS MAY BE SHIPPED TO A CONUSPOINT OF ENTRY VIA COMMERCIAL AIR. TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 25-27
WHEN TRANSPORTING REMAINS OF DEATH RESULTING FROM A COMMUNICABLE DISEASE THERE IS A LABEL PLACED ON THE TRANSFER CASE THAT STATES _____.
CONTAGIOUS
ASSIGN. 25-28
TO BE SELECTED AS AN ESCORT OF REMAINS YOU MUST MEET ALL OF THE FOLLOWING CRITERIA EXCEPT ______?
FROM THE SAME CITY
ASSIGN. 25-29
THE ESCORT SELECTED BY THE PADD IS ALSO KNOWN AS _____.
SPECIAL ESCORT
ASSIGN. 25-30
WHO IS ULTIMATELY RESPONSIBLE FOR ASSIGNING AN INVENTORY BOARD FOR THE PERSONAL EFFECTS OF A DECEASED MEMBER?
COMMANDING OFFICER
ASSIGN. 25-31
TO WHOM, MUST AN APPLICATION REQUESTING A COMMERCIAL HEADSTONE BE SUBMITTED?
VETERANS AFFAIRS
ASSIGN. 25-32
WHEN REQUESTING FUNDS FOR SERVICES OF DECEASED MILITARY PERSONNEL OTHER THAN NAVY AND MARINE CORPS, WHAT FORM IS USED?
MED 5360-3
ASSIGN. 25-33
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A CLASSIFICATION FOR NATIONAL CEMETERIES?
PLANNED
ASSIGN. 25-34
ANY NAVY AND MARINE CORPS MEMBER SERVING ON ACTIVE DUTY AT THE TIME OF DEATH MAY BE BURIED IN ANY OPEN NATIONAL CEMETERY INCLUDING ARLINGTON, VIRGINIA (WITH REQUIREMENTS MET). TRUE OR FALSE?
FALSE
ASSIGN. 25-35
