31 NAVEDTRA 14295B CORPSMAN MANUAL

Question 1

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE KEY TO SERVICE WITH DISTINCTION?

Answer 1

PROFESSIONAL ETHICS

ASSIGN. 1-1

Question 2

THE IMPORTANCE OF HAVING MEDICAL CARE ONBOARD NAVAL VESSELS WAS REINFORCED ON _______.

Answer 2

MARCH 2, 1799

ASSIGN. 1-2

Question 3

THE ARE CALLED THE SICK BAY TODAY WAS ORIGINALLY REFERRED TO AS WHAT?

Answer 3

COCKPIT

ASSIGN. 1-3

Question 4

THE FIRST MEMBER OF THE HOSPITAL CORPS TO BE AWARDED THE MEDAL OF HONOR WAS?

Answer 4

HOSPITAL APPRENTICE ROBER STANLEY

ASSIGN. 1-4

Question 5

THE FOUNDATION FOR THE CURRENT SYSTEM OF RANK STRUCTURE CAME IN WHAT YEAR?

Answer 5

1916

ASSIGN. 1.5

Question 6

THE FIRST HOSPITAL CORPS SCHOOL FOR WOMEN ACCEPTED FOR VOLUNTEER EMERGENCY SERVICE WAS COMMISSIONED WHERE?

Answer 6

NATIONAL NAVAL MEDICAL CENTER BETHESDA, MD

ASSIGN. 1-6

Question 7

THE HONORABLE JAMES FORRESTAL WAS SERVING IN WHAT POSITION WHEN HE PUBLICALLY THANKED THE HOSPITAL CORPS FOR ITS SERVICE AND CONTRIBUTION DURING WWII?

Answer 7

SECRETARY OF THE NAVY

ASSIGN. 1-7

Question 8

WHAT WAS THE ORIGINAL RATING INSIGNIA OF THE HOSPITAL CORPS?

Answer 8

RED CROSS

ASSIGN 1-8

Question 9

SHOCK TRAUMA PLATOONS (STP) WERE THE FIRST DEPLOYED DURING THE AFGHANISTAN PHASE OF THE WAR ON TERROR. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 9

FALSE

ASSIGN. 1-9

Question 10

SOFT POWER WAS FIRST ARTICULATED AS A POSSIBLE MILITARY POLICY IN 1911 BY PRESIDENT THEODORE ROOSEVELT. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 10

TRUE

ASSIGN. 1-10

Question 11

THE DENTAL TECHNICIAN RATING WAS ESTABLISHED _______.

Answer 11

12-DEC-1947

ASSIGN. 1-11

Question 12

MOST OF THE NAVY’S MEDICAL ENLISTED TRAINING WILL BE RELOCATED TO _____ ALONG WITH THE ARMY AND AIR FORCE AS OF 2011.

Answer 12

SAN ANTONIO, TX

ASSIGN. 1-12

Question 13

WHAT PERCENTAGE OF ALL DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY MEDALS OF HONOR HAS BEEN EARNED BY HOSPITAL CORPSMEN?

Answer 13

50%

ASSIGN. 1-13

Question 14

THE FOLLOWING SHOULD BE REPORTED TO THE OOD FOR INCLUSION INTO THE DUTY LOG.

Answer 14

• BACTERIA IN POTABLE WATER
• SERVICE MEMBER WITH A BROKEN LEG

(ASSIGN. 2-1)

Question 15

SAMS IN AN ADMINISTRATIVE MANAGEMENT TOOL THAT TRACKS:

Answer 15

• SICK CALL LOG
• POTABLE WATER TESTING RESULTS
• MEDICAL TRAINING

(ASSIGN. 2-2)

Question 16

WHAT SPECIFIC 3-M SYSTEM REGULATES SCHEDULED EQUIPMENT MAINTENANCE?

Answer 16

PLANNED MAINTENANCE SYSTEM

ASSIGN. 2-3

Question 17

WHICH TYPE OF DIRECTIVE REGULATES POLICY?

Answer 17

PERMANENT

ASSIGN. 2-4

Question 18

CHANGE TRANSMITTALS SHOULD BE FILED WITH _____ ON TOP?

Answer 18

MOST CURRENT CHANGE

ASSIGN. 2-5

Question 19

THE DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY INFORMATION SECURITY PROGRAMS GIVES DIRECTION ON HOW TO PREPARE NAVAL CORRESPONDENCE. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 19

FALSE

ASSIGN. 2-6

Question 20

THE 5000 SERIES OF CORRESPONDENCE RELATES TO _______.

Answer 20

GENERAL ADMINISTRATION AND MANAGEMENT

ASSIGN. 2-7

Question 21

WHAT IS THE PROCESS CALLED THAT IS USED TO DETERMINE THE CORRECT SUBJECT GROUP UNDER WHICH DOCUMETNS SHOULD FILED?

Answer 21

CLASSIFYING

ASSIGN. 2-8

Question 22

HM’S SHOULD USE THEIR BEST JUDGEMENT TO DISPOSE OF QUESTIONABLE DIRECTIVES. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 22

FALSE

ASSIGN. 2-9

Question 24

MEDICAL AND DENTAL PERSONNEL MUST BE AWARE OF PLANNED OPERATIONS SO THEY CAN ________.

Answer 24

• PLAN FOR SUPPLIES
• PLAN FOR POSSIBLE INJURIES
• PLAN FOR EXTENDED WORK HOURS

(ASSIGN. 2-10)

Question 25

WHICH ELEMENT OF MEDICAL READINESS IS USEED TO CORRECT INDIVIDUAL MEDICAL READINESS DEFICIENCIES?

Answer 25

PHA:

• PERIODIC
• HEALTH
• ASSESSMENT

(ASSIGN. 2-11)

Question 26

PERSONNEL IN THESE DENTAL CLASSIFICATIONS GO TO THE HEAD OF THE LINE FOR TREATMENT PRIOR TO DEPLOYMENT.

Answer 26

CLASS 3 AND 4

ASSIGN. 2-12

Question 27

A PATIENT IN CLASS 2 DENTAL STATUS MEANS?

Answer 27

SERVICE MEMBER IS DEPLOYABLE

ASSIGN. 2-13

Question 28

THE PRIMARY MISSION OF THE FMF MEDICAL BATTALION IS TO PROVIDE:

Answer 28

SPECIALIZED SURGERY

ASSIGN. 2-14

Question 29

FMF DENTAL UNITS MAINTAIN DENTAL READINESS DURING ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT:

Answer 29

EMERGENCY ENVIRONMENTS

ASSIGN. 2-15

Question 30

FLEET HOSPITAL MISSION AND PERSONNEL REQUIREMENTS ARE SET BY ________.

Answer 30

COMBATANT COMMANDER (COCOM)

ASSIGN. 2-16

Question 31

FLEET HOSPITALS ARE USED IN OPERATIONS THAT ARE LESS THAN 60 DAYS IN DURATION. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 31

FALSE

ASSIGN. 2-17

Question 32

WHO DIRECTS THE ACTION OF THE NAVAL MOBILE CONSTRUCTION BATTALION WHEN RESPONDING TO A NATURAL DISASTER, I.E. HURRICANE KATRINA?

Answer 32

COGNIZANT AUTHORITY

ASSIGN. 2-18

Question 33

A WARFARE QUALIFICATION SIGNIFIES _______.

Answer 33

THE HM’S UNDERSTAND THE UNITS SPECIFIC MISSION.

ASSIGN. 2-19

Question 34

WHICH OF HTE FOLLOWING IS NOT A HM ADMINISTRATIVE RESPONSIBILITY DURING THE OPERATIONS OF A MEDICAL CLINIC?

Answer 34

OPENING THE CLINIC AND MAKING COFFEE

ASSIGN. 3-1

Question 35

WHICH SYSTEMS WERE IMPLEMENTED TO ASSIST IN THE PROJECTION AND ALLOCATION OF COST FOR HEALTHCARE PROGRAMS?

Answer 35

DEERS

ASSIGN. 3-2

Question 36

INSTANCES WHERE THE BENEFICIARY HAS A VALID ID CARD AND DEERS SHOWS THE INDIVIDUAL INELIGIBLE OR NO IN THE DATABASE ELIGIBILITY VERIFICATION BY ID CARD OVERRIDES DEERS. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 36

FALSE

ASSIGN. 3-3

Question 37

IN CASES WHERE A PATIENT PRESENTS WITHOUT A VALID ID CARD AND DOES NOT APPEAR IN DEERS, NON-EMERGENT CARE WILL STILL BE RENDERED. TRUE OR FALSE?F

Answer 37

FALSE

ASSIGN. 3-4

Question 38

HOW MANY DAYS AFTER RECEIVING TREATMENT DOES A PTIENT HAVE TO PRESENT A VALID ID CARD BEFORE BEING BILLED AS A CIVILIAN HUMANITARIAN NON-INDIGENT?

Answer 38

30 DAYS

ASSIGN. 3-5

Question 39

WHO MAY DELAY BILLING ON A PATIENT NO PRESENTING WITH A VALID ID?

Answer 39

COMMANDING OFFICER

ASSIGN. 3-6

Question 40

WHAT IS THE LENGTH OF TIME A NEWBORN CAN BE TREATED WITHOUT PRESENTING A VALID ID CARD?

Answer 40

60 DAYS

ASSIGN. 3-7

Question 41

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FOREIGN MILITARY PERSONNEL ARE NOT ELIGIBLE FOR CARE AT NAVAL MTF’S?

Answer 41

FOREIGN MILITARY ON VACATION

ASSIGN. 3-8

Question 42

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A TYPE OF DENTAL CARE?

Answer 42

SPECIAL

ASSIGN. 3-9

Question 43

TREATMENT THAT IS NECESSARY TO RELIEVE PAIN, CONTROL BLEEDING, AND MANAGE SEPTIC CONDITIONS FALLS UDNER SPECIAL TYPES OF DENTAL CARE. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 43

FALSE

ASSIGN. 3-10

Question 44

OF THE FOLLOWING, WHO WILL BE THE FIRST TO RECEIVE DENTAL CARE?

Answer 44

FAMILY OF ACTIVE DUTY EMERGENCY

ASSIGN. 3-11

Question 45

WHAT PROGRAM IS USED OT EVALUATE THE DEGREE OF EXCELLENCE IN CARE DELIVERED AND ITS RESULTS FOR FUTURE IMPROVEMENT?

Answer 45

QUALITY ASSURANCE

ASSIGN. 3-12

Question 46

MEDICAL CARE RENDERED BY HEALTHCARE PROVIDERS TO NAVY BENEFICIARIES IS SOMETIMES CONSIDERED SUBPAR DUE TO WHAT FACT?

Answer 46

LACK OF INTERPERSONAL RELATIONSHIP SKILLS

ASSIGN. 3-13

Question 47

THE PATIENT RELATION PROGRAM IS THE ONLY PROGRRAM THAT STRIVES TO ENHANCE CHANNELS OF COMMUNICATION BETWEEN THE HOSPITAL, STAFF, AND PAITENT POPULATIONS. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 47

FALSE

ASSIGN. 3-14

Question 48

WHICH PROGRAM ALLOWS PATIENTS TO VOICE THEIR SATISFACTION OR UNSATISFACTORY COMPLAINTS INCLUDING THOSE CONCERNING TREATMENT?

Answer 48

PATIENT CONTACT POINT PROGRAM

ASSIGN. 3-15

Question 49

WHERE WOULD THE HM LOOK TO FIND MORE INFORMATION IN THE AREA OF MEDICAL TREATMENT RECORDS?

Answer 49

MANMED CHAPTER 16

ASSIGN. 3-16

Question 50

THE FAMILY ADVOCACY PROGRAM IDENTIFIES, TREATS, AND MONITORS NAVY PERSONNEL ENGAGING IN WHICH TYPES OF BEHAVIOR?

Answer 50

• SPOUSAL ABUSE
• CHILD ABUSE
• SEXUAL ABUSE

(ASSIGN. 3-17)

Question 51

PHYSICAL READINESS TESTING IS REQUIRED TO BE CONDUCTED Y SUBORDINATE COMMANDS, WHO’S MEDICAL DEPARTMENTS ARE RESPONSIBLE FORE ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT?

Answer 51

PROCESS WAIVERS FOR COMPLETING THE PRT

ASSIGN. 3-18

Question 52

FAILURE TO CONSENT PRIOR TO INITIATION OF MEDICAL TREATMENT MAY RSULT IN MEDICAL MALPRACTICE AND/OR ASSAULT AND BATTERY. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 52

TRUE

ASSIGN. 3-19

Question 53

WHO IS OBLIGATED TO PROVIDE THE PATIENT WITH ALL NECESSARY INFORMATION TO MAKE A KNOWLEDGEABLE DECISION ON A PROPOSED MEDICAL PROCEDURE?

Answer 53

• MEDICAL PROVIDER
• THE DUTY RESTS WITH THE PROVIDER
• THIS RESPONSIBLITY CANNOT BE DELEGATED

(ASSIGN. 3-20)

Question 54

CONSENT PRIOR TO INITIATION OF MEDICAL TREATMENT IS REQUIRED IN ALL ROUTINE, EMERGENCY, AND ELECTIVE PROCEDURES. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 54

TRUE

ASSIGN. 3-21

Question 55

WHAT LEGAL DOCTRINE SERVES AS THE FINAL AUTHORITY OVER ADN DETERMINES THE CONTROL OF SUBSTITUTE CONSENT?

Answer 55

IT IS THE LAW OF THE STATE IN WHICH THE HOSPITAL IS LOCATED THAT CONTROLS THE QUESTION “SUBSTITUTE CONSENT.”

(ASSIGN. 3-22)

Question 56

WHO IS RECOMMENDED TO ACT AS A WITNESS WHEN THE PATIENT IS CONSENTING TO A MEDICAL PROCEDURE?

Answer 56

STAFF MEMBER NOT INVOLVED IN THE PROCEDURE

ASSIGN. 3-23

Question 57

UNDER THE FREEDOM OF INFORMATION ACT THE NAVY MUST MAKE ALL DOCUMENTS AVAILABLE EXCEPT THOSE THAT ARE EXEMPT. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 57

TRUE

ASSIGN. 3-24

Question 58

WHICH POLICY WAS ESTABLISHED TO PROVIDE A BALANCE BETWEEN THE PUBLIC AND THE PRIVACY OF AN INDIVIDUAL?

Answer 58

PRIVACY ACT OF 1974

ASSIGN. 3-25

Question 59

THE HIPAA PRIVACY RULE ALLOWS FOR DISCLOSURE OF WHAT INFORMATION?

Answer 59

PROTECTED HEALTH INFORMATION

ASSIGN. 3-26

Question 60

PERSONAL HEALTH INFORMATION IS REQUIRED TO BE DISCLOSED FOR ALL OF THE FOLLOWING REASONS EXCEPT?

Answer 60

SECURITY

ASSIGN. 3-27

Question 61

UNDER WHAT ACT IS IT UNLAWFUL FOR THEUNITED STATES MILITARY TO BE USED AS AN ENFORCER OR TO ASSIST IN THE ENFORCEMENT OF FEDERAL OR STATE LAW?

Answer 61

POSSE COMITATUS ACT

ASSIGN. 3-28

Question 62

WHO IS AUTHORIZED TO DELIVER AN ACTIVE DUTY MEMBER TO FEDERAL LAW ENFORCEMENT AUTHORITIES AND BASED UPON WHAT ACTION?

Answer 62

COMMANDING OFFICER PRESENTATION OF A FEDERAL WARRANT

ASSIGN. 3-29

Question 63

PRISONERS AS PATIENTS CATEGORIZED UNDER ALL OF THE FOLLOWING CATEGORIES EXCEPT?

Answer 63

FAMILY MEMBER PRISONERS

ASSIGN. 3-30

Question 64

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TYPES OF PRISONERS ARE ONLY ALLOWED EMERGENCY MEDICAL TREATMENT?

Answer 64

NON-MILITARY FEDERAL PRISONERS

ASSIGN. 3-31

Question 65

ALL MILITARY PRISONERS WITH ACTIVE SENTENCES ARE ALLOWED TO RECEIVE MEDICAL CARE. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 65

TRUE

ASSIGN. 3-32

Question 66

WHERE CAN THE HM LOCATE GUIDANCE ON CARE, EVALUATION, AND MEDICO LEGAL DOCUMENTATION FOR A VICTIM OF ALLEGED SEXUAL ASSAULT?

Answer 66

NAVMEDCOMINST 6310.3

ASSIGN. 3-33

Question 67

WHAT IS THE REASON MANY LEGAL BATTLES ARE LOST?

Answer 67

FAILURE TO ADHERE TO PROPER ADMINISTRATIVE PROCEDURES

ASSIGN. 3-34

Question 68

CUSTODY OF HEALTH RECORDS IS GENERALLY VESTED IN THE MEDICAL DEPARTMENT. ON SHIPS WITHOUT A MEDICAL DEPARTMENT REPRESENTATIVE AN INDIVIDUAL RETAINS CUSTODY OF THE RECORD UNTIL WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TIMES IF ANY?

Answer 68

NEVER

ASSIGN. 4-1

Question 69

WHEN A MEMBER IS HOSPITALIZED IN A FOREIGN NATION AND THE SHIP DEPARTS PORT, THE HEALTH RECORD IS?

Answer 69

FORWARDED TO THE NEAREST CONSULATE OR EMBASSY

ASSIGN. 4-2

Question 70

THE HEALTH RECORD JACKET OF PO3 WALTER T DOOR, 333-44-5555, WOULD BE WHAT COLOR?

Answer 70

BLUE

ASSIGN. 4-3

Question 71

THE HEALTH JACKETS OF FLAG OR GENERAL OFFICERS SHOULD BE ANNOTATED TO REFLECT THEIR RANK. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 71

TRUE

ASSIGN. 4-4

Question 72

WHEN HREC IS OPENED ON A SERVICE MEMBER, THE MEMBER SHOULD BE DIRECTED TO READ AND SIGN THE PRIVACY ACT STATEMENT INSIDE THE BACK COVER OF THE HREC. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 72

TRUE

ASSIGN. 4-5

Question 73

ENTRIES TO THE CHRONOLOGICAL RECORD OF MEDICAL CARE, SF600, WHEN ARE NOT TYPEWRITTEN, SHOULD BE MADE IN WHICH COLOR(S) OF INK?

Answer 73

BLACK OR BLUE-BLACK

ASSIGN. 4-6

Question 74

WHAT IS THE PREFERRED FORM ON WHICH TO RECORD ADMISSION TO THE HOSPITAL?

Answer 74

SF 509, MEDICAL RECORD-PROGRESS REPORT

ASSIGN. 4-7

Question 75

A HEALTH RECORD IS OPENED IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CASES?

Answer 75

ALL OF THE ABOVE:

(1) WHEN A MEMBER RETURNS TO ACTIVE DUTY FROM THE RETURNED
(2) WHEN THE ORIGINAL RECORD HAS BEEN LOST
(3) WHEN FIRST BECOMING A MEMBER OF THE NAVAL SERVICE

(ASSIGN. 4-8)

Question 76

A WELL KNOWN RESEARCH GROUP REQUEST INFORMATION TO USE AS PART OF THE BASIS OF A STUDY IT IS PERFORMING. WHAT ACTION, IF ANY, SHOULD BE TAKEN PRIOR TO RELEASE?

Answer 76

COMMANDING OFFICER OF THE MTF SHOULD FORWARD THE REQUEST TO BUMED FOR GUIDANCE

(ASSIGN. 4-9)

Question 77

IN WHICH OF HTE FOLLOWING CIRCUMSTANCES SHOULD THE HEALTH RECORD BE VERIFIED?

Answer 77

ALL OF THE ABOVE:

(1) REPORTING TO A NEW COMMAND
(2) WHEN TRANSFERRING
(3) ANNUALLY

(ASSIGN. 4-10)

Question 78

UNDER WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CIRCUMSTANCES WOULD A MEMBER’S HEALTH RECORD NOT BE CLOSED?

Answer 78

TRANSFERS TO A NEW DUTY STATION

ASSIGN. 4-11

Question 79

ON WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DOCUMENTS WOULD A NOTATION BE MADE CONCERNING A MEMBERS STATUS AS A DESERTER?

Answer 79

SF600

ASSIGN. 4-12

Question 80

A MEMBER SEPARATED FOR DISABILITY SHOULD RECEIVE A COPY OF THE HREC TO PRESENT TO THE VA SO THAT THE MEMBER’S CLAIM CAN BE PROCESSED EXPEDITIOULY. TRUE OR FALSE. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 80

FALSE

ASSIGN. 4-13

Question 81

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FMP CODES WILL BE PLACED IN THE TWO DIAMONDS PRECEDING THE SSN FOR AN ACTIVE DUTY MEMBER?

Answer 81

20

ASSIGN. 4-14

Question 82

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PHRASES IS WRITTEN IN TH ELOWER PORTION OF THE PATIENTS IDENTIFICATION BOX FOR RETIRED O-7 AND ABOVE PERSONNEL?

Answer 82

FLAG/GENERAL OFFICER

ASSIGN. 4-15

Question 83

WHICH OF THE FOLLOW SYMBOLS AND WHICH COLOR OF FELT-TIP PEN IS USED IN THE ALERT BOX IF THE PATIENT HAS AN ALLERGY OR SENSITIVITY?

Answer 83

“X” BLACK

ASSIGN. 4-16

Question 84

WHICH, IF ANY, OF THE FOLLOWING COLOR FELT-TIP PENS IS USED TO MARK THE ANNUAL VERIFICATION SECTION ON THE RIGHT-HAND SIDE OF THE DENTAL RECORD JACKET?

Answer 84

NONE OF THE ABOVE:

• NOT RED
• NOT BLUE
• NOT BLACK

(ASSIGN. 4-17)

Question 85

THE FORM PRINTED ON THE INSIDE OF THE FRONT JACKEET COVER SHOULD BE COMPLETED IN WHAT TYPE OF WRITING UTENSILS?

Answer 85

PENCIL

ASSIGN. 4-18

Question 86

WHERE IS THE DD2005, PRIVACY ACT STATEMENT LOCATED IN THE NAVMED 6150/21-30?

Answer 86

FRONT OF CENTER PAGE (PART II)

ASSIGN. 4-19

Question 87

WHERE IS THE DISCLOSURE ACCOUNTING RECORD LOCATED IN THE NAVMED 6150/21-30?

Answer 87

BACK OF CENTER PAGE (PART III)

ASSIGN. 4-20

Question 88

WHAT FORM IS THE DENTAL HEALTH QUESTIONNAIRE?

Answer 88

NAVMED 6600/3

ASSIGN. 4-21

Question 89

WHAT FORM IS ROUTINELY USED FOR INPATIENT ADMISSION AND FILED IN THE IREC?

Answer 89

SF509

ASSIGN. 4-22

Question 90

WHAT IS THE PRIMARY FORM FOR ALL OUTPATIENT CARE?

Answer 90

SF600

ASSIGN. 4-23

Question 91

WHAT IS THE ADULT PREVENTATIVE AND CHRONIC CARE FLOW SHEET?

Answer 91

DD 2766

ASSIGN. 4-24

Question 92

WHAT IS THE EYEWEAR PRESCRIPTION?

Answer 92

DD 771

ASSIGN. 4-25

Question 93

WHAT FORM IS THE CONSULTATION SHEET?

Answer 93

SF 513

ASSIGN. 4-26

Question 94

WHAT FORM IS A MEMBER’S PERSONAL RECORD OF IMMUNIZATION?

Answer 94

PHS-731

ASSIGN. 4-27

Question 95

WHAT IS THE DENTAL EXAM FORM?

Answer 95

EZ603

ASSIGN. 4-28

Question 96

WHAT IS THE DENTAL TREATMENT FORM?

Answer 96

DENTAL TREATMENT FORM

ASSIGN. 4-29

Question 97

DENTAL EXAM FORMS SHOULD BE FILED IN WHICH SECTION OF THE NAVMED 6150/21-30?

Answer 97

BACK OF THE CENTER PAGE (PART III)

ASSIGN. 4-30

Question 98

WHERE IS THE FORENSIC EXAMINATION FORM LOCATED IN THE NAVMED 6150/21-30?

Answer 98

INSIDE THE BACK COVER (PART IV)

ASSIGN. 4-31

Question 99

THE MOST CURRENT DENTAL TREATMENT FORM EZ603A IS FILED IN WHICH SECTION OF THE NAVMED 6150/21?

Answer 99

INSIDE BACK COVER (PART IV)

ASSIGN. 4-32

Question 100

WHEN USING THE TERMINAL FILING SYSTEM, HOW MANY EQUAL SECTIONS ARE THE CENTRAL FILES DIVIDED INTO?

Answer 100

100

ASSIGN. 4-33

Question 101

ALL FORMS DOCUMENTING PATIENT CARE PLACED IN THE NAVMED 6150-21/30 WILL CONTAIN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PATIENT INFORMATION?

Answer 101

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING (ABOVE):

(1) FMP AND SPONSOR’S SSN
(2) NAME - LAST, FIRST, MIDDLE INITIAL
(3) SPONSOR’S BRANCH OF SERVICE AND STATUS

(ASSIGN. 4-34)

Question 102

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING NAVMED FORMS IS THE HEALTH RECORD RECEIPT?

Answer 102

NAVMED 6150/7

ASSIGN. 4-35

Question 103

SEQUENTIAL BITEWING RADIOGRAPHS SHOULD BE FILED IN WHICH SECTION OF THE NAVMED 6150/21-30?

Answer 103

INSIDE FRONT COVER

ASSIGN. 4-36

Question 104

WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM TIME ALLOWED FOR THE RETENTION OF LOOSE TREATMENT FORMS?

Answer 104

1 YEAR

ASSIGN. 4-37

Question 105

WHERE WOULD THE HM LOCATE THE POLICIES AND GUIDANCE FOR OPERATING AND MANAGING PROCEDURES OF SUPPLY DEPARTMENTS AND ACTIVITIES?

Answer 105

NAVSUP P-485

ASSIGN. 5-1

Question 106

THE AGREEMENT TO CONTRACT WITH A VENDOR WITHOUT THE APPROPRIATE LEVEL OF AUTHORITY IS ALSO KNOWN AS?

Answer 106

UNAUTHORIZED COMMITMENT

ASSIGN. 5-2

Question 107

WHEN A REQUISITION EXCEEDS THE CURRENT COMPETITIVE THRESHOLD, THE HM MUST RECEIVE QUOTES FROM HOW MANY ADDITIONAL VENDORS?

Answer 107

3

ASSIGN. 5-3

Question 108

ANY ITEM THAT HAS AN APPLICATION AND APPEARS ON APL, SNSL, ISL, OR NAVAL SHIP SYSTEMS COMMAND IS KNOWN AS WHAT?

Answer 108

REPAIR PART

ASSIGN. 5-4

Question 109

HOW MANY DIGITS ARE INCLUDED IN THE FEDERAL SUPPLY CLASSIFICATION?

Answer 109

2

ASSIGN. 5-5

Question 110

WHAT IS THE FEDERAL SUPPLY CLASSIFICATION? (BELOW)

6515-00-123-4567
A B C D

Answer 110

6515
A

(ASSIGN. 5-6)

Question 111

WHAT IS THE NATIONAL CODIFICATION BUREAU CODE? (BELOW)

6515-00-123-4567
A B C D

Answer 111

00
B

(ASSIGN. 5-7)

Question 112

THE SUM TOTAL OF THE OPERATING LEVEL AND SAFETY LEVEL IS ALSO KNOWN AS WHAT?

Answer 112

STOCKAGE OBJECTIVE

ASSIGN. 5-8

Question 113

A CONTROLLED SUBSTANCE INVENTORY IS CONDUCTED HOW OFTEN?

Answer 113

MONTHLY

ASSIGN. 5-9

Question 114

THE END USER MUST COMPLETE ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT UPON RECEIPT OF ITEMS?

Answer 114

PLACE A CHECK BY EACH ITEM RECEIVED

ASSIGN. 5-10

Question 115

WHAT IS THE MOST COMMON RECEIPT DOCUMENT THAT IS ENCOUNTERED?

Answer 115

DD 1348

ASSIGN. 5-11

Question 116

WHEN THE HM ENCOUNTERS A SHIPPING OR PACKAGING DISCREPANCY ON BEHALF OF THE SHIPPER, THE HM SHOULD SUBMIT A ______?

Answer 116

REPORT OF DISCREPANCY

ASSIGN. 5-12

Question 117

A ROD IS SUBMITTED ON WHAT FORM?

Answer 117

SF364

ASSIGN. 5-13

Question 118

THE FIRST IN, FIRST OUT METHOD IS A PROCESS OF ISSUING ITEMS TO THE FIRST PERSON WHO ARRIVES. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 118

FALSE

ASSIGN. 5-14

Question 119

THE FIRST IN, FIRST OUT. METHOD IS MOST IMPORTANT WHEN DEALING WITH ITEMS THAT HAVE A SHELF LIFE OR EXPIRATION CODE?

Answer 119

TRUE

ASSIGN. 5-15

Question 120

WHEN THE BODY IS IN THE ANATOMICAL POSITION THE THUMBS POINT______?

Answer 120

LATERALLY

ASSIGN. 6-1

Question 121

A PERSON LYING ON HIS/HER BACK IS IN WHAT POSITION?

Answer 121

SUPINE

ASSIGN. 6-2

Question 122

THE PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL BREAKDOWN OF THE FOOD WE EAT IS CALLED _____?

Answer 122

DIGESTION

ASSIGN. 6-3

Question 123

THE TRANSFER OF FLUIDS ACROSS THE PLASMA MEMBRANE OF A CELL FROM AN AREA OF HIGHER CONCENTRATION TO AN AREA OF LOWER CONCENTRATION IS A PROCESS KNOWN AS _______?

Answer 123

DIFFUSION

ASSIGN. 6-4

Question 124

HOMEOSTASIS IS DEFINED AS ______?

Answer 124

SELF-REGULATING CONTROL OF THE BODY’S INTERNAL ENVIRONMENT

ASSIGN. 6-5

Question 125

THAT PORTION OF A CELL CONTAINING ALL THE GENETIC MATERIAL IMPORTANT IN THE CELL’S REPRODUCTION IS CALLED THE ______?

Answer 125

NUCLEUS

ASSIGN. 6-6

Question 126

THE SECRETION OF DIGESTIVE FLUIDS AND THE ABSORPTION OF DIGESTED FOODS AND LIQUIDS IS THE CHIEF FUNCTION OF WHICH TISSUE?

Answer 126

COLUMNAR

ASSIGN. 6-7

Question 127

THE BODY’S PRIMARY THERMO-REGULATORY ACTION IS A FUNCTION OF DILATING AND CONTRACTING BLOOD VESSELS AND THE _____?

Answer 127

SWEAT GLANDS

ASSIGN. 6-8

Question 128

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE THE TWO MOST PROMINENT MINERAL ELEMENTS OF BONE?

Answer 128

PHOSPHOROUS AND CALCIUM

ASSIGN. 6-9

Question 129

THE BONES OF THE WRIST ARE CLASSIFIED AS WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING BONES?

Answer 129

SHORT

ASSIGN. 6-10

Question 130

BONES OF THE CRANIUM INCLUDE WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?

Answer 130

OCCIPITAL

ASSIGN. 6-11

Question 131

THE AXIAL SKELETON IS COMPOSED OF WHICH TWO REGIONS OF THE SKELETAL SYSTEM?

Answer 131

SKULL AND VERTEBRAL COLUMN

ASSIGN. 6-12

Question 132

THE UPPER THREE RIBS OKN EACH SIDE ARE KNOWN AS WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TYPES?

Answer 132

TRUE RIBS

ASSIGN. 6-13

Question 133

THE CONCAVITY INTO WHICH THE HEAD OF THE HUMERUS ARTICULATES IS CALLED THE ____?

Answer 133

GLENOID FOSSA

ASSIGN. 6-14

Question 134

THE INNOMINATE BONES IS COMPOSED OF THREE PARTS THAT ARE UNITED IN ADULTS TO FORM A CUPLIKE STRUCTURE CALLED THE _______?

Answer 134

ACETABELUM

ASSIGN. 6-15

Question 135

THE PROMINENCE EASILY FELT ON TH EINNER AND OUTER ASPECTS FO THE ANKLE ARE CALLED _____?

Answer 135

MEDIAL AND LATERAL MALLEOLUS

ASSIGN. 6-16

Question 136

BONES THAT DEVELOP WITHIN A TENDON ARE KNOWN AS WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?

Answer 136

SEISMOID

ASSIGN. 6-17

Question 137

MOVING AN EXTREMITY AWAY FROM THE BODY IS CALLED?

Answer 137

ABDUCTION

ASSIGN. 6-18

Question 138

THE ACT OF STRAIGHTENING A LIMB IS KNOWN AS?

Answer 138

EXTENSION

ASSIGN. 6-19

Question 139

THE PRIMARY FUNCTION OF THE MUSCLES INCLUDES ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT ______?

Answer 139

PRODUCING RED BLOOD CELLS

ASSIGN. 6-20

Question 140

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROPERTIES DESCRIBES THE ABILITY OF MUSCLES TO RESPOND TO A STIMULUS?

Answer 140

IRRITABILITY

ASSIGN. 6-21

Question 141

THE ABILITY OF MUSCLES TO REGAIN THEIR ORIGINAL FORM WHEN STRETCHED IS KNOWN AS ______?

Answer 141

ELASTICITY

ASSIGN. 6-22

Question 142

ACTIN AND MYOSIN ARE TWO PROTEIN SUBSTANCES INVOLVED IN ____?

Answer 142

MUSCLE CONTRACTION

ASSIGN. 6-23

Question 143

IF A GENERALLY SEDENTARY PERSON IN LESS THAN GOOD PHYSICAL HEALTH ENTERS A MARATHON WITH THE INTENT TO COMPLETE THE RACE, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING OUTCOMES CAN HE/SHE BE EXPECTED TO ENCOUNTER?

Answer 143

HE/SHE RUNS THE RISK OF MUSCLE DAMAGE

ASSIGN. 6-24

Question 144

INTRAMUSCULAR INJECTIONS ARE FREQUENTLY GIVEN IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MUSCLES?

Answer 144

DELTOID

ASSIGN. 6-25

Question 145

INTRAMUSCULAR INJECTIONS ARE USUALLY GIVEN IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MUSCLES?

Answer 145

GLUTEUS MAXIMUS

ASSIGN. 6-26

Question 146

THE TOTAL BLOOD VOLUME IN THE AVERAGE ADULT IS IN WHAT RANGE?

Answer 146

5 TO 6 LITERS

ASSIGN. 6-27

Question 147

A DECREASED RED BLOOD CELL (RBC) COUNT COULD BE THE RESULT OF A MEDICAL CONDITION AFFECTING THE _____?

Answer 147

RED MARROW

ASSIGN. 6-28

Question 148

A WHITE BLOOD CELL (WBC) COUNT OF 18,000 MAY INDICATE WHAT CONDITION?

Answer 148

INFECTION

ASSIGN. 6-29

Question 149

IN AN ACCIDENT VICTIM SUFFERING FROM A FIBRINOGEN DEFICIENCY, THE RESCUER MAY HAVE DIFFICULTY PERFORMING WHICH OF HTE ACTIONS BELOW?

Answer 149

CONTROLLING HEMORRHAGE

ASSIGN. 6-30

Question 150

IN ADDITION TO PREVENTING EXCESSIVE BLOOD LOSS, THE FORMATION OF A BLOOD CLOT SERVES WHICH, IF ANY, OF THE FOLLOWING PURPOSES?

Answer 150

TO FORM THE FOUNDATION FOR NEW TISSUE GROWTH

ASSIGN. 6-31

Question 151

THE VALVES OF THE HEART INCLUDE ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT _____?

Answer 151

VAGUS

ASSIGN. 6-32

Question 152

OXYGENATED BLOOD IS CARRIED BY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING VEIN(S)?

Answer 152

PULMONARY

ASSIGN. 6-33

Question 153

THE CONTRACTION PHASE OF THE HEART IS ______?

Answer 153

SYSTOLE

ASSIGN. 6-34

Question 154

THE PULSE PRESSURE IS THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MEASUREMENT?

Answer 154

SYSTOLE AND DIASTOLE

ASSIGN. 6-35

Question 155

THE VENOUS SYSTEM THAT CARRIES THE DIGESTED MATERIALS FORM THE INTESTINAL TRACT IS CALLED THE ______?

Answer 155

PORTAL

ASSIGN. 6-36

Question 156

LYMPH NODES PARTICIPATE IN ALL OF THE FOLLOWING FUNCTIONS EXCEPT ______?

Answer 156

PRODUCTION OF HORMONES

ASSIGN. 6-37

Question 157

WINDPIPE IS ANOTHER TERM FOR _______?

Answer 157

TRACHEA

ASSIGN. 6-38

Question 158

THE PRIMARY MUSCLE OF RESPIRATION IS KNOWN AS THE _____?

Answer 158

DIAPHRAGM

ASSIGN. 6-39

Question 159

OF THE FOLLOWING NERVES, WHICH, IF ANY, CONTROLS THE LARYNX DURING THE PROCESS OF BREATHING?

Answer 159

VAGUS

ASSIGN. 6-40

Question 160

A NERVE CELL OR NEURON IS COMPOSED OF ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT A/AN _______?

Answer 160

SYNAPSE

ASSIGN. 6-41

Question 161

THE IMPULSE RECEPTORS OF A NERVE ARE CALLED ______?

Answer 161

DENDRITES

ASSIGN. 6-42

Question 162

THE SPACE THROUGH WHICH A NERVE IMPULSE PASSES FROM ONE NEURON TO ANOTHER IS CALLED A/AN ______?

Answer 162

SYNAPSE

ASSIGN. 6-43

Question 163

BALANCE, COORDINATION OR MOVEMENT, AND HARMONY OF MOTION ARE FUNCTIONS OF WHAT PART OF THE BRAIN?

Answer 163

CREBELLUM

ASSIGN. 6-44

Question 164

CIRCULATION AND RESPIRATION ARE CONTROLLED PRIMARILY FROM WHAT AREA OF THE BRAIN?

Answer 164

MEDULLA

ASSIGN. 6-45

Question 165

THE MENINGES, WHICH COVER THE OUTER PORTION OF THE BRAIN AND SPINAL CORD ARE COMPOSED OF ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT ________?

Answer 165

FORAMEN MAGNUM

ASSIGN. 6-46

Question 166

IN WHAT PART OF THE BODY IS CEREBRAL SPINAL FLUID PRODUCED?

Answer 166

CENTRAL VENTRICLES

ASSIGN. 6-47

Question 167

THE 12 PAIRS OF CRANIAL AND 31 PAIRS OF SPINAL NERVES FORM WHAT NERVOUS SYSTEM?

Answer 167

PERIPHERAL

ASSIGN. 4-48

Question 168

THIS NERVE CONTROLS THE MUSCLES OF THE TONGUE. (CRANIAL NERVE)

Answer 168

HYPOGLOSSAL 14

ASSIGN. 6-49

Question 169

THIS NERVE ALLOWS YOU TO STICK OUT YOUR TONGUE. (CRANIAL NERVE)

Answer 169

GLOSSOPHARYNGEAL 9

ASSIGN. 6-50

Question 170

THIS NERVE RECEIVES SENSORY INPUT FROM THE FACE. (CRANIAL NERVE)

Answer 170

FACIAL 7

ASSIGN. 6-51

Question 171

THE AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM IS COMPOSED OF TWO MAIN DIVISIONS.

Answer 171

SYMPATHETIC AND PARASYMPATHETIC SYSTEMS

ASSIGN. 6-52

Question 172

CONSERVATION AND RESTORATION OF ENERGY ARE THE RESULT OF NERVE IMPULSES ARISING FROM WHICH, IF ANY, OF THE FOLLOWING NERVOUS SYSTEMS?

Answer 172

PARASYPATHETIC

ASSIGN. 6-53

Question 173

WHAT IS THE NERVOUS SYSTEM RESPONSIBLE FOR INCREASED HEART RATE?

Answer 173

SYMPATHETIC

ASSIGN. 6-54

Question 174

WHAT IS THE NERVOUS SYSTEM RESPONSIBLE FOR VISUAL ACUITY?

Answer 174

PERIPHERAL

ASSIGN. 6-55

Question 175

WHAT NERVOUS SYSTEM DECREASES HEART RATE TO WITHIN NORMAL LIMITS?

Answer 175

PARASYMPATHETIC

ASSIGN. 6-56

Question 176

WHAT NERVOUS SYSTEM IS RESPONSIBLE FOR THE REFLEX ARC?

Answer 176

PERIPHERAL

ASSIGN. 6-57

Question 177

HORMONES SECRETED BY THE ENDOCRINE SYSTEM ARE ____?

Answer 177

SECRETED INTO THE CIRCULATORY SYSTEM

ASSIGN. 6-58

Question 178

THE OVERPRODUCTION OF WHICH HORMONE LEADS TO ACGROMEGALY?

Answer 178

SOMATOTROPIN

ASSIGN. 6-59

Question 179

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DISEASES IS CHARACTERIZED BY A DEFICIENCY OF THE ANTIDIURETIC HORMONE?

Answer 179

DIABETES INSIPIDUS

ASSIGN. 6-60

Question 180

AN INSUFFICIENT SECRETION OF THYROXIN IS CHARACTERIZED BY ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT ______?

Answer 180

PROFUSE SWEATING

ASSIGN. 6-61

Question 181

CALCIUM LEVELS IN THE BLOOD ARE CONTROLLED BY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING HORMONES?

Answer 181

THYROXIN

ASSIGN. 6-62

Question 182

ELECTROLYTE BALANCE IS A FUNCTION OF THE HORMONE PRODUCED BY THE _____?

Answer 182

POSTERIOR LOBE OF THE PITUITARY GLAND

ASSIGN. 6-63

Question 183

A METABOLIC RESPONSE TO EPINEPHRINE INCLUDES WHICH, IF ANY, OF THE SYMPTOMS LISTED BELOW?

Answer 183

INCREASED BLOOD PRESSURE

ASSIGN. 6-64

Question 184

WHAT HORMONE IS PRODUCED BY THE ALPHA CELLS OF THE ISLANDS OF LANGERHANS IN THE PANCREAS?

Answer 184

GLUCAGON

ASSIGN. 6-65

Question 185

THE CORNEA IS PART OF THE PROTECTIVE OUTER LAYER OF THE EYE CALLED THE ______?

Answer 185

SCLERA

ASSIGN. 6-66

Question 186

THE INNER PART OF THE EYE DERIVES ITS DIMENSIONAL NOURISHMENT PRIMARILY FROM WHAT VASCULAR TISSUE?

Answer 186

CHOROID

ASSIGN. 6-67

Question 187

THE DILATION OF THE PUPIL, A MUSCULAR RESPONSE OF THE IRIS, NORMALLY OCCURS AS A RESULT OF WHAT?

Answer 187

DECREASED INTENSITY OF LIGHT

ASSIGN. 6-68

Question 188

OF THE ELEMENTS LISTED BELOW, WHICH MAKES SEEING IN THE DARK POSSIBLE?

Answer 188

RODS

ASSIGN. 6-69

Question 189

BY WHAT PROCESS IS THREE DIMENSIONAL VISION PRODUCED?

Answer 189

CONVERGENCE

ASSIGN. 6-70

Question 190

THE MECHANICAL TRANSMISION OF SOUND FROM THE TYMPANIC MEMBRANE TOTHE INNER EAR IS A FUNCTION OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?

Answer 190

AUDITORY OSSICLES

ASSIGN. 6-71

Question 191

WHAT STRUCTURE(S) OF THE INNER EAR PROVIDE(S) NERUAL STIMULI USED TO MAINTAIN EQUILIBRIUM?

Answer 191

SEMICIRCULAR CANALS

ASSIGN. 6-72

Question 192

THE CONVERSION OF MECHANICAL IMPULSES (SOUND WAVES) TO NEURAL IMPULSES THAT CAN BE INTERRUPTED BY THE BRAIN IS A FUNCTION OF THE ______?

Answer 192

ORGAN OF CORTI

ASSIGN. 6-73

Question 193

THE ENZYMATIC ACTION OF AMYLASE RESULTS IN THE CHEMICAL BREAKDOWN OF ______?

Answer 193

STARCHES TO COMPLEX SUGARS

ASSIGN. 6-74

Question 194

ABSORPTION OF FOOD OCCURS PRDOMINATLY IN WHIHC OF THE FOLLOWING AREAS OF THE INTESTINES?

Answer 194

SMALL INTESTINES

ASSIGN. 6-75

Question 195

OF THESE LISTED BELOW, WHICH FUNCTION AS THE ACCESSORY ORGANS OF DIGESTION FOR SMALL INTESTINES?

Answer 195

PANCREAS, LIVER, AND GALLBLADDER

ASSIGN. 6-76

Question 196

THE GALLBLADDER PERFORMS WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PURPOSES?

Answer 196

STORES BILE

ASSIGN. 6-77

Question 197

THE FUNCTIONAL UNIT FO THE KIDNEY IS CALLED THE ____?

Answer 197

NEPHRON

ASSIGN. 6-78

Question 198

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS/ARE (A) FUNCTION(S) OF THE KIDNEYS?

Answer 198

• TO MAINTAIN ACID-BASE BALANCE
• TO REMOVE EXCESS WASTE FROM THE BLOOD
• FORMATION OF URINE

(ASSIGN. 6-79)

Question 199

WHAT IS THE APPROXIMATE TOTAL CAPACITY OF THE ADULT BLADDER?

Answer 199

600 mL

ASSIGN. 6-80

Question 200

TESTOSTERONE PRODUCTION IS A FUNCTION OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING GLANDS?

Answer 200

TESTES

ASSIGN. 6-81

Question 201

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS/ARE CONSIDERED THE PRIMARY FEMALE REPRODUCTIVE ORGANS?

Answer 201

OVARIES

ASSIGN. 6-82

Question 202

FERTILIZATION OF AN OVUM NORMALLY TAKES PLACE IN THE _____?

Answer 202

FALLOPIAN TUBES

ASSIGN. 6-83

Question 203

THE LIMITATIONS IMPOSED UPON A HEALTHCARE PROVIDER ARE BASED ON LOCAL REGULATIONS AND WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ELEMENTS?

Answer 203

THE PROVIDERS TRAINING AND EXPERIENCE

ASSIGN. 6-84

Question 204

DENTAL DEVELOPMENT USUALLY BEGINS IN WHICH WEEK OF PRENATAL LIFE?

Answer 204

6TH

ASSIGN. 7-1

Question 205

HOW MANY TOTAL TOOTH BUDS ARE PRESENT IN THE PRENATAL MAXILLARY AND MANDIBULAR ARCH?

Answer 205

10

ASSIGN. 7-2

Question 206

WHAT IS THE NAME OF THE LAST PERIOD OF TOOTH GROWTH?

Answer 206

HISTODIFFERENTIATION

ASSIGN. 7-3

Question 207

HOW MANY YEARS DOES IT TAKE PERMANENT TEETH TO EMERGE AFTER CROWN COMPLETION?

Answer 207

3

ASSIGN. 7-4

Question 208

WHEN PRIMARY TEETH GET READY TO FALL OUT AN DMAKE WAY FOR THE ERUPTION OF PERMANENT TEETH, WHAT IS THE NAME OF THIS PROCESS?

Answer 208

EXFOLIATION

ASSIGN. 7-5

Question 209

THE PART OF THE CROWN THAT IS VISIBLE IN THE MOUTH IS KNOWN BY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TERMS?

Answer 209

CLINICAL CROWN

ASSIGN. 7-6

Question 210

WHAT IS THE NAME OF THE REGION WHERE THE ROOTS SEPARATE?

Answer 210

FURCATION

ASSIGN. 7-7

Question 211

THE TIP OF EACH ROOT IS KNOWN BY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TERMS?

Answer 211

APEX

ASSIGN. 7-8

Question 212

WHEN THERE IS A SLIGHT INDENTATION THAT ENCIRCLES THE TOOTH AND MARKS THE JUNCTION OF THE CROWN WITH THE ROOT, IT IS KNOWN BY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TERMS?

Answer 212

CERVICAL LINE

ASSIGN. 7-9

Question 213

ENAMEL IS FORMED BY WHAT TYPE OF EPITHELIAL CELLS?

Answer 213

AMELOBLASTS

ASSIGN. 7-10

Question 214

WHAT IS THE CHIEF FUNCTION OF THE PULP?

Answer 214

FORMATION OF DENTIN

ASSIGN. 7-11

Question 215

WHAT PORTION OF THE MAXILLA AND MANDIBLE ARE TEETH EMBEDDED?

Answer 215

ALVEOLAR PROCESS

ASSIGN. 7-12

Question 216

WHEN VIEWED BY A RADIOGRAPH, THE TRABECULAR BONE WILL HAVE WHAT TYPE OF APPEARANCE?

Answer 216

WEB-LIKE

ASSIGN. 7-13

Question 217

A TOOTH IS SUSPENDED IN ITS SOCKET BY WHAT LIGAMENT?

Answer 217

PERIODONTAL

ASSIGN. 7-14

Question 218

THE ORAL MUCOSA CONSISTS OF HOW MANY TOTAL TYPES OF MUCOSA?

Answer 218

3

ASSIGN. 7-15

Question 219

THE HARD PALATE IS COVERED WITH WHAT TYPE OF MUCOSA?

Answer 219

MASTICATORY

ASSIGN. 7-16

Question 220

WHAT IS THE TERM GIVEN TO THE PORTION OF GINGIVA THAT EXTENDS FROM THE GINGIVAL CREST TO THE CREST OF THE BONE?

Answer 220

UNATTACHED GINGIVA

ASSIGN. 7-17

Question 221

WHAT AREA IS THE FIRST TO SHOE THE SYMPTOMS OF GINGIVITIS?

Answer 221

GINGIVAL MARGIN

ASSIGN. 7-18

Question 222

WHAT AREA PREVENTS FOOD FROM PACKING BETWEEN THE TEETH?

Answer 222

INTERDENTAL PAPILLA

ASSIGN. 7-19

Question 223

WHAT TYPE OF TISSUE IS FOUND ON THE INSIDE OF THE LIPS, CHEEKS, VESTIBULE, SOFT PALATE, AND UNDER THE TONGUE?

Answer 223

LINING MUCOSA

ASSIGN. 7-20

Question 224

HOW MANY DENTAL QUADRANTS ARE IN THE MOUTH?

Answer 224

4

ASSIGN. 7-21

Question 225

HOW MANY PRIMARY TEETH ARE THERE IN A NORMAL DECIDUOUS MOUTH?

Answer 225

20

ASSIGN. 7-22

Question 226

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING REASONS AFFECT HOW TEETH ARE FORMED?

Answer 226

CUTTING, TEARING, AND GRINDING

ASSIGN. 7-23

Question 227

WHAT TYPE OF SHAPE DOES THE LINGUAL SURFACE OF AN INCISOR HAVE?

Answer 227

SHOVEL

ASSIGN. 7-24

Question 228

CUSPIDS ARE DESIGNED TO PERFORM WHAT TYPE OF FUNCTION?

Answer 228

CUTTING AND TEARING

ASSIGN. 7-25

Question 229

WHAT IS THE NAME OF THE SYSTEM THAT IS USED BY THE ARMED FORCES TO IDENTIFY TEETH?

Answer 229

UNIVERSAL NUMBERING

ASSIGN. 7-26

Question 230

PRIMARY TEETH ARE IDENTIFIED BY WHICH LETTERS OF THE ALPHABET?

Answer 230

A TO T

ASSIGN. 7-27

Question 231

THE MESIAL SURFACE OF A TOOTH IS LOCATED IN WHICH AREA?

Answer 231

CLOSEST TO THE MIDLINE OF THE ARCH

ASSIGN. 7-28

Question 232

THE DISTAL SURFACE OF A TOOTH IS LOCATED IN WHICH AREA?

Answer 232

AWAY FROM THE MIDLINE OF THE ARCH

ASSIGN. 7-29

Question 233

A TOOTH HAS HOW MANY PROXIMAL SURFACES?

Answer 233

2

ASSIGN. 7-30

Question 234

THE INTER-PROXIMAL SPACE IS OCCUPIED BY WHAT TYPE OF ANATOMY?

Answer 234

INTERDENTAL PAPILLA

ASSIGN. 7-31

Question 235

THE ANTERIOR POSTERIOR CURVE IS REFERRED TO BY WHAT TERM?

Answer 235

CURVE OF SPEE

ASSIGN. 7-32

Question 236

IF A PATIENT’S PROFILE IS CHARACTERIZED AS “NORMAL,” IT IS A CLASS _______ ANGLE.

Answer 236

CLASS I

ASSIGN. 7-23

Question 237

THE MESIAL MARGIN OF A MAXILLARY CENTRAL INCISOR MEETS THE INCISAL EDGE AT ALMOST WHAT DEGREE ANGLE?

Answer 237

90

ASSIGN. 7-34

Question 238

WHAT ARE THE FIRST PERMANENT TEETH TO ERUPT?

Answer 238

MANDIBULAR LATERAL INCISOR

ASSIGN. 7-35

Question 239

WHAT IS THE TERM USED TO DESCRIBE THE APPEARANCE OF A MANDIBULAR FIRST BICUSPID?

Answer 239

BELL-CROWNED

ASSIGN. 7-36

Question 240

WHAT TOOTH WILL HAVE A FIFTH CUSP ON IT?

Answer 240

MANDIBULAR SECOND MOLAR

ASSIGN. 7-37

Question 241

WHAT DENTAL ANATOMY HAS A ROUNDED OR ANGULAR DEPRESSION OF VARYING SIZES FOUND ON THE SURFACE OF A TOOTH?

Answer 241

CUSP

ASSIGN. 7-38

Question 242

WHAT IS THE NAME OF THE DENTAL ANATOMY THAT HAS SMALL, ROUNDED PROJECTIONS OF ENAMEL FROM THE INCISAL EDGES OF NEWLY ERUPTED ANTERIOR TEETH?

Answer 242

MAMELONS

ASSIGN. 7-39

Question 243

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS DOES THE SCIENCE OF ORAL PATHOLOGY NOT TREAT?

Answer 243

SURGICAL PROCEDURES

ASSIGN. 8-1

Question 244

WHO IS RESPONSIBLE FOR INFORMING A PATIENT WHEN AN ORAL DISEASE IS FOUND?

Answer 244

DENTAL OFFICER

ASSIGN. 8-2

Question 245

ABOUT HOW MANY MILLILITERS (mL) OF SALIVA DO THE SALIVARY GLANDS SECRETE ON A DAILY BASIS?

Answer 245

1500 mL

ASSIGN. 8-3

Question 246

WHAT IS AN ENCLOSED POUCH OR SAC THAT CONTAINS FLUID OR SEMI-SOLID MATERIAL?

Answer 246

CYST

ASSIGN. 8-4

Question 247

WHAT MAY BE CAUSED BY BITING, DENTURE IRRITATION, TOOTHBRUSH INJURY, VIRUSES, OR OTHER IRRITANTS?

Answer 247

ULCERS

ASSIGN. 8-5

Question 248

WHAT IS A ROUND PINPOINT NON-RAISED, LESION WITH PURPLISH-RED SPOTS?

Answer 248

PETICHIAE

ASSIGN. 8-6

Question 249

WHAT IS A LOCAL COLLECTION OF BLOOD THAT ESCAPED FROM BLOOD VESSELS BECAUSE OF TRAUMA?

Answer 249

HEMATOMA

ASSIGN. 8-7

Question 250

WHAT IS A SMALL ELEVATION THAT CONTAINS FLUID?

Answer 250

VESICLES

ASSIGN. 8-8

Question 251

WHAT IS A LARGE, PURPLISH-RED AREAS CAUSED BY BLOOD UNDER THE SKIN OR MUCOSA?

Answer 251

ECCHYMOSES

ASSIGN. 8-9

Question 252

WHAT IS COMMONLY CAUSED BY A BACTERIAL INFECTION?

Answer 252

ABCESS

ASSIGN. 8-10

Question 253

WHEN DENTAL CARIES FIRST APPEAR ON ENAMEL, WHAT IS THAT APPEARANCE?

Answer 253

A CHALKY WHITE SPOT

ASSIGN. 8-11

Question 254

WHAT TYPE OF BACTERIA HAS BEEN LINKED TO TOOTH DECAY?

Answer 254

STREPTOCOCCI

ASSIGN. 8-12

Question 255

RECURRENT CARIES WILL OCCUR IN A TOOTH IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CIRCUMSTANCES?

Answer 255

LEAKY MARGINS

ASSIGN. 8-13

Question 256

PIT AND FISSURES CARIES DEVELOP IN WHAT AREA OF A TOOTH?

Answer 256

DEPRESSION

ASSIGN. 8-14

Question 257

SMOOTH SURFACE CARIES DEVELOP IN WHAT AREA OF A TOOTH?

Answer 257

PROXIMAL SURFACES

ASSIGN. 8-15

Question 258

PULPAGIA COMMONLY OCCURS AFTER WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROCEDURES HAS BEEN PERFORMED ON TOOTH?

Answer 258

AFTER A RESTORATION

ASSIGN. 8-16

Question 259

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DEFINITIONS BEST DESCRIBES PULPITIS?

Answer 259

INFLAMMATION OF THE DENTAL PULP

ASSIGN. 8-17

Question 260

IF A PERIAPICAL ABCESS IS LEFT UNTREATED, IN WHAT AREA OF A TOOTH WILL BONE LOSS OCCUR?

Answer 260

APEX

ASSIGN. 8-18

Question 261

DEAD PULPAL TISSUE WILL DECOMPOSE AND PRODUCE WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING RESULTS?

Answer 261

TOXINS

ASSIGN. 8-19

Question 262

WHAT CHRONIC DISEASE IS THE MOST PREVALENT IN MANKIND?

Answer 262

PERIODONTAL

ASSIGN. 8-20

Question 263

MARGINAL GINGIVITIS USUALLY STARTS IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING AREAS?

Answer 263

TIPS OF THE PAPILLAE

ASSIGN. 8-21

Question 264

THE ULCERATION OF THE GINGIVAL CREST IN NUG RESULTS IN WHAT TYPE OF AN APPEARANCE?

Answer 264

PUNCHED OUT

ASSIGN. 8-22

Question 265

WHEN PERIODONTITIS PROGRESSES, THE GINGIVAL TISSUES WILL APPEAR AS WHAT COLOR?

Answer 265

BLUISH RED

ASSIGN. 8-23

Question 266

DURING POCKET FORMATION, WHAT TYPE OF PROJECTIONS OF CALCULUS FORM BETWEEN THE TEETH?

Answer 266

SHELF-LIKE

ASSIGN. 8-24

Question 267

THE GINGIVA SURROUNDING A PERIODONTAL ABCESS WILL HAVE WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING APPEARANCES?

Answer 267

INFLAMED AND SWOLLEN

ASSIGN. 8-25

Question 268

RECURRENT APHTHOUS STOMATITIS ARE LESIONS OF WHAT TYPE?

Answer 268

ULCERS

ASSIGN. 8-26

Question 269

WHAT TYPE OF HERPES SIMPLEX VIRUS IS MOST COMMONLY DIAGNOSED IN ORAL PATHOLOGY?

Answer 269

HSV-I

ASSIGN. 8-27

Question 270

RECURRENT HERPES SIMPLEX LESIONS THAT AFFECT ROUTINE DENTAL TREATMENT SHOULD BE RESCHEDULED FOR WHAT PERIOD OF TIME?

Answer 270

AFTER THE ACTIVE PHASE

ASSIGN. 8-28

Question 271

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ORAL MANIFESTATIONS ARE A SIGN OF HIV INFECTION?

Answer 271

• CANDIDIASIS
• HAIRY LEUKOPLAKIA
• KAPOSI’S SARCOMA

(ASSIGN. 8-29)

Question 272

WHAT ARE THE TWO TYPES OF NEOPLASMS THAT CAN BE DIAGNOSED IN ORAL CANCER?

Answer 272

BENIGN AND MALIGNANT

ASSIGN. 8-30

Question 273

THE GROWTH OR SPREAD OF MALIGNANT TUMORS FROM ONE AREA TO ANOTHER IS KNOWN BY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS?

Answer 273

METASTASIS

ASSIGN. 8-31

Question 274

THE AREA WHERE THE USER OF SMOKELESS TOBACCO DEVELOPS AN ORAL PRECANCEROUS LESIONS IS DEFINED AS WHAT TYPE PATHOLOGY?

Answer 274

SNUFF-DIPPERS KERATOSIS

ASSIGN. 8-32

Question 275

WHEN DOES A CONGENITAL DISORDER OCCUR?

Answer 275

AT BIRTH

ASSIGN. 8-33

Question 276

WHAT CONDITION MUST EXIST FOR AN IMPACTION TO OCCUR?

Answer 276

PHYSICAL BARRIER

ASSIGN. 8-34

Question 277

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS CAUSES ATTRITION?

Answer 277

WEAR INVOLVING TEETH AGAINST TEETH

ASSIGN. 8-35

Question 278

WHICH DISORDER AFFECTS PATIENTS WITH BULIMIA?

Answer 278

EROSION

ASSIGN. 8-36

Question 279

A _____ IS ANY ANIMAL CAPABLE OF TRANSMITTING PATHOGENS OR PRODUCING HUMAN OR ANIMAL DISCOMFORT OR INJURY.

Answer 279

VECTOR

ASSIGN. 9-1

Question 280

THE FINDINGS OF FOOD-SERVICE INSPECTIONS ARE DOCUMENTED ON WHAT FORM?

Answer 280

NAVMED 6240/1

ASSIGN. 9-2

Question 281

WHAT INSTRUCTION SETS THE STANDARD FOR DRINKING WATER FOR U.S. NAVAL ESTABLISHMENTS BOTH ASHORE AND AFLOAT?

Answer 281

BUMEDINST 6240.1

ASSIGN. 9-3

Question 282

THE MEDICAL DEPARTMENTS ABOARD SHIPS ARE NOT REQUIRED TO INCLUDE ICE SAMPLES IN BACTERIOLOGICAL ANALYSES PERFORMED ON WATER. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 282

FALSE. “THE MEDICAL DEPARTMENTS ABOARD SHIPS ARE REQUIRED TO INCLUDE ICE SAMPLES IN ANY BACTERIOLOGICAL ANALYSES THE PERFORM ON WATER.” PG. 9-4

(ASSIGN. 9-4)

Question 283

____ ARE INSTRUMENTS THAT FREQUENTLY CONTACT MUCOUS MEMBRANES, BUT CANNOT BE STERILIZED BECAUSE OF THEIR DESIGN OR INABILITY TO WITHSTAND HEAT.

Answer 283

SEMICRITICAL ITEMS

ASSIGN. 9-5

Question 284

SPRAY-WIPE-SPRAY IS ______.

Answer 284

AN ACCEPTABLE METHOD OF CLEANING AND DISINFECTING.

ASSIGN. 9-6

Question 285

WHEN SHOULD THE HM WASH HIS/HER HANDS?

Answer 285

• AT THE BEGINNING OF THE DAY
• BEFORE HANDLING FOOD
• BETWEEN PATIENTS

(ASSIGN. 9-7)

Question 286

WHAT IS NOT A CHARACTERISTIC OF RESIDENT FLORA?

Answer 286

ARE NOT FIRMLY ATTACHED TO THE SKIN.

ASSIGN. 9-8

Question 287

WHAT TYPE OF HAND WASHING AGENT USUALLY HAS 4 PERCENT ISOPROPYL ALCOHOL IN A SUDSY BASE?

Answer 287

CHLOROHEXIDINE GLUCONATE

ASSIGN. 9-9

Question 288

WHEN THE HM IS PREPARING FOR A SURGICAL CASE, WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM LENGTH OF THE FINGERNAIL?

Answer 288

NO LONGER THAN THE TIPS OF THE FINGERS

ASSIGN. 9-10

Question 289

WHAT TYPE OF GLOVES ARE TH HIGHEST QUALITY AND BEST FITTING?

Answer 289

STERILE GLOVES

ASSIGN. 9-11

Question 290

WHERE CAN CLINICAL APPAREL BE WORN?

Answer 290

IN THE MTF/DTF ONLY

ASSIGN. 9-12

Question 291

PROTECTIVE EYEWEAR MUST HAVE SLOTTED SPLASH SHIELDS TO PROVIDE MAXIMUM PROTECTION. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 291

FALSE. “EYEWEAR OR GOGGLES MUST HAVE SOLID SIDE SHIELDS TO PROVIDE MAXIMUM PROTECTION.” PG. 9-11

(ASSIGN. 9-13)

Question 292

NAME A TRANSMISSION-BASED PRECAUTION.

Answer 292

• AIRBORNE
• DROPLET
• CONTACT

(ASSIGN. 9-14)

Question 293

WHAT TYPE OF MASK SHOULD BE WORN IN CONTACT WITH A PATIENT DIAGNOSED WITH TUBERCULOSIS?

Answer 293

N95 RESPIRATOR

ASSIGN. 9-15

Question 294

WHAT TRANSMISSION-BASED PRECAUTION REQUIRES A NEGATIVE AIR PRESSURE ROOM?

Answer 294

AIRBORNE

ASSIGN. 9-16

Question 295

WHAT DOES THE ACRONYM MRSA STAND FOR?

Answer 295

METHICILIN-RESISTANT STAPHYLOCOCCUS AUREUS

ASSIGN 9-17

Question 296

WHAT PERSONAL PROTECTIVE EQUIPMENT ITEM IS NOT NECESSARILY WORN WHILE TREATING A PATIENT UNDER CONTACT PRECAUTIONS?

Answer 296

MASK

ASSIGN. 9-18

Question 297

WHAT TRANSMISSION-BASED PRECAUTION REQUIRES LIMITED TRANSPORT EXCEPT FOR ESSENTIAL PURPOSES?

Answer 297

DROPLET

ASSIGN. 9-19

Question 298

WHAT ARE DAILY MEASURES TAKEN TO CONTROL THE SPREAD OF PATHOGENIC ORGANISMS?

Answer 298

CONCURRENT DISINFECTION

ASSIGN. 9-20

Question 299

IN A DTR, AT THE BEGINNING OF THE DAY, THE UNIT WATER LINES ANDHOSES SHOULD BE FLUSHED FOR HOW LONG?

Answer 299

1 MINUTE. “FOR DTR’S, AT THE BEGINNING OF THE DAY FLUSH EACH OF THE UNIT WATER LINES AND HOSES FOR AT LEAST 1 MINUTE EVEN IF THEIR USE IS NOT ANTICIPATED AND FLUSH FOR AT LEAST 30 SEC BETWEEN PATIENTS” PG. 9-15

(ASSIGN. 9-21)

Question 300

FOR EQUIPMENT THAT IS DIFFICULT TO CLEAN, WHAT SHOULD BE DONE BEFORE USING IT ON A PATIENT?

Answer 300

A STERILE OR CLEAN DRAPE

ASSIGN. 9-22

Question 301

TO PERFORM HAND PIECE MAINTENANCE ON DENTAL HAND PIECES THE HM SHOULD REMOVE HAND PIECES, LUBRICATE, AND RUN THEM FOR HOW LONG?

Answer 301

30 SECONDS

ASSIGN. 9-23

Question 302

WHICH ONE OF THESE CHOICES SHOULD BE PLACED IN A BIOHAZARDOUS WASTE RECEPTACLE?

Answer 302

USED I.V. CATHETER

ASSIGN. 9-24

Question 303

WHILE IN THE PROCESS OF DOING A MINOR PROCEDURE THE HM’S GLOVE IS PUNCTURED BY A SUTURE AND IT BREAKS THE SKIN, SHOULD THE HM REPORT IT TO OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH?

Answer 303

YES ANY PUNCTURE WITH POSSIBLE CONTAMINATED FLUID SHOULD BE REPORTED

(ASSIGN. 9-25)

Question 304

NEEDLES, SCALPELS, AND SUTURES SHOULD BE DISPOSED OF IN WHAT CONTAINER?

Answer 304

RIGID, PUNCTURE RESISTANT, RED CONTAINER WITH A BIOHAZARD SYMBOL

(ASSIGN. 9-26)

Question 305

BED LINENS, TOWELS, SMOCKS, TROUSERS, AND OTHER PROTECTIVE ATTIRE ARE CLASSIFIED AS WHAT?

Answer 305

ORDINARY LAUNDRY

ASSIGN. 9-27

Question 306

WHAT IS THE TERM USED TO DESCRIBE THE STERILIZATION, STORAGE, AND HANDLING OF ARTICLES TO KEEP THEM FREEE OF PATHOGENIC ORGANISMS?

Answer 306

SURGICAL ASEPTIC TECHNIQUE

ASSIGN. 9-28

Question 307

WHAT GEAR MUST BE WORN TO ENTER A SURGICAL SUITE?

Answer 307

• SCRUBS
• HAIR COVER
• MASK

(ASSIGN. 9-29)

Question 308

IF A STERILE ITEM’S STERILITY IS IN QUESTION THE HM SHOULD _________.

Answer 308

NOT USE IT IF THERE IS ANY QUESTION ABOUT THE STERILITY

ASSIGN. 9-30

Question 309

IF THE SURGEION ASKS FOR A SPECIFIC KIND OF SUTURE IN THE MIDDLE OF A SURGICAL CASE WHO SHOULD RETRIEVE IT?

Answer 309

THE CIRCULATOR

ASSIGN. 9-31

Question 310

WHILE GOWNING THE SURGEON WHO IS RESPONSIBLE FOR TYING THE GOWN?

Answer 310

CIRCULATOR

ASSIGN. 9-32

Question 311

DISINFECTION IS MORE LETHAL PROCESS THAN STERILIZATION. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 311

FALSE

ASSIGN. 10-1

Question 312

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING LEVELS OF DISINFECTANTS ARE CLASSIFIED BY THE EPA?

Answer 312

INTERMEDIATE, HIGH, AND LOW

ASSIGN. 10-2

Question 313

WHAT TWO TYPES OF MICRO-ORGANISMS ARE KILLED BY AL THREE LEVELS OF DISINFECTION?

Answer 313

LIPID VIRUSES AND VEGETATIVE BACTERIA

ASSIGN. 10-3

Question 314

WHAT ARE THE THREE FACTORS THAT INFLUENCE GERMICIDAL PROCEDURES?

Answer 314

BIOBURDEN, NATURE OF THE MATERIAL, AND ORGANIC DEBRIS PRESENT

(ASSIGN. 10-4)

Question 315

WHAT LEVELS OF A GLUTARALDEHYDE-BASED SOLUTIONS ARE FDA-REGISTERED?

Answer 315

2.0-3.2

ASSIGN. 10-5

Question 316

WHAT LEVEL OF A DISINFECTANT AND STERILANT ARE GLUTARALDEHYDE-BASED SOLUTION CLASSIFIED?

Answer 316

HIGH

ASSIGN. 10-6

Question 317

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A DISADVNATAGE WHEN USING CHLORINE DIOXIDE-BASED SOLUTIONS?

Answer 317

• HAS A 24-DAY USE LIFE AS A STERILANT
• DOES NOT READILY PENETRATE IN ORGANIC DEBRIS
• MUST BE DISCARDED DAILY

(ASSIGN. 10-7)

Question 318

PROTECTIVE EYEWEAR AND GLOVES ARE NOT REQUIRED WHEN USING CHEMICAL AGENTS. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 318

FALSE.

ASSIGN. 10-8

Question 319

THE BIOCIDAL ACTIVITY OF IODOPHORS IS ACCOMPLISHED WITH HOW MANY MINUTES OF EXPOSURE?

Answer 319

10-25 MINUTES

ASSIGN. 10-9

Question 320

WHAT LEVEL OF DISINFECTION ARE IODOPHORS AND PHENOLICS CLASSIFIED?

Answer 320

INTERMEDIATE.

ASSIGN. 10-10

Question 321

ALL SEMI-CRITICAL CATEGORY ITEMS SHOULD RECEIVE WHAT LEVEL OF DISINFECTION?

Answer 321

HIGH.

ASSIGN. 10-11

Question 322

ALL NONCRITICAL CATEGORY ITEMS REQUIRE AT LEAST WHAT LEVEL OF DISINFECTION?

Answer 322

INTERMEDIATE.

ASSIGN. 10-12

Question 323

WHAT ARE OF THE TREATMENT FACILITY IS DESIGNED FOR RECEIVING, CLEANING, PROCESSING, STERILIZING, STORING, AND ISSUING INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT?

Answer 323

CSR (CENTRAL STERILIZATION ROOM)

ASSIGN. 10-13

Question 324

WHAT CHART TELLS CSR PERSONNEL THE SPECIFIC ORDER EQUIPMENT, INSTRUMENTS, AND MATERIALS ARE TO BE PROCESSED?

Answer 324

FUNCTIONAL FLOW

ASSIGN. 10-14

Question 325

IN WHAT ARE OF THE CSR WILL THE DISINFECTION, CLEANING AND LUBRICATION OF DENTAL HAND PIECES TAKE PLACE?

Answer 325

RECEIVING AND CLEANING

ASSIGN. 10-15

Question 326

IN WHAT ARE OF THE CSR WILL THE HM TAKE CONTAMINATED INSTRUMENTS AFTER COMPLETION OF A PATIENT’S TREATMENT?

Answer 326

RECEIVING.

ASSIGN. 10-16

Question 327

WHAT CLEANING PROCESS IS SAFER AND MORE EFFECTIVE THAN MANUAL SCRUBBING”

Answer 327

AUTOMATED PROCESSOR

ASSIGN. 10-17

Question 328

HOW MANY SINKS ARE NEEDED TO ALLOW PERSONNEL TO PERFORM THE MANUAL SCRUBBING METHOD?

Answer 328

THREE.

ASSIGN. 10-18

Question 329

WHAT TYPE CLEANING EFFECT DOES AN ULTRASONIC CLEANER PROVIDE?

Answer 329

CAVITATION.

ASSIGN. 10-19

Question 330

FOR PROPER OPERATION THE ULTRASONIC RESERVOIR SHOULD BE FILLED TO WHAT LEVEL WITH ULTRASONIC SOLUTION?

Answer 330

1/2 TO 3/4’S FULL

ASSIGN. 10-20

Question 331

HOW OFTEN MUST ULTRASONIC SOLUTION BE CHANGED?

Answer 331

• DAILY ONLY
• WHEN VISIBLY CONTAMINATED ONLY

(ASSIGN. 10-21)

Question 332

YOU SHOULD REMOVE INSTRUMENTS FROM THE ULTRASONIC UNIT BY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MEANS?

Answer 332

MESH BASKET

ASSIGN. 10-22

Question 333

AFTER DRYING THE INSTRUMENT, WHAT IS THE NEXT STEP IN THE STERILIZATION PROCESS?

Answer 333

INSPECTION.

ASSIGN. 10-23

Question 334

HOW ARE HINGED INSTRUMENTS ARRANGED DURING PACKAGING?

Answer 334

OPEN

ASSIGN. 10-24

Question 335

TO ALLOW STEAM TO CIRCULATE FREELY, HOW SHOULD PACKS BE WRAPPED?

Answer 335

LOOSELY.

ASSIGN. 10-25

Question 336

THE PERIOD DURING WHICH STERILIZED ITEMS ARE CONSIDERED SAFE FOR USE IS KNOWN BY WHIC OF THE FOLLOWING TERMS?

Answer 336

• EVENT-ROTATED SHELF LIFE
• EXPIRATION DATE ONLY

(ASSIGN. 10-26)

Question 337

WHAT TYPE OF RELATED SHELF LIFE PRESUMES CONTINUED STERILITY UNTIL THE PACKAGE IS DAMAGED, WET, OR TORN?

Answer 337

EVENT

ASSIGN. 10-27

Question 338

WHAT TYPE OF RELATED SHELF LIFE PRESUMES THAT AFTER THE EXPIRATION DATE THE ITEM IS CONSIDERED OUTDATED AND SHOULD NOT BE USED?

Answer 338

TIME.

ASSIGN. 10-28

Question 339

WHAT IS THE SHELF LIFE FOR NONWOVEN BLUE WRAP USING THE TIME-RELATED METHOD?

Answer 339

30 DAYS.

ASSIGN. 10-29

Question 340

WHAT OCCURS WHEN FRESHLY STERILIZED ITEMS ARE PLACED ON METAL OR COLD SURFACES?

Answer 340

CONTAMINATION.

ASSIGN. 10-30

Question 341

WHEN STORING STERILIZED ITEMS, HOW SHOULD THEY BE ARRANGED?

Answer 341

EXPIRATION, WITH LATER DATES TOWARD THE REAR.

ASSIGN. 10-31

Question 342

AT WHAT TEMPERATURE ARE ALL KNOWN ORGANISMS KILLED?

Answer 342

250 DEGREES FAHRENHEIT

ASSIGN. 10-32

Question 343

A STEAM STERILIZER MAY BE REFERRED TO BY WHAT OTHER NAME?

Answer 343

AUTOCLAVE.

ASSIGN. 10-33

Question 344

WHEN PLACING PACKAGES IN A STERILIZER, HOW ARE THEY PLACED?

Answer 344

ON THE EDGES

ASSIGN. 10-34

Question 345

WHAT TYPE OF STERILIZER WAS DESIGNED TO OVERCOME THE TRAPPING OF AIR IN THE CHAMBER?

Answer 345

PREVACUUM STEAM (AUTOCLAVE)

ASSIGN. 10-35

Question 346

WHAT IS THE LEAST EXPENSIVE FORM OF HEAT STERILIZATION?

Answer 346

DRY HEAT.

ASSIGN. 10-36

Question 347

ALL NAVY PREVACUUM STERILIZERS WILL BE TESTED HOW OFTEN USING A BOWIE-DICK TYPE TEST?

Answer 347

DAILY.

ASSIGN. 10-37

Question 348

HOW OFTEN IS THE INTERIOR OF A STEAM STERILIZER CLEANED BEFORE HEATING?

Answer 348

DAILY.

ASSIGN. 10-38

Question 349

WAHT IS THE TYPICAL STANDING DRY HEAT CYCLE?

Answer 349

90 MINUTES AT 320-345 DEGREES FAHRENHEIT

ASSIGN. 10-39

Question 350

WHAT PERCENT OF WATER CONTENT, IF ANY OCCURS WITH CHEMICAL VAPOR STERILIZATION?

Answer 350

15

ASSIGN. 10-40

Question 351

INSTRUMENTS BEING STERILIZED IN THE STERRAD DO NOT NEED TO BE COMPLETELY DRY.

Answer 351

FALSE.

ASSIGN. 10-41

Question 352

WHAT TYPE OF STERILIZATION IS STERRAD?

Answer 352

PLASMA.

ASSIGN. 10-42

Question 353

WHAT TYPE OF STERILIZATION INDICATOR WILL CHANGE COLOR UPON SHORT EXPOSURE TO STERILIZATION CONDITIONS SUCH AS STEAM DRY HEAT, OR CHEMICAL VAPOR?

Answer 353

INTERNAL.

ASSIGN. 10-43

Question 354

WHAT TYPE OF STERILIZATION WILL ASSESS WHETHER STERILIZATION ACTUALLY OCCURRED?

Answer 354

BIOLOGICAL.

ASSIGN. 10-44

Question 355

WHAT IS THE FIRST STEP TO BE PERFORMED WHEN POSITIVE BIOLOGICAL MONITORING OCCURS?

Answer 355

NOTIFY ICO

ASSIGN. 10-45

Question 356

THE CONCEPTS OF HEALTH INCLUDE _____?

Answer 356

• THE ABSENCE OF DISEASE AND DISABILITY
• SOUNDNESS OF MIND, BODY, AND SPIRIT

(ASSIGN. 11-1)

Question 357

PATIENT RIGHTS AND RESPONSIBILITIES ARE STANDARDS ADDRESSED BY WHAT ORGANIZATION?

Answer 357

THE JOINT COMMISSION (TJC)

ASSIGN. 11-2

Question 358

THE STANDARD OF PRACTICE OF LIMITIATION IMPOSED UPON A HEALTHCARE PROVIDER ARE BASED ON LOCAL REGULATIONS AND WHICH OR THE FOLLOWING ELEMENTS?

Answer 358

THE PROVIDERS TRAINING EXPERIENCE

ASSIGN. 11-3

Question 359

IN THE HEALTHCARE FIELD, ACCOUNTABILITY MEANS THAT PROVIDERS _______.

Answer 359

• ARE HEALD RESPONSIBLE FOR THEIR ACTIONS
• MUST CONTINUE THEIR EDUCATION IN THE HEALTHCARE FIELD
• PROVIDE THE BEST HEALTHCARE POSSIBLE

(ASSIGN. 11-4)

Question 360

A PATIENT REQUESTS THE HM’S ADVICE CONCERNING THE CARE THEY ARE UNDERGOING. WHICH, IF ANY, OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE APPROPRIATE RESPONSE?

Answer 360

REFER THE PATIENT TO THE NURSE OR PHYSICIAN RESPONSIBLE FOR THE CARE.

(ASSIGN. 11-5)

Question 361

PERSONNEL AND MEDICAL INFORMATION LEARNED ABOUT A PATIENT AS THE RESULT OF THE HM POSITION IS PRIVILEGED AND MUST NOT BE SHARED WITH UNAUTHORIZED INDIVIDUALS. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 361

TRUE.

ASSIGN. 11-6

Question 362

INTERPERSONAL RELATIONS

Answer 362

HOW ONE RESPONDS AND REGARDS OTHERS

ASSIGN. 11-7

Question 363

CULTURE

Answer 363

LEARNED AND SHARED BEHAVIOR PATTERNS AND STANDARDS

ASSIGN. 11-8

Question 364

RACE

Answer 364

INHERITED CHARACTERISTICS

ASSIGN. 11-9

Question 365

A PATIENT WHO IS PROFESSED ATHIEST IS PLACED ON VERY SERIOUS LIST (VSL) WITH A POR PROGNOSIS FOR RECOVERY. ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ACTIONS BY THE STAFF ARE CONSIDERED APPROPRIATE AND ETHICAL EXCEPT ______?

Answer 365

ATTEMPTING TO CONVINCE THE PATIENT TO ACCEPT A RELIGIOUS BELIEF

(ASSIGN. 11-10)

Question 366

THE COMMUNICATION PROCESS TAKES PLACE ONLY THROUGH THE WRITTEN OR SPOKEN WORD? TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 366

FALSE.

ASSIGN. 11-11

Question 367

COMMUNICATIONS BARRIERS INHIBIT THE FLOW OF INFORMATION AND MAY CONSIST OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FACTORS?

Answer 367

• HEARING IMPAIRMENT
• AGE
• EDUCATION

(ASSIGN. 11-12)

Question 368

THE MOST COMMON CAUSE OF INEFFECTIVE COMMUNICATION AND THE MOST DIFFICULT OBSTACLE TO IDENTIFY IS WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING BARRIERS?

Answer 368

PSYCHOLOGICAL

ASSIGN. 11-13

Question 369

IN THE COMMUNICATION PROCESS, LISTENING IS A CRITICAL SKILL AND CAN BE IMPROVED BY DEVELOPING WHICH, IF ANY, OF THE FOLLOWING ATTITUDES AND BEHAVIORS?

Answer 369

MANAGING DISTRACTIONS

ASSIGN. 11-14

Question 370

THE PURPOSE OF THERAPEUTIC COMMUNICATION INCLUDES ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT?

Answer 370

EDUCATING A PATIENT REGARDING HEALTH AND HEALTHCARE

ASSIGN. 11-15

Question 371

DEVELOP A PATIENT’S HISTORY OF COMPLAINT.

Answer 371

THERAPEUTIC COMMUNICATION

ASSIGN. 11-16

Question 372

EXPLAINING THE NECESSITIES AND METHODS OF PERSONAL HYGIENE TO THE PARENT OF A YOUNG PATIENT.

Answer 372

CONTACT POINT COMMUNICATION

ASSIGN. 11-17

Question 373

PROVIDING SELF-CARE INSTRUCTIONS TO A PATIENT RELEASED TO CONVALESCENT LEAVE.

Answer 373

THERAPEUTIC COMMUNICATION

ASSIGN. 11-18

Question 374

DIRECTING A PAITENT TO THE PHARMACY TO FILL A PRESICRIPTION.

Answer 374

CONTACT POINT COMMUNICATION

ASSIGN. 11-19

Question 375

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE GOALS OF PATIENT HEALTH EDUCATION?

Answer 375

• PROMOTING PATIENT SELF-CARE
• PROMOTING BEHAVIOR MODIFICATION
• INFLUENCING A PATIENT’S ATTITUDE TOWARDS HEALTH AND DISEASE

(ASSIGN. 11-20)

Question 376

PATIENT EDUCATION IS THE RESPONSIBILITY OF ______>

Answer 376

ALL MEMBERS OF THE HEALTHCARE TEAM

ASSIGN. 11-21

Question 377

IN THE EMERGENCY ROOM, THE HM IS EXAMINING A PATIENT WHO SUDDENLY VOMITS AND STATES THAT HE HAS BEEN FEELING NAUSEOUS FOR THE PAST SEVERAL HOURS.

Answer 377

BOTH SUBJECTIVE AND OBJECTIVE OBSERVATIONS

ASSIGN. 11-22

Question 378

A PATIENT CLAIMS TO HAVE SWALLOWED MANY RESPIRATORY PROBLEMS PILLS AND COMPLAINS OF SLEEPINESS AND NAUSEA

Answer 378

SUBJECTIVE OBSERVATIONS ONLY

ASSIGN. 11-23

Question 379

A PATIENT COMPLAINS OF CHEST PAIN AND DIFFICULTY BREATHING

Answer 379

SUBJECTIVE OBSERVATIONS ONLY

ASSIGN. 11-24

Question 380

WHEN PICKING UP A PATIENT’S DINNER TRAY, THE HM NOTICES THAT ONLY HTE LIQUIDS HAVE BEEN CONSUMED AT THIS MEAL ALTHOUGH THE PATIENT HAS NORMALLY EATEN FULL MEALS BEFORE THIS.

Answer 380

OBJECTIVE OBSERVATION ONLY

ASSIGN. 11-25

Question 381

AN EKG PERFORMED ON A PATIENT IS INTERPRETED AS NORMAL AND THE PATIENT’S BREATHING IMPROVES WITH OXYGEN THERAPY

Answer 381

OBJECTIVE OBSERVATIONS ONLY

ASSIGN. 11-26

Question 382

A MEDICAL PATIENT IS PRESCRIBED THERAPEUTIC BED REST PRIMARILY FOR WHAT REASON?

Answer 382

TO PREVENT FURTHER DAMAGE TO BODY SYSTEMS

ASSIGN. 12-1

Question 383

A HEALTHCARE PROVIDER CAN REASONABLY EXPECT THAT ALL PATIENTS ADMITTED FOR SURGICAL PROCEDURES WILL EXHIBIT WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CHARACTERISTICS?

Answer 383

BE FEARFUL AND ANXIOUS

ASSIGN. 12-2

Question 384

SF 522, REQUEST FOR ADMINISTRATION OF ANESTHESIA AND FOR PERFORMANCE OF OPERATION AND OTHER PROCEDURES, IS NORMALLY SIGNED BY A PARENT, LEGAL GUARDIAN, OR SPOUSE EXCEPT WHEN?

Answer 384

A MEMBER OF THE ARMED FORCES

ASSIGN. 12-3

Question 385

WHEN A REGIONAL ANESTHETIC IS ADMINISTERED, THE PATIENT CAN EXPECT WHAT EFFECT?

Answer 385

PAIN WILL BE REDUCED OR ELIMINATED IN THE BODY PART INJECTED OR SWABBED

(ASSIGN. 12-4)

Question 386

IN GENERAL ANESTHESIA A STIMULATION OF VITAL SIGNS IS EVIDENCE OF WHAT LEVEL OF ANESTHESIA INDUCTION?

Answer 386

STAGE 2

ASSIGN. 12-5

Question 387

DROPPING A METAL BASIN ON THE OPERATING ROOM FLOOR MAY CAUSE A VIOLENT RESPONSE FROM A GENERAL ANESTHESIA PATIENT IN WHAT STAGE OF ANESTHESIA?

Answer 387

STAGE 2

ASSIGN. 12-6

Question 388

IN THE IMMEDIATE POSTOPERATIVE RECOVERY PHASE, A PATIENT’S SKIN COLOR MAY BE INDICATIVE OF ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT WHAT?

Answer 388

THE PATIENT’S ABILITY TO RECOVER FROM THE ANESTHETIC AGENT

ASSIGN. 12-7

Question 389

WHEN PERMITTED, POSTOPERATIVE PATIENTS SHOULD BE ENCOURAGED TO AMBULATED TO IMPROVE THE FUNCTIONS OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PHYSIOLOGIC SYSTEMS?

Answer 389

RENAL SYSTEM

ASSIGN. 12-8

Question 390

WHEN CARING FOR A YOUNG OTHERWISE HEALTHY ORTHOPEDIC PATIENT REQUIRING IMMOBILIZATION, THE HM CAN ANTICIPATE ALL OF THE. FOLLOWING EXCEPT WHAT?

Answer 390

SYMPTOMS OF EMOTIONAL STRESS

ASSIGN. 12-9

Question 391

UNLESS OTHERWISE DIRECTED BY THE PHYSICIAN, WHEN ONE IS APPLYING A. CASET TO AN ARM, THE PATIENT’S WRISTS IS GENERALLY IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING POSITIONS?

Answer 391

IN THE NEUTRAL POSITION

ASSIGN. 12-10

Question 392

CANE HEIGHT IS MEASURED FROM THE FLOOR TO THE ______.

Answer 392

WRIST

ASSIGN. 12-11

Question 393

THE CANE IS USED ON THE UNAFFECTED SIDE OF THE BODY. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 393

FALSE

ASSIGN. 12-12

Question 394

AUXILIARY CRUTCHES SHOULD BE FITTED SO THAT THE PATIENT’S ELBOWS ARE MAINTAINED WITH A _____ TO _____ DEGREE BEND.

Answer 394

15 TO 30

ASSIGN. 12-13

Question 395

WHEN CLIMBING STAIRS THE PATIENT SHOULD BE TAUGHT TO GO “UP WITH THE BAD AND DOWN WITH THE GOOD.”

Answer 395

FALSE

ASSIGN. 12-14

Question 396

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE SAFE TO WALK ON WITH CRUTCHES WITHOUT MUCH THOUGHT TO SAFETY?

Answer 396

NONE OF THE FOLLOWING:

• UNEVEN SIDEWALK
• THICK CARPET
• HARDWOOD FLOOR WITH THROW RUGS

(ASSIGN. 12-15)

Question 397

WHICH AMBULATORY DEVICE PROVIDES THE MOST STABILITY?

Answer 397

WALKERS

ASSIGN. 12-16

Question 398

A PATIENT WHO HAS BEEN FITTED IWTH A CAST SHOULD BE INSTRUCTED TO RETURN TO THE MEDICAL TREATMENT FACILITY AS SOON AS POSSIBLE UNDER WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CIRCUMSTANCES?

Answer 398

THE EXTREMITY AFFECTED BY THE CAST IS NUMB

ASSIGN. 12-17

Question 399

IN THE THEORY OF DEATH AND DYING, IT IS SUGGESTED THAT MOST PEOPLE EXHIBIT FIVE STAGES. THE STAGE WHERE THE TERMINAL PATIENT BECOMES CONCERNED ABOU THE STATE OF HIS OR HER AFFAIRS AND FAMILY MEMBERS IS KNOWN AS THE STAGES OF ______.

Answer 399

ACCEPTANCE

ASSIGN. 12-18

Question 400

PATIENT FALLS MAY BE AVOIDED BY TAKING WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PREVENTATIVE MEASURES?

Answer 400

ALL OF THE ABOVE:

• PROPER USE OF BED/GURNEY SIDE RAILS
• KEEPING FLOORS DRY AND UNCLUTTERED
• INSTRUCTING PATIENTS ON PROPER USE OF WALKING AIDS (CRUTCHES, CANES, ETC.)

(ASSIGN. 12-19)

Question 401

ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONIC EQUIPMENT POSES SIGNIFICANT INJURY HAZARDS OF THE FOLLOWING, WHICH IS AUTHORIZED MEANS OF REDUCING THIS HAZARD?

Answer 401

HAVING MEDICAL REPAIR PERFORM ELECTRICAL SAFETY CHECKS ON ALL NEW SAFETY EQUIPMENT

(ASSIGN. 12-20)

Question 402

SKIN CONTACT BURNS CAN BE CAUSED BY ICE BAGS OR HYPOTHERMIA BLANKETS. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 402

TRUE

ASSIGN. 12-21

Question 403

DURING A FIRE EVACUATION, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROCEDURES IS NOT CONSIDERED APPROPRIATE?

Answer 403

CLEAR ALL POSSIBLE EXITS

ASSIGN. 12-22

Question 404

ENVIRONMENTAL HYGIENE IS DIRECITED TOWARD PRODUCING A HEALTHY ENVIRONMENT AND INCLUDES SUCH PRACTICES AS MAINTAINING UNIT CLEANLINESS AND ______.

Answer 404

ALL OF THE ABOVE:

• PROVIDING FOR ADEQUATE VENTILATION
• LIMITING NOISE LEVELS
• PROPER DISPOSAL OF SOILED ARTICLES

(ASSIGN. 12-23)

Question 405

WHAT IS TH LEADING CAUSE OF NUTRITION RELATED DISEASE IN THE ENVIRONMENT IN WHIHC HUMANS LIVE?

Answer 405

WEIGHT GAIN

ASSIGN. 13-1

Question 406

WHICH O FTHE FOLLOWING IS NOT ONE OF THE SIX ESSENTIAL NUTRIENTS NEEDED FOR THE GROWTH AND MAINTENANCE OF THE BODY?

Answer 406

NIACIN

ASSIGN. 13-2

Question 407

WHAT ARE THE THREE NUTRIENTS USED BY THE BODY THAT CONTAIN CALORIES?

Answer 407

CARBOHYDRATES, PROTEINS, AND FATS

ASSIGN. 13-3

Question 408

WATER IS THE MEDIUM IN WHICH ALL CHEMICAL REACTIONS IN THE BODY TAKE PLACE. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 408

TRUE

ASSIGN. 13-4

Question 409

WHAT IS TOTAL AMOUNT OF WATER THAT A MALE NEEDS TO CONSUME ON A DAILY BASIS?

Answer 409

3.7 LITERS

ASSIGN. 13-5

Question 410

WHAT IS TOTAL AMOUNT OF WATER THAT A FEMALE NEEDS TO CONSUME ON A DAILY BASIS?

Answer 410

2.7 LITERS

ASSIGN. 13-6

Question 411

AFTER CONSUMING FOOD A MALE NEEDS TO CONSUME AN AVERAGE OF HOW MUCH FREE WATER?

Answer 411

3 LITERS

ASSIGN. 13-7

Question 412

WHAT PERCENTAGE LOSS OF BODY WATER WILL CAUSE HEAT INJURY OR DEATH?

Answer 412

5 TO 7%

ASSIGN. 13-8

Question 413

MONO SACCHARIDES CONTAIN HOW MANY CARBON MOLECULES?

Answer 413

1

ASSIGN. 13-9

Question 414

DISACCHARIDES CONTAIN HOW MANY CARBON MOLECULES?

Answer 414

2

ASSIGN. 13-10

Question 415

SOME POLYSACCHARIDES ARE KNOWN TO CONTAIN UP TO HOW MANY CARBON MOLECULES?

Answer 415

THOUSANDS

ASSIGN. 13-11

Question 416

WHAT IS THE SIMPLEST TYPE OF SUGAR?

Answer 416

GLUCOSE

ASSIGN. 13-12

Question 417

MATCH THE SIMPLE SUGAR TO THE CARBOHYDRATE CLASS FOR SUCROSE.

Answer 417

DISACCHARIDE

ASSIGN. 13-13

Question 418

MATCH THE SIMPLE SUGAR TO THE CARBOHYDRATE CLASS FOR FRUCTOSE.

Answer 418

MONOSACCHARIDE

ASSIGN. 13-14

Question 419

MATCH THE SIMPLE SUGAR TO THE CARBOHYDRATE CLASS FOR GALACTOSE.

Answer 419

MONOSACCHARIDE

ASSIGN. 13-15

Question 420

MATCH THE SIMPLE SUGAR TO THE CARBOHYDRATE CLASS FOR GLUCOSE.

Answer 420

MONOSACCHARIDE

ASSIGN. 13-16

Question 421

MATCH THE SIMPLE SUGAR TO THE CARBOHYDRATE CLASS FOR LACTOSE.

Answer 421

DISACCHARIDE

ASSIGN. 13-17

Question 422

GLYCOGEN IS THE STORAGE FORM OF GLUCOSE FOR HUMANS. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 422

TRUE

ASSIGN. 13-18

Question 423

THE RECOMMENDED FIBER INTAKE FOR WOMEN IS _____?

Answer 423

25 GRAMS

ASSIGN. 13-19

Question 424

THE RECOMMENDED FIBER INTAKE FOR MALES IS _____?

Answer 424

37 GRAMS

ASSIGN. 13-20

Question 425

DEXTROSE, WHICH IS COMMONLY USED CARBOHYDRATE, IS NORMALLY USED IN WHAT FORM?

Answer 425

INTRAVENOUS

ASSIGN. 13-21

Question 426

PROTEINS CONTAIN WHAT AMOUNT OF CALORIES PER GRAM?

Answer 426

4

ASSIGN. 13-22

Question 427

THERE ARE 20 AMINO ACIDS THAT MAKE UP ALL THE PROTEINS THE BODY NEEDS, HOW MANY OF THOSE ARE CONSIDERED ESSENTIAL AMINO ACIDS NOT MADE BY THE BODY?

Answer 427

9

ASSIGN. 13-23

Question 428

FOR A PERSON WHO WEIGHS 185 lbs. WHAT IS THE RECOMMENDED AMOUNT OF PROTEIN THA TSHOULD BE CONSUMED DAILY?

Answer 428

67 GRAMS

ASSIGN. 13-24

Question 429

INFANTS AND CHILDREN REQUIRE A GREATER DAILY PROTEIN INTAKE THAN ADULTS. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 429

TRUE

ASSIGN. 13-25

Question 430

THE MAIN ROLE OF FATS IS TO ______?

Answer 430

SUPPLY ENERGY TO THE BODY

ASSIGN. 13-26

Question 431

WHAT VITAMINS ARE FAT SOLUBLE?

Answer 431

A, D, E, AND K

ASSIGN. 13-27

Question 432

TRANS FATS ARE NATURALLY OCCURRING FATS AND ARE GENERALLY NOT CONSIDERED A HEALTHY FAT. TRUE AND FALSE?

Answer 432

FALSE

ASSIGN. 13-28

Question 433

OMEGA-3 FATTY ACIDS HAVE BEEN LINKED TO LESSENING THE RISK OF HEART DISEASE. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 433

TRUE.

ASSIGN. 13-29

Question 434

THE MOST COMMON PHOSPHOLIPIDS IS BILE; WHERE IS IT PRODUCED?

Answer 434

LIVER

ASSIGN. 13-30

Question 435

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A WATER SOLUBLE VITAMIN?

Answer 435

A

ASSIGN. 13-31

Question 436

WHICH VITAMIN INTERFERES WITH ANTI-CLOTTING MEDICATIONS SUCH AS WARFARIN?

Answer 436

K

ASSIGN. 13-32

Question 437

SURGICAL PATIENTS SHOULD EAT CANTALOUPE AND STRAWBERRIES CONTAINING VITAMIN _____ IN ORDER TO SUPPORT WOUND HEALING.

Answer 437

C

ASSIGN. 13-33

Question 438

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT CONSIDERED A MAJOR MINERAL?

Answer 438

FLOURIDE

ASSIGN. 13-34

Question 439

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT CONSIDERED A TRACE MINERAL?

Answer 439

CALCIUM

ASSIGN. 13-35

Question 440

INFUSING TOO MUCH _____ IN AN INTRAVENOUS LINE CAN CAUSE DEATH?

Answer 440

POTASSIUM

ASSIGN. 13-36

Question 441

SURGICAL PATIENTS WHO DO NOT CONSUME ENOUGH OF _____ MINERAL FOUND IN SHELLFISH COULD HAVE POOR WOUND HEALING.

Answer 441

ZINC

ASSIGN. 13-37

Question 442

WHAT TYPE OF DIET IS NORMALLY ORDERED FOR AN INDIVIDUAL WHO HAS NOT EATEN FOR A FEW DAYS OR RECOVERING FROM SURGERY?

Answer 442

CLEAR LIQUID DIET

ASSIGN. 13-38

Question 443

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DIETS IS NOT NUTRITIONALLY COMPLETE?

Answer 443

CLEAR LIQUID DIET

ASSIGN. 13-39

Question 444

A DENTAL LIQUID DIET IS USUALLY INDICATED FOR A PATIENT WHO?

Answer 444

HAS MOUTH WIRED SHUT

ASSIGN. 13-40

Question 445

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DIETS IS USUALLY LOWER IN FIBER?

Answer 445

PURÉED DIET

ASSIGN. 13-41

Question 446

CALORIE RESTRICTED DIETS SHOULD BE AT LEAST HOW MANY CALORIES PER DAY?

Answer 446

1200

ASSIGN. 13-42

Question 447

WHAT TYPE OF DIET IS INDICATIVE OF RENAL OR HEPATIC DISEASE?

Answer 447

PROTEIN RESTRICTED DIET

ASSIGN. 13-43

Question 448

A PERSON ON CHOLESTEROL RESTRICTION OF 300 mg PER DAY SHOULD HAVE NO MORE THAN HOW MANY WHOLE EGGS PER DAY?

Answer 448

1 (ONE)

ASSIGN. 13-44

Question 449

WHAT IS THE MOST AGGRESSIVE TYPE OF NUTRITIONAL THERAPY?

Answer 449

PARENTERAL
(VEIN)

(ASSIGN. 13-45)

Question 450

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROVIDES A WAY FOR ENTERAL NUTRITIONAL THERAPY?

Answer 450

• NG TUBE
• J TUBE

(ASSIGN. 13-46)

Question 451

THE BASE OF A GOOD HEALTHY DIET ALWAYS BEGINS WITH _____?

Answer 451

FOOD PYRAMID

ASSIGN. 13-47

Question 452

WHAT TWO AGENCIES HAVE ESTABLISHED UNIFORM PHYSICAL STANDARDS FOR ENTRY INTO MILITARY SERVICE?

Answer 452

DoD AND DON

ASSIGN. 14-1

Question 453

AFTER A PHYSICAL EXAM HAS BEEN PERFORMED AND DOCUMENTED BY AN IDC WHO IS REQUIRED TO COUNTERSIGN THE EXAM?

Answer 453

ACCREDITED GENERAL MEDICAL OFFICER

ASSIGN. 14-2

Question 454

WHERE IS THE ORIGINAL DOCUMENTATION FROM A COMPLETED PHYSICAL EXAMINATION PERMANENTLY FILED?

Answer 454

HEALTH RECORD

ASSIGN. 14-3

Question 455

ACCORDING TO SECNAVINST 6120.3 SERIES A PERIODIC HEALTH ASSESSMENT (PHA) SHALL BE CONDUCTED _____ ON EACH SERVICE MEMBER.

Answer 455

ANNUALLY

ASSIGN. 14-4

Question 456

A MEMBER SEPARATING AFTER SERVING 30 OR LESS CONSECUTIVE DAYS ON ACTIVE DUTY, BEING FOUND UNFIT FOR CONTINUED SERVICE, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MAY BE APPROPRIATE?

Answer 456

CITED MEBR

ASSIGN. 14-5

Question 457

WHO IS GIVEN AUTHORITY TO PERFORM SPECIAL DUTY EXAMINATIONS?

Answer 457

LICENSED GENERAL MEDICAL OFFICER, DoD CIVLIANS

ASSIGN. 14-6

Question 458

IN ACCORDANCE WTIH BUMEDINST 1300.2 SERIES, AFTER RECEIPT OF ORDERS AN OVERSEAS/OPERATION SUITABILITY SCREENING MUST BE COMPLETED WITHIN HOW MANY DAYS?

Answer 458

30

ASSIGN. 14-7

Question 459

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PUBLICATION CONTAINS FURTHER GUIDANCE ON THE MEDICAL SURVEILLANCE PROGRAM?

Answer 459

OPNAVINST 5100.23

ASSIGN. 14-8

Question 460

WHO IS RESPONSIBLE FOR REVIEWING THE ABBREVIATED MEDICAL BOARD REPORT FOR ACCURACY IN CONTENT AND PROCESSING TIME?

Answer 460

LIMDU COORDINATOR

ASSIGN. 14-9

Question 461

WHAT MEDICAL FORMS ARE USED AS DOCUMENTATION OF A ROUTINE PHYSICAL EXAMINATION?

Answer 461

DD2808 AND DD2807

ASSIGN. 14-10

Question 462

WHAT FORM IS USED IN THE SUBMISSION OF A MEDICAL EVALUATION BOARD (MEB)?

Answer 462

NAVMED 6100/5

ASSIGN. 14-11

Question 463

PATIENTS SHOULD BE INSTRUCTED TO DO ALL OF THE FOLLOWING WHNE THE RETURN FOR A VISUAL ACUITY EXAMINATION EXCEPT?

Answer 463

BRING IN CONTACT LENSES

ASSIGN. 14-12

Question 464

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE PREFERRED METHOD FOR THE TESTING OF DISTANT VISUAL ACUITY?

Answer 464

SNELLEN CHART

ASSIGN. 14-13

Question 465

THE ARMED FORCES VISION TESTER, IS USED FOR WHICH TYPE OF VISION TEST?

Answer 465

DISTANT, NEAR

ASSIGN. 14-14

Question 466

WHAT IS THE PREFERRED METHOD WHEN TESTING COLOR DISCRIMINATION OF AN ACTIVE DUTY SERVICE MEMBER?

Answer 466

FALANT

ASSIGN. 14-15

Question 467

PEROSNNEL WHO HAVE RECEIVED A COLOR VISION DISCRIMINATION TEST ON PIP MUST BE RETESTED AS SOON AS A FALANT IS AVAILABLE. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 467

TRUE

ASSIGN. 14-16

Question 468

AUDIOMETRIC TESTING MAY BE PERFORMED BY ANY UNCERTIFIED HEALTHCARE PROVIDER (I.E. HOSPITAL CORPSMAN, NURSE) THAT IS AVIALABLE TO PERFORM THE TEST. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 468

FALSE

ASSIGN. 14-17

Question 469

HOW MANY LEADS ARE USED IN A 12-LEAD EKG?

Answer 469

10

ASSIGN. 14-18

Question 470

ALONG WHAT PLANE DO THE PRECORDIAL LEADS RECORD THE HEARTS ELECTRICAL CONDUCTION?

Answer 470

HORIZONTAL

ASSIGN. 14-19

Question 471

ALONG WHAT INTERCOSTAL SPACE ARE LEADS V4, V5, AND V6 PLACED?

Answer 471

5TH

ASSIGN. 14-20

Question 472

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROCEDURES IS ONE OF THE BASIC PROFESSIONAL SERVICES PROVIDED ON AN ANNUAL BASIS TO SAILORS BY THE NAVY DENTAL TEAM?

Answer 472

DENTAL EXAMINATION

ASSIGN. 15-1

Question 473

WHEN SEATING THE PATIENT FOR A DENTAL EXAM, WHERE SHOULD THE DENTAL LIGHT BE POSITIONED TO AVOID SHINING THE LIGHT IN THE PATIENT’S EYE.

Answer 473

BENEATH THE PATIENT’S CHIN

ASSIGN. 15-2

Question 474

WHAT IS THE PRIMARY PURPOSDE FOR CONDUCTING ANNUAL DENTAL EXAMINATIONS?

Answer 474

TO ACCESS THE READINESS STATUS OF ACTIVE DUTY PERSONNEL

ASSIGN. 15-3

Question 475

DENTAL EXAMINATIONS ARE CLASSIFIED BY WHAT TOTAL NUMBER OF EXAMINATION TYPES?

Answer 475

FOUR

ASSIGN. 15-4

Question 476

WHAT TYPE OF EXAMINATION IS A COMPREHENSIVE HARD AND SOFT TISSUE EXAMINATION ROUTINELY DONE WITH STUDY MODELS?

Answer 476

TYPE I

ASSIGN. 15-5

Question 477

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PERSONNEL MAY PERFORM A TYPE 4 DENTAL SCREENING EVALUATION?

Answer 477

• A DENTAL OFFICER
• A DENTAL HYGIENIST
• A QUALIFIED DENTAL ASSISTANT

(ASSIGN. 15-6)

Question 478

WHAT FORM SHOULD BE USED TO DOCUMENT THE FINDINGS OF A DENTAL EXAMINATION FOR OVERSEAS SCREENING?

Answer 478

NAVMED 1300/1

ASSIGN. 15-7

Question 479

A MEMBER’S COMMANDING OFFICER CAN APPROVE A MEMBER FOR OVERSEAS ASSIGNMENT EVEN WHEN THE DENTAL OFFICER RECOMMENDS DISAPPROVAL. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 479

TRUE.

ASSIGN. 15-8

Question 480

WHAT DENTAL CLASSIFICATION INDICATES THAT THE PATIENT’S DENTAL CONDITION, IF NOT TREATED OR FOLLOWED UP, COULD HAVE THE POTENTIAL, BUT IS NOT EXPECTED TO, RESULT IN DENTAL EMERGENCIES WITHIN THE NEXT 12 MONTHS?

Answer 480

CLASS 2

ASSIGN. 15-9

Question 481

WHEN RECORDING THE USE OF COPAL VARNISH IN THE DENTAL TREATMENT RECORD, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ABBREVIATIONS SHOULD BE USED?

Answer 481

COP

ASSIGN. 15-10

Question 482

WHAT ABBREVIATION SHOULD BE USED WHEN RECORDING THE PATIENT WAS INFORMED OF EXAMINATION FINDINGS AND TREATMENT PLAN?

Answer 482

PTINF

ASSIGN. 15-11

Question 483

WHEN IDENTIFYING AND LOCATING CARIES OR EXISTING RESTORATIONS, HOW SHOULD AN 8-MID DESIGNATION BE WRITTEN OUT?

Answer 483

MESIAL, INCISAL, DISTAL ASPECTS OF A RIGHT MAXILLARY CENTRAL INCISOR

(ASSIGN. 15-12)

Question 484

WHEN CHARTING THE TOP SECTION OF THE FORENSIC EXAMINATION FORM, WHAT SYMBOL SHOULD BE USED TO INDICATE MISSING TEETH OR TEETH NOT VISIBLE IN THE PATIENT’S MOUTH?

Answer 484

X

ASSIGN. 15-13

Question 485

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TERMS IS OFTEN USED WHEN REFERRING TO A DOUBLE OCCLUSAL RESTORATION?

Answer 485

SNAKE EYES

ASSIGN. 15-14

Question 486

DRAWING AN ARCING LINE THROUGH THE LONG AXIS OF THE TOOTH IS AN EXAMPLE OF A PARTIALLY ERUPTED TOOTH. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 486

TRUE

ASSIGN. 15-15

Question 487

NONMETALLIC RESTORATIONS ARE MADE OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TYPES OF MATERIALS?

Answer 487

• ACRYLIC RESIN
• GLASS IONOMER
• FISSURE SEALANT

(ASSIGN. 15-16)

Question 488

A NONMETALLIC RESTORATION IS ANNOTATED BY DRAWING AN OUTLINE OF THE RESTORATION SHOWING SIZE LOCATION, SHAPE, AND INSCRIBING VERTICAL LINES WITHIN THE OUTLINE. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 488

FALSE

ASSIGN. 15-17

Question 489

WHEN CHARTING A FORENSIC EXAMINATION, WHAT METHOD, IF ANY, SHOULD BE SUED TO DESRIBE THE DIFFERENCES BETWEEN GOLD AND OTHER ALLOY RESTORATIONS?

Answer 489

INDICATE IN THE “REMARKS” SECTIONO THE SPECIFIC RESTORATION ALLOY

(ASSIGN. 15-18)

Question 490

WHEN CHARTING, HOW SHOULD IT BE INDICATED THA TGOLD MATERIAL WAS USED IN A FIXED PARTIAL DENTURE?

Answer 490

INSCRIBE DIAGONAL PARALLEL LINES

ASSIGN. 15-19

Question 491

WHAT PROCEDURE SHOULD BE USED TO CHART THE PRESENCE OF SUPERNUMERARY TEETH?

Answer 491

• INSERT AN “S” IN THE LOCATION ON THE TOOTH NUMBER LINE
• DRAW AN OUTLINE OF THE TOOTH IN ITS APPROXIMATE LOCATION

(ASSIGN. 15-20)

Question 492

THE REMARKS SECTION OF THE FORENSIC DENTAL EXAM IS USED TO DIFFERENTIATE BETWEEN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TYPES OF DENTAL MATERIALS?

Answer 492

• SEALANTS
• TEMPORARIES
• COMPOSITES

(ASSIGN. 15-21)

Question 493

WHAT NUMBER OF ANGLE CLASSIFICATION COULD BE USED ON THE FORENSIC EXAMINATION FORM?

Answer 493

THREE

ASSIGN. 15-22

Question 494

ON THE FORENSIC EXAMINATION, WHAT METHOD SHOULD BE USED TO INDICATE THAT A PATIENT DOES NOT HAVE A SOFT TISSUE CONDITION?

Answer 494

LEAVE BLANK IF A CONDITION DOES NOT EXIST

ASSIGN. 15-23

Question 495

WHERE IN THE OCCLUSION SECTION OF THE FORENSIC EXAMINATION SHOULD THE HM DOCUMENT AND RECORD ANY OTHER OCCLUSAL CONDITIONS NOT LISTED?

Answer 495

REMARKS

ASSIGN. 15-24

Question 496

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING NON-PATHOLOGICAL FINDINGS SHOUDL BE ANNOTATED IN THE “HARD TISSUE REMARKS” SECTION ON THE FORENSIC EXAMINATION FORM?

Answer 496

• TORI
• ROTATED TEETH
• INTRINSIC STAINING

(ASSIGN. 15-25)

Question 497

WHAT PROCEDURE SHOULD BE USED WHEN A PATIENT REQUIRES THE COMPLETION OF A NEW CURRENT STATUS FORM?

Answer 497

TRANSFER THE INFORMATION FROM THE PREVIOUS FORMS TO THE NEW FORM

(ASSIGN. 15-26)

Question 498

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS SHOULD BE ANNOTATED IN PENCIL IN BOX 1 OF THE CURRENT STATUS FORM?

Answer 498

• CARIOUS LESIONS
• PERIRIDICULAR LESIONS
• INDICATIONS FOR ROOT CANAL TREATMENT

(ASSIGN. 15-27)

Question 499

WHAT DOES AN EVEN LINE DRAWN ON THE ROOT OF THE TOOTH INDICATE?

Answer 499

RESORPTION OF THE ROOT

ASSIGN. 15-28

Question 500

PENCIL ENTRIES ARE AUTHORIZED FOR USE IN BOX 2 OF THE CURRENT STATUS FORM. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 500

FALSE

ASSIGN. 15-29

Question 501

IF A MEDICAL ALERT EXISTS, THE WORD “ALERT” IS WRITTEN OR STAMPED IN BOX 3 OF THE CURRENT STATUS FORM IN LARGE RED LETTERS WITH A BRIEF EXPLANATION. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 501

TRUE

ASSIGN. 15-30

Question 502

WHICH DENTAL FORM PROVIDES A RECORD OF INITIAL ACCESSION EXAM AND ALL SUBSEQUENT PERIODIC, ANNUAL, RECALL, AND SEPARATION EXAMS?

Answer 502

EZ603

ASSIGN. 15-31

Question 503

WHAT PART OF THE S.O.A.P. INCLUDES THE REASON FOR THE VISIT AND A STATEMENT OF THE CHIEF COMPLAINT?

Answer 503

SUBJECTIVE

ASSIGN. 15-32

Question 504

WHAT PART OF THE S.O.A.P. IS GENERALLY USED BY THE EXAMINER TO MAKE A DIAGNOSIS?

Answer 504

ASSESSMENT

ASSIGN. 15-33

Question 505

WHICH PART OF THE S.O.A.P. INCLUDES THE PATIENT’S TREATMENT NEEDS?

Answer 505

PLAN

ASSIGN. 15-34

Question 506

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING REFERENCES SHOULD BE USED TO COMPLETE THE DENTAL EXAMINATION FORM?

Answer 506

MANMED, CHAPTER 6

ASSIGN. 15-35

Question 507

THE BACK OF THE EZ603 MAY BE OVERPRINTED WITH A COMMAND SPECIFIC FORMAT. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 507

TRUE.

ASSIGN. 15-36

Question 508

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FORMS SHOULD BE USED TO DOCUMENT DENTAL TREATMENT COMPLETED FROM THE TREATMENT PLAN, DENTAL EMERGENCIES AN DANY OTHER NARRATIVE DENTAL FINDINGS?

Answer 508

EZ603A

ASSIGN. 15-37

Question 509

WHAT COLOR INK SHOULD BE USED FOR THE MEDICAL ALERT ENTRY ON THE EZ603A?

Answer 509

RED

ASSIGN. 15-38

Question 510

WHICH FORM SHOULD BE USED TO RECORD THE DENTAL EXAMINATION COMPLETED IN CONJUNCTION WITH A MEDICAL PHYSICAL?

Answer 510

DD2808

ASSIGN. 15-39

Question 511

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ENTRIES SHOULD BE ANNOTATED IN BOX 44 ON THE REPORT FO THE MEDICAL EXAMINATION FORM?

Answer 511

PATIENT’S DENTAL DEFECTS

ASSIGN. 15-40

Question 512

WHICH FORM SHOULD BE USED TO REFER A PATIENT TO ANOTHER SPECIALIST OR TO MEDICAL FOR FURTHER EVALUATION OR TREATMENT?

Answer 512

SF513

ASSIGN. 15-41

Question 513

WHICH SECTION OF THE CONSULTATION SHEET SHOULD BE LEFT BLANK FOR THE PERSON RECEIVING THE FORM TO DOCUMENT HIS OR HER FINDINGS?

Answer 513

CONSULTATION REPORT

ASSIGN. 15-42

Question 514

THE DENTAL CHAIR SHOULD BE PLACED IN WHICH FO THE FOLLOWING POSITIONS TO DISMISS THE PATIENT?

Answer 514

ARM RAISED, LOWEST, UPRIGHT POSTION

ASSIGN. 15-43

Question 515

WHEN PATIENTS COMPLETE THEIR DENTAL EXAMINATION THEY SHOULD BE DIRECTED TO MAKE FUTURE DENTAL APPOINTMENTS AT WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DEPARTMENTS?

Answer 515

FRONT DESK

ASSIGN. 15-44

Question 516

OPERATIVE DENISTRY IS CONCERNED WITH THE PREVENTION AND TREATMENT OF DEFECTS OF WHAT TOOTH SURFACES?

Answer 516

ENAMEL AND DENTIN

ASSIGN. 16-1

Question 517

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING INSTRUMENTS IS USED PRIMARILY TO REMOVE DEBRIS FROM TOOTH CAVITIES?

Answer 517

SPOON EXCAVATORS

ASSIGN. 16-2

Question 518

AN EVEN-NUMBERED GINGIVAL MARGIN TRIMMER IS DESIGNED FOR USE ON WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TOOTH SURFACES?

Answer 518

DISTAL

ASSIGN. 16-3

Question 519

AN ODD-NUMBERED GINGIVAL MARGIN TRIMMER IS DESIGNATED FOR USE ON WHICH OFHTE FOLLOWING TOOTH SURFACES?

Answer 519

MESIAL

ASSIGN. 16-4

Question 520

WHAT TYPE OF WORKING END DOES AN MALGAM CARRIER HAVE FOR TRANSPORTATION?

Answer 520

HOLLOW

ASSIGN. 16-5

Question 521

AN AMALGAM CONDENSER IS OFTEN REFERRED TO AS WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING INSTRUMENTS?

Answer 521

PLUGGERS

ASSIGN. 16-6

Question 522

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING INSTRUMENTS IS DESIGNED FOR CARVING ALL INTERPROXIMAL TOOTH SURFACES?

Answer 522

HOLLENBACK #1/2

ASSIGN. 16-7

Question 523

WHAT IS AN ADVANTAGE OF USING A PLASTIC INSTRUMENT FOR PLACING COMPOSITE RESTORATIONS?

Answer 523

WILL NOT DISCOLOR

ASSIGN. 16-8

Question 524

WHAT NUMBER SPATULA IS USED TO MIX SMALL QUANTITIES OF CEMENT?

Answer 524

313

ASSIGN. 16-9

Question 525

WHAT LENGTH NEEDLE MEASURED IN INCHES, IS NORMALLY USED FOR MANDIBULAR INJECTIONS?

Answer 525

1 7/8

ASSIGN. 16-10

Question 526

THE WORKING END OF A RUBBER DAM PUNCH IS DESIGNED WITH WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MECHANISMS?

Answer 526

PLUNGER AND WHEEL

ASSIGN. 16-11

Question 527

A “W” PREFIX ON A RUBGER DAM CLAMP INDICATES WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DESIGNS?

Answer 527

WITHOUT WINGS

ASSIGN. 16-12

Question 528

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING RUBBER DAM FRAMES IS THE MOST POPULAR?

Answer 528

YOUNG

ASSIGN. 16-13

Question 529

WHAT TYPE OF MATERIAL IS ALWAYS TIED AROUND A RUBBER DAM CLAMP BEFORE PLACEMENT IN THE MOUTH?

Answer 529

DENTAL FLOSS

ASSIGN. 16-14

Question 530

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TYPES OF MATRIX BANDS IS MOST COMMONLY USED IN RESTORATIVE DENTISTRY?

Answer 530

STRAIGHT #1

ASSIGN. 16-15

Question 531

EXTENSIONS ON THE WIDE #2 MATRIX BANDS ARE KNOWN BY WHICH TERM?

Answer 531

APRONS

ASSIGN. 16-16

Question 532

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE MSOT COMMONLY USED MATRIX RETAINER?

Answer 532

UNIVERSAL ADULT

ASSIGN. 16-17

Question 533

WOOD OR CLEAR PLASTIC WEDGES MEASURE ABOUT HOW LONG IN LENGTH?

Answer 533

1/2 INCH

ASSIGN. 16-18

Question 534

THE OPERATOR’S ZONE FOR A RIGHT HANDED DENTIST IS LOCATED BETWEEN WHICH POSITIONS?

Answer 534

8 AND 11 O’CLOCK

ASSIGN. 16-19

Question 535

THE ASSISTANT’S ZONE FOR A RIGHT HANDED DENTIST IS LOCATED BETWEEN WHICH POSITIONS?

Answer 535

2 AND 4 O’CLOCK

ASSIGN. 16-20

Question 536

THE TRANSFER ZONE IS LOCATED BETWEEN WHICH POSITIONS?

Answer 536

4 AND 8 O’CLOCK

ASSIGN. 16-21

Question 537

THE STATIC ZONE IS LOCATED BETWEEN WHICH POSITIONS?

Answer 537

11 AND 2 O’CLOCK

ASSIGN. 16-22

Question 538

HOW MANY INCHES SHOULD THE DENTIST’S EYE BE AWAY FROM THE TREATMENT SITE IF THE PATIENT IS PROPERLY POSITIONED?

Answer 538

14 TO 16

ASSIGN. 16-23

Question 539

IN WHAT ZONE WILL THE INSTRUMENT EXCHANGE BETWEEN THE DENTIST AND THE ASSISTANT TAKE PLACE?

Answer 539

TRANSFER

ASSIGN. 16-24

Question 540

DENTAL MATERIAL IS EXCHANGED BETWEEN THE DENTIST AND THE ASSISTANT IN WHAT ZONE?

Answer 540

TRANSFER

ASSIGN. 16-25

Question 541

THE NEEDLE END OF A CARPULE IS SEALED WITH A RUBBER MEMBRANE HELD IN PLACE BY WHAT TYPE OF MATERIAL?

Answer 541

METAL BAND

ASSIGN. 16-26

Question 542

IF YOU MLUST RECAP A NEEDLE, WHAT TECHNIQUE SHOULD BE USED?

Answer 542

ONE HANDED SCOOP

ASSIGN. 16-27

Question 543

WHAT DEVICE IS USED TO REMOVE BLOOD, PUS, SALIVA, AND DEBRIS FROM THE ORAL CAVITY?

Answer 543

HIGH VOLUME EVACUATOR

ASSIGN. 16-28

Question 544

WHAT TYPE OF CAVITY IS PRESENT WHEN THREE OR MORE SURFACES ARE INVOLVED?

Answer 544

COMPLEX

ASSIGN. 16-29

Question 545

WHEN DENTIST HAS FINISHED REMOVING THE TOOTH STRUCTURE IN A CAVITY PREPARATION, WHAT TYPE OF FEELING WILL THE DENTIN HAVE WHEN FELT BY AN EXPLORER?

Answer 545

FIRM

ASSIGN. 16-30

Question 546

WHAT IS THE LAST CUTTING STEP IN THE PREPARATION OF A CAVITY?

Answer 546

FINISHING THE ENAMEL WALLS

ASSIGN. 16-31

Question 547

STUBBORN PARTICLES OF DEBRIS MAY BE REMOVED FROM A CAVITY PREPARATION BY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MATERIALS DAMPENED WITH WATER OR HYDROGEN PEROXIDE?

Answer 547

SMALL COTTON PELLET

ASSIGN. 16-32

Question 548

WHAT TWO MATERIALS ARE USED IN A CAVITY PREPARATION TO PROTECT THE PULP?

Answer 548

BASES AND CAVITY LINERS

ASSIGN. 16-33

Question 549

WHAT MATERIAL IS USED TO SEAL THE DENTINAL TUBULES TO HELP PREVENT MICROLEAKAGE IN A CAVITY PREPARATION?

Answer 549

CAVITY VARNISH

ASSIGN. 16-34

Question 550

WHAT INSTRUMENT WILL THE DENTIST USE TO BRING ANY EXCESS MERCURY FROM THE AMALGAM TO THE TOP OF THE RESTORATION?

Answer 550

BURNISHER

ASSIGN. 16-35

Question 551

WHAT BUMED INSTRUCTION CONTAINS INFORMATION OF THE MERCURY CONTROL PROGRAM (MCP)?

Answer 551

6260.30

ASSIGN. 16-36

Question 552

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MATERIALS MAY BE USED TO REMOVE ROUGHNESS OR OVER HANGING AMALGAM IN THE PROXIMAL AREA?

Answer 552

METAL FILING STRIP

ASSIGN. 16-37

Question 553

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING COMPOSITE RESINS IS AVAILABLE FOR USE IN OPERATIVE DENTISTRY?

Answer 553

• HYBRID
• MACROFILLED
• MICROFILLED

(ASSIGN. 16-38)

Question 554

WHAT COMPOSITE SHADE WILL APPEAR IF THE TOOTH BECOMES DEHYDRATED?

Answer 554

LIGHTER

ASSIGN. 16-39

Question 555

WHAT TYPE OF MATRIX MAY BE PLACED ON THE TOOTH BEFORE THE ACID PROCEDURE BEGINS?

Answer 555

CELLUOID

ASSIGN. 16-40

Question 556

GLASS IONOMER CEMENT WILL BOND DIRECTLY WITH WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TOOTH SURFACES?

Answer 556

• ENAMEL
• DENTIN
• CEMENTUM

(ASSIGN. 16-41)

Question 557

WHICH SCIENTIST FIRST DISCOVERED X-RAYS?

Answer 557

WILHELM KONRAD ROENTGEN

ASSIGN. 17-1

Question 558

WHAT IS THE NAME OF TH ETUBE THAT WAS DISCOVERED IN 1895?

Answer 558

CROOKE’S TUBE

ASSIGN. 17-2

Question 559

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A CHARACTERISTIC PROPERTY OF X-RAYS?

Answer 559

THEY TRAVEL AT THE SPEED OF SOUND

ASSIGN. 17-3

Question 560

THE RULE THAT APPLIES TO THE PRINCIPLE OF THE RADIATION SAFETY IS _____?

Answer 560

ALARA

ASSIGN. 17-4

Question 561

WHEN TAKING RADIOGRAPHS ALWAYS DRAPE THE PATIENT WITH A LEAD APRON. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 561

TRUE.

ASSIGN. 17-5

Question 562

THE TIME SETTING ON THE X-RAY MACHINE IS MEASURED BY USING WHICH FO THE FOLLOWING METHODS?

Answer 562

FRACTIONS OF A SECOND OR MILLIAMPERES

ASSIGN. 17-6

Question 563

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTION IS MOST IMPORTANT WHEN ORDERING RADIOGRAPHS FOR FEMALE PATIENTS?

Answer 563

ASK THE PATIENT IF SHE IS PREGNANT

ASSIGN. 17-7

Question 564

THE FILM BADGE SHOULD BE PLACED BEHIND THE LEAD-LINED BARRIER AT LEAST WHAT NUMBER OF FEET FROM THE TUBE HEAD?

Answer 564

6

ASSIGN. 17-8

Question 565

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A SAFETY PRECAUTION FOR TAKING RADIOGRAPHS?

Answer 565

HOLD THE FILM PACKET IN THE PATIENT’S MOUTH DURING EXPOSURE IF NECESSARY

(ASSIGN. 17-9)

Question 566

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PERSONNEL ARE AUTHORIZED TO ORDER AND DIAGNOSTICALLY INTERPRET DENTAL RADIOGRAPHS?

Answer 566

DENTAL OFFICERS

ASSIGN. 17-10

Question 567

HOW OFTEN SHOULD THE SURFACES IN THE DARK ROOM BE DISINFECTED?

Answer 567

DAILY

ASSIGN. 17-11

Question 568

OF THE FOLLOWING PERSONNEL WHO IS NOT ALLOWED TO ORDER RADIOGRAPHS?

Answer 568

HM

ASSIGN. 17-12

Question 569

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE INDICATION FOR A PA OF THE CHEST, EXCEPT?

Answer 569

RASH AND STREAKING

ASSIGN. 17-13

Question 570

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ORGANS WILL NOT BE SEEN IN A KUB RADIOGRAPH?

Answer 570

LIVER

ASSIGN. 17-14

Question 571

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STRUCTURES WILL BE SEEN IN THE AP PROJECTION OF THE CERVICAL SPINE?

Answer 571

C3-T1

ASSIGN. 17-15

Question 572

A PATIENT PRESENTING WITH CHRONIC CERVICAL SPINE PAIN SHOULD BE ORDERED WHAT TYPE OF RADIOGRAPH?

Answer 572

AP CERVICAL SPINE

ASSIGN. 17-16

Question 573

AT APPROXIMATELY WHAT ANGLE SHOULD THE ANKLE BE WHEN TAKING AN OBLIQUE RADIOGRAPH?

Answer 573

90

ASSIGN. 17-17

Question 574

WHAT SHOULD BE SHIELDED WHEN YOU ARE TAKING AN X-RAY?

Answer 574

REPRODUCTIVE ORGANS

ASSIGN. 17-18

Question 575

THE PARALLELING DEVICE CONSISTS OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PARTS?

Answer 575

ALL OF THE ABOVE:

• A LOCATOR RING
• AN INDICATOR ROD
• A BITE BLOCK

(ASSIGN. 17-19)

Question 576

THE BISECTING ANGLE TECHNIQUE IS THE PREFERRED METHOD AND RECOMMENDED FOR ROUTINE USE WHEN TAKING PERIAPICAL RADIOGRAPHS. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 576

FALSE

ASSIGN. 17-20

Question 577

WHEN TAKING RADIOGRAPHS, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FACTORS SHOULD YOU CONSIDER BEFORE USING THE BISECTING-ANGLE TECHNIQUE?

Answer 577

ALL OF THE ABOVE:

• THERE ARE NO PARALLELING DEVICES AVAILABLE
• THE PATIENT CANNOT CLSOE MOUTH ON BITE BLOCK
• THE PATIENT HAS RUBBER DAM IN PLACE

(ASSIGN. 17-21)

Question 578

WHAT LANDMARK IS USED WHEN EXPOSING TH EMAXILLARY BICUSPID AREA?

Answer 578

BELOW THE PUPIL OF THE EYE

ASSIGN. 17-22

Question 579

THE POSITION OF THE PATIENT’S MID SAGITTAL PLANE MUST BE PERPENDICULAR TO THE FLOOR WHEN EXPOSING A PERIAPICAL RADIOGRAPH USING THE BISECTING-ANGLE TECHNIQUE. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 579

TRUE

ASSIGN. 17-23

Question 580

THE OCCLUSAL FILM PACKET CONTAINS TWO X-RAY FILMS. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 580

TRUE

ASSIGN. 17-24

Question 581

WHAT X-RAY MACHINE SETTINGS SHOULD YOU USE WHEN EXPOSING A MAXILLARY OCCLUSAL RADIOGRAPH ON AN ADULT?

Answer 581

10 mA, 90 KVp, AND 60 IMPULSES

ASSIGN. 17-25

Question 582

WHAT VERTICAL ANGULATION SETTING SHOULD YOU USE WHEN EXPOSING A MAXILLARY ANTERIOR OCCLUSAL RADIOGRAPH?

Answer 582

+65 DEGREES

ASSIGN. 17-26

Question 583

WHEN EXPOSING A MAXILLARY POSTERIOR OCCLUSAL RADIOGRAPH, YOU SHOULD USE WHA TVERTICAL ANGULATION SETTING?

Answer 583

+75 DEGREES

ASSIGN. 17-27

Question 584

WHEN EXPOSING A MANDIBULAR ANTERIOR OCCLUSAL RADIOGRAPH, WHAT VERTICAL ANGULATION SHOULD YOU USE?

Answer 584

-10 DEGREES

ASSIGN. 17-28

Question 585

A SAFE LIGHT IS THE ONLY SAFE SOURCE OF ILLUMINATION USED IN THE DARKROOM WHEN PROCESSING RADIOGRAPHS. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 585

TRUE

ASSIGN. 17-29

Question 586

WHEN CHECKING FOR LIGHT LEAKS IN THE DARKROOM, YOU SHOULD LEAVE THE PENNY ON THE X-RAY FILM FOR AT LEAST WHAT NUMBER OF MINUTES?

Answer 586

FIVE

ASSIGN. 17-30

Question 587

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING METHODS IS MOST COMMONLY USED TO PROCESS DENTAL RADIOGRAPHS IN THE NAVY?

Answer 587

AUTOMATIC PROCESSING

ASSIGN. 17-31

Question 588

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROCEDURES SHOULD BE INCLUDED IN THE DAILY MAINTENANCE OF THE X-RAY MACHINE?

Answer 588

DUSTING

ASSIGN. 17-32

Question 589

YOU HSOULD WAIT WHAT NUMBER SECONDS BETWEEN FILMS BEFORE INSERTING ANOTHER FILM INTO THE AUTOMATIC PROCESSOR?

Answer 589

15

ASSIGN. 17-33

Question 590

THE DEVELOPER AND FIXER SOLUTIONS IN THE AUTOMATIC PROCESSOR SHOULD BE CHANGED AT WHAT MINIMUM FREQUENCIES?

Answer 590

EVERY 3 TO 4 WEEKS

ASSIGN. 17-34

Question 591

THE PROCESSING SOLUTIONS USED IN THE AUTOMATIC PROCESSOR ARE THE SAME AS THOSE USEED IN THE MANUAL PROCESSING PROCEDURE. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 591

FALSE

ASSIGN. 17-35

Question 592

THE CLEANING OF THE ROLLER TRANSPORTS AN DTHE SOLUTIONS IN THE AUTOMATIC PROCESSOR ARE ACCOMPLISHED AT WHAT MINIMUM INTERVALS?

Answer 592

MONTHLY

ASSIGN. 17-36

Question 593

WHICH TEETH CAN BE IDENTIFIED RADIOGRAPHICALLY BY A LARGE WHITE REGION CAUSED BY THE BONE OF THE NASAL SEPTUM?

Answer 593

MAXILLARY INCISORS

ASSIGN. 17-37

Question 594

WHEN MOUNTING RADIOGRAPHS, THE RAISED DIMPLE SHOULD BE FACING YOU. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 594

TRUE

ASSIGN. 17-38

Question 595

YOU SHOULD ATTEMPT TO COMPLETE ALL X-RAY REPAIRS YOURSELF. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 595

FALSE

ASSIGN. 17-39

Question 596

PHARMACOLOGY IS A BASIC MEDICAL SCIENCE THAT DEALS WITH THE STUDY OF WHICH SPECIALTY?

Answer 596

DRUGS

ASSIGN. 18-1

Question 597

THE BRANCH OF PHARMACOLOGY THAT DEALS WITH THE PREPARATION, DISPENSING, AND PROPER USE MEDICATIONS IS?

Answer 597

PHARMACY

ASSIGN. 18-2

Question 598

THE ACTUAL TITLE OF THE “BLUE BIBLE” OF PHARMACOLOGY IS?

Answer 598

REMINGTON’S THE SCIENCE AND PRACTICE OF PHARMACY

ASSIGN. 18-3

Question 599

THE AMOUNT OF MEDICATION ADMINISTERED IS REFERRED TO AS WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?

Answer 599

DOSE

ASSIGN. 18-4

Question 600

THE MINIMUMAND MAXIMUM AMOUNT OF A DRUG REQUUIRED TO PRODUCE THE DESIRED EFFECT IS REFERRED TO BY WHAT TERM?

Answer 600

DOSAGE RANGE

ASSIGN. 18-5

Question 601

WHAT DOSE REFERS TO THE LEAST AMOUNT OF AT DRUG THAT CAN CAUSE DEATH?

Answer 601

MINIMUM LETHAL

ASSIGN. 18-6

Question 602

THE MOST COMMON FACTOR INFLUENCING THE AMOUNT OF DRUG GIVEN TO A PATIENT IS?

Answer 602

AGE

ASSIGN. 18-7

Question 603

WHAT TWO PRIMARY FACTORS, IF ANY, DETERMINE A DOSE?

Answer 603

AGE AND WEIGHT

ASSIGN. 18-8

Question 604

WHAT IS THE PROPER DOSE IN MILLILITERS OF AMPICILLIN FOR AND 8-YEAR OLD CHILDE IF THE ADULT IS 15 ml?

Answer 604

8/(12+8) x 15 mL = 8/20 x 15 mL
= 2/5 x 15 mL

           ANSWER = 6 mL

(ASSIGN. 18-9)

Question 605

WHAT IS THE NAME OF THE RULE USED TO DETERMINE APPROPRIATE DOSAGE OF MEDICATION BASED ON A CHILD’S WEIGHT?

Answer 605

CLARK’S RULE

ASSIGN. 18-10

Question 606

DETERMINE THE APPROPRIATE DOSE IN MILLIGRAMS OF MEDICATION FOR A CHILD WEIGHING 30 POUNDS IF THE AVERAGE DOSE FOR AN ADULT IS 600 mg.

Answer 606

30/150 x 600 = 600/5
= 120 mg

(ASSIGN. 18-11)

Question 607

IN COMPUTING THE AMOUNT OF DRUG TO BE GIVEN TO AN UNDERWEIGHT FEMALE, WHAT ADJUSTMENTS TO THE NORMAL DOSAGE WOULD ORDINARILY BE MADE?

Answer 607

DECREASE THE DOSAGE BECAUSE OF HER SEX AND FURTHER DECREASE BECAUSE OF HER WEIGHT

(ASSIGN. 18-12)

Question 608

A DRUG GIVEN CONTINUOUSLY TO A PATIENT OFTEN HAS TO BE INCREASED IN DOSAGE TO MAINTAIN THE DESIRED EFFECT. THE NEED FOR A LARGER DOSE IS PROBABLY CAUSED BY _____?

Answer 608

A CUMULATIVE EFFECT FROM HABITUAL USE

ASSIGN. 18-13

Question 609

THE MOST COMMON METHOD OF ADMINISTERING MEDICATIONS IS _____.

Answer 609

ORALLY

ASSIGN. 18-14

Question 610

WHAT TERM IS USED TO DEFINE A MEDICATION THAT IS PLACED UNDER THE TONGUE?

Answer 610

SUBLINGUAL

ASSIGN. 18-15

Question 611

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN EXAMPLE OF A DRUG INJECTED INTRADERMALLY?

Answer 611

PURIFIED PROTEIN DERIVATIVE

ASSIGN. 18-16

Question 612

WHAT TECHNIQUE INTRODUCES A DRUG DIRECTLY INTO A VEIN?

Answer 612

INTRAVENOUS

ASSIGN. 18-17

Question 613

INWHAT FORM ARE MEDICATIONS INTRODUCED INTO THE BODY THROUGH INHALATION?

Answer 613

GAS

ASSIGN. 18-18

Question 614

NORMALLY HOW MANY NAMES DO MEDICATIONS HAVE?

Answer 614

THREE

ASSIGN. 18-19

Question 615

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A WAY DRUGS ARE GROUPED?

Answer 615

BY THEIR BRAND NAMES

ASSIGN. 18-20

Question 616

ALUMINUM ACETATE, AN ASTRINGENT, IS OFTEN USED TO TREAT WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS?

Answer 616

ALL OF THE ABOVE:

• ATHLETES FOOT
• EXTERNAL OTITIS
• POION IVY

(ASSIGN. 18-21)

Question 617

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A BRONCHOMUTROPIC AGENT?

Answer 617

GUAIFENESIN

ASSIGN. 18-22

Question 618

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A CHARACTERISTIC SIDE EFFECT OF ANTIHISTAMINES?

Answer 618

DROWSINESS

ASSIGN. 18-23

Question 619

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MEDICATIONS IS ADMINISTERED TO CONTROL MOTION SICKNESS?

Answer 619

MECLIZINE HYDROCHLORIDE

ASSIGN. 18-24

Question 620

IN CONJUNCTION WITH ANTACIDS, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS USED TO TREAT DUODENAL ULCERS?

Answer 620

RANITIDINE

ASSIGN. 18-25

Question 621

THE DRUG GROUP MOST OFTEN USED TO TREAT DYSPEPSIA IS ______?

Answer 621

ANTACIDS

ASSIGN. 18-26

Question 622

IN ADDITION TO BEING AN ANTACID, MAGNESIUM HYDROXIDE MAY BE USED AS A/AN _____?

Answer 622

LAXATIVE

ASSIGN. 18-27

Question 623

THE STANDARD BY WHICH ALL OTHER ANTISEPTICS ARE MEASURED IS _____?

Answer 623

PHENOL

ASSIGN. 18-28

Question 624

THE PRIMARY PHARMACOLOGICAL ACTION OF SULFONAMIDES IS _____?

Answer 624

BACTERIOSTATIC

ASSIGN. 18-29

Question 625

THE MOST COMMON USE FOR SYSTEMIC SULFONAMIDES IS IN THE TREATMENT OF WHICH OF THE CONDITIONS LISTED BELOW?

Answer 625

URINARY TRACT INFECTIONS

ASSIGN. 18-30

Question 626

SILVER SULFADIAZINE IS USED ALMOST EXCLUSIVELY IN THE TREATMENT OF _____?

Answer 626

BURNS

ASSIGN. 18-31

Question 627

THE DRUG OF CHOICE FOR UNCOMPLICATED GROUP A BETA-HEMOLYTIC STREPTOCOCCAL PHARYNGITIS IS _____?

Answer 627

PENICILLIN V POTASSIUM

ASSIGN. 18-32

Question 628

PATIENT SENSITIVE TO PENICILLIN MAY ALSO EXHIBIT SENSITIVITY TO CEPHALO SPORINS. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 628

TRUE

ASSIGN. 18-33

Question 629

MILK OR MILK PRODUCTS MAY INTERFERE WITH THE ABSORPTION OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DRUGS?

Answer 629

TETRACYCLINE HYDROCHLORIDE

ASSIGN. 18-34

Question 630

MACROLIDES ARE EFFECTIVE AGAINS WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ORGANISMS?

Answer 630

GRAM-POSITIVE COCCI

ASSIGN. 18-35

Question 631

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN APPROPRIATE SUBSTITUTE FOR PENICILLIN WHEN PENICILLIN IS CONTRAINDICATED?

Answer 631

ERYTHROMYCIN

ASSIGN. 18-36

Question 632

UNDECLYENIC ACID IS USED AS A/AN _____?

Answer 632

ANTIFUNGAL

ASSIGN. 18-37

Question 633

SUPPLEMENTAL POTASSIUM MAY BE REQUIRED WITH WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CATEGORIES OF DRUGS?

Answer 633

DIURETICS

ASSIGN. 18-38

Question 634

THE DRUG OF CHOICE FOE THE TREATMENT AND MANAGEMENT OF GRAND MAL SEIZURES IS _____?

Answer 634

PHENYTOIN SODIUM

ASSIGN. 18-39

Question 635

PROCHLORPERIZINE I SUSED MAINLY TO _____?

Answer 635

TREAT SYMPTOMS OF NAUSEA AND VOMITING

ASSIGN. 18-40

Question 636

MUSCLE RELAXANTS INCLUDE ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT ____?

Answer 636

METHYLPHENIDATE

ASSIGN. 18-41

Question 637

WATER-SOLUBLE VITAMINS ARE NOT EXCRETED IN THE URINE AND ARE STORED IN THE BODY IN MODERATE AMOUNTS. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 637

FALSE

ASSIGN. 18-42

Question 638

THE VITAMIN DEFICIENCY ASSOCIATED WITH NIGHT BLINDNESS IS _____?

Answer 638

VITAMIN A

ASSIGN. 18-43

Question 639

THE AGENT USED TO TREAT PERNICIOUS ANEMIA IS _____?

Answer 639

CYANOCOBALAMIN

ASSIGN. 18-44

Question 640

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE VITAMIN INVOLVED IN ABSORPTION AND USE OF CALCIUM AND PHOSPHOROUS?

Answer 640

VITAMIN D

ASSIGN. 18-45

Question 641

THE CORRECT ABBREVIATIONS FOR THE METRIC SYSTEMS OF PRIMARY UNITS OF MEASURE FOR WEIGHT, VOLUME, AND LINEAR DIMENSIONS ARE _____?

Answer 641

• GRAMS (g)
• LITERS (L)
• METERS (m)

(ASSIGN. 18-46)

Question 642

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS EQUAL TO ONE-HUNDREDTH OF A LITER?

Answer 642

CENTILITER

ASSIGN. 18-47

Question 643

A PRESCRIPTION REQUIRES TWO OUNCES OF A SUBSTANCE SUPPLIED IN LITERS. HOW MANY MILLILITERS ARE REQUIRED TO FILL THE PRESCRIPTION?

Answer 643

3.8 L/GAL x 1 GAL/128 oz. = 3800 mL/128 oz. x 2 = 60 mL

ASSIGN. 18-48

Question 644

YOU HAVE 360 GRAMS OF A COMPOUND. IF 54 GRAMS OF THE COMPOUND IS SILVER NITRATE, WHAT IS THE PERCENTAGE STRENGTH OF SILVER NITRATE?

Answer 644

54/360 x 100 = 15%

ASSIGN. 18-49

Question 645

ALL PHARMACIES THAT DISPENSE PRESCRIPTIONS ARE REQUIRED TO HAVE WHAT CLASS BALANCE?

Answer 645

CLASS A

ASSIGN. 18-50

Question 646

WHAT DRUG INCOMPATIBILITY OCCURS WHEN AGENTS ANTAGONISTIC TO WONE ANOTHER ARE PRESCRIBED TOGETHER?

Answer 646

THERAPEUTIC

ASSIGN. 18-51

Question 647

EUTEXIA IS AN EXAMPLE OF WHAT TYPE OF DRUG INCOMPATIBILITY MANIFESTATION?

Answer 647

PHYSICAL

ASSIGN. 18-52

Question 648

A PROPERLY ADMINISTERED DRUG DOSAGE THAT HAS AN UNINTENDED OR HARMFUL EFFECT ON THE PATIENT IS THE DEFINITION OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TERMS?

Answer 648

ADVERSE REACTION

ASSIGN. 18-53

Question 649

WHAT CHAPTER OF THE MANUAL OF THE MEDICAL DEPARTMENT GIVES GUIDANCE ON PHARMACY OPERATIONS AND DRUG CONTROL?

Answer 649

21

ASSIGN. 18-54

Question 650

WHAT DD FORM IS USED TO PRESCRIBE CONTROLLED AND NONCONTROLLED MEDICATIONS?

Answer 650

FORM DD 1289

ASSIGN. 18-55

Question 651

IN THE PRESCRIPTION BLOCK OF DD FORM 1289, WHAT PART LISTS THE NAME AND QUANTITY OF THE INGREDIENTS PRESCRIBED?

Answer 651

INSCRIPTION

ASSIGN. 18-56

Question 652

IF, IN THE COURSE OF FILLING A PRESCRIPTION, THE HM FEELS THAT THERE MAY BE A DISCREPANCY OR INCOMPATIBILITY, THE HM SHOUL DTAKE WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ACTIONS?

Answer 652

CONSULT THE PRESCRIBER TO VERIFY THE PRESCRIPTION BEFORE FILLING

(ASSIGN. 18-57)

Question 653

WHAT TYPES OF PRESCRIPTION MEDICATION HAVE THE POTENTIAL FOR ABUSE?

Answer 653

CONTROLLED

ASSIGN. 18-58

Question 654

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A SCHEDULE III MEDICATION?

Answer 654

NON-BARBITUATE SEDATIVE

ASSIGN. 18-59

Question 655

WHAT SCHEDULE OF MEDICATIONS CAN NEVER BE ORDERED WITH REFILLS?

Answer 655

SCHEDULE II

ASSIGN. 18-60

Question 656

HOW MANY BOARD MEMBERS ARE ON THE CONTROLLED SUBSTANCE INVENTORY BOARD?

Answer 656

THREE

ASSIGN. 18-61

Question 657

CONTROLLED SUBSTANCES MUST BE INVENTORIED AT LEAST?

Answer 657

QUARTERLY

ASSIGN. 18-62

Question 658

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS CONSIDERED THE PREFERRED SOURCE FOR BLOOD SPECIMENS OBTAINED FOR CLINICAL EXAMINATION?

Answer 658

VENIPUNCTURE

ASSIGN. 19-1

Question 659

WHEN PERFORMING A FINGER PUNCTURE, THE FIRST DROP SHOULD BE WIPED AWAY TO AVOID WHICH FO THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS?

Answer 659

DILUTION OF THE SPECIMEN WITH TISSUE FLUIDS

ASSIGN. 19-2

Question 660

HOW FAR ABOVE THE PHLEBOTOMY SITE SHOULD THE TOURNIQUET BE PLACED?

Answer 660

3-4 INCHES ABOVE THE SITE

ASSIGN. 19-3

Question 661

THE CORRECT NEEDLE POSITION FOR VENIPUNCTURE IS (A) WHAT DEGREE ANGLE AND (B) WITH THE BEVEL IN WHAT POSITION?

Answer 661

(A) 15-30
(B) UP

(ASSIGN. 19-4)

Question 662

A TOURNIQUET IS NORMALLY APPLIED BEFORE TO AID IN THE PROCESS OF VENIPUNCTURE AT WHAT POINT IN TH EVENIPUNCTURE PROCEDURE SHOULD THE TOURNIQUET BE REMOVED?

Answer 662

ONCE BLOOD FLOWS FREELY INTO TUBES

ASSIGN. 19-5

Question 663

WHEN SHOULD SPECIMENS BE LABELED?

Answer 663

BEFORE LEAVING PATIENT

ASSIGN. 19-6

Question 664

WHICH COLOR TUBE IS THE BEST CHOICE FOR ROUTINE CHEMISTRY TESTS?

Answer 664

RED TOP

ASSIGN. 19-7

Question 665

WHICH COLOR TUBE IS THE BEST CHOICE FOR A CBC?

Answer 665

LAVENDER TOP

ASSIGN. 19-8

Question 666

THE PART OF THE MICROSCOPE ON WHICH THE PREPARED SPECIMEN IS PLACED FOR EXAMINATION IS CALLED THE _____.

Answer 666

MECHANICAL STAGE

ASSIGN. 19-9

Question 667

WHAT OBJECTIVE SHOULD BE USED FOR A DETAILED SUTDY. OF STAINED BACTERIAL SMEARS?

Answer 667

OIL IMMERSION

ASSIGN. 19-10

Question 668

A COMPLETE BLOOD COUNT INCLUDES WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?

Answer 668

• TOTAL RBC COUNT
• HEATOCRIT
• DIFFERENTIAL WBC COUNT

(ASSIGN. 19-11)

Question 669

THE FUNCTION OF HEMOGLOBIN IN THE BODY IS TO _____?

Answer 669

TRANSPORT OXYGEN TO THE TISSUES

ASSIGN. 19-12

Question 670

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FACTORS AFFECT THE HEMOGLOBIN VALUES?

Answer 670

• AGE
• SEX
• ALTITUDE

(ASSIGN. 19-13)

Question 671

A LOW RBC COUNT MAY INDICATE THAT THE PATIENT HAS WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING LISTED CONDITIONS?

Answer 671

ANEMIA

ASSIGN. 19-14

Question 672

THE NORMAL VALUE FOR MALE HEMOGLOBIN IS ____?

Answer 672

14-18

ASSIGN. 19-15

Question 673

WHAT IS THE TERM USED FOR THE VOLUME OF ERYTHROCYTES EXPRESSED AS A PERCENTAGE OF THE VOLUME OF WHOLE BLOOD IN A SAMPLE?

Answer 673

HEMATOCRIT

ASSIGN. 19-16

Question 674

HEMATOCRIT FOR A NORMAL, HEALTHY FEMALE IS WITHIN WHAT RANGE?

Answer 674

37-47 PERCENT

ASSIGN. 19-17

Question 675

SELECT THE TERM USED TO DESCRIBE AN ABNORMALLY HIGH WBC COUNT.

Answer 675

LEUKOCYTOSIS

ASSIGN. 19-18

Question 676

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS MAY CAUSE LEUKOPENIA?

Answer 676

EACH OF THE ABOVE:

• RADIATION
• PSITTACOSIS
• ANAPHYLACTIC SHOCK

(ASSIGN. 19-19)

Question 677

WHICH STUDY WITHIN A CBC OFTEN PROVIDES THE MOST HELPFUL INFORMATION IN DETERMINING THESEVERITY AND TYPE OF INFECTION?

Answer 677

WBC DIFFERENTIAL

ASSIGN. 19-20

Question 678

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF LEUKOCYTES?

Answer 678

TO CONTROL VARIOUS DISEASE CONDITIONS

ASSIGN. 19-21

Question 679

WHAT TYPE OF LEUKOCYTE COMPRISED THE LARGEST PERCENTAGE OF CELLS IN THE CIRCULATING BLOOD?

Answer 679

NEUTROPHIL

ASSIGN. 19-22

Question 680

WHICH LEUKOCYTE FUNCTIONS BY INGESTING INVADING BACTERIA?

Answer 680

NEUTROPHIL

ASSIGN. 19-23

Question 681

WHICH LEUKOCYTE HELPS RESPOND TO PARASITIC INFECTIONS?

Answer 681

EOSINOPHIL

ASSIGN. 19-24

Question 682

WHEN PERFORMING A WBC DIFFERENTIAL, HWICH CELL HAS THE LARGE, SCATTERED DARK BLUE GRANULES THAT ARE DARKER THAN THE NUCLEUS?

Answer 682

BASOPHILS

ASSIGN. 19-25

Question 683

WHICH LEUKOCYTE FIGHTS VIRAL INFECTIONS?

Answer 683

LYMPHOCYTE

ASSIGN. 19-26

Question 684

THE LARGEST OF THE NORMAL WBC’S IS THE _____?

Answer 684

MONOCYTE

ASSIGN. 19-27

Question 685

WHAT IS THE TERM USED FOR BACTERIA THAT CUSE DISEASE?

Answer 685

PATHOGEN

ASSIGN. 19-28

Question 686

THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN ANAEROBES AND AEROBES IS THAT ANAEROBES NEED OXYGEN TO REPRODUCE. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 686

FALSE

ASSIGN. 19-29

Question 687

WHAT IS TH ETERM USED TO DEFINE BACTERIA THAT ARE ROUND IN SHAPE?

Answer 687

COCCI

ASSIGN. 19-30

Question 688

IN THE GRAM’S STAIN, WHAT IS THE PRIMARY STAIN?

Answer 688

CRYSTAL VIOLET

ASSIGN. 19-31

Question 689

GRAM POSITIVE BACTERIA STAIN WHAT COLOR?

Answer 689

DEEP BLUE OR PURPLE

ASSIGN. 19-32

Question 690

WHICH BACTERIA CAUSES STREP THROAT?

Answer 690

STREPTOCOCCUS PYOGENES

ASSIGN. 19-33

Question 691

WHICH BACTERIA CAUSES GONORRHEA?

Answer 691

NEISSERIA GONORRHOEAE

ASSIGN. 19-34

Question 692

WHICH BACTERIA CAUSES TETANUS?

Answer 692

CLOSTRIDIUM TETANI

ASSIGN. 19-35

Question 693

WHAT IS THE TERM USED FOR A SUBSTANCE THAT, WHEN INTRODUCED INTO AN INDIVIDUAL’S BODY, IS RECOGNIZED A FOREIGN TO THE BODY, AND CAUSES A DETECTABLE REACTION?

Answer 693

ANTIGEN

ASSIGN. 19-36

Question 694

THE RPR IS A SPECIFIC TEST TO DIAGNOSE SYPHILIS. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 694

FALSE

ASSIGN. 19-37

Question 695

THE RPR TEST TO SCREEN FOR SYPHILIS IS BEST USED WITH WHAT TYPE OF SPECIMEN?

Answer 695

SERUM

ASSIGN. 19-38

Question 696

IF THE MONOSPOT IS NEGATIVE, THE PATIENT DOES NOT HAVE INFECTIOUS MONONUCLEOSIS. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 696

FALSE

ASSIGN. 19-39

Question 697

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CHEMICAL PREPARATIONS IS FREQUENTLY USED TO DETECT FUNGI?

Answer 697

POTASSIUM HYDROXIDE

ASSIGN. 19-40

Question 698

THE BEST URINE SPECIMEN FOR SCREENING PURPOSES IS THAT TAKEN DURING WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TIMES?

Answer 698

FIRST MORNING

ASSIGN. 19-41

Question 699

WHAT IS THE DESIRED URINE SMAPLE VOLUME FOR ROUTINE TESTING?

Answer 699

12 mL

ASSIGN. 19-42

Question 700

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING COLORS WOULD BE CONSIDERED ABNORMAL IN A URINE SAMPLE?

Answer 700

RED

ASSIGN. 19-43

Question 701

WHICH URINE COLOR IS MOST RELATED WITH THE PRESENCE OF BLOOD?

Answer 701

RED

ASSIGN. 19-44

Question 702

WHICH URINE COLOR IS MOST RELATED WITH THE PRESENCE OF BILE?

Answer 702

YELLOW OR BROWN

ASSIGN. 19-45

Question 703

WHICH URINE COLOR IS MOST RELATED WITH A PATIENT BEING TREATED WITH PYRIDIUM?

Answer 703

DARK ORANGE

ASSIGN. 19-46

Question 704

A REPORT ON URINE CLARITY IS VLAID REGARDLESS OF STANDING TIME. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 704

FALSE

ASSIGN. 19-47

Question 705

THE SPECIFIC GRAVITY OF A LIQUID IS THE WEIGHT OF THE SUBSTANCE AS COMPARED TO AN EQUAL VOLUME OF _____.

Answer 705

DISTILLED WATER

ASSIGN. 19-48

Question 706

NORMAL SPECIFIC GRAVITY FOR ROUTINE URINALYSIS IS WITHIN WHAT RAINGE?

Answer 706

1.015-1.030

ASSIGN. 19-49

Question 707

THE ADDITION OF ONE DROP OF 2 PERCENT ACETIC ACID TO URINE SEDIMENT WILL DISINTEGRATE WHICH CELL?

Answer 707

RED BLOOD CELLS

ASSIGN. 19-50

Question 708

WHAT CELL IS NOT NORMALLY FOUND IN URINE?

Answer 708

• WHITE BLOOD CELL
• RED BLOOD CELL
• EPITHELIAL CELL

(ASSIGN. 19-51)

Question 709

WHICH CRITICAL RSULT IS INDICATIVE OF UNCONTROLLED DIABETES?

Answer 709

GLUCOSE AND KETONES BOTH PRESENT IN URINE

ASSIGN. 19-52

Question 710

WHAT OPERATIONAL PROGRAM MAY BE USED ON SOME OPERATIONAL PLATFORMS TO TREAT CRITICAL PATIENTS IN A MASS CASUALTY SITUATION WHE DELAY O FBLOOD PRODUCTS WOUIL DCAUSE A CRITICAL DELAY?

Answer 710

WBB

ASSIGN. 19-53

Question 711

WHY IS THE SPICA OR FIGURE EIGHT BANDAGE USED AROUND THE ELBO?

Answer 711

ALLOWS FOR MOVEMENT WHILE HOLDING A COMPRESS

ASSIGN. 20-1

Question 712

WHAT SIZE BANDAGE IS USED FOR APPLYING A ROLLER BANDAGE TO THE ANKLE OR FOOT?

Answer 712

3 INCH

ASSIGN. 20-2

Question 713

WHAT IS A BARTON BANDAGE USED FOR?

Answer 713

FRACTURES FO THE LOWER JAW

ASSIGN. 20-3

Question 714

THE AUTOMATED EXTERNAL DEFIBRILLATOR ANALYZES CARDIAC RHYTHM AND SELECTS THE APPROPRIATE STRENGTH OF ELECTRICAL THERAPY WHICH STOPS AN ARRHYTHMIA, ALLOWING THE HEAR TO RE-ESTABLISH A NORMAL RHYTHM. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 714

TRUE

ASSIGN. 20-4

Question 715

WHICH STATEMENT IS FALSE CONCERNING NORMAL SALINE?

Answer 715

THERE ARE NO DANGERS IN GIVING “TOO MUCH” NORMAL SALINE

ASSIGN. 20-5

Question 716

HETASTARCH IS A SUBSTITUTE FOR BLOOD PLASMA AND HAS OXYGEN CARRYING CAPABILITIES. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 716

FALSE

ASSIGN. 20-6

Question 717

IN THE UNITED STATES, OXYGEN BOTTLES ARE COLORED GREEN. WHAT IS THE INTERNATIONAL COLOR CODE OF OXYGEN BOTTLES?

Answer 717

WHITE

ASSIGN. 20-7

Question 718

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A TRUE STATEMENT CONCERNING OROPHARYNGEAL AIRWAYS?

Answer 718

AN AIRWAY OF PROPER SIZE IS MEASURED FROM THE TIP OF THE EARLOBE TO THE CORNER OF THE MOUTH

(ASSIGN. 20-8)

Question 719

THE OROPHARYNGEAL AIRWAY IS THE AIRWAY OF CHOICE FOR PATIENTS WITH A GAG REFLEX. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 719

FALSE

ASSIGN. 20-9

Question 720

THE EFFECTIVE LIFE OF AN OXYGEN BREATHING APPARATUS (OBA) IS _____?

Answer 720

20-45 MINUTES

ASSIGN. 20-10

Question 721

HOW MANY STAGES OF EXTRICATION ARE THERE?

Answer 721

5

ASSIGN. 20-11

Question 722

WHICH IS A TRUE STATEMENT WHEN TREATING A PATIENT THAT IS RADIOACTIVELY CONTAMINATED?

Answer 722

TREATMENT OF L IFE THREATENING INJURIES TAKES PRECEDENCE OVER DECONTAMINATION PROCEDURES

(ASSIGN. 20-12)

Question 723

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A CONCERN ABOUT THE DISTANCE A CASUALTY CAN BE CARRIED?

Answer 723

THE AMOUNT OF RADIATION WITH WHICH THE VICTIM IS CONTAMINATED

(ASSIGN. 20-13)

Question 724

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A PHASE OF CARE OF PATIENT EN ROUTE?

Answer 724

MEDICAL EVACUATION CARE

ASSIGN. 20-14

Question 725

LINE #3 IN THE MEDEVAC REQUEST IS _____?

Answer 725

NUMBER OF PATENTS BY PRECEDENCE

ASSIGN. 20-15

Question 726

WHEN ESTABLISHING A HELICOPTER LANDING SITE, THE GROUND SLOPE CAN BE NO MORE THAN _____ DEGREES.

Answer 726

15

ASSIGN. 20-16

Question 727

THE NATIONAL FIRE PROTECTION ASSOCIATION HAS DEVELOPED A LABELING SYSTEM FOR INDICATING THE HEALTH, FLAMMABILITY, AND REACTIVITY HAZARDS OF CHEMICALS. THE LABELS ARE MAD INTO SQUARES TO COMPRISE A DIAMOND SHAPED LABEL. WHAT DOES RED INDICATE?

Answer 727

INDICATES FLAMMABILITY

ASSIGN. 20-17

Question 728

THE NATIONAL FIRE PROTECTION ASSOCIATION HAS DEVELOPED A LABELING SYSTEM FOR INDICATING THE HEALTH, FLAMMABILITY, AND REACTIVITY HAZARDS OF CHEMICALS. THE LABELS ARE MAD INTO SQUARES TO COMPRISE A DIAMOND SHAPED LABEL. WHAT DOES WHITE INDICATE?

Answer 728

INDICATES ANY SPECIAL HAZARDS

ASSIGN. 20-18

Question 729

THE NATIONAL FIRE PROTECTION ASSOCIATION HAS DEVELOPED A LABELING SYSTEM FOR INDICATING THE HEALTH, FLAMMABILITY, AND REACTIVITY HAZARDS OF CHEMICALS. THE LABELS ARE MAD INTO SQUARES TO COMPRISE A DIAMOND SHAPED LABEL. WHAT DOES BLUE INDICATE?

Answer 729

INDICATES HEALTH HAZARDS

ASSIGN. 20-19

Question 730

THE NATIONAL FIRE PROTECTION ASSOCIATION HAS DEVELOPED A LABELING SYSTEM FOR INDICATING THE HEALTH, FLAMMABILITY, AND REACTIVITY HAZARDS OF CHEMICALS. THE LABELS ARE MAD INTO SQUARES TO COMPRISE A DIAMOND SHAPED LABEL. WHAT DOES YELLOW INDICATE

Answer 730

INDICATES THE REACTIVITY

ASSIGN. 20-20

Question 731

IN HAZMAT MANAGEMENT SITUATIONS, SITE CONTROL IS DIVIDED INTO 3 ZONES. IN WHICH ZONE DOES PERSONNEL DECONTAMINATION HAPPEN?

Answer 731

WARM ZONE

ASSIGN. 20-21

Question 732

WHEN DECONTAMINATING PERSONNEL CONTAMINATED FROM A HAZMAT SITUATION, THE MOST FREQUENTLY APPROPRIATE METHOD OF DECONTAMINATION IS _____?

Answer 732

DILUTION

ASSIGN. 20-22

Question 733

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE MEASURES FIRST AID IS INTENDED TO ADDRESS EXCEPT?

Answer 733

REPLACE PROPER MEDICAL DIAGNOSIS AND TREATMENT

ASSIGN. 21-1

Question 734

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE RULES TO FOLLOW WHEN PROVIDING FIRST AID EXCEPT?

Answer 734

PANIC AT THE FIRST SIGHT OF BLOOD

ASSIGN. 21-2

Question 735

WHICH ONE IS NOT RECOMMENDED WHEN PREPARING FOR EMERGENCY SITUATIONS?

Answer 735

FAMILIARIZING YOURSELF WITH YOUR EQUIPMENT WHILE RESPONDING TO AN EMERGENCY SCENE

(ASSIGN. 21-3)

Question 736

CASUALTIES IN A NON-TACTICAL ENVIRONMENT WHOSE INJURIES ARE CRITICAL BUT WHO WILL REQUIRE ONLY MINIMAL TIME OR EQUIPMENT ARE?

Answer 736

PRIORITY 1

ASSIGN. 21-4

Question 737

WHAT IS THE METHOD FOR SORGIN CASUALITES IN A MULTIPLE CASUALTY INCIDENT (MCI)?

Answer 737

S.T.A.R.T.

ASSIGN. 21-5

Question 738

A PATIENT IN A TACTICAL SETTING WITH AN UPPER AIRWAY OBSTRUCTION AND LIFE THREATENING BLEEDING WOULD FALL INTO WHICH CATEGORY?

Answer 738

IMMEDIATE

ASSIGN. 21-6

Question 739

WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM AMOUNT OF TIME ALLOWED FOR CONTINOUS SUCTIONING OF AN INFANT’S AIRWAY?

Answer 739

5 SECONDS

ASSIGN. 21-7

Question 740

WHEN INSERTING THE COMBITUBE AND AFTER THE DEVICE IS SITTING BETWEEN THE TEETH AND PROPERLY ALIGNED BETWEEN THE PRINTED BLACK RINGS, WHAT IS THE NEXT STEP?

Answer 740

INFLATE THE BLUE CUFF

ASSIGN. 21-8

Question 741

CASUALTIES WITH AT TOTAL UPPER AIRWAY OBSTRUCTION, INHALATION BURNS, OR MASSIVE MAXILLOFACIAL TRAUMA WHO CANNOT BE VENTILATED BY OATHER MENAS ARE CANDITATES FOR THE KING LT AIRWAY. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 741

FALSE

ASSIGN. 21-10

Question 742

WHEN PERFORMING A NEEDLE CHEST DECOMPRESSION, WHAT IS THE PREFERRED SIZE OF THE NEEDLE REQUIRED TO ADEQUATELY DECOMPRESS THE CHEST?

Answer 742

14 GAUGE

ASSIGN. 21-10

Question 743

DISTRIBUTIVE SHOCK IS A LOSS OF INTRAVASCULAR VOLUME, WHIHC MAY OCCUR FROM BLOOD, PLAMA, OR FLUID LOSS. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 743

FALSE

ASSIGN. 21-11

Question 744

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE STAGES OF SHOCK EXCEPT?

Answer 744

EARLY

ASSIGN. 21-12

Question 745

NORMALLY, A LOSS OF APPROXIMATELY _____ OF THE PERSON’S BLOOD VOLUME WILL CREATE A LIFE-THREATENING CONDITION.

Answer 745

1 LITER

ASSIGN. 21-13

Question 746

A PATIENT WITH A SKIN ASSESSMENT OF PALE AND COOL AND WHOSE BLOOD PRESSURE DROPPED BRIEFLY WOULD BE CONSIDERED TO BE IN WHAT TYPE OF SHOCK?

Answer 746

PSYCHOGENIC

ASSIGN. 21-14

Question 747

APPROXIMATELY HOW LONG DOES IT TAKE FOR DEATH TO OCCUR FROM MASSIVE HEMMORAGE?

Answer 747

2 MINUTES

ASSIGN. 21-15

Question 748

WHAT IS THE MOST COMMON CAUSE OF SHOCK THAT THE HM WILL ENCOUNTER?

Answer 748

UNCONTROLLED HEMORRAGE

ASSIGN. 21-16

Question 749

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE COMPONENTS OF THE SCENE SIZE UP EXCEPT?

Answer 749

TYPES OF INJURY

ASSIGN. 21-17

Question 750

THE INDEX OF SUSPICION IS DERIVED DIRECTLY FROM WHIHC OF THE FOLLOWING?

Answer 750

MECHANISM OF INJURY

ASSIGN. 21-18

Question 751

THE GENERAL IMPRESSION IS CRUCIAL TO IDENTIFYING WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?

Answer 751

ALL OF THE ABOVE:

• TRANSPORT DECISION
• PATIENT’S OVERALL SYSTEMIC CONDITION
• OBVIOUS SIGNIFICANT EXTERNAL PROBLEMS

(ASSIGN. 21-19)

Question 752

AN INTERRUPTION OF ARTERIAL BLOOD FLOW TO THE BRAIN IS BEST DESCRIBED AS A/AN _____.

Answer 752

CEREBROVASCULAR ACCIDENT

ASSIGN. 21-20

Question 753

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE STEPS IN TREATING SYCOPE EXCEPT _____?

Answer 753

GIVING THE PATIENT SOMETHING TO EAT

ASSIGN. 21-21

Question 754

WHAT DOES THE ACRONYM AVPU STAND FOR?

Answer 754

• ALERT
• VERBAL
• PAINFUL
• UNRESPONSIVE

(ASSIGN. 21-22)

Question 755

WHAT IS THE ACRONYM USED WHEN ASSESSING A PATIENT DURING A RAPID PHYSICAL EXAM?

Answer 755

DCAP-BTLS

ASSIGN. 21-23

Question 756

A PATIENT EXPERIENCING RESPIRATORY DISTRESS CAN RAPIDLY PROGRESS TO FULL ARREST. ALWAYS BE PREPARED TO UTILIZE _____.

Answer 756

ADVANCED AIRWAY PROCEDURES

ASSIGN. 21-24

Question 757

A PATIENT EXPERIENCING RESPIRATORY DIFFICULTY SHOULD BE FORCED TO LIE DOWN IN ORDER TO EASE THEIR BREATHING AND REDUCE THE WORKLOAD ON THE BODY. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 757

FALSE

ASSIGN. 21-25

Question 758

THE HM CAN ADMINISTER A NEBULIZER TREATMENT WITHOUT A MEDICAL OFFICER’S ORDER. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 758

FALSE

ASSIGN. 21-26

Question 759

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A CONTRAINDICATION FOR USING ACTIVATED CHARCOAL FOR PATIENTS SUFFERING FROM POISON INGESTION?

Answer 759

UNABLE TO SPEAK

ASSIGN. 21-27

Question 760

IF A PATIENT IS HYPOTENSIVE, THEN THE SYSTOLIC BLOOD PRESSURE IS BELOW WHAT?

Answer 760

90

ASSIGN. 21-28

Question 761

IN CASES OF AIRWAY OBSTRUCTION FROM SEVERE GLOTTIC EDEMA WHAT PROCEDURE MAY BE NECESSARY?

Answer 761

CRICOTHYROIDOTOMY

ASSIGN. 21-29

Question 762

DURING A PATIENT ASSESSMENT THE HM NOTICES THAT THE PATIENT SEEMS TO HAVE A FRUITY BREATH ODOR, THE HM SUSPECTS THE PATIENT IS SUFFERING FROM _____.

Answer 762

HYPERGLYCEMIA

ASSIGN. 21-30

Question 763

THE HM SUSPECTS A PATIENT IS SUFFERING FROM A BRAIN INJURY. UPON ASSESSMENT THE HM DISCOVERS THE PATIENT HAS ASYMMETRICAL PUPILS, HEADACHE NAUSEA, AND VOMITING. THE HM SUSPECTS PATIENT IS SUFFERING FROM _____.

Answer 763

INCREASED INTRACRANIAL PRESSURE

ASSIGN. 21-31

Question 764

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SIGNS AND SYMPTOMS IS CONSIDERED A LATE SIGN OF A HEMOTHORAX?

Answer 764

DEVIATED TRACHEA

ASSIGN. 21-32

Question 765

WHEN TREATING A PATIENT WITH AN ABDOMINAL EVISCERATION, IT IS ACCEPTABLE TO PLACE THE ORGANS BACK INSIDE THE ABDOMINAL CAVITY IN ORDER TO KEEP THE ORGANS WARM AND MOIST AS WELL AS PREVENT INFECTION. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 765

FALSE

ASSIGN. 21-33

Question 766

AFTER THE BABY HAS BEEN DELIVERED AND THE CORD HAS BEEN CUT, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STEPS IS CORRECT WHEN DELIVERING THE PLACENTA?

Answer 766

WAIT APPROX. 10-20 MINUTES FOR THE PLACENTA TO DELIVER SPONTANEOUSLY

(ASSIGN. 21-34)

Question 767

WHAT IS THE FIRST STEP IN THE MANAGEMENT PLAN FOR CARE UNDER FIRE?

Answer 767

RETURN FIRE/TAKE COVER

ASSIGN. 21-35

Question 768

DURING TACTICAL FIELD CARE, WHAT IS THE BEST WAY TO CONTROL COMPRESSIBLE HEMORRAGE WHEN A TOURNIQUET IS NOT AMENDABLE?

Answer 768

ALL OF THE ABOVE:

• USE COMBAT GAUZE AS THE HEMOSTATIC AGENT OF CHOICE WITH AT LEAST 3 MINUTES OF DIRECT PRESSURE
• MAKE THE TOURNIQUET WORK
• USE A LARGE BATTLE DRESSING

(ASSIGN. 21-36)

Question 769

WHAT IS THE USUAL DOSE OF MORPHINE FOR ADULT PATIENTS IN SEVERE PAIN?

Answer 769

10-20 mg

ASSIGN. 21-37

Question 770

MORPHINE CAN BE GIVEN TO PATIENTS WHO HAVE SUFFERED A HEAD INJURY. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 770

FALSE

ASSIGN. 21-38

Question 771

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STEPS IN BLEEDING CONTROL ARE NO LONGER UTILIZED?

Answer 771

• APPLY TOURNIQUET
• ELEVATE THE EXTREMITY

(ASSIGN. 21-39)

Question 772

AFTER BLEEDING HAS BEEN CONTROLLED BY A TOURNIQUET, HOW IS THE PATIENT MARKED?

Answer 772

A “T” WITH THE TIME MARKED ON THE FOREHEAD

ASSIGN. 21-40

Question 773

WHAT IS THE FIRST STEP IN TREATING FOR HYPOVOLEMIC SHOCK?

Answer 773

TAKE BSI PRECAUTION

ASSIGN. 21-41

Question 774

WHICH TYPE OF SUTURE MATERIAL IS BEST USED FRO SURFACE CLOSURES AND CAUSE VERY LITTLE TISSUE REACTION?

Answer 774

DERMALON

ASSIGN. 21-42

Question 775

THE MOST COMMON METHOD OF ANESTHESIA USED BY THE HM IS THE INFILTRATION OF THE ANESTHETIZING AGENT INTO THE NERVE TRUNKS THAT INNERVATE THE FINGERS OR TOES. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 775

FALSE

ASSIGN. 21-43

Question 776

FOR A LARGE, GAPING, SOFT-TISSUE WOUND, A PRIMARY CLOSURE IS ACCEPTABLE. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 776

FALSE

ASSIGN. 21-44

Question 777

WHEN CUTTING SUTURES WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM ACCEPTABLE LENGTH FOR THE TAILS TO BE?

Answer 777

1/4 INCH

ASSIGN. 21-45

Question 778

ANY PERSON WHOH HAS AN ACUTE PAIN IN THE BACK OR NECK AS WELL AS A SIGNIFICANT MECHANISM OF INJURY, SHOULD BE TREATED AS THOUGH THERE IS A FRACTURED SPINE, EVEN IF THERE ARE NO OTHER SYMPTOMS. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 778

TRUE

ASSIGN. 21-46

Question 779

WHEN IS IT ACCERPTABLE TO MOVE A PATIENT WITH A SUSPECTED PELVIC FRACTURE?

Answer 779

WHEN ABSOLUTELY NECESSARY AFTER MAST GARMENTS HAVE BEEN APPLIED TO STABILIZE THE PELVIC REGION

(ASSIGN. 21-47)

Question 780

WHAT METHOD SHOULD BE UTILIZED WHEN OPENING THE AIRWAY OF A PATIENT WHO IS SUSPECTED OF HAVING A SPINAL CORD INJURY?

Answer 780

JAW THRUST

ASSIGN. 21-48

Question 781

NEVER ATTEMPT TO REMOVE A FOREIGN BODY STUCK TO OR PENETRATING AN EYEBALL. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 781

TRUE.

ASSIGN. 21-49

Question 782

WHEN BANDAGING AN EYE WITH AN IMPALED FOREIGN OBJECT, WHAT SHOULD BE DONE?

Answer 782

BANDAGE BOTH EYES

ASSIGN. 21-50

Question 783

WHEN APPLYING FIRST AID FOR REMOVING FOREIGN OBJECTS, WHICH STATEMENT BELOW IS NOT CORRECT?

Answer 783

REMOVE BULLETS TO AID IN STOPPING BLEEDING

ASSIGN. 21-51

Question 784

WHEN APPLYING AID FOR ANIMAL BITES WHAT SHOULD NEVER DO?

Answer 784

CAUTERIZE AREAS THAT ARE BLEEDING TO AID IN TRANSPORT

ASSIGN. 21-52

Question 785

WHAT DEGREE OF THERMAL BURNS TO THE SKIN IS CHARACTERIZED BY EPIDERMAL BLISTERS, MOTTLED APPEARANCE AND A RED BASE? DAMAGE EXTENDS INTO BUT NOT THROUGH THE DERMIS. RECOVER USUALLY TAKES 2 TO 3 WEEKS.

Answer 785

SECOND DEGREE BURN

ASSIGN. 21-53

Question 786

THE RULE OF NINES ASSIGNS WHAT PERCENTAGE VALUE FOR BURNS OF THE ANTERIOR CHEST AND ANTERIOR NECK?

Answer 786

14

ASSIGN. 21-54

Question 787

UNDER NORMAL CONDITIONS HEAT EXPOSURE INJURIES ARE PREVENTABLE INJURIES. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 787

TRUE

ASSIGN. 21-55

Question 788

WHAT IS THE MOST COMMON CONDITION CAUSED BY WORKING OR EXERCISING IN HOT ENVIRONMENTS?

Answer 788

HEAT EXHAUSTION

ASSIGN. 21-56

Question 789

WHICH COLD INJURY IS MILD COLD INJURY THAT HAPPENS FROM PROLONGED EXPOSURE IN TEMPERATURES ABOVE FREEZING TO AS HIGH AS 60 DEGREES FAHRENHEIT.

Answer 789

CHILBLAIN

ASSIGN. 21-57

Question 790

A DILUTED SOLUTION OF WHICH OF THE LISTED SUBSTANCES WILL NEUTRALIZE ALKALI BURNS TO THE SKIN?

Answer 790

VINEGAR

ASSIGN. 21-58

Question 791

THE USUAL TREATMENT FOR CHEMICAL BURNS IS TO FLUSH WITH COPIUS AMOUNTS OF WATER. THE TWO EXCEPTION TO THIS RULE ARE IN THE CASE OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CHEMICALS?

Answer 791

DRY LIME AN CARBOLIC ACID

ASSIGN. 21-59

Question 792

WHAT IS THE MOST EFFECTIVE METHOD OF RE-WARMING A VICTIM OF HYPOTHERMIA?

Answer 792

IMMERSION IN A TUB OF WARM WATER

ASSIGN. 21-60

Question 793

HWO MANY ADDITIONAL ATMOSPHERES OF PRESSURE ARE APPLIED AT A DEPTH OF 33 FEET IN SEA WATER?

Answer 793

1

ASSIGN. 21-61

Question 794

WHAT IS NOT ONE OF THE THREE PRINCIPLE CATEGORIES FOR INJURIES WHEN DISCUSSING DIVING RELATED DISORDERS?

Answer 794

TRAUMA

ASSIGN. 21-62

Question 795

A MIDDLE EAR SQUEEZE IS CLASSIFIED UNDER WHICH TYPE OF DIVING INJURY?

Answer 795

BAROTRAUMA

ASSIGN. 21-63

Question 796

THE TREATMENT FOR A MIDDLE EAR SQUEEZE CONSISTS OF ALL THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT?

Answer 796

ADMINISTER EAR DROPS FOR RUPTURED EAR DRUM

ASSIGN. 21-64

Question 797

WHICH LAW DEAL WITH DECOMPRESSION SICKNESS (DCS)?

Answer 797

HENRY’S LAW

ASSIGN. 21-65

Question 798

WHICH STATEMENT BELOW IS NOT APPLICABLE FOR TREATMENT OF DECOMPRESSION SICKNESS?

Answer 798

DO NOT PRESSURIZE THE CABIN OF AIRCRAFT WHEN TRANSPORTING TO TREATMENT FACILITY

(ASSIGN. 21-66)

Question 799

POISONING IS DEFINED AS CONTACT WITH OR EXPOSURE TO A TOXIC SUBSTANCE. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 799

TRUE

ASSIGN. 22-1

Question 800

TOXICOLOGY IS DEFINED AS THE SCIENCE OF POISONS. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 800

TRUE

ASSIGN. 22-2

Question 801

A PATIENT PRESENTS WITH DILATED PUPILS, FEVER, DRY SKIN, URINARY RETENTION, DECREASED BOWEL SOUNDS, ADN INCREASED HEART RATE. WHAT TOXIDROME DOES THIS SET OF SYMPTOMS SUGGEST?

Answer 801

ANTIOCHOLINERGIC

ASSIGN. 22-3

Question 802

A PATIENT PRESENTS WITH SALIVATION, LACRIMATION, URINATION, AND MSUCLE WEAKNESS. WHAT TOXIC SYNDROME DOES THIS SET OF SYMPTOMS SUGGEST?

Answer 802

CHOLINERGIC
“S.L.U.D.G.E.”

(ASSIGN. 22-4)

Question 803

WHAT IS THE MOST COMMON ROUTE OF EXPOSURE TO TOXIC CHEMICALS IN THE HOME?

Answer 803

INGESTED

ASSIGN. 22-5

Question 804

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE METHOD OF CHOICE FOR THE HM TO USE TO INDUCE VOMITING?

Answer 804

15-30 cc OF SYRUP OF IPECAC

ASSIGN. 22-6

Question 805

WHEN A PATIENT INGESTS AN ACID OR BASE TREATMENT IS TO GIVE A NEUTRALIZING AGENT ORALLY. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 805

FALSE

ASSIGN. 22-2

Question 806

IF THE HM IS UNABLE TO REACH THE POISON CONTROL CENTER OR A PHYSICIAN FOR SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS, HOW SHOULD THE HM TREAT A VICTIM WHO HAS INGESTED TURPENTINE?

Answer 806

GIVE 1 TO 2 OUNCES OF VEGETABLE OIL ORALLY

ASSIGN. 22-8

Question 807

OF THE FOLLOWING, WHICH IS CONSIDERED THE MOST COMMON AGENT IN INHALATION POISONING?

Answer 807

CARBON MONOXIDE

ASSIGN. 22-9

Question 808

TREATMENT FOR AN INHALATION POISONING VICTIM INCLUDES ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT _____?

Answer 808

ADMINISTRATION OF STIMULANTS

ASSIGN. 22-10

Question 809

A PATIENT PRESENTS EXHIBITING SIGNS OF ANAPHYLACTIC REACTION TO A BEE OR A WASP STING OF THE FOLLOWING, WHICH IS NOT CONSIDERED APPROPRIATE TREATMENT?

Answer 809

WARM PACKS OVER STING SITE

ASSIGN. 22-11

Question 810

THE VICTIM OF A SCORPION STING MAY SAFELY BE GIVEN ANY OF THE FOLLOWING PHARMACEUTICALS EXCEPT ______?

Answer 810

ALL OF THE ABOVE:

• DEMEROL OR MORPHINE
• CALCIUM GLUCONATE
• VALIUM

(ASSIGN. 22-12)

Question 811

SYMPTOMS OF A BLACK WIDOW SPIDER BITE MAY INCLUDE SEVER PAIN DYSPNEA, AND _____.

Answer 811

ABDOMINAL RIGIDITY

ASSIGN. 22-13

Question 812

CROTALIDS ARE IDENTIFIED BY _____.

Answer 812

• SLIT-LIKE PUPILS OF THE EYES
• FLAT, TRIANGULAR HEADS

(ASSIGN. 22-14)

Question 813

WHAT IS THE KEY IDENTIFYING FEATURE OF THE NORTH AMERICAN CORAL SNAKE THAT DISTINGUISHES IT FROM OTHER SNAKES WITH SIMILAR MARKINGS?

Answer 813

THE YELLOW BAND IS ALWAYS NEXT TO TH ERED BAND (RED AND BLACK VENOM LACK. RED AND YELLOW KILL A FELLOW)

(ASSIGN. 22-15)

Question 814

ON PATROL, A MEMBER OF THE UNIT RECEIVES A RATTLESNAKE BITE JUST BELOW THE ELBOW WHAT FIRST AID TREATMENT SHOULD BE PERFORMED?

Answer 814

PLACE A CONSTRICTING BAND 2 INCHES PROXIMAL TO THE BITE SITE

ASSIGN. 22-16

Question 815

VALUABLE INFORMATION ON THE ANTIVENOM IS FOUND IN THE PACKAGE INSERTS. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 815

TRUE

ASSIGN. 22-17

Question 816

THE PUFFER, SURGEON TRIGGER, AND PARROT FISH ARE KNOWN TO BE _____J.

Answer 816

POISONOUS AT ALL TIMES

ASSIGN. 22-18

Question 817

A PERSON SUFFERING FROM A VENOMOUS FISH STING SHOULD _____?

Answer 817

SOAK THE WOUND IN HOT WATER FOR 30 TO 90 MINUTES

ASSIGN. 22-19

Question 818

IDENTIFYING THE FISH WITH WHICH THERE IS ANTIVENOM AVIALABLE.

Answer 818

STONEFISH

ASSIGN. 22-20

Question 819

ANTIVENIN IS AVAILABLE TO NEUTRALIZE THE EFFECTS OF THE FOLLOWING TYPES OF COELENTERATES?

Answer 819

SEA WASP, BOX JELLYFISH

ASSIGN. 22-21

Question 820

HWO MANY HOURS AFTER THE LAST DOSE DOES NARCOTIC WITHDRAW NORMALLY PEAK?

Answer 820

72 HOURS

ASSIGN. 22-22

Question 821

THE MOST WIDELY ABUSED DRUG(S) IS/ARE?

Answer 821

ETHANOL

ASSIGN. 22-23

Question 822

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A SYMPTOM OF ALCOHOL ABUSE?

Answer 822

INCREASED LEVEL OF CONSCIOUSNESS

ASSIGN. 22-24

Question 823

WITHDRAWAL FROM BARBITUATES IS LESS LIFE THREATENING THAN NARCOTIC WITHDRAWAL. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 823

FALSE

ASSIGN. 22-25

Question 824

CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM STIMULANTS ARE USED FOR ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT?

Answer 824

DECREASE MENTAL ALERTNESS

ASSIGN. 22-26

Question 825

SIGNS AND SYMPTOMS OF STIMULANT INTOXICATION INCLUDE ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT _____?

Answer 825

INCREASED APPETITE

ASSIGN. 22-27

Question 826

A PERSON MAY DISPLAY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SIGN(S) AFTER USING A HALLUCINOGENIC DRUG?

Answer 826

FLUSHED FACE

ASSIGN. 22-28

Question 827

MARIJUANA FALLS INTO WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CATEGORIES OF DRUGS?

Answer 827

CANNABIS

ASSIGN. 22-29

Question 828

PERSONS WHO REGULARLY ABUSE INHALANTS RISK WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING INJURIES?

Answer 828

ALL OF THE ABOVE:

• SEVERE BRAIN DAMAGE
• DAMAGED INTERNAL ORGANS
• DEATH

(ASSIGN. 22-30)

Question 829

IN CARING FOR DRUG-INTOXICATED PERSONS, THE HM SHOULD PERFORM WHAT ACTIONS AS THE FIRST PRIORITY?

Answer 829

CHECK FOR AN ADEQUATE AIRWAY

ASSIGN. 22-31

Question 830

WHEN WAS THE FIRST LARGE SCALE USE OF CHEMICAL AGENTS?

Answer 830

WWI

ASSIGN. 23-1

Question 831

TERRORISTS WILL NOT USE CHEMCIAL AGENTS BECASUE THEY ARE DIFFICULT TO MAKE? TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 831

FALSE

ASSIGN. 23-2

Question 832

M9 CHEMICAL AGENT DETECTION PAPER TURNS WHAT COLOR IF A NERVE IS PRESENT?

Answer 832

RED

ASSIGN. 23-3

Question 833

M8 CHEMICAL DETECTION PAPER TURNS WHAT COLOR WHEN IT COMES INTO CONTACT WITH VX?

Answer 833

GREEN

ASSIGN. 23-4

Question 834

M8 CHEMICAL. DETECTION PAPER TURNS WHAT COLOR WHEN IT COMES INTO CONTACT WITH G CLASS NERVE AGENTS?

Answer 834

YELLOW

ASSIGN. 23-5

Question 835

WHAT MOPP LEVEL AFFORDS THE MOST PROTECTION?

Answer 835

4

ASSIGN. 23-6

Question 836

NERVE AGENTS ENHANCE THE NERVE IMPULSES. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 836

FALSE

ASSIGN. 23-7

Question 837

NERVE AGENTS ENTER THE BODY THROUGH WHAT AREA?

Answer 837

• EYES
• SKIN
• RESPIRATORY TRACT

(ASSIGN. 23-8)

Question 838

A MARK I KIT CONSISTS OF _____?

Answer 838

• ATROPINE
• 2-PAM Cl

(ASSIGN. 23-9)

Question 839

FOR SEVERE NERVE AGENT SYMPTOMS GIVE HOW MANY MARK I KITS IN A ROW?

Answer 839

3

ASSIGN. 23-10

Question 840

HOW MANY MARK I KITS CAN A NON-MEDICAL PERSON GIVE?

Answer 840

3

ASSIGN. 23-11

Question 841

HOW LONG DO YOU WAIT AFTER GIVING THE FIRST MARK I KIT BEFORE GIVING ANOTHER IN A PATIENT WITH MODERATE SYMPTOMS?

Answer 841

10 TO 15 MINUTES

ASSIGN. 23-12

Question 842

TO DECONTAMINATE A PATIENT WITH NERVE AGENT YOU USE?

Answer 842

• SOAP AND WATER
• 0.5% HYPOCHLORITE SOLUTION
• M291

(ASSIGN. 23-13)

Question 843

CHEMICAL AGENTS H, HD, AND HN ARE ALL WHAT TYPE OF AGENTS?

Answer 843

BLISTER

ASSIGN. 23-14

Question 844

SYMPTOMS OF MUSTARD AGENT CONTACT ARE?

Answer 844

BLISTERS

ASSIGN. 23-15

Question 845

WHAT ANTIDOTE IS USED FOR LEWISITE?

Answer 845

BAL
(BRITISH ANTI-LEWISITE)

(ASSIGN. 23-16)

Question 846

DECONTAMINATION OF BLISTER AGENT WITHIN TWO MINUTES WILL REDUCE THE TOXIC EFFECTS BY _____?

Answer 846

50%

ASSIGN. 23-17

Question 847

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A BLOOD AGENT?

Answer 847

AC

ASSIGN. 23-18

Question 848

WHAT IS THE INITIAL TREATMENT FOR CYANIDES?

Answer 848

SODIUM NITRATE, IV

ASSIGN. 23-19

Question 849

WHICH AGENT SMELLS LIKE NEW MOWN HAY?

Answer 849

CG

ASSIGN. 23-20

Question 850

CS IS A HIGHLY TOXIC SUBSTANCE. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 850

FALSE

ASSIGN. 23-21

Question 851

LACRIMATORS ARE ALSO KNOWN AS _____?

Answer 851

TEAR GAS

ASSIGN. 23-22

Question 852

DECONTAMINATION FOR HARASSMENT AGETNS GENERALLY CONSISTS OF _____?

Answer 852

WASHING WITH BABY SHAMPOO

ASSIGN. 23-23

Question 853

THE FIRST PRIORITY FOR FIRST AID FOR A CHEMICAL AGENT PATIENT IS _____?

Answer 853

CONTROL MASSIVE HEMORRAGE

ASSIGN. 23-24

Question 854

INITIAL MANAGEMENT OF A CHEMICAL AGENT CASUALTY IS _____?

Answer 854

• REMOVAL OF MOPP GEAR
• DECONTAMINATION WITH 0.5% HYPOCHLORITE SOLUTION

(ASSIGN. 23-25)

Question 855

WHAT ARE THE THREE TYPES OF BIOLOGICAL AGENTS?

Answer 855

BACTERIA, VIRUSES, AND TOXINS

ASSIGN. 23-26

Question 856

WHAT CLASS OF BIOLOGICAL AGENT IS ANTHRAX?

Answer 856

BACTERIA

ASSIGN. 23-27

Question 857

WHAT CLASS OF BIOLOGICAL AGENT IS PLAGUE?

Answer 857

BACTERIA

ASSIGN. 23-28

Question 858

WHAT CLASS OF BIOLOGICAL AGENT IS SMALLPOX?

Answer 858

VIRUS

ASSIGN. 23-29

Question 859

WHAT CLASS OF BIOLOGICAL AGENT IS RICIN?

Answer 859

TOXIN

ASSIGN. 23-30

Question 860

WHAT CLASS OF BIOLOGICAL AGENT IS MARBURG?

Answer 860

VIRUS

ASSIGN. 23-31

Question 861

WHAT CLASS OF BIOLOGICAL AGENT IS BOTULISM?

Answer 861

TOXIN

ASSIGN. 23-32

Question 862

WHAT CLASS OF BIOLOGICAL AGENT IS EBOLA?

Answer 862

VIRUS

ASSIGN. 23-33

Question 863

BIOLOGICAL OUTBREAKS THAT OCCUR IN MULTIPLE GEOGRAPHICAL LOCATION ARE CLASSIFIED AS _____?

Answer 863

• NATURAL OCCURENCE
• INTENTIONAL RELEASE

(ASSIGN. 23-34)

Question 864

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT AN INDICATOR OF BIOLOGICAL AGENT RELEASE?

Answer 864

• UNUSUAL DISEASE FOR THE GEOGRAPHIC AREA
• ABSENCE OF COMPETENT NATURAL VECTOR
• RESTRICTED GEOGRAPHICAL DISTRIBUTION, EPIDEMIOLOGICAL GROUPING OR CLUSTERING

(ASSIGN. 23-35)

Question 865

VIRUSES CAN BE TREATED WITH THE USE O FANTIOBIOTICS. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 865

FALSE.

ASSIGN. 23-36

Question 866

VIRAL HEMORRHAGIC FEVERS ARE SUSCEPTIBLE TO _____?

Answer 866

• PHENOLIC DISINFECTANTS
• 1% BLEACH SOLUTION

(ASSIGN. 23-37)

Question 867

A DIRTY BOMB COULD BE USED BY A TERRORIST ORGANIZATION. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 867

TRUE

ASSIGN. 23-38

Question 868

WHAT TYPE OF RADIATION IS SOMETIMES CALLED PENETRATING RADIATION?

Answer 868

GAMMA

ASSIGN. 23-39

Question 869

A LETHAL FULL BODY DOSE OF RADIATION IS _____?

Answer 869

4 TO 5 Sv

ASSIGN. 23-40

Question 870

WHAT IS THE MOST EFFECTIVE SHIELDING?

Answer 870

LEAD

ASSIGN. 23-41

Question 871

THE TIME OF ONSET OF WHICH SYMPTOMS WILL GIVE YOU AN ESTIMATE OF RADIATION DOSE/EXPOSURE?

Answer 871

NAUSEA AND VOMITING

ASSIGN. 23-42

Question 872

ONCE A PATIENT IS REMOVED FROM A RADIATION SOURCE, CHRONIC RADIATION SYMPTOMS WILL RESOLVE. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 872

TRUE

ASSIGN. 23-43

Question 873

INJURIES RESULTING FROM A NUCLEAR EXPLOSION ARE TREATED DIFFERENTLY. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 873

FALSE

ASSIGN. 23-44

Question 874

A PATIENT CAN BE CERTIFIED DECONTAMINATED FROM A RADIOLOGICAL INCIDENT WITH _____?

Answer 874

AN/VDR 2

ASSIGN. 23-45

Question 875

THE HM MAY PROVIDE TEMPORARY EMERGENCY DENTAL TREATMENT UNDER WHICH O FHTE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS?

Answer 875

• TO COMBAT INFECTION
• TO PROVIDE RELIEF FROM PAIN
• TO PREVENT FURTHER DAMAGE TOORAL STRUCTURES

(ASSIGN. 24-1)

Question 876

IF A PATIENT REPORTS TO THE DENTAL CLINIC AFTER HOURS WITH A TOOTHACHE WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STEPS SHOULD THE DUTY HM FIRST TAKE?

Answer 876

NOTIFY THE DUTY DENTAL OFFICER

ASSIGN. 24-2

Question 877

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWINGCHOICES BEST DESCRIBES A SYMPTOM?

Answer 877

THE PATIENT INFORMS THE HM OF A TOOTHACHE

ASSIGN. 24-3

Question 878

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CHOICES BEST DESCRIBES A SIGN?

Answer 878

HM OBSERVES A LARGE HOLE IN A PATIENT’S TOOTH

ASSIGN. 24-4

Question 879

WHEN PAIN FROM AN AFFECTED TOOTH MANIFESTS TO A HEALTHY, NON-INVOLVED TOOTH, WHAT IS THE CONDITION CALLED?

Answer 879

REFERRED PAIN

ASSIGN. 24-5

Question 880

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS EXISTS IF A PATIENT IS EXPERIENCING PAIN CAUSED BY THE PRESSURE OF FLUID BUILDING UP INSIDE THE PULP CHAMBER?

Answer 880

ACUTE PULPITIS

ASSIGN. 24-6

Question 881

WHICH CONDITION EXISTS WHEN SWELLING IS CONFINED TO A SMALL AREA AT THE SITE OF A SINUS TRACT?

Answer 881

GUMBOIL

ASSIGN. 24-7

Question 882

WHEN PERFORMING AN EMERGENCY TREATMENT FOR A PERIAPICAL ABCESS, WHAT INSTRUMENT WILL BE USED TO DRAIN THE ABCESS?

Answer 882

EXPLORER

ASSIGN. 24-8

Question 883

A PATIENT WITH A PERIAPICAL ABCESS MAY COMPLAIN OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SYMPTOMS?

Answer 883

THE TOOTH “FEELS LONGER” THAN THE OTHERS

ASSIGN. 24-9

Question 884

WHAT TYPE OF INFLAMMATION IS PRESENT IN MARGINAL GINGIVITIS?

Answer 884

MILD

ASSIGN. 24-10

Question 885

NECROTIZING ULCERATIVE GINGIVITIS (NUG) IS COMMONLY REFERRED TO BY WHAT TERM?

Answer 885

TRENCHWORM

ASSIGN. 24-11

Question 886

WHAT COLORED MEMBRANE WILL BE COVERING THE GINGIVA IF A PATIENT HAS NUG?

Answer 886

GRAY WHITE

ASSIGN. 24-12

Question 887

PERIODONTIS USUALLY RESULTS FROM WHAT UNTREATED CONDITION?

Answer 887

MARGINAL GINGIVITIS

ASSIGN. 24-13

Question 888

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS EXIST IF A PAIENT COMPLAINS THAT THEIR GUMS ARE “ITCHING”?

Answer 888

PERIODONTITIS

ASSIGN. 24-14

Question 889

WHAT IS THE CORRECT EMERGENCY TREATMENT FOR A PERIODONTAL ABCESS?

Answer 889

GENTLY PROBE THE AFFECTED AREA WITH A SCALER TO ESTABLISH DRAINAGE.

(ASSIGN. 24-15)

Question 890

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SOLUTIONS SHOULD BE USED TO IRRIGATE THE TISSUE FLAP IF A PATIENT HAS PERICORONITIS?

Answer 890

WARM SALINE SOLUTION

ASSIGN. 24-16

Question 891

WHAT ARE TWO COMMON TYPES OF STOMATITIS FOUND IN THE ORAL MUCOSA?

Answer 891

GENITAL HERPES AND APHTHOUS

ASSIGN. 24-17

Question 892

BLEEDING FROM AN EXTRACTION SITE IS REFERRED TO BY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TERMS?

Answer 892

POSTEXTRACTION HEMORRAGE

ASSIGN. 24-18

Question 893

POSTEXTRACTION ALVEOLAR OSTEITIS IS A CONDITION COMMONLY REFERRED TO BY WHAT TERM?

Answer 893

DRY SOCKET

ASSIGN. 24-19

Question 894

TO TREAT POST EXTRACTION ALVEOLAR OSTEITIS, WHAT TYPE OF DENTAL MATERIAL IS PLACED IN A TOOTH SOCKET?

Answer 894

IODOFORM GAUZE WITH EUGENOL

ASSIGN. 24-20

Question 895

TOOTH FRACTURES ARE CLASSIFIED INTO HOW MANY DIFFERENT TYPES?

Answer 895

4

ASSIGN. 24-21

Question 896

FRACTURED TEETH CAN INFOLVE WHICHOF THE FOLLOWING AREAS OF A TOOTH?

Answer 896

ENAMEL, DENTIN, PULP, AND ROOT

ASSIGN. 24-22

Question 897

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DENTALMATERIALS WILL BE USED TO TREAT A TYPE I FRACTURE?

Answer 897

CAVITY VARNISH

ASSIGN. 24-23

Question 898

A TYPE II FRACTURE INVOLVES AN EXPOSURE OF THE PULP. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 898

FALSE

ASSIGN. 24-24

Question 899

HM’S WHO PROVIDE EMERGENCY TREATMENT OF A FRACTURED MANDIBLE WILL USE WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MATERIALS?

Answer 899

ELASTIC BANDAGES

ASSIGN. 24-25

Question 900

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING DECEDENT AFFAIRS PROGRAMS ARE UTILIZED TO CARRY OUT STANDARD RESPONSIBILITIES EXCEPT _____?

Answer 900

• CURRENT DEATH
• GRAVES REGISTRATION
• CASUALT ASSISTANCE CALLS PROGRAM

(ASSIGN. 25-1)

Question 901

WHICH PROGRAM IS INITIATED DURING MAJOR MILITARY OPERATIONS?

Answer 901

GRAVES REGISTRATION

ASSIGN. 25-2

Question 902

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING WILL NOT REQUIRE SUBMISSION OF A PERSONNEL CASUALTY REPORT?

Answer 902

PRISONER OF WAR

ASSIGN. 25-3

Question 903

THE PADD SHOULD BE NOTIFIED OF A DEAHT DURING WHAT HOURS OF OPERATION?

Answer 903

0500-2400

ASSIGN. 25-4

Question 904

A CACO IS NORMALLY ASSIGNED TO ASSIST THE NEEDS OF FAMILY MEMBERS FOR WHAT PERIOD OF TIME?

Answer 904

90 DAYS

ASSIGN. 25-5

Question 905

THE COMMANDING OFFICER MOST WRITE A LETTER OF CONDOLENCE TO THE APPROPRIATE NOK WITHIN WHAT TIME FRAME?

Answer 905

48 HOURS

ASSIGN. 25-6

Question 906

WHEN AN INDIVIDUAL IS INVOLVED IN A MOTORCYCLE OR AUTOMOBILE ACCIDENT OR UNDER THE CARE OF A PHYSICIAN AND DEATH OCCURS, THEY MUST RECEIVE AN AUTOPSY. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 906

FALSE

ASSIGN. 25-7

Question 907

WHEN AN AUTOPSY IS DESIRED BUT NOT REQUIRED PERMISSION MUST BE GRANTED FROM THE PADD. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 907

TRUE

ASSIGN. 25-8

Question 908

WHAT TYPE OF MESSAGE SHOULD BE USED TO NOTIFY BUMED AND NAVY MORTUARY AFFAIRS OF A DISASTER RESULTING IN THE DEATH OF NAVAL MEMBERS?

Answer 908

PRIORITY

ASSIGN. 25-9

Question 909

WHEN A SERCH AND RECOVERY OPERATION CONTINUES LONGER THAN 36 HOURS HOW OFTEN IS A REPORT SUBMITTED BUMED?

Answer 909

24 HOURS

ASSIGN. 25-10

Question 910

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DETERMINATIONS IS NOT MADE BY NAVY MORTUARY AFFAIRS?

Answer 910

UNIDENTIFIABLE

ASSIGN. 25-11

Question 911

THE NAVY AWARDS ANNUAL MORTUARY CONTRACTS TO LOCAL FUNERAL HOMES ANTICIPATING WHAT MINIMUM NUMBER OF DEATHS PER YEAR?

Answer 911

3

ASSIGN. 25-12

Question 912

WHAT TYPE OF CONTRACT IS UTILIZED WHEN THERE ARE NO MORTUARY CONTRACTS IN EFFECT?

Answer 912

ONE TIME CONTRACT

ASSIGN. 25-13

Question 913

IN WHAT EXPENSE CATEGORY IS DRESSING?

Answer 913

PRIMARY EXPENSES

ASSIGN. 25-14

Question 914

IN WHAT EXPENSE CATEGORY I S UNIFORM?

Answer 914

PRIMARY EXPENSES

ASSIGN. 25-15

Question 915

IN WHAT EXPENSE CATEGORY IS REMOVAL FROM PLACE OF DEATH?

Answer 915

TRANSPORTATION EXPENSES

ASSIGN. 25-16

Question 916

IN HWAT EXPENSE CATEGORY IS GRAVE PLOT?

Answer 916

SECONDARY

ASSIGN. 25-17

Question 917

IN WHAT EXPENSE CATEGORY IS AUTOPSY PREPARATION?

Answer 917

PRIMARY EXPENSES

ASSIGN. 25-18

Question 918

IN WHAT EXPENSE CATEGORY IS DELIVERY OF REMAINS TO CEMETERY?

Answer 918

TRANSPORTATION EXPENSES

ASSIGN. 25-19

Question 919

PRIOR TO THE TRANSPORTATION OF REMAINS THEY MAY BE REFRIGERATED BELOW WHAT DEGREES FAHRENHEIT?

Answer 919

40 DEGREES

ASSIGN. 25-20

Question 920

WHO MAY BE ABLE TO PROIDE MORTUARY SERVICES IF DEATH OCCURS IN AN AREA NOT SERVED BY NAVY FACILITIES?

Answer 920

DEPARTMENT OF STATE

ASSIGN. 25-21

Question 921

WHAT FORM MUST ACCOMPANY THE REMAINS OF A MEMBER TO A CONUS POINT OF ENTRY FROM OCONUS?

Answer 921

DD 2064

ASSIGN. 25-22

Question 922

HOW MANY COPIES OF THE STATEMENT OF RECOGNITION (DD565) MUST ACCOMPANY THE REMAINS?

Answer 922

2

ASSIGN. 25-23

Question 923

WHAT ARE THE DIMENSIONS OF THE STANDARD AND OVERSIZED NAVAL CASKETS?

Answer 923

STANDARD: 23 x 78

ASSIGN. 25-24

Question 924

WHEN THE MORTICIAN IS UNABLE TO SEIZE THE ODOR OF REMAINS, THEY WILL NOT BE ACCEPTED FOR BURIAL AT SEA. TRUE OF FALSE?

Answer 924

TRUE

ASSIGN. 25-25

Question 925

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT AN AUTHORIZED METHOD OF PRIMARY TRANSPORTATION FOR REMAINS?

Answer 925

TRAIN

ASSIGN. 25-26

Question 926

CREMATED RAMINS MAY BE SHIPPED TO A CONUSPOINT OF ENTRY VIA COMMERCIAL AIR. TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 926

FALSE

ASSIGN. 25-27

Question 927

WHEN TRANSPORTING REMAINS OF DEATH RESULTING FROM A COMMUNICABLE DISEASE THERE IS A LABEL PLACED ON THE TRANSFER CASE THAT STATES _____.

Answer 927

CONTAGIOUS

ASSIGN. 25-28

Question 928

TO BE SELECTED AS AN ESCORT OF REMAINS YOU MUST MEET ALL OF THE FOLLOWING CRITERIA EXCEPT ______?

Answer 928

FROM THE SAME CITY

ASSIGN. 25-29

Question 929

THE ESCORT SELECTED BY THE PADD IS ALSO KNOWN AS _____.

Answer 929

SPECIAL ESCORT

ASSIGN. 25-30

Question 930

WHO IS ULTIMATELY RESPONSIBLE FOR ASSIGNING AN INVENTORY BOARD FOR THE PERSONAL EFFECTS OF A DECEASED MEMBER?

Answer 930

COMMANDING OFFICER

ASSIGN. 25-31

Question 931

TO WHOM, MUST AN APPLICATION REQUESTING A COMMERCIAL HEADSTONE BE SUBMITTED?

Answer 931

VETERANS AFFAIRS

ASSIGN. 25-32

Question 932

WHEN REQUESTING FUNDS FOR SERVICES OF DECEASED MILITARY PERSONNEL OTHER THAN NAVY AND MARINE CORPS, WHAT FORM IS USED?

Answer 932

MED 5360-3

ASSIGN. 25-33

Question 933

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A CLASSIFICATION FOR NATIONAL CEMETERIES?

Answer 933

PLANNED

ASSIGN. 25-34

Question 934

ANY NAVY AND MARINE CORPS MEMBER SERVING ON ACTIVE DUTY AT THE TIME OF DEATH MAY BE BURIED IN ANY OPEN NATIONAL CEMETERY INCLUDING ARLINGTON, VIRGINIA (WITH REQUIREMENTS MET). TRUE OR FALSE?

Answer 934

FALSE

ASSIGN. 25-35