31 NAVEDTRA 14295B CORPSMAN MANUAL Flashcards by Robert myers

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE KEY TO SERVICE WITH DISTINCTION?

PROFESSIONAL ETHICS

ASSIGN. 1-1

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THE IMPORTANCE OF HAVING MEDICAL CARE ONBOARD NAVAL VESSELS WAS REINFORCED ON _______.

MARCH 2, 1799

ASSIGN. 1-2

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THE ARE CALLED THE SICK BAY TODAY WAS ORIGINALLY REFERRED TO AS WHAT?

COCKPIT

ASSIGN. 1-3

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THE FIRST MEMBER OF THE HOSPITAL CORPS TO BE AWARDED THE MEDAL OF HONOR WAS?

HOSPITAL APPRENTICE ROBER STANLEY

ASSIGN. 1-4

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THE FOUNDATION FOR THE CURRENT SYSTEM OF RANK STRUCTURE CAME IN WHAT YEAR?

1916

ASSIGN. 1.5

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THE FIRST HOSPITAL CORPS SCHOOL FOR WOMEN ACCEPTED FOR VOLUNTEER EMERGENCY SERVICE WAS COMMISSIONED WHERE?

NATIONAL NAVAL MEDICAL CENTER BETHESDA, MD

ASSIGN. 1-6

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THE HONORABLE JAMES FORRESTAL WAS SERVING IN WHAT POSITION WHEN HE PUBLICALLY THANKED THE HOSPITAL CORPS FOR ITS SERVICE AND CONTRIBUTION DURING WWII?

SECRETARY OF THE NAVY

ASSIGN. 1-7

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WHAT WAS THE ORIGINAL RATING INSIGNIA OF THE HOSPITAL CORPS?

RED CROSS

ASSIGN 1-8

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SHOCK TRAUMA PLATOONS (STP) WERE THE FIRST DEPLOYED DURING THE AFGHANISTAN PHASE OF THE WAR ON TERROR. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE

ASSIGN. 1-9

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SOFT POWER WAS FIRST ARTICULATED AS A POSSIBLE MILITARY POLICY IN 1911 BY PRESIDENT THEODORE ROOSEVELT. TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE

ASSIGN. 1-10

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THE DENTAL TECHNICIAN RATING WAS ESTABLISHED _______.

12-DEC-1947

ASSIGN. 1-11

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MOST OF THE NAVY’S MEDICAL ENLISTED TRAINING WILL BE RELOCATED TO _____ ALONG WITH THE ARMY AND AIR FORCE AS OF 2011.

SAN ANTONIO, TX

ASSIGN. 1-12

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WHAT PERCENTAGE OF ALL DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY MEDALS OF HONOR HAS BEEN EARNED BY HOSPITAL CORPSMEN?

50%

ASSIGN. 1-13

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THE FOLLOWING SHOULD BE REPORTED TO THE OOD FOR INCLUSION INTO THE DUTY LOG.

BACTERIA IN POTABLE WATER
SERVICE MEMBER WITH A BROKEN LEG

(ASSIGN. 2-1)

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SAMS IN AN ADMINISTRATIVE MANAGEMENT TOOL THAT TRACKS:

SICK CALL LOG
POTABLE WATER TESTING RESULTS
MEDICAL TRAINING

(ASSIGN. 2-2)

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WHAT SPECIFIC 3-M SYSTEM REGULATES SCHEDULED EQUIPMENT MAINTENANCE?

PLANNED MAINTENANCE SYSTEM

ASSIGN. 2-3

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WHICH TYPE OF DIRECTIVE REGULATES POLICY?

PERMANENT

ASSIGN. 2-4

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CHANGE TRANSMITTALS SHOULD BE FILED WITH _____ ON TOP?

MOST CURRENT CHANGE

ASSIGN. 2-5

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THE DEPARTMENT OF THE NAVY INFORMATION SECURITY PROGRAMS GIVES DIRECTION ON HOW TO PREPARE NAVAL CORRESPONDENCE. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE

ASSIGN. 2-6

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THE 5000 SERIES OF CORRESPONDENCE RELATES TO _______.

GENERAL ADMINISTRATION AND MANAGEMENT

ASSIGN. 2-7

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WHAT IS THE PROCESS CALLED THAT IS USED TO DETERMINE THE CORRECT SUBJECT GROUP UNDER WHICH DOCUMETNS SHOULD FILED?

CLASSIFYING

ASSIGN. 2-8

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HM’S SHOULD USE THEIR BEST JUDGEMENT TO DISPOSE OF QUESTIONABLE DIRECTIVES. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE

ASSIGN. 2-9

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MEDICAL AND DENTAL PERSONNEL MUST BE AWARE OF PLANNED OPERATIONS SO THEY CAN ________.

PLAN FOR SUPPLIES
PLAN FOR POSSIBLE INJURIES
PLAN FOR EXTENDED WORK HOURS

(ASSIGN. 2-10)

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WHICH ELEMENT OF MEDICAL READINESS IS USEED TO CORRECT INDIVIDUAL MEDICAL READINESS DEFICIENCIES?

PHA:

PERIODIC
HEALTH
ASSESSMENT

(ASSIGN. 2-11)

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PERSONNEL IN THESE DENTAL CLASSIFICATIONS GO TO THE HEAD OF THE LINE FOR TREATMENT PRIOR TO DEPLOYMENT.

CLASS 3 AND 4 | ASSIGN. 2-12

A PATIENT IN CLASS 2 DENTAL STATUS MEANS?

SERVICE MEMBER IS DEPLOYABLE | ASSIGN. 2-13

THE PRIMARY MISSION OF THE FMF MEDICAL BATTALION IS TO PROVIDE:

SPECIALIZED SURGERY | ASSIGN. 2-14

FMF DENTAL UNITS MAINTAIN DENTAL READINESS DURING ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT:

EMERGENCY ENVIRONMENTS | ASSIGN. 2-15

FLEET HOSPITAL MISSION AND PERSONNEL REQUIREMENTS ARE SET BY ________.

COMBATANT COMMANDER (COCOM) | ASSIGN. 2-16

FLEET HOSPITALS ARE USED IN OPERATIONS THAT ARE LESS THAN 60 DAYS IN DURATION. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 2-17

WHO DIRECTS THE ACTION OF THE NAVAL MOBILE CONSTRUCTION BATTALION WHEN RESPONDING TO A NATURAL DISASTER, I.E. HURRICANE KATRINA?

COGNIZANT AUTHORITY | ASSIGN. 2-18

A WARFARE QUALIFICATION SIGNIFIES _______.

THE HM’S UNDERSTAND THE UNITS SPECIFIC MISSION. | ASSIGN. 2-19

WHICH OF HTE FOLLOWING IS NOT A HM ADMINISTRATIVE RESPONSIBILITY DURING THE OPERATIONS OF A MEDICAL CLINIC?

OPENING THE CLINIC AND MAKING COFFEE | ASSIGN. 3-1

WHICH SYSTEMS WERE IMPLEMENTED TO ASSIST IN THE PROJECTION AND ALLOCATION OF COST FOR HEALTHCARE PROGRAMS?

DEERS | ASSIGN. 3-2

INSTANCES WHERE THE BENEFICIARY HAS A VALID ID CARD AND DEERS SHOWS THE INDIVIDUAL INELIGIBLE OR NO IN THE DATABASE ELIGIBILITY VERIFICATION BY ID CARD OVERRIDES DEERS. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 3-3

IN CASES WHERE A PATIENT PRESENTS WITHOUT A VALID ID CARD AND DOES NOT APPEAR IN DEERS, NON-EMERGENT CARE WILL STILL BE RENDERED. TRUE OR FALSE?F

FALSE | ASSIGN. 3-4

HOW MANY DAYS AFTER RECEIVING TREATMENT DOES A PTIENT HAVE TO PRESENT A VALID ID CARD BEFORE BEING BILLED AS A CIVILIAN HUMANITARIAN NON-INDIGENT?

30 DAYS | ASSIGN. 3-5

WHO MAY DELAY BILLING ON A PATIENT NO PRESENTING WITH A VALID ID?

COMMANDING OFFICER | ASSIGN. 3-6

WHAT IS THE LENGTH OF TIME A NEWBORN CAN BE TREATED WITHOUT PRESENTING A VALID ID CARD?

60 DAYS | ASSIGN. 3-7

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FOREIGN MILITARY PERSONNEL ARE NOT ELIGIBLE FOR CARE AT NAVAL MTF’S?

FOREIGN MILITARY ON VACATION | ASSIGN. 3-8

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A TYPE OF DENTAL CARE?

SPECIAL | ASSIGN. 3-9

TREATMENT THAT IS NECESSARY TO RELIEVE PAIN, CONTROL BLEEDING, AND MANAGE SEPTIC CONDITIONS FALLS UDNER SPECIAL TYPES OF DENTAL CARE. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 3-10

OF THE FOLLOWING, WHO WILL BE THE FIRST TO RECEIVE DENTAL CARE?

FAMILY OF ACTIVE DUTY EMERGENCY | ASSIGN. 3-11

WHAT PROGRAM IS USED OT EVALUATE THE DEGREE OF EXCELLENCE IN CARE DELIVERED AND ITS RESULTS FOR FUTURE IMPROVEMENT?

QUALITY ASSURANCE | ASSIGN. 3-12

MEDICAL CARE RENDERED BY HEALTHCARE PROVIDERS TO NAVY BENEFICIARIES IS SOMETIMES CONSIDERED SUBPAR DUE TO WHAT FACT?

LACK OF INTERPERSONAL RELATIONSHIP SKILLS | ASSIGN. 3-13

THE PATIENT RELATION PROGRAM IS THE ONLY PROGRRAM THAT STRIVES TO ENHANCE CHANNELS OF COMMUNICATION BETWEEN THE HOSPITAL, STAFF, AND PAITENT POPULATIONS. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 3-14

WHICH PROGRAM ALLOWS PATIENTS TO VOICE THEIR SATISFACTION OR UNSATISFACTORY COMPLAINTS INCLUDING THOSE CONCERNING TREATMENT?

PATIENT CONTACT POINT PROGRAM | ASSIGN. 3-15

WHERE WOULD THE HM LOOK TO FIND MORE INFORMATION IN THE AREA OF MEDICAL TREATMENT RECORDS?

MANMED CHAPTER 16 | ASSIGN. 3-16

THE FAMILY ADVOCACY PROGRAM IDENTIFIES, TREATS, AND MONITORS NAVY PERSONNEL ENGAGING IN WHICH TYPES OF BEHAVIOR?

- SPOUSAL ABUSE - CHILD ABUSE - SEXUAL ABUSE (ASSIGN. 3-17)

PHYSICAL READINESS TESTING IS REQUIRED TO BE CONDUCTED Y SUBORDINATE COMMANDS, WHO’S MEDICAL DEPARTMENTS ARE RESPONSIBLE FORE ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT?

PROCESS WAIVERS FOR COMPLETING THE PRT | ASSIGN. 3-18

FAILURE TO CONSENT PRIOR TO INITIATION OF MEDICAL TREATMENT MAY RSULT IN MEDICAL MALPRACTICE AND/OR ASSAULT AND BATTERY. TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE | ASSIGN. 3-19

WHO IS OBLIGATED TO PROVIDE THE PATIENT WITH ALL NECESSARY INFORMATION TO MAKE A KNOWLEDGEABLE DECISION ON A PROPOSED MEDICAL PROCEDURE?

- MEDICAL PROVIDER - THE DUTY RESTS WITH THE PROVIDER - THIS RESPONSIBLITY CANNOT BE DELEGATED (ASSIGN. 3-20)

CONSENT PRIOR TO INITIATION OF MEDICAL TREATMENT IS REQUIRED IN ALL ROUTINE, EMERGENCY, AND ELECTIVE PROCEDURES. TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE | ASSIGN. 3-21

WHAT LEGAL DOCTRINE SERVES AS THE FINAL AUTHORITY OVER ADN DETERMINES THE CONTROL OF SUBSTITUTE CONSENT?

IT IS THE LAW OF THE STATE IN WHICH THE HOSPITAL IS LOCATED THAT CONTROLS THE QUESTION “SUBSTITUTE CONSENT.” (ASSIGN. 3-22)

WHO IS RECOMMENDED TO ACT AS A WITNESS WHEN THE PATIENT IS CONSENTING TO A MEDICAL PROCEDURE?

STAFF MEMBER NOT INVOLVED IN THE PROCEDURE | ASSIGN. 3-23

UNDER THE FREEDOM OF INFORMATION ACT THE NAVY MUST MAKE ALL DOCUMENTS AVAILABLE EXCEPT THOSE THAT ARE EXEMPT. TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE | ASSIGN. 3-24

WHICH POLICY WAS ESTABLISHED TO PROVIDE A BALANCE BETWEEN THE PUBLIC AND THE PRIVACY OF AN INDIVIDUAL?

PRIVACY ACT OF 1974 | ASSIGN. 3-25

THE HIPAA PRIVACY RULE ALLOWS FOR DISCLOSURE OF WHAT INFORMATION?

PROTECTED HEALTH INFORMATION | ASSIGN. 3-26

PERSONAL HEALTH INFORMATION IS REQUIRED TO BE DISCLOSED FOR ALL OF THE FOLLOWING REASONS EXCEPT?

SECURITY | ASSIGN. 3-27

UNDER WHAT ACT IS IT UNLAWFUL FOR THEUNITED STATES MILITARY TO BE USED AS AN ENFORCER OR TO ASSIST IN THE ENFORCEMENT OF FEDERAL OR STATE LAW?

POSSE COMITATUS ACT | ASSIGN. 3-28

WHO IS AUTHORIZED TO DELIVER AN ACTIVE DUTY MEMBER TO FEDERAL LAW ENFORCEMENT AUTHORITIES AND BASED UPON WHAT ACTION?

COMMANDING OFFICER PRESENTATION OF A FEDERAL WARRANT | ASSIGN. 3-29

PRISONERS AS PATIENTS CATEGORIZED UNDER ALL OF THE FOLLOWING CATEGORIES EXCEPT?

FAMILY MEMBER PRISONERS | ASSIGN. 3-30

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TYPES OF PRISONERS ARE ONLY ALLOWED EMERGENCY MEDICAL TREATMENT?

NON-MILITARY FEDERAL PRISONERS | ASSIGN. 3-31

ALL MILITARY PRISONERS WITH ACTIVE SENTENCES ARE ALLOWED TO RECEIVE MEDICAL CARE. TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE | ASSIGN. 3-32

WHERE CAN THE HM LOCATE GUIDANCE ON CARE, EVALUATION, AND MEDICO LEGAL DOCUMENTATION FOR A VICTIM OF ALLEGED SEXUAL ASSAULT?

NAVMEDCOMINST 6310.3 | ASSIGN. 3-33

WHAT IS THE REASON MANY LEGAL BATTLES ARE LOST?

FAILURE TO ADHERE TO PROPER ADMINISTRATIVE PROCEDURES | ASSIGN. 3-34

CUSTODY OF HEALTH RECORDS IS GENERALLY VESTED IN THE MEDICAL DEPARTMENT. ON SHIPS WITHOUT A MEDICAL DEPARTMENT REPRESENTATIVE AN INDIVIDUAL RETAINS CUSTODY OF THE RECORD UNTIL WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TIMES IF ANY?

NEVER | ASSIGN. 4-1

WHEN A MEMBER IS HOSPITALIZED IN A FOREIGN NATION AND THE SHIP DEPARTS PORT, THE HEALTH RECORD IS?

FORWARDED TO THE NEAREST CONSULATE OR EMBASSY | ASSIGN. 4-2

THE HEALTH RECORD JACKET OF PO3 WALTER T DOOR, 333-44-5555, WOULD BE WHAT COLOR?

BLUE | ASSIGN. 4-3

THE HEALTH JACKETS OF FLAG OR GENERAL OFFICERS SHOULD BE ANNOTATED TO REFLECT THEIR RANK. TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE | ASSIGN. 4-4

WHEN HREC IS OPENED ON A SERVICE MEMBER, THE MEMBER SHOULD BE DIRECTED TO READ AND SIGN THE PRIVACY ACT STATEMENT INSIDE THE BACK COVER OF THE HREC. TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE | ASSIGN. 4-5

ENTRIES TO THE CHRONOLOGICAL RECORD OF MEDICAL CARE, SF600, WHEN ARE NOT TYPEWRITTEN, SHOULD BE MADE IN WHICH COLOR(S) OF INK?

BLACK OR BLUE-BLACK | ASSIGN. 4-6

WHAT IS THE PREFERRED FORM ON WHICH TO RECORD ADMISSION TO THE HOSPITAL?

SF 509, MEDICAL RECORD-PROGRESS REPORT | ASSIGN. 4-7

A HEALTH RECORD IS OPENED IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CASES?

ALL OF THE ABOVE: (1) WHEN A MEMBER RETURNS TO ACTIVE DUTY FROM THE RETURNED (2) WHEN THE ORIGINAL RECORD HAS BEEN LOST (3) WHEN FIRST BECOMING A MEMBER OF THE NAVAL SERVICE (ASSIGN. 4-8)

A WELL KNOWN RESEARCH GROUP REQUEST INFORMATION TO USE AS PART OF THE BASIS OF A STUDY IT IS PERFORMING. WHAT ACTION, IF ANY, SHOULD BE TAKEN PRIOR TO RELEASE?

COMMANDING OFFICER OF THE MTF SHOULD FORWARD THE REQUEST TO BUMED FOR GUIDANCE (ASSIGN. 4-9)

IN WHICH OF HTE FOLLOWING CIRCUMSTANCES SHOULD THE HEALTH RECORD BE VERIFIED?

ALL OF THE ABOVE: (1) REPORTING TO A NEW COMMAND (2) WHEN TRANSFERRING (3) ANNUALLY (ASSIGN. 4-10)

UNDER WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CIRCUMSTANCES WOULD A MEMBER’S HEALTH RECORD NOT BE CLOSED?

TRANSFERS TO A NEW DUTY STATION | ASSIGN. 4-11

ON WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DOCUMENTS WOULD A NOTATION BE MADE CONCERNING A MEMBERS STATUS AS A DESERTER?

SF600 | ASSIGN. 4-12

A MEMBER SEPARATED FOR DISABILITY SHOULD RECEIVE A COPY OF THE HREC TO PRESENT TO THE VA SO THAT THE MEMBER’S CLAIM CAN BE PROCESSED EXPEDITIOULY. TRUE OR FALSE. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 4-13

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FMP CODES WILL BE PLACED IN THE TWO DIAMONDS PRECEDING THE SSN FOR AN ACTIVE DUTY MEMBER?

20 | ASSIGN. 4-14

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PHRASES IS WRITTEN IN TH ELOWER PORTION OF THE PATIENTS IDENTIFICATION BOX FOR RETIRED O-7 AND ABOVE PERSONNEL?

FLAG/GENERAL OFFICER | ASSIGN. 4-15

WHICH OF THE FOLLOW SYMBOLS AND WHICH COLOR OF FELT-TIP PEN IS USED IN THE ALERT BOX IF THE PATIENT HAS AN ALLERGY OR SENSITIVITY?

“X” BLACK | ASSIGN. 4-16

WHICH, IF ANY, OF THE FOLLOWING COLOR FELT-TIP PENS IS USED TO MARK THE ANNUAL VERIFICATION SECTION ON THE RIGHT-HAND SIDE OF THE DENTAL RECORD JACKET?

NONE OF THE ABOVE: - NOT RED - NOT BLUE - NOT BLACK (ASSIGN. 4-17)

THE FORM PRINTED ON THE INSIDE OF THE FRONT JACKEET COVER SHOULD BE COMPLETED IN WHAT TYPE OF WRITING UTENSILS?

PENCIL | ASSIGN. 4-18

WHERE IS THE DD2005, PRIVACY ACT STATEMENT LOCATED IN THE NAVMED 6150/21-30?

FRONT OF CENTER PAGE (PART II) | ASSIGN. 4-19

WHERE IS THE DISCLOSURE ACCOUNTING RECORD LOCATED IN THE NAVMED 6150/21-30?

BACK OF CENTER PAGE (PART III) | ASSIGN. 4-20

WHAT FORM IS THE DENTAL HEALTH QUESTIONNAIRE?

NAVMED 6600/3 | ASSIGN. 4-21

WHAT FORM IS ROUTINELY USED FOR INPATIENT ADMISSION AND FILED IN THE IREC?

SF509 | ASSIGN. 4-22

WHAT IS THE PRIMARY FORM FOR ALL OUTPATIENT CARE?

SF600 | ASSIGN. 4-23

WHAT IS THE ADULT PREVENTATIVE AND CHRONIC CARE FLOW SHEET?

DD 2766 | ASSIGN. 4-24

WHAT IS THE EYEWEAR PRESCRIPTION?

DD 771 | ASSIGN. 4-25

WHAT FORM IS THE CONSULTATION SHEET?

SF 513 | ASSIGN. 4-26

WHAT FORM IS A MEMBER’S PERSONAL RECORD OF IMMUNIZATION?

PHS-731 | ASSIGN. 4-27

WHAT IS THE DENTAL EXAM FORM?

EZ603 | ASSIGN. 4-28

WHAT IS THE DENTAL TREATMENT FORM?

DENTAL TREATMENT FORM | ASSIGN. 4-29

DENTAL EXAM FORMS SHOULD BE FILED IN WHICH SECTION OF THE NAVMED 6150/21-30?

BACK OF THE CENTER PAGE (PART III) | ASSIGN. 4-30

WHERE IS THE FORENSIC EXAMINATION FORM LOCATED IN THE NAVMED 6150/21-30?

INSIDE THE BACK COVER (PART IV) | ASSIGN. 4-31

THE MOST CURRENT DENTAL TREATMENT FORM EZ603A IS FILED IN WHICH SECTION OF THE NAVMED 6150/21?

INSIDE BACK COVER (PART IV) | ASSIGN. 4-32

WHEN USING THE TERMINAL FILING SYSTEM, HOW MANY EQUAL SECTIONS ARE THE CENTRAL FILES DIVIDED INTO?

100 | ASSIGN. 4-33

ALL FORMS DOCUMENTING PATIENT CARE PLACED IN THE NAVMED 6150-21/30 WILL CONTAIN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PATIENT INFORMATION?

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING (ABOVE): (1) FMP AND SPONSOR’S SSN (2) NAME - LAST, FIRST, MIDDLE INITIAL (3) SPONSOR’S BRANCH OF SERVICE AND STATUS (ASSIGN. 4-34)

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING NAVMED FORMS IS THE HEALTH RECORD RECEIPT?

NAVMED 6150/7 | ASSIGN. 4-35

SEQUENTIAL BITEWING RADIOGRAPHS SHOULD BE FILED IN WHICH SECTION OF THE NAVMED 6150/21-30?

INSIDE FRONT COVER | ASSIGN. 4-36

WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM TIME ALLOWED FOR THE RETENTION OF LOOSE TREATMENT FORMS?

1 YEAR | ASSIGN. 4-37

WHERE WOULD THE HM LOCATE THE POLICIES AND GUIDANCE FOR OPERATING AND MANAGING PROCEDURES OF SUPPLY DEPARTMENTS AND ACTIVITIES?

NAVSUP P-485 | ASSIGN. 5-1

THE AGREEMENT TO CONTRACT WITH A VENDOR WITHOUT THE APPROPRIATE LEVEL OF AUTHORITY IS ALSO KNOWN AS?

UNAUTHORIZED COMMITMENT | ASSIGN. 5-2

WHEN A REQUISITION EXCEEDS THE CURRENT COMPETITIVE THRESHOLD, THE HM MUST RECEIVE QUOTES FROM HOW MANY ADDITIONAL VENDORS?

3 | ASSIGN. 5-3

ANY ITEM THAT HAS AN APPLICATION AND APPEARS ON APL, SNSL, ISL, OR NAVAL SHIP SYSTEMS COMMAND IS KNOWN AS WHAT?

REPAIR PART | ASSIGN. 5-4

HOW MANY DIGITS ARE INCLUDED IN THE FEDERAL SUPPLY CLASSIFICATION?

2 | ASSIGN. 5-5

WHAT IS THE FEDERAL SUPPLY CLASSIFICATION? (BELOW) 6515-00-123-4567 A B C D

6515 A (ASSIGN. 5-6)

WHAT IS THE NATIONAL CODIFICATION BUREAU CODE? (BELOW) 6515-00-123-4567 A B C D

00 B (ASSIGN. 5-7)

THE SUM TOTAL OF THE OPERATING LEVEL AND SAFETY LEVEL IS ALSO KNOWN AS WHAT?

STOCKAGE OBJECTIVE | ASSIGN. 5-8

A CONTROLLED SUBSTANCE INVENTORY IS CONDUCTED HOW OFTEN?

MONTHLY | ASSIGN. 5-9

THE END USER MUST COMPLETE ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT UPON RECEIPT OF ITEMS?

PLACE A CHECK BY EACH ITEM RECEIVED | ASSIGN. 5-10

WHAT IS THE MOST COMMON RECEIPT DOCUMENT THAT IS ENCOUNTERED?

DD 1348 | ASSIGN. 5-11

WHEN THE HM ENCOUNTERS A SHIPPING OR PACKAGING DISCREPANCY ON BEHALF OF THE SHIPPER, THE HM SHOULD SUBMIT A ______?

REPORT OF DISCREPANCY | ASSIGN. 5-12

A ROD IS SUBMITTED ON WHAT FORM?

SF364 | ASSIGN. 5-13

THE FIRST IN, FIRST OUT METHOD IS A PROCESS OF ISSUING ITEMS TO THE FIRST PERSON WHO ARRIVES. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 5-14

THE FIRST IN, FIRST OUT. METHOD IS MOST IMPORTANT WHEN DEALING WITH ITEMS THAT HAVE A SHELF LIFE OR EXPIRATION CODE?

TRUE | ASSIGN. 5-15

WHEN THE BODY IS IN THE ANATOMICAL POSITION THE THUMBS POINT______?

LATERALLY | ASSIGN. 6-1

A PERSON LYING ON HIS/HER BACK IS IN WHAT POSITION?

SUPINE | ASSIGN. 6-2

THE PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL BREAKDOWN OF THE FOOD WE EAT IS CALLED _____?

DIGESTION | ASSIGN. 6-3

THE TRANSFER OF FLUIDS ACROSS THE PLASMA MEMBRANE OF A CELL FROM AN AREA OF HIGHER CONCENTRATION TO AN AREA OF LOWER CONCENTRATION IS A PROCESS KNOWN AS _______?

DIFFUSION | ASSIGN. 6-4

HOMEOSTASIS IS DEFINED AS ______?

SELF-REGULATING CONTROL OF THE BODY’S INTERNAL ENVIRONMENT | ASSIGN. 6-5

THAT PORTION OF A CELL CONTAINING ALL THE GENETIC MATERIAL IMPORTANT IN THE CELL’S REPRODUCTION IS CALLED THE ______?

NUCLEUS | ASSIGN. 6-6

THE SECRETION OF DIGESTIVE FLUIDS AND THE ABSORPTION OF DIGESTED FOODS AND LIQUIDS IS THE CHIEF FUNCTION OF WHICH TISSUE?

COLUMNAR | ASSIGN. 6-7

THE BODY’S PRIMARY THERMO-REGULATORY ACTION IS A FUNCTION OF DILATING AND CONTRACTING BLOOD VESSELS AND THE _____?

SWEAT GLANDS | ASSIGN. 6-8

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE THE TWO MOST PROMINENT MINERAL ELEMENTS OF BONE?

PHOSPHOROUS AND CALCIUM | ASSIGN. 6-9

THE BONES OF THE WRIST ARE CLASSIFIED AS WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING BONES?

SHORT | ASSIGN. 6-10

BONES OF THE CRANIUM INCLUDE WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?

OCCIPITAL | ASSIGN. 6-11

THE AXIAL SKELETON IS COMPOSED OF WHICH TWO REGIONS OF THE SKELETAL SYSTEM?

SKULL AND VERTEBRAL COLUMN | ASSIGN. 6-12

THE UPPER THREE RIBS OKN EACH SIDE ARE KNOWN AS WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TYPES?

TRUE RIBS | ASSIGN. 6-13

THE CONCAVITY INTO WHICH THE HEAD OF THE HUMERUS ARTICULATES IS CALLED THE ____?

GLENOID FOSSA | ASSIGN. 6-14

THE INNOMINATE BONES IS COMPOSED OF THREE PARTS THAT ARE UNITED IN ADULTS TO FORM A CUPLIKE STRUCTURE CALLED THE _______?

ACETABELUM | ASSIGN. 6-15

THE PROMINENCE EASILY FELT ON TH EINNER AND OUTER ASPECTS FO THE ANKLE ARE CALLED _____?

MEDIAL AND LATERAL MALLEOLUS | ASSIGN. 6-16

BONES THAT DEVELOP WITHIN A TENDON ARE KNOWN AS WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?

SEISMOID | ASSIGN. 6-17

MOVING AN EXTREMITY AWAY FROM THE BODY IS CALLED?

ABDUCTION | ASSIGN. 6-18

THE ACT OF STRAIGHTENING A LIMB IS KNOWN AS?

EXTENSION | ASSIGN. 6-19

THE PRIMARY FUNCTION OF THE MUSCLES INCLUDES ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT ______?

PRODUCING RED BLOOD CELLS | ASSIGN. 6-20

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROPERTIES DESCRIBES THE ABILITY OF MUSCLES TO RESPOND TO A STIMULUS?

IRRITABILITY | ASSIGN. 6-21

THE ABILITY OF MUSCLES TO REGAIN THEIR ORIGINAL FORM WHEN STRETCHED IS KNOWN AS ______?

ELASTICITY | ASSIGN. 6-22

ACTIN AND MYOSIN ARE TWO PROTEIN SUBSTANCES INVOLVED IN ____?

MUSCLE CONTRACTION | ASSIGN. 6-23

IF A GENERALLY SEDENTARY PERSON IN LESS THAN GOOD PHYSICAL HEALTH ENTERS A MARATHON WITH THE INTENT TO COMPLETE THE RACE, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING OUTCOMES CAN HE/SHE BE EXPECTED TO ENCOUNTER?

HE/SHE RUNS THE RISK OF MUSCLE DAMAGE | ASSIGN. 6-24

INTRAMUSCULAR INJECTIONS ARE FREQUENTLY GIVEN IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MUSCLES?

DELTOID | ASSIGN. 6-25

INTRAMUSCULAR INJECTIONS ARE USUALLY GIVEN IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MUSCLES?

GLUTEUS MAXIMUS | ASSIGN. 6-26

THE TOTAL BLOOD VOLUME IN THE AVERAGE ADULT IS IN WHAT RANGE?

5 TO 6 LITERS | ASSIGN. 6-27

A DECREASED RED BLOOD CELL (RBC) COUNT COULD BE THE RESULT OF A MEDICAL CONDITION AFFECTING THE _____?

RED MARROW | ASSIGN. 6-28

A WHITE BLOOD CELL (WBC) COUNT OF 18,000 MAY INDICATE WHAT CONDITION?

INFECTION | ASSIGN. 6-29

IN AN ACCIDENT VICTIM SUFFERING FROM A FIBRINOGEN DEFICIENCY, THE RESCUER MAY HAVE DIFFICULTY PERFORMING WHICH OF HTE ACTIONS BELOW?

CONTROLLING HEMORRHAGE | ASSIGN. 6-30

IN ADDITION TO PREVENTING EXCESSIVE BLOOD LOSS, THE FORMATION OF A BLOOD CLOT SERVES WHICH, IF ANY, OF THE FOLLOWING PURPOSES?

TO FORM THE FOUNDATION FOR NEW TISSUE GROWTH | ASSIGN. 6-31

THE VALVES OF THE HEART INCLUDE ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT _____?

VAGUS | ASSIGN. 6-32

OXYGENATED BLOOD IS CARRIED BY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING VEIN(S)?

PULMONARY | ASSIGN. 6-33

THE CONTRACTION PHASE OF THE HEART IS ______?

SYSTOLE | ASSIGN. 6-34

THE PULSE PRESSURE IS THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MEASUREMENT?

SYSTOLE AND DIASTOLE | ASSIGN. 6-35

THE VENOUS SYSTEM THAT CARRIES THE DIGESTED MATERIALS FORM THE INTESTINAL TRACT IS CALLED THE ______?

PORTAL | ASSIGN. 6-36

LYMPH NODES PARTICIPATE IN ALL OF THE FOLLOWING FUNCTIONS EXCEPT ______?

PRODUCTION OF HORMONES | ASSIGN. 6-37

WINDPIPE IS ANOTHER TERM FOR _______?

TRACHEA | ASSIGN. 6-38

THE PRIMARY MUSCLE OF RESPIRATION IS KNOWN AS THE _____?

DIAPHRAGM | ASSIGN. 6-39

OF THE FOLLOWING NERVES, WHICH, IF ANY, CONTROLS THE LARYNX DURING THE PROCESS OF BREATHING?

VAGUS | ASSIGN. 6-40

A NERVE CELL OR NEURON IS COMPOSED OF ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT A/AN _______?

SYNAPSE | ASSIGN. 6-41

THE IMPULSE RECEPTORS OF A NERVE ARE CALLED ______?

DENDRITES | ASSIGN. 6-42

THE SPACE THROUGH WHICH A NERVE IMPULSE PASSES FROM ONE NEURON TO ANOTHER IS CALLED A/AN ______?

SYNAPSE | ASSIGN. 6-43

BALANCE, COORDINATION OR MOVEMENT, AND HARMONY OF MOTION ARE FUNCTIONS OF WHAT PART OF THE BRAIN?

CREBELLUM | ASSIGN. 6-44

CIRCULATION AND RESPIRATION ARE CONTROLLED PRIMARILY FROM WHAT AREA OF THE BRAIN?

MEDULLA | ASSIGN. 6-45

THE MENINGES, WHICH COVER THE OUTER PORTION OF THE BRAIN AND SPINAL CORD ARE COMPOSED OF ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT ________?

FORAMEN MAGNUM | ASSIGN. 6-46

IN WHAT PART OF THE BODY IS CEREBRAL SPINAL FLUID PRODUCED?

CENTRAL VENTRICLES | ASSIGN. 6-47

THE 12 PAIRS OF CRANIAL AND 31 PAIRS OF SPINAL NERVES FORM WHAT NERVOUS SYSTEM?

PERIPHERAL | ASSIGN. 4-48

THIS NERVE CONTROLS THE MUSCLES OF THE TONGUE. (CRANIAL NERVE)

HYPOGLOSSAL 14 | ASSIGN. 6-49

THIS NERVE ALLOWS YOU TO STICK OUT YOUR TONGUE. (CRANIAL NERVE)

GLOSSOPHARYNGEAL 9 | ASSIGN. 6-50

THIS NERVE RECEIVES SENSORY INPUT FROM THE FACE. (CRANIAL NERVE)

FACIAL 7 | ASSIGN. 6-51

THE AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM IS COMPOSED OF TWO MAIN DIVISIONS.

SYMPATHETIC AND PARASYMPATHETIC SYSTEMS | ASSIGN. 6-52

CONSERVATION AND RESTORATION OF ENERGY ARE THE RESULT OF NERVE IMPULSES ARISING FROM WHICH, IF ANY, OF THE FOLLOWING NERVOUS SYSTEMS?

PARASYPATHETIC | ASSIGN. 6-53

WHAT IS THE NERVOUS SYSTEM RESPONSIBLE FOR INCREASED HEART RATE?

SYMPATHETIC | ASSIGN. 6-54

WHAT IS THE NERVOUS SYSTEM RESPONSIBLE FOR VISUAL ACUITY?

PERIPHERAL | ASSIGN. 6-55

WHAT NERVOUS SYSTEM DECREASES HEART RATE TO WITHIN NORMAL LIMITS?

PARASYMPATHETIC | ASSIGN. 6-56

WHAT NERVOUS SYSTEM IS RESPONSIBLE FOR THE REFLEX ARC?

PERIPHERAL | ASSIGN. 6-57

HORMONES SECRETED BY THE ENDOCRINE SYSTEM ARE ____?

SECRETED INTO THE CIRCULATORY SYSTEM | ASSIGN. 6-58

THE OVERPRODUCTION OF WHICH HORMONE LEADS TO ACGROMEGALY?

SOMATOTROPIN | ASSIGN. 6-59

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DISEASES IS CHARACTERIZED BY A DEFICIENCY OF THE ANTIDIURETIC HORMONE?

DIABETES INSIPIDUS | ASSIGN. 6-60

AN INSUFFICIENT SECRETION OF THYROXIN IS CHARACTERIZED BY ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT ______?

PROFUSE SWEATING | ASSIGN. 6-61

CALCIUM LEVELS IN THE BLOOD ARE CONTROLLED BY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING HORMONES?

THYROXIN | ASSIGN. 6-62

ELECTROLYTE BALANCE IS A FUNCTION OF THE HORMONE PRODUCED BY THE _____?

POSTERIOR LOBE OF THE PITUITARY GLAND | ASSIGN. 6-63

A METABOLIC RESPONSE TO EPINEPHRINE INCLUDES WHICH, IF ANY, OF THE SYMPTOMS LISTED BELOW?

INCREASED BLOOD PRESSURE | ASSIGN. 6-64

WHAT HORMONE IS PRODUCED BY THE ALPHA CELLS OF THE ISLANDS OF LANGERHANS IN THE PANCREAS?

GLUCAGON | ASSIGN. 6-65

THE CORNEA IS PART OF THE PROTECTIVE OUTER LAYER OF THE EYE CALLED THE ______?

SCLERA | ASSIGN. 6-66

THE INNER PART OF THE EYE DERIVES ITS DIMENSIONAL NOURISHMENT PRIMARILY FROM WHAT VASCULAR TISSUE?

CHOROID | ASSIGN. 6-67

THE DILATION OF THE PUPIL, A MUSCULAR RESPONSE OF THE IRIS, NORMALLY OCCURS AS A RESULT OF WHAT?

DECREASED INTENSITY OF LIGHT | ASSIGN. 6-68

OF THE ELEMENTS LISTED BELOW, WHICH MAKES SEEING IN THE DARK POSSIBLE?

RODS | ASSIGN. 6-69

BY WHAT PROCESS IS THREE DIMENSIONAL VISION PRODUCED?

CONVERGENCE | ASSIGN. 6-70

THE MECHANICAL TRANSMISION OF SOUND FROM THE TYMPANIC MEMBRANE TOTHE INNER EAR IS A FUNCTION OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?

AUDITORY OSSICLES | ASSIGN. 6-71

WHAT STRUCTURE(S) OF THE INNER EAR PROVIDE(S) NERUAL STIMULI USED TO MAINTAIN EQUILIBRIUM?

SEMICIRCULAR CANALS | ASSIGN. 6-72

THE CONVERSION OF MECHANICAL IMPULSES (SOUND WAVES) TO NEURAL IMPULSES THAT CAN BE INTERRUPTED BY THE BRAIN IS A FUNCTION OF THE ______?

ORGAN OF CORTI | ASSIGN. 6-73

THE ENZYMATIC ACTION OF AMYLASE RESULTS IN THE CHEMICAL BREAKDOWN OF ______?

STARCHES TO COMPLEX SUGARS | ASSIGN. 6-74

ABSORPTION OF FOOD OCCURS PRDOMINATLY IN WHIHC OF THE FOLLOWING AREAS OF THE INTESTINES?

SMALL INTESTINES | ASSIGN. 6-75

OF THESE LISTED BELOW, WHICH FUNCTION AS THE ACCESSORY ORGANS OF DIGESTION FOR SMALL INTESTINES?

PANCREAS, LIVER, AND GALLBLADDER | ASSIGN. 6-76

THE GALLBLADDER PERFORMS WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PURPOSES?

STORES BILE | ASSIGN. 6-77

THE FUNCTIONAL UNIT FO THE KIDNEY IS CALLED THE ____?

NEPHRON | ASSIGN. 6-78

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS/ARE (A) FUNCTION(S) OF THE KIDNEYS?

- TO MAINTAIN ACID-BASE BALANCE - TO REMOVE EXCESS WASTE FROM THE BLOOD - FORMATION OF URINE (ASSIGN. 6-79)

WHAT IS THE APPROXIMATE TOTAL CAPACITY OF THE ADULT BLADDER?

600 mL | ASSIGN. 6-80

TESTOSTERONE PRODUCTION IS A FUNCTION OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING GLANDS?

TESTES | ASSIGN. 6-81

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS/ARE CONSIDERED THE PRIMARY FEMALE REPRODUCTIVE ORGANS?

OVARIES | ASSIGN. 6-82

FERTILIZATION OF AN OVUM NORMALLY TAKES PLACE IN THE _____?

FALLOPIAN TUBES | ASSIGN. 6-83

THE LIMITATIONS IMPOSED UPON A HEALTHCARE PROVIDER ARE BASED ON LOCAL REGULATIONS AND WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ELEMENTS?

THE PROVIDERS TRAINING AND EXPERIENCE | ASSIGN. 6-84

DENTAL DEVELOPMENT USUALLY BEGINS IN WHICH WEEK OF PRENATAL LIFE?

6TH | ASSIGN. 7-1

HOW MANY TOTAL TOOTH BUDS ARE PRESENT IN THE PRENATAL MAXILLARY AND MANDIBULAR ARCH?

10 | ASSIGN. 7-2

WHAT IS THE NAME OF THE LAST PERIOD OF TOOTH GROWTH?

HISTODIFFERENTIATION | ASSIGN. 7-3

HOW MANY YEARS DOES IT TAKE PERMANENT TEETH TO EMERGE AFTER CROWN COMPLETION?

3 | ASSIGN. 7-4

WHEN PRIMARY TEETH GET READY TO FALL OUT AN DMAKE WAY FOR THE ERUPTION OF PERMANENT TEETH, WHAT IS THE NAME OF THIS PROCESS?

EXFOLIATION | ASSIGN. 7-5

THE PART OF THE CROWN THAT IS VISIBLE IN THE MOUTH IS KNOWN BY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TERMS?

CLINICAL CROWN | ASSIGN. 7-6

WHAT IS THE NAME OF THE REGION WHERE THE ROOTS SEPARATE?

FURCATION | ASSIGN. 7-7

THE TIP OF EACH ROOT IS KNOWN BY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TERMS?

APEX | ASSIGN. 7-8

WHEN THERE IS A SLIGHT INDENTATION THAT ENCIRCLES THE TOOTH AND MARKS THE JUNCTION OF THE CROWN WITH THE ROOT, IT IS KNOWN BY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TERMS?

CERVICAL LINE | ASSIGN. 7-9

ENAMEL IS FORMED BY WHAT TYPE OF EPITHELIAL CELLS?

AMELOBLASTS | ASSIGN. 7-10

WHAT IS THE CHIEF FUNCTION OF THE PULP?

FORMATION OF DENTIN | ASSIGN. 7-11

WHAT PORTION OF THE MAXILLA AND MANDIBLE ARE TEETH EMBEDDED?

ALVEOLAR PROCESS | ASSIGN. 7-12

WHEN VIEWED BY A RADIOGRAPH, THE TRABECULAR BONE WILL HAVE WHAT TYPE OF APPEARANCE?

WEB-LIKE | ASSIGN. 7-13

A TOOTH IS SUSPENDED IN ITS SOCKET BY WHAT LIGAMENT?

PERIODONTAL | ASSIGN. 7-14

THE ORAL MUCOSA CONSISTS OF HOW MANY TOTAL TYPES OF MUCOSA?

3 | ASSIGN. 7-15

THE HARD PALATE IS COVERED WITH WHAT TYPE OF MUCOSA?

MASTICATORY | ASSIGN. 7-16

WHAT IS THE TERM GIVEN TO THE PORTION OF GINGIVA THAT EXTENDS FROM THE GINGIVAL CREST TO THE CREST OF THE BONE?

UNATTACHED GINGIVA | ASSIGN. 7-17

WHAT AREA IS THE FIRST TO SHOE THE SYMPTOMS OF GINGIVITIS?

GINGIVAL MARGIN | ASSIGN. 7-18

WHAT AREA PREVENTS FOOD FROM PACKING BETWEEN THE TEETH?

INTERDENTAL PAPILLA | ASSIGN. 7-19

WHAT TYPE OF TISSUE IS FOUND ON THE INSIDE OF THE LIPS, CHEEKS, VESTIBULE, SOFT PALATE, AND UNDER THE TONGUE?

LINING MUCOSA | ASSIGN. 7-20

HOW MANY DENTAL QUADRANTS ARE IN THE MOUTH?

4 | ASSIGN. 7-21

HOW MANY PRIMARY TEETH ARE THERE IN A NORMAL DECIDUOUS MOUTH?

20 | ASSIGN. 7-22

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING REASONS AFFECT HOW TEETH ARE FORMED?

CUTTING, TEARING, AND GRINDING | ASSIGN. 7-23

WHAT TYPE OF SHAPE DOES THE LINGUAL SURFACE OF AN INCISOR HAVE?

SHOVEL | ASSIGN. 7-24

CUSPIDS ARE DESIGNED TO PERFORM WHAT TYPE OF FUNCTION?

CUTTING AND TEARING | ASSIGN. 7-25

WHAT IS THE NAME OF THE SYSTEM THAT IS USED BY THE ARMED FORCES TO IDENTIFY TEETH?

UNIVERSAL NUMBERING | ASSIGN. 7-26

PRIMARY TEETH ARE IDENTIFIED BY WHICH LETTERS OF THE ALPHABET?

A TO T | ASSIGN. 7-27

THE MESIAL SURFACE OF A TOOTH IS LOCATED IN WHICH AREA?

CLOSEST TO THE MIDLINE OF THE ARCH | ASSIGN. 7-28

THE DISTAL SURFACE OF A TOOTH IS LOCATED IN WHICH AREA?

AWAY FROM THE MIDLINE OF THE ARCH | ASSIGN. 7-29

A TOOTH HAS HOW MANY PROXIMAL SURFACES?

2 | ASSIGN. 7-30

THE INTER-PROXIMAL SPACE IS OCCUPIED BY WHAT TYPE OF ANATOMY?

INTERDENTAL PAPILLA | ASSIGN. 7-31

THE ANTERIOR POSTERIOR CURVE IS REFERRED TO BY WHAT TERM?

CURVE OF SPEE | ASSIGN. 7-32

IF A PATIENT’S PROFILE IS CHARACTERIZED AS “NORMAL,” IT IS A CLASS _______ ANGLE.

CLASS I | ASSIGN. 7-23

THE MESIAL MARGIN OF A MAXILLARY CENTRAL INCISOR MEETS THE INCISAL EDGE AT ALMOST WHAT DEGREE ANGLE?

90 | ASSIGN. 7-34

WHAT ARE THE FIRST PERMANENT TEETH TO ERUPT?

MANDIBULAR LATERAL INCISOR | ASSIGN. 7-35

WHAT IS THE TERM USED TO DESCRIBE THE APPEARANCE OF A MANDIBULAR FIRST BICUSPID?

BELL-CROWNED | ASSIGN. 7-36

WHAT TOOTH WILL HAVE A FIFTH CUSP ON IT?

MANDIBULAR SECOND MOLAR | ASSIGN. 7-37

WHAT DENTAL ANATOMY HAS A ROUNDED OR ANGULAR DEPRESSION OF VARYING SIZES FOUND ON THE SURFACE OF A TOOTH?

CUSP | ASSIGN. 7-38

WHAT IS THE NAME OF THE DENTAL ANATOMY THAT HAS SMALL, ROUNDED PROJECTIONS OF ENAMEL FROM THE INCISAL EDGES OF NEWLY ERUPTED ANTERIOR TEETH?

MAMELONS | ASSIGN. 7-39

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS DOES THE SCIENCE OF ORAL PATHOLOGY NOT TREAT?

SURGICAL PROCEDURES | ASSIGN. 8-1

WHO IS RESPONSIBLE FOR INFORMING A PATIENT WHEN AN ORAL DISEASE IS FOUND?

DENTAL OFFICER | ASSIGN. 8-2

ABOUT HOW MANY MILLILITERS (mL) OF SALIVA DO THE SALIVARY GLANDS SECRETE ON A DAILY BASIS?

1500 mL | ASSIGN. 8-3

WHAT IS AN ENCLOSED POUCH OR SAC THAT CONTAINS FLUID OR SEMI-SOLID MATERIAL?

CYST | ASSIGN. 8-4

WHAT MAY BE CAUSED BY BITING, DENTURE IRRITATION, TOOTHBRUSH INJURY, VIRUSES, OR OTHER IRRITANTS?

ULCERS | ASSIGN. 8-5

WHAT IS A ROUND PINPOINT NON-RAISED, LESION WITH PURPLISH-RED SPOTS?

PETICHIAE | ASSIGN. 8-6

WHAT IS A LOCAL COLLECTION OF BLOOD THAT ESCAPED FROM BLOOD VESSELS BECAUSE OF TRAUMA?

HEMATOMA | ASSIGN. 8-7

WHAT IS A SMALL ELEVATION THAT CONTAINS FLUID?

VESICLES | ASSIGN. 8-8

WHAT IS A LARGE, PURPLISH-RED AREAS CAUSED BY BLOOD UNDER THE SKIN OR MUCOSA?

ECCHYMOSES | ASSIGN. 8-9

WHAT IS COMMONLY CAUSED BY A BACTERIAL INFECTION?

ABCESS | ASSIGN. 8-10

WHEN DENTAL CARIES FIRST APPEAR ON ENAMEL, WHAT IS THAT APPEARANCE?

A CHALKY WHITE SPOT | ASSIGN. 8-11

WHAT TYPE OF BACTERIA HAS BEEN LINKED TO TOOTH DECAY?

STREPTOCOCCI | ASSIGN. 8-12

RECURRENT CARIES WILL OCCUR IN A TOOTH IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CIRCUMSTANCES?

LEAKY MARGINS | ASSIGN. 8-13

PIT AND FISSURES CARIES DEVELOP IN WHAT AREA OF A TOOTH?

DEPRESSION | ASSIGN. 8-14

SMOOTH SURFACE CARIES DEVELOP IN WHAT AREA OF A TOOTH?

PROXIMAL SURFACES | ASSIGN. 8-15

PULPAGIA COMMONLY OCCURS AFTER WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROCEDURES HAS BEEN PERFORMED ON TOOTH?

AFTER A RESTORATION | ASSIGN. 8-16

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DEFINITIONS BEST DESCRIBES PULPITIS?

INFLAMMATION OF THE DENTAL PULP | ASSIGN. 8-17

IF A PERIAPICAL ABCESS IS LEFT UNTREATED, IN WHAT AREA OF A TOOTH WILL BONE LOSS OCCUR?

APEX | ASSIGN. 8-18

DEAD PULPAL TISSUE WILL DECOMPOSE AND PRODUCE WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING RESULTS?

TOXINS | ASSIGN. 8-19

WHAT CHRONIC DISEASE IS THE MOST PREVALENT IN MANKIND?

PERIODONTAL | ASSIGN. 8-20

MARGINAL GINGIVITIS USUALLY STARTS IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING AREAS?

TIPS OF THE PAPILLAE | ASSIGN. 8-21

THE ULCERATION OF THE GINGIVAL CREST IN NUG RESULTS IN WHAT TYPE OF AN APPEARANCE?

PUNCHED OUT | ASSIGN. 8-22

WHEN PERIODONTITIS PROGRESSES, THE GINGIVAL TISSUES WILL APPEAR AS WHAT COLOR?

BLUISH RED | ASSIGN. 8-23

DURING POCKET FORMATION, WHAT TYPE OF PROJECTIONS OF CALCULUS FORM BETWEEN THE TEETH?

SHELF-LIKE | ASSIGN. 8-24

THE GINGIVA SURROUNDING A PERIODONTAL ABCESS WILL HAVE WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING APPEARANCES?

INFLAMED AND SWOLLEN | ASSIGN. 8-25

RECURRENT APHTHOUS STOMATITIS ARE LESIONS OF WHAT TYPE?

ULCERS | ASSIGN. 8-26

WHAT TYPE OF HERPES SIMPLEX VIRUS IS MOST COMMONLY DIAGNOSED IN ORAL PATHOLOGY?

HSV-I | ASSIGN. 8-27

RECURRENT HERPES SIMPLEX LESIONS THAT AFFECT ROUTINE DENTAL TREATMENT SHOULD BE RESCHEDULED FOR WHAT PERIOD OF TIME?

AFTER THE ACTIVE PHASE | ASSIGN. 8-28

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ORAL MANIFESTATIONS ARE A SIGN OF HIV INFECTION?

- CANDIDIASIS - HAIRY LEUKOPLAKIA - KAPOSI’S SARCOMA (ASSIGN. 8-29)

WHAT ARE THE TWO TYPES OF NEOPLASMS THAT CAN BE DIAGNOSED IN ORAL CANCER?

BENIGN AND MALIGNANT | ASSIGN. 8-30

THE GROWTH OR SPREAD OF MALIGNANT TUMORS FROM ONE AREA TO ANOTHER IS KNOWN BY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS?

METASTASIS | ASSIGN. 8-31

THE AREA WHERE THE USER OF SMOKELESS TOBACCO DEVELOPS AN ORAL PRECANCEROUS LESIONS IS DEFINED AS WHAT TYPE PATHOLOGY?

SNUFF-DIPPERS KERATOSIS | ASSIGN. 8-32

WHEN DOES A CONGENITAL DISORDER OCCUR?

AT BIRTH | ASSIGN. 8-33

WHAT CONDITION MUST EXIST FOR AN IMPACTION TO OCCUR?

PHYSICAL BARRIER | ASSIGN. 8-34

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS CAUSES ATTRITION?

WEAR INVOLVING TEETH AGAINST TEETH | ASSIGN. 8-35

WHICH DISORDER AFFECTS PATIENTS WITH BULIMIA?

EROSION | ASSIGN. 8-36

A _____ IS ANY ANIMAL CAPABLE OF TRANSMITTING PATHOGENS OR PRODUCING HUMAN OR ANIMAL DISCOMFORT OR INJURY.

VECTOR | ASSIGN. 9-1

THE FINDINGS OF FOOD-SERVICE INSPECTIONS ARE DOCUMENTED ON WHAT FORM?

NAVMED 6240/1 | ASSIGN. 9-2

WHAT INSTRUCTION SETS THE STANDARD FOR DRINKING WATER FOR U.S. NAVAL ESTABLISHMENTS BOTH ASHORE AND AFLOAT?

BUMEDINST 6240.1 | ASSIGN. 9-3

THE MEDICAL DEPARTMENTS ABOARD SHIPS ARE NOT REQUIRED TO INCLUDE ICE SAMPLES IN BACTERIOLOGICAL ANALYSES PERFORMED ON WATER. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE. “THE MEDICAL DEPARTMENTS ABOARD SHIPS ARE REQUIRED TO INCLUDE ICE SAMPLES IN ANY BACTERIOLOGICAL ANALYSES THE PERFORM ON WATER.” PG. 9-4 (ASSIGN. 9-4)

____ ARE INSTRUMENTS THAT FREQUENTLY CONTACT MUCOUS MEMBRANES, BUT CANNOT BE STERILIZED BECAUSE OF THEIR DESIGN OR INABILITY TO WITHSTAND HEAT.

SEMICRITICAL ITEMS | ASSIGN. 9-5

SPRAY-WIPE-SPRAY IS ______.

AN ACCEPTABLE METHOD OF CLEANING AND DISINFECTING. | ASSIGN. 9-6

WHEN SHOULD THE HM WASH HIS/HER HANDS?

- AT THE BEGINNING OF THE DAY - BEFORE HANDLING FOOD - BETWEEN PATIENTS (ASSIGN. 9-7)

WHAT IS NOT A CHARACTERISTIC OF RESIDENT FLORA?

ARE NOT FIRMLY ATTACHED TO THE SKIN. | ASSIGN. 9-8

WHAT TYPE OF HAND WASHING AGENT USUALLY HAS 4 PERCENT ISOPROPYL ALCOHOL IN A SUDSY BASE?

CHLOROHEXIDINE GLUCONATE | ASSIGN. 9-9

WHEN THE HM IS PREPARING FOR A SURGICAL CASE, WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM LENGTH OF THE FINGERNAIL?

NO LONGER THAN THE TIPS OF THE FINGERS | ASSIGN. 9-10

WHAT TYPE OF GLOVES ARE TH HIGHEST QUALITY AND BEST FITTING?

STERILE GLOVES | ASSIGN. 9-11

WHERE CAN CLINICAL APPAREL BE WORN?

IN THE MTF/DTF ONLY | ASSIGN. 9-12

PROTECTIVE EYEWEAR MUST HAVE SLOTTED SPLASH SHIELDS TO PROVIDE MAXIMUM PROTECTION. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE. “EYEWEAR OR GOGGLES MUST HAVE SOLID SIDE SHIELDS TO PROVIDE MAXIMUM PROTECTION.” PG. 9-11 (ASSIGN. 9-13)

NAME A TRANSMISSION-BASED PRECAUTION.

- AIRBORNE - DROPLET - CONTACT (ASSIGN. 9-14)

WHAT TYPE OF MASK SHOULD BE WORN IN CONTACT WITH A PATIENT DIAGNOSED WITH TUBERCULOSIS?

N95 RESPIRATOR | ASSIGN. 9-15

WHAT TRANSMISSION-BASED PRECAUTION REQUIRES A NEGATIVE AIR PRESSURE ROOM?

AIRBORNE | ASSIGN. 9-16

WHAT DOES THE ACRONYM MRSA STAND FOR?

METHICILIN-RESISTANT STAPHYLOCOCCUS AUREUS | ASSIGN 9-17

WHAT PERSONAL PROTECTIVE EQUIPMENT ITEM IS NOT NECESSARILY WORN WHILE TREATING A PATIENT UNDER CONTACT PRECAUTIONS?

MASK | ASSIGN. 9-18

WHAT TRANSMISSION-BASED PRECAUTION REQUIRES LIMITED TRANSPORT EXCEPT FOR ESSENTIAL PURPOSES?

DROPLET | ASSIGN. 9-19

WHAT ARE DAILY MEASURES TAKEN TO CONTROL THE SPREAD OF PATHOGENIC ORGANISMS?

CONCURRENT DISINFECTION | ASSIGN. 9-20

IN A DTR, AT THE BEGINNING OF THE DAY, THE UNIT WATER LINES ANDHOSES SHOULD BE FLUSHED FOR HOW LONG?

1 MINUTE. “FOR DTR’S, AT THE BEGINNING OF THE DAY FLUSH EACH OF THE UNIT WATER LINES AND HOSES FOR AT LEAST 1 MINUTE EVEN IF THEIR USE IS NOT ANTICIPATED AND FLUSH FOR AT LEAST 30 SEC BETWEEN PATIENTS” PG. 9-15 (ASSIGN. 9-21)

FOR EQUIPMENT THAT IS DIFFICULT TO CLEAN, WHAT SHOULD BE DONE BEFORE USING IT ON A PATIENT?

A STERILE OR CLEAN DRAPE | ASSIGN. 9-22

TO PERFORM HAND PIECE MAINTENANCE ON DENTAL HAND PIECES THE HM SHOULD REMOVE HAND PIECES, LUBRICATE, AND RUN THEM FOR HOW LONG?

30 SECONDS | ASSIGN. 9-23

WHICH ONE OF THESE CHOICES SHOULD BE PLACED IN A BIOHAZARDOUS WASTE RECEPTACLE?

USED I.V. CATHETER | ASSIGN. 9-24

WHILE IN THE PROCESS OF DOING A MINOR PROCEDURE THE HM’S GLOVE IS PUNCTURED BY A SUTURE AND IT BREAKS THE SKIN, SHOULD THE HM REPORT IT TO OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH?

YES ANY PUNCTURE WITH POSSIBLE CONTAMINATED FLUID SHOULD BE REPORTED (ASSIGN. 9-25)

NEEDLES, SCALPELS, AND SUTURES SHOULD BE DISPOSED OF IN WHAT CONTAINER?

RIGID, PUNCTURE RESISTANT, RED CONTAINER WITH A BIOHAZARD SYMBOL (ASSIGN. 9-26)

BED LINENS, TOWELS, SMOCKS, TROUSERS, AND OTHER PROTECTIVE ATTIRE ARE CLASSIFIED AS WHAT?

ORDINARY LAUNDRY | ASSIGN. 9-27

WHAT IS THE TERM USED TO DESCRIBE THE STERILIZATION, STORAGE, AND HANDLING OF ARTICLES TO KEEP THEM FREEE OF PATHOGENIC ORGANISMS?

SURGICAL ASEPTIC TECHNIQUE | ASSIGN. 9-28

WHAT GEAR MUST BE WORN TO ENTER A SURGICAL SUITE?

- SCRUBS - HAIR COVER - MASK (ASSIGN. 9-29)

IF A STERILE ITEM’S STERILITY IS IN QUESTION THE HM SHOULD _________.

NOT USE IT IF THERE IS ANY QUESTION ABOUT THE STERILITY | ASSIGN. 9-30

IF THE SURGEION ASKS FOR A SPECIFIC KIND OF SUTURE IN THE MIDDLE OF A SURGICAL CASE WHO SHOULD RETRIEVE IT?

THE CIRCULATOR | ASSIGN. 9-31

WHILE GOWNING THE SURGEON WHO IS RESPONSIBLE FOR TYING THE GOWN?

CIRCULATOR | ASSIGN. 9-32

DISINFECTION IS MORE LETHAL PROCESS THAN STERILIZATION. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 10-1

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING LEVELS OF DISINFECTANTS ARE CLASSIFIED BY THE EPA?

INTERMEDIATE, HIGH, AND LOW | ASSIGN. 10-2

WHAT TWO TYPES OF MICRO-ORGANISMS ARE KILLED BY AL THREE LEVELS OF DISINFECTION?

LIPID VIRUSES AND VEGETATIVE BACTERIA | ASSIGN. 10-3

WHAT ARE THE THREE FACTORS THAT INFLUENCE GERMICIDAL PROCEDURES?

BIOBURDEN, NATURE OF THE MATERIAL, AND ORGANIC DEBRIS PRESENT (ASSIGN. 10-4)

WHAT LEVELS OF A GLUTARALDEHYDE-BASED SOLUTIONS ARE FDA-REGISTERED?

2.0-3.2 | ASSIGN. 10-5

WHAT LEVEL OF A DISINFECTANT AND STERILANT ARE GLUTARALDEHYDE-BASED SOLUTION CLASSIFIED?

HIGH | ASSIGN. 10-6

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A DISADVNATAGE WHEN USING CHLORINE DIOXIDE-BASED SOLUTIONS?

- HAS A 24-DAY USE LIFE AS A STERILANT - DOES NOT READILY PENETRATE IN ORGANIC DEBRIS - MUST BE DISCARDED DAILY (ASSIGN. 10-7)

PROTECTIVE EYEWEAR AND GLOVES ARE NOT REQUIRED WHEN USING CHEMICAL AGENTS. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE. | ASSIGN. 10-8

THE BIOCIDAL ACTIVITY OF IODOPHORS IS ACCOMPLISHED WITH HOW MANY MINUTES OF EXPOSURE?

10-25 MINUTES | ASSIGN. 10-9

WHAT LEVEL OF DISINFECTION ARE IODOPHORS AND PHENOLICS CLASSIFIED?

INTERMEDIATE. | ASSIGN. 10-10

ALL SEMI-CRITICAL CATEGORY ITEMS SHOULD RECEIVE WHAT LEVEL OF DISINFECTION?

HIGH. | ASSIGN. 10-11

ALL NONCRITICAL CATEGORY ITEMS REQUIRE AT LEAST WHAT LEVEL OF DISINFECTION?

INTERMEDIATE. | ASSIGN. 10-12

WHAT ARE OF THE TREATMENT FACILITY IS DESIGNED FOR RECEIVING, CLEANING, PROCESSING, STERILIZING, STORING, AND ISSUING INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT?

CSR (CENTRAL STERILIZATION ROOM) | ASSIGN. 10-13

WHAT CHART TELLS CSR PERSONNEL THE SPECIFIC ORDER EQUIPMENT, INSTRUMENTS, AND MATERIALS ARE TO BE PROCESSED?

FUNCTIONAL FLOW | ASSIGN. 10-14

IN WHAT ARE OF THE CSR WILL THE DISINFECTION, CLEANING AND LUBRICATION OF DENTAL HAND PIECES TAKE PLACE?

RECEIVING AND CLEANING | ASSIGN. 10-15

IN WHAT ARE OF THE CSR WILL THE HM TAKE CONTAMINATED INSTRUMENTS AFTER COMPLETION OF A PATIENT’S TREATMENT?

RECEIVING. | ASSIGN. 10-16

WHAT CLEANING PROCESS IS SAFER AND MORE EFFECTIVE THAN MANUAL SCRUBBING”

AUTOMATED PROCESSOR | ASSIGN. 10-17

HOW MANY SINKS ARE NEEDED TO ALLOW PERSONNEL TO PERFORM THE MANUAL SCRUBBING METHOD?

THREE. | ASSIGN. 10-18

WHAT TYPE CLEANING EFFECT DOES AN ULTRASONIC CLEANER PROVIDE?

CAVITATION. | ASSIGN. 10-19

FOR PROPER OPERATION THE ULTRASONIC RESERVOIR SHOULD BE FILLED TO WHAT LEVEL WITH ULTRASONIC SOLUTION?

1/2 TO 3/4’S FULL | ASSIGN. 10-20

HOW OFTEN MUST ULTRASONIC SOLUTION BE CHANGED?

- DAILY ONLY - WHEN VISIBLY CONTAMINATED ONLY (ASSIGN. 10-21)

YOU SHOULD REMOVE INSTRUMENTS FROM THE ULTRASONIC UNIT BY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MEANS?

MESH BASKET | ASSIGN. 10-22

AFTER DRYING THE INSTRUMENT, WHAT IS THE NEXT STEP IN THE STERILIZATION PROCESS?

INSPECTION. | ASSIGN. 10-23

HOW ARE HINGED INSTRUMENTS ARRANGED DURING PACKAGING?

OPEN | ASSIGN. 10-24

TO ALLOW STEAM TO CIRCULATE FREELY, HOW SHOULD PACKS BE WRAPPED?

LOOSELY. | ASSIGN. 10-25

THE PERIOD DURING WHICH STERILIZED ITEMS ARE CONSIDERED SAFE FOR USE IS KNOWN BY WHIC OF THE FOLLOWING TERMS?

- EVENT-ROTATED SHELF LIFE - EXPIRATION DATE ONLY (ASSIGN. 10-26)

WHAT TYPE OF RELATED SHELF LIFE PRESUMES CONTINUED STERILITY UNTIL THE PACKAGE IS DAMAGED, WET, OR TORN?

EVENT | ASSIGN. 10-27

WHAT TYPE OF RELATED SHELF LIFE PRESUMES THAT AFTER THE EXPIRATION DATE THE ITEM IS CONSIDERED OUTDATED AND SHOULD NOT BE USED?

TIME. | ASSIGN. 10-28

WHAT IS THE SHELF LIFE FOR NONWOVEN BLUE WRAP USING THE TIME-RELATED METHOD?

30 DAYS. | ASSIGN. 10-29

WHAT OCCURS WHEN FRESHLY STERILIZED ITEMS ARE PLACED ON METAL OR COLD SURFACES?

CONTAMINATION. | ASSIGN. 10-30

WHEN STORING STERILIZED ITEMS, HOW SHOULD THEY BE ARRANGED?

EXPIRATION, WITH LATER DATES TOWARD THE REAR. | ASSIGN. 10-31

AT WHAT TEMPERATURE ARE ALL KNOWN ORGANISMS KILLED?

250 DEGREES FAHRENHEIT | ASSIGN. 10-32

A STEAM STERILIZER MAY BE REFERRED TO BY WHAT OTHER NAME?

AUTOCLAVE. | ASSIGN. 10-33

WHEN PLACING PACKAGES IN A STERILIZER, HOW ARE THEY PLACED?

ON THE EDGES | ASSIGN. 10-34

WHAT TYPE OF STERILIZER WAS DESIGNED TO OVERCOME THE TRAPPING OF AIR IN THE CHAMBER?

PREVACUUM STEAM (AUTOCLAVE) | ASSIGN. 10-35

WHAT IS THE LEAST EXPENSIVE FORM OF HEAT STERILIZATION?

DRY HEAT. | ASSIGN. 10-36

ALL NAVY PREVACUUM STERILIZERS WILL BE TESTED HOW OFTEN USING A BOWIE-DICK TYPE TEST?

DAILY. | ASSIGN. 10-37

HOW OFTEN IS THE INTERIOR OF A STEAM STERILIZER CLEANED BEFORE HEATING?

DAILY. | ASSIGN. 10-38

WAHT IS THE TYPICAL STANDING DRY HEAT CYCLE?

90 MINUTES AT 320-345 DEGREES FAHRENHEIT | ASSIGN. 10-39

WHAT PERCENT OF WATER CONTENT, IF ANY OCCURS WITH CHEMICAL VAPOR STERILIZATION?

15 | ASSIGN. 10-40

INSTRUMENTS BEING STERILIZED IN THE STERRAD DO NOT NEED TO BE COMPLETELY DRY.

FALSE. | ASSIGN. 10-41

WHAT TYPE OF STERILIZATION IS STERRAD?

PLASMA. | ASSIGN. 10-42

WHAT TYPE OF STERILIZATION INDICATOR WILL CHANGE COLOR UPON SHORT EXPOSURE TO STERILIZATION CONDITIONS SUCH AS STEAM DRY HEAT, OR CHEMICAL VAPOR?

INTERNAL. | ASSIGN. 10-43

WHAT TYPE OF STERILIZATION WILL ASSESS WHETHER STERILIZATION ACTUALLY OCCURRED?

BIOLOGICAL. | ASSIGN. 10-44

WHAT IS THE FIRST STEP TO BE PERFORMED WHEN POSITIVE BIOLOGICAL MONITORING OCCURS?

NOTIFY ICO | ASSIGN. 10-45

THE CONCEPTS OF HEALTH INCLUDE _____?

- THE ABSENCE OF DISEASE AND DISABILITY - SOUNDNESS OF MIND, BODY, AND SPIRIT (ASSIGN. 11-1)

PATIENT RIGHTS AND RESPONSIBILITIES ARE STANDARDS ADDRESSED BY WHAT ORGANIZATION?

THE JOINT COMMISSION (TJC) | ASSIGN. 11-2

THE STANDARD OF PRACTICE OF LIMITIATION IMPOSED UPON A HEALTHCARE PROVIDER ARE BASED ON LOCAL REGULATIONS AND WHICH OR THE FOLLOWING ELEMENTS?

THE PROVIDERS TRAINING EXPERIENCE | ASSIGN. 11-3

IN THE HEALTHCARE FIELD, ACCOUNTABILITY MEANS THAT PROVIDERS _______.

- ARE HEALD RESPONSIBLE FOR THEIR ACTIONS - MUST CONTINUE THEIR EDUCATION IN THE HEALTHCARE FIELD - PROVIDE THE BEST HEALTHCARE POSSIBLE (ASSIGN. 11-4)

A PATIENT REQUESTS THE HM’S ADVICE CONCERNING THE CARE THEY ARE UNDERGOING. WHICH, IF ANY, OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE APPROPRIATE RESPONSE?

REFER THE PATIENT TO THE NURSE OR PHYSICIAN RESPONSIBLE FOR THE CARE. (ASSIGN. 11-5)

PERSONNEL AND MEDICAL INFORMATION LEARNED ABOUT A PATIENT AS THE RESULT OF THE HM POSITION IS PRIVILEGED AND MUST NOT BE SHARED WITH UNAUTHORIZED INDIVIDUALS. TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE. | ASSIGN. 11-6

INTERPERSONAL RELATIONS

HOW ONE RESPONDS AND REGARDS OTHERS | ASSIGN. 11-7

CULTURE

LEARNED AND SHARED BEHAVIOR PATTERNS AND STANDARDS | ASSIGN. 11-8

RACE

INHERITED CHARACTERISTICS | ASSIGN. 11-9

A PATIENT WHO IS PROFESSED ATHIEST IS PLACED ON VERY SERIOUS LIST (VSL) WITH A POR PROGNOSIS FOR RECOVERY. ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ACTIONS BY THE STAFF ARE CONSIDERED APPROPRIATE AND ETHICAL EXCEPT ______?

ATTEMPTING TO CONVINCE THE PATIENT TO ACCEPT A RELIGIOUS BELIEF (ASSIGN. 11-10)

THE COMMUNICATION PROCESS TAKES PLACE ONLY THROUGH THE WRITTEN OR SPOKEN WORD? TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE. | ASSIGN. 11-11

COMMUNICATIONS BARRIERS INHIBIT THE FLOW OF INFORMATION AND MAY CONSIST OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FACTORS?

- HEARING IMPAIRMENT - AGE - EDUCATION (ASSIGN. 11-12)

THE MOST COMMON CAUSE OF INEFFECTIVE COMMUNICATION AND THE MOST DIFFICULT OBSTACLE TO IDENTIFY IS WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING BARRIERS?

PSYCHOLOGICAL | ASSIGN. 11-13

IN THE COMMUNICATION PROCESS, LISTENING IS A CRITICAL SKILL AND CAN BE IMPROVED BY DEVELOPING WHICH, IF ANY, OF THE FOLLOWING ATTITUDES AND BEHAVIORS?

MANAGING DISTRACTIONS | ASSIGN. 11-14

THE PURPOSE OF THERAPEUTIC COMMUNICATION INCLUDES ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT?

EDUCATING A PATIENT REGARDING HEALTH AND HEALTHCARE | ASSIGN. 11-15

DEVELOP A PATIENT’S HISTORY OF COMPLAINT.

THERAPEUTIC COMMUNICATION | ASSIGN. 11-16

EXPLAINING THE NECESSITIES AND METHODS OF PERSONAL HYGIENE TO THE PARENT OF A YOUNG PATIENT.

CONTACT POINT COMMUNICATION | ASSIGN. 11-17

PROVIDING SELF-CARE INSTRUCTIONS TO A PATIENT RELEASED TO CONVALESCENT LEAVE.

THERAPEUTIC COMMUNICATION | ASSIGN. 11-18

DIRECTING A PAITENT TO THE PHARMACY TO FILL A PRESICRIPTION.

CONTACT POINT COMMUNICATION | ASSIGN. 11-19

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE GOALS OF PATIENT HEALTH EDUCATION?

- PROMOTING PATIENT SELF-CARE - PROMOTING BEHAVIOR MODIFICATION - INFLUENCING A PATIENT’S ATTITUDE TOWARDS HEALTH AND DISEASE (ASSIGN. 11-20)

PATIENT EDUCATION IS THE RESPONSIBILITY OF ______>

ALL MEMBERS OF THE HEALTHCARE TEAM | ASSIGN. 11-21

IN THE EMERGENCY ROOM, THE HM IS EXAMINING A PATIENT WHO SUDDENLY VOMITS AND STATES THAT HE HAS BEEN FEELING NAUSEOUS FOR THE PAST SEVERAL HOURS.

BOTH SUBJECTIVE AND OBJECTIVE OBSERVATIONS | ASSIGN. 11-22

A PATIENT CLAIMS TO HAVE SWALLOWED MANY RESPIRATORY PROBLEMS PILLS AND COMPLAINS OF SLEEPINESS AND NAUSEA

SUBJECTIVE OBSERVATIONS ONLY | ASSIGN. 11-23

A PATIENT COMPLAINS OF CHEST PAIN AND DIFFICULTY BREATHING

SUBJECTIVE OBSERVATIONS ONLY | ASSIGN. 11-24

WHEN PICKING UP A PATIENT’S DINNER TRAY, THE HM NOTICES THAT ONLY HTE LIQUIDS HAVE BEEN CONSUMED AT THIS MEAL ALTHOUGH THE PATIENT HAS NORMALLY EATEN FULL MEALS BEFORE THIS.

OBJECTIVE OBSERVATION ONLY | ASSIGN. 11-25

AN EKG PERFORMED ON A PATIENT IS INTERPRETED AS NORMAL AND THE PATIENT’S BREATHING IMPROVES WITH OXYGEN THERAPY

OBJECTIVE OBSERVATIONS ONLY | ASSIGN. 11-26

A MEDICAL PATIENT IS PRESCRIBED THERAPEUTIC BED REST PRIMARILY FOR WHAT REASON?

TO PREVENT FURTHER DAMAGE TO BODY SYSTEMS | ASSIGN. 12-1

A HEALTHCARE PROVIDER CAN REASONABLY EXPECT THAT ALL PATIENTS ADMITTED FOR SURGICAL PROCEDURES WILL EXHIBIT WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CHARACTERISTICS?

BE FEARFUL AND ANXIOUS | ASSIGN. 12-2

SF 522, REQUEST FOR ADMINISTRATION OF ANESTHESIA AND FOR PERFORMANCE OF OPERATION AND OTHER PROCEDURES, IS NORMALLY SIGNED BY A PARENT, LEGAL GUARDIAN, OR SPOUSE EXCEPT WHEN?

A MEMBER OF THE ARMED FORCES | ASSIGN. 12-3

WHEN A REGIONAL ANESTHETIC IS ADMINISTERED, THE PATIENT CAN EXPECT WHAT EFFECT?

PAIN WILL BE REDUCED OR ELIMINATED IN THE BODY PART INJECTED OR SWABBED (ASSIGN. 12-4)

IN GENERAL ANESTHESIA A STIMULATION OF VITAL SIGNS IS EVIDENCE OF WHAT LEVEL OF ANESTHESIA INDUCTION?

STAGE 2 | ASSIGN. 12-5

DROPPING A METAL BASIN ON THE OPERATING ROOM FLOOR MAY CAUSE A VIOLENT RESPONSE FROM A GENERAL ANESTHESIA PATIENT IN WHAT STAGE OF ANESTHESIA?

STAGE 2 | ASSIGN. 12-6

IN THE IMMEDIATE POSTOPERATIVE RECOVERY PHASE, A PATIENT’S SKIN COLOR MAY BE INDICATIVE OF ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT WHAT?

THE PATIENT’S ABILITY TO RECOVER FROM THE ANESTHETIC AGENT | ASSIGN. 12-7

WHEN PERMITTED, POSTOPERATIVE PATIENTS SHOULD BE ENCOURAGED TO AMBULATED TO IMPROVE THE FUNCTIONS OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PHYSIOLOGIC SYSTEMS?

RENAL SYSTEM | ASSIGN. 12-8

WHEN CARING FOR A YOUNG OTHERWISE HEALTHY ORTHOPEDIC PATIENT REQUIRING IMMOBILIZATION, THE HM CAN ANTICIPATE ALL OF THE. FOLLOWING EXCEPT WHAT?

SYMPTOMS OF EMOTIONAL STRESS | ASSIGN. 12-9

UNLESS OTHERWISE DIRECTED BY THE PHYSICIAN, WHEN ONE IS APPLYING A. CASET TO AN ARM, THE PATIENT’S WRISTS IS GENERALLY IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING POSITIONS?

IN THE NEUTRAL POSITION | ASSIGN. 12-10

CANE HEIGHT IS MEASURED FROM THE FLOOR TO THE ______.

WRIST | ASSIGN. 12-11

THE CANE IS USED ON THE UNAFFECTED SIDE OF THE BODY. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 12-12

AUXILIARY CRUTCHES SHOULD BE FITTED SO THAT THE PATIENT’S ELBOWS ARE MAINTAINED WITH A _____ TO _____ DEGREE BEND.

15 TO 30 | ASSIGN. 12-13

WHEN CLIMBING STAIRS THE PATIENT SHOULD BE TAUGHT TO GO “UP WITH THE BAD AND DOWN WITH THE GOOD.”

FALSE | ASSIGN. 12-14

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE SAFE TO WALK ON WITH CRUTCHES WITHOUT MUCH THOUGHT TO SAFETY?

NONE OF THE FOLLOWING: - UNEVEN SIDEWALK - THICK CARPET - HARDWOOD FLOOR WITH THROW RUGS (ASSIGN. 12-15)

WHICH AMBULATORY DEVICE PROVIDES THE MOST STABILITY?

WALKERS | ASSIGN. 12-16

A PATIENT WHO HAS BEEN FITTED IWTH A CAST SHOULD BE INSTRUCTED TO RETURN TO THE MEDICAL TREATMENT FACILITY AS SOON AS POSSIBLE UNDER WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CIRCUMSTANCES?

THE EXTREMITY AFFECTED BY THE CAST IS NUMB | ASSIGN. 12-17

IN THE THEORY OF DEATH AND DYING, IT IS SUGGESTED THAT MOST PEOPLE EXHIBIT FIVE STAGES. THE STAGE WHERE THE TERMINAL PATIENT BECOMES CONCERNED ABOU THE STATE OF HIS OR HER AFFAIRS AND FAMILY MEMBERS IS KNOWN AS THE STAGES OF ______.

ACCEPTANCE | ASSIGN. 12-18

PATIENT FALLS MAY BE AVOIDED BY TAKING WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PREVENTATIVE MEASURES?

ALL OF THE ABOVE: - PROPER USE OF BED/GURNEY SIDE RAILS - KEEPING FLOORS DRY AND UNCLUTTERED - INSTRUCTING PATIENTS ON PROPER USE OF WALKING AIDS (CRUTCHES, CANES, ETC.) (ASSIGN. 12-19)

ELECTRICAL AND ELECTRONIC EQUIPMENT POSES SIGNIFICANT INJURY HAZARDS OF THE FOLLOWING, WHICH IS AUTHORIZED MEANS OF REDUCING THIS HAZARD?

HAVING MEDICAL REPAIR PERFORM ELECTRICAL SAFETY CHECKS ON ALL NEW SAFETY EQUIPMENT (ASSIGN. 12-20)

SKIN CONTACT BURNS CAN BE CAUSED BY ICE BAGS OR HYPOTHERMIA BLANKETS. TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE | ASSIGN. 12-21

DURING A FIRE EVACUATION, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROCEDURES IS NOT CONSIDERED APPROPRIATE?

CLEAR ALL POSSIBLE EXITS | ASSIGN. 12-22

ENVIRONMENTAL HYGIENE IS DIRECITED TOWARD PRODUCING A HEALTHY ENVIRONMENT AND INCLUDES SUCH PRACTICES AS MAINTAINING UNIT CLEANLINESS AND ______.

ALL OF THE ABOVE: - PROVIDING FOR ADEQUATE VENTILATION - LIMITING NOISE LEVELS - PROPER DISPOSAL OF SOILED ARTICLES (ASSIGN. 12-23)

WHAT IS TH LEADING CAUSE OF NUTRITION RELATED DISEASE IN THE ENVIRONMENT IN WHIHC HUMANS LIVE?

WEIGHT GAIN | ASSIGN. 13-1

WHICH O FTHE FOLLOWING IS NOT ONE OF THE SIX ESSENTIAL NUTRIENTS NEEDED FOR THE GROWTH AND MAINTENANCE OF THE BODY?

NIACIN | ASSIGN. 13-2

WHAT ARE THE THREE NUTRIENTS USED BY THE BODY THAT CONTAIN CALORIES?

CARBOHYDRATES, PROTEINS, AND FATS | ASSIGN. 13-3

WATER IS THE MEDIUM IN WHICH ALL CHEMICAL REACTIONS IN THE BODY TAKE PLACE. TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE | ASSIGN. 13-4

WHAT IS TOTAL AMOUNT OF WATER THAT A MALE NEEDS TO CONSUME ON A DAILY BASIS?

3.7 LITERS | ASSIGN. 13-5

WHAT IS TOTAL AMOUNT OF WATER THAT A FEMALE NEEDS TO CONSUME ON A DAILY BASIS?

2.7 LITERS | ASSIGN. 13-6

AFTER CONSUMING FOOD A MALE NEEDS TO CONSUME AN AVERAGE OF HOW MUCH FREE WATER?

3 LITERS | ASSIGN. 13-7

WHAT PERCENTAGE LOSS OF BODY WATER WILL CAUSE HEAT INJURY OR DEATH?

5 TO 7% | ASSIGN. 13-8

MONO SACCHARIDES CONTAIN HOW MANY CARBON MOLECULES?

1 | ASSIGN. 13-9

DISACCHARIDES CONTAIN HOW MANY CARBON MOLECULES?

2 | ASSIGN. 13-10

SOME POLYSACCHARIDES ARE KNOWN TO CONTAIN UP TO HOW MANY CARBON MOLECULES?

THOUSANDS | ASSIGN. 13-11

WHAT IS THE SIMPLEST TYPE OF SUGAR?

GLUCOSE | ASSIGN. 13-12

MATCH THE SIMPLE SUGAR TO THE CARBOHYDRATE CLASS FOR SUCROSE.

DISACCHARIDE | ASSIGN. 13-13

MATCH THE SIMPLE SUGAR TO THE CARBOHYDRATE CLASS FOR FRUCTOSE.

MONOSACCHARIDE | ASSIGN. 13-14

MATCH THE SIMPLE SUGAR TO THE CARBOHYDRATE CLASS FOR GALACTOSE.

MONOSACCHARIDE | ASSIGN. 13-15

MATCH THE SIMPLE SUGAR TO THE CARBOHYDRATE CLASS FOR GLUCOSE.

MONOSACCHARIDE | ASSIGN. 13-16

MATCH THE SIMPLE SUGAR TO THE CARBOHYDRATE CLASS FOR LACTOSE.

DISACCHARIDE | ASSIGN. 13-17

GLYCOGEN IS THE STORAGE FORM OF GLUCOSE FOR HUMANS. TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE | ASSIGN. 13-18

THE RECOMMENDED FIBER INTAKE FOR WOMEN IS _____?

25 GRAMS | ASSIGN. 13-19

THE RECOMMENDED FIBER INTAKE FOR MALES IS _____?

37 GRAMS | ASSIGN. 13-20

DEXTROSE, WHICH IS COMMONLY USED CARBOHYDRATE, IS NORMALLY USED IN WHAT FORM?

INTRAVENOUS | ASSIGN. 13-21

PROTEINS CONTAIN WHAT AMOUNT OF CALORIES PER GRAM?

4 | ASSIGN. 13-22

THERE ARE 20 AMINO ACIDS THAT MAKE UP ALL THE PROTEINS THE BODY NEEDS, HOW MANY OF THOSE ARE CONSIDERED ESSENTIAL AMINO ACIDS NOT MADE BY THE BODY?

9 | ASSIGN. 13-23

FOR A PERSON WHO WEIGHS 185 lbs. WHAT IS THE RECOMMENDED AMOUNT OF PROTEIN THA TSHOULD BE CONSUMED DAILY?

67 GRAMS | ASSIGN. 13-24

INFANTS AND CHILDREN REQUIRE A GREATER DAILY PROTEIN INTAKE THAN ADULTS. TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE | ASSIGN. 13-25

THE MAIN ROLE OF FATS IS TO ______?

SUPPLY ENERGY TO THE BODY | ASSIGN. 13-26

WHAT VITAMINS ARE FAT SOLUBLE?

A, D, E, AND K | ASSIGN. 13-27

TRANS FATS ARE NATURALLY OCCURRING FATS AND ARE GENERALLY NOT CONSIDERED A HEALTHY FAT. TRUE AND FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 13-28

OMEGA-3 FATTY ACIDS HAVE BEEN LINKED TO LESSENING THE RISK OF HEART DISEASE. TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE. | ASSIGN. 13-29

THE MOST COMMON PHOSPHOLIPIDS IS BILE; WHERE IS IT PRODUCED?

LIVER | ASSIGN. 13-30

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A WATER SOLUBLE VITAMIN?

A | ASSIGN. 13-31

WHICH VITAMIN INTERFERES WITH ANTI-CLOTTING MEDICATIONS SUCH AS WARFARIN?

K | ASSIGN. 13-32

SURGICAL PATIENTS SHOULD EAT CANTALOUPE AND STRAWBERRIES CONTAINING VITAMIN _____ IN ORDER TO SUPPORT WOUND HEALING.

C | ASSIGN. 13-33

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT CONSIDERED A MAJOR MINERAL?

FLOURIDE | ASSIGN. 13-34

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT CONSIDERED A TRACE MINERAL?

CALCIUM | ASSIGN. 13-35

INFUSING TOO MUCH _____ IN AN INTRAVENOUS LINE CAN CAUSE DEATH?

POTASSIUM | ASSIGN. 13-36

SURGICAL PATIENTS WHO DO NOT CONSUME ENOUGH OF _____ MINERAL FOUND IN SHELLFISH COULD HAVE POOR WOUND HEALING.

ZINC | ASSIGN. 13-37

WHAT TYPE OF DIET IS NORMALLY ORDERED FOR AN INDIVIDUAL WHO HAS NOT EATEN FOR A FEW DAYS OR RECOVERING FROM SURGERY?

CLEAR LIQUID DIET | ASSIGN. 13-38

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DIETS IS NOT NUTRITIONALLY COMPLETE?

CLEAR LIQUID DIET | ASSIGN. 13-39

A DENTAL LIQUID DIET IS USUALLY INDICATED FOR A PATIENT WHO?

HAS MOUTH WIRED SHUT | ASSIGN. 13-40

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DIETS IS USUALLY LOWER IN FIBER?

PURÉED DIET | ASSIGN. 13-41

CALORIE RESTRICTED DIETS SHOULD BE AT LEAST HOW MANY CALORIES PER DAY?

1200 | ASSIGN. 13-42

WHAT TYPE OF DIET IS INDICATIVE OF RENAL OR HEPATIC DISEASE?

PROTEIN RESTRICTED DIET | ASSIGN. 13-43

A PERSON ON CHOLESTEROL RESTRICTION OF 300 mg PER DAY SHOULD HAVE NO MORE THAN HOW MANY WHOLE EGGS PER DAY?

1 (ONE) | ASSIGN. 13-44

WHAT IS THE MOST AGGRESSIVE TYPE OF NUTRITIONAL THERAPY?

PARENTERAL (VEIN) (ASSIGN. 13-45)

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROVIDES A WAY FOR ENTERAL NUTRITIONAL THERAPY?

- NG TUBE - J TUBE (ASSIGN. 13-46)

THE BASE OF A GOOD HEALTHY DIET ALWAYS BEGINS WITH _____?

FOOD PYRAMID | ASSIGN. 13-47

WHAT TWO AGENCIES HAVE ESTABLISHED UNIFORM PHYSICAL STANDARDS FOR ENTRY INTO MILITARY SERVICE?

DoD AND DON | ASSIGN. 14-1

AFTER A PHYSICAL EXAM HAS BEEN PERFORMED AND DOCUMENTED BY AN IDC WHO IS REQUIRED TO COUNTERSIGN THE EXAM?

ACCREDITED GENERAL MEDICAL OFFICER | ASSIGN. 14-2

WHERE IS THE ORIGINAL DOCUMENTATION FROM A COMPLETED PHYSICAL EXAMINATION PERMANENTLY FILED?

HEALTH RECORD | ASSIGN. 14-3

ACCORDING TO SECNAVINST 6120.3 SERIES A PERIODIC HEALTH ASSESSMENT (PHA) SHALL BE CONDUCTED _____ ON EACH SERVICE MEMBER.

ANNUALLY | ASSIGN. 14-4

A MEMBER SEPARATING AFTER SERVING 30 OR LESS CONSECUTIVE DAYS ON ACTIVE DUTY, BEING FOUND UNFIT FOR CONTINUED SERVICE, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MAY BE APPROPRIATE?

CITED MEBR | ASSIGN. 14-5

WHO IS GIVEN AUTHORITY TO PERFORM SPECIAL DUTY EXAMINATIONS?

LICENSED GENERAL MEDICAL OFFICER, DoD CIVLIANS | ASSIGN. 14-6

IN ACCORDANCE WTIH BUMEDINST 1300.2 SERIES, AFTER RECEIPT OF ORDERS AN OVERSEAS/OPERATION SUITABILITY SCREENING MUST BE COMPLETED WITHIN HOW MANY DAYS?

30 | ASSIGN. 14-7

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PUBLICATION CONTAINS FURTHER GUIDANCE ON THE MEDICAL SURVEILLANCE PROGRAM?

OPNAVINST 5100.23 | ASSIGN. 14-8

WHO IS RESPONSIBLE FOR REVIEWING THE ABBREVIATED MEDICAL BOARD REPORT FOR ACCURACY IN CONTENT AND PROCESSING TIME?

LIMDU COORDINATOR | ASSIGN. 14-9

WHAT MEDICAL FORMS ARE USED AS DOCUMENTATION OF A ROUTINE PHYSICAL EXAMINATION?

DD2808 AND DD2807 | ASSIGN. 14-10

WHAT FORM IS USED IN THE SUBMISSION OF A MEDICAL EVALUATION BOARD (MEB)?

NAVMED 6100/5 | ASSIGN. 14-11

PATIENTS SHOULD BE INSTRUCTED TO DO ALL OF THE FOLLOWING WHNE THE RETURN FOR A VISUAL ACUITY EXAMINATION EXCEPT?

BRING IN CONTACT LENSES | ASSIGN. 14-12

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE PREFERRED METHOD FOR THE TESTING OF DISTANT VISUAL ACUITY?

SNELLEN CHART | ASSIGN. 14-13

THE ARMED FORCES VISION TESTER, IS USED FOR WHICH TYPE OF VISION TEST?

DISTANT, NEAR | ASSIGN. 14-14

WHAT IS THE PREFERRED METHOD WHEN TESTING COLOR DISCRIMINATION OF AN ACTIVE DUTY SERVICE MEMBER?

FALANT | ASSIGN. 14-15

PEROSNNEL WHO HAVE RECEIVED A COLOR VISION DISCRIMINATION TEST ON PIP MUST BE RETESTED AS SOON AS A FALANT IS AVAILABLE. TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE | ASSIGN. 14-16

AUDIOMETRIC TESTING MAY BE PERFORMED BY ANY UNCERTIFIED HEALTHCARE PROVIDER (I.E. HOSPITAL CORPSMAN, NURSE) THAT IS AVIALABLE TO PERFORM THE TEST. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 14-17

HOW MANY LEADS ARE USED IN A 12-LEAD EKG?

10 | ASSIGN. 14-18

ALONG WHAT PLANE DO THE PRECORDIAL LEADS RECORD THE HEARTS ELECTRICAL CONDUCTION?

HORIZONTAL | ASSIGN. 14-19

ALONG WHAT INTERCOSTAL SPACE ARE LEADS V4, V5, AND V6 PLACED?

5TH | ASSIGN. 14-20

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROCEDURES IS ONE OF THE BASIC PROFESSIONAL SERVICES PROVIDED ON AN ANNUAL BASIS TO SAILORS BY THE NAVY DENTAL TEAM?

DENTAL EXAMINATION | ASSIGN. 15-1

WHEN SEATING THE PATIENT FOR A DENTAL EXAM, WHERE SHOULD THE DENTAL LIGHT BE POSITIONED TO AVOID SHINING THE LIGHT IN THE PATIENT’S EYE.

BENEATH THE PATIENT’S CHIN | ASSIGN. 15-2

WHAT IS THE PRIMARY PURPOSDE FOR CONDUCTING ANNUAL DENTAL EXAMINATIONS?

TO ACCESS THE READINESS STATUS OF ACTIVE DUTY PERSONNEL | ASSIGN. 15-3

DENTAL EXAMINATIONS ARE CLASSIFIED BY WHAT TOTAL NUMBER OF EXAMINATION TYPES?

FOUR | ASSIGN. 15-4

WHAT TYPE OF EXAMINATION IS A COMPREHENSIVE HARD AND SOFT TISSUE EXAMINATION ROUTINELY DONE WITH STUDY MODELS?

TYPE I | ASSIGN. 15-5

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PERSONNEL MAY PERFORM A TYPE 4 DENTAL SCREENING EVALUATION?

- A DENTAL OFFICER - A DENTAL HYGIENIST - A QUALIFIED DENTAL ASSISTANT (ASSIGN. 15-6)

WHAT FORM SHOULD BE USED TO DOCUMENT THE FINDINGS OF A DENTAL EXAMINATION FOR OVERSEAS SCREENING?

NAVMED 1300/1 | ASSIGN. 15-7

A MEMBER’S COMMANDING OFFICER CAN APPROVE A MEMBER FOR OVERSEAS ASSIGNMENT EVEN WHEN THE DENTAL OFFICER RECOMMENDS DISAPPROVAL. TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE. | ASSIGN. 15-8

WHAT DENTAL CLASSIFICATION INDICATES THAT THE PATIENT’S DENTAL CONDITION, IF NOT TREATED OR FOLLOWED UP, COULD HAVE THE POTENTIAL, BUT IS NOT EXPECTED TO, RESULT IN DENTAL EMERGENCIES WITHIN THE NEXT 12 MONTHS?

CLASS 2 | ASSIGN. 15-9

WHEN RECORDING THE USE OF COPAL VARNISH IN THE DENTAL TREATMENT RECORD, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ABBREVIATIONS SHOULD BE USED?

COP | ASSIGN. 15-10

WHAT ABBREVIATION SHOULD BE USED WHEN RECORDING THE PATIENT WAS INFORMED OF EXAMINATION FINDINGS AND TREATMENT PLAN?

PTINF | ASSIGN. 15-11

WHEN IDENTIFYING AND LOCATING CARIES OR EXISTING RESTORATIONS, HOW SHOULD AN 8-MID DESIGNATION BE WRITTEN OUT?

MESIAL, INCISAL, DISTAL ASPECTS OF A RIGHT MAXILLARY CENTRAL INCISOR (ASSIGN. 15-12)

WHEN CHARTING THE TOP SECTION OF THE FORENSIC EXAMINATION FORM, WHAT SYMBOL SHOULD BE USED TO INDICATE MISSING TEETH OR TEETH NOT VISIBLE IN THE PATIENT’S MOUTH?

X | ASSIGN. 15-13

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TERMS IS OFTEN USED WHEN REFERRING TO A DOUBLE OCCLUSAL RESTORATION?

SNAKE EYES | ASSIGN. 15-14

DRAWING AN ARCING LINE THROUGH THE LONG AXIS OF THE TOOTH IS AN EXAMPLE OF A PARTIALLY ERUPTED TOOTH. TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE | ASSIGN. 15-15

NONMETALLIC RESTORATIONS ARE MADE OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TYPES OF MATERIALS?

- ACRYLIC RESIN - GLASS IONOMER - FISSURE SEALANT (ASSIGN. 15-16)

A NONMETALLIC RESTORATION IS ANNOTATED BY DRAWING AN OUTLINE OF THE RESTORATION SHOWING SIZE LOCATION, SHAPE, AND INSCRIBING VERTICAL LINES WITHIN THE OUTLINE. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 15-17

WHEN CHARTING A FORENSIC EXAMINATION, WHAT METHOD, IF ANY, SHOULD BE SUED TO DESRIBE THE DIFFERENCES BETWEEN GOLD AND OTHER ALLOY RESTORATIONS?

INDICATE IN THE “REMARKS” SECTIONO THE SPECIFIC RESTORATION ALLOY (ASSIGN. 15-18)

WHEN CHARTING, HOW SHOULD IT BE INDICATED THA TGOLD MATERIAL WAS USED IN A FIXED PARTIAL DENTURE?

INSCRIBE DIAGONAL PARALLEL LINES | ASSIGN. 15-19

WHAT PROCEDURE SHOULD BE USED TO CHART THE PRESENCE OF SUPERNUMERARY TEETH?

- INSERT AN “S” IN THE LOCATION ON THE TOOTH NUMBER LINE - DRAW AN OUTLINE OF THE TOOTH IN ITS APPROXIMATE LOCATION (ASSIGN. 15-20)

THE REMARKS SECTION OF THE FORENSIC DENTAL EXAM IS USED TO DIFFERENTIATE BETWEEN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TYPES OF DENTAL MATERIALS?

- SEALANTS - TEMPORARIES - COMPOSITES (ASSIGN. 15-21)

WHAT NUMBER OF ANGLE CLASSIFICATION COULD BE USED ON THE FORENSIC EXAMINATION FORM?

THREE | ASSIGN. 15-22

ON THE FORENSIC EXAMINATION, WHAT METHOD SHOULD BE USED TO INDICATE THAT A PATIENT DOES NOT HAVE A SOFT TISSUE CONDITION?

LEAVE BLANK IF A CONDITION DOES NOT EXIST | ASSIGN. 15-23

WHERE IN THE OCCLUSION SECTION OF THE FORENSIC EXAMINATION SHOULD THE HM DOCUMENT AND RECORD ANY OTHER OCCLUSAL CONDITIONS NOT LISTED?

REMARKS | ASSIGN. 15-24

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING NON-PATHOLOGICAL FINDINGS SHOUDL BE ANNOTATED IN THE “HARD TISSUE REMARKS” SECTION ON THE FORENSIC EXAMINATION FORM?

- TORI - ROTATED TEETH - INTRINSIC STAINING (ASSIGN. 15-25)

WHAT PROCEDURE SHOULD BE USED WHEN A PATIENT REQUIRES THE COMPLETION OF A NEW CURRENT STATUS FORM?

TRANSFER THE INFORMATION FROM THE PREVIOUS FORMS TO THE NEW FORM (ASSIGN. 15-26)

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS SHOULD BE ANNOTATED IN PENCIL IN BOX 1 OF THE CURRENT STATUS FORM?

- CARIOUS LESIONS - PERIRIDICULAR LESIONS - INDICATIONS FOR ROOT CANAL TREATMENT (ASSIGN. 15-27)

WHAT DOES AN EVEN LINE DRAWN ON THE ROOT OF THE TOOTH INDICATE?

RESORPTION OF THE ROOT | ASSIGN. 15-28

PENCIL ENTRIES ARE AUTHORIZED FOR USE IN BOX 2 OF THE CURRENT STATUS FORM. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 15-29

IF A MEDICAL ALERT EXISTS, THE WORD “ALERT” IS WRITTEN OR STAMPED IN BOX 3 OF THE CURRENT STATUS FORM IN LARGE RED LETTERS WITH A BRIEF EXPLANATION. TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE | ASSIGN. 15-30

WHICH DENTAL FORM PROVIDES A RECORD OF INITIAL ACCESSION EXAM AND ALL SUBSEQUENT PERIODIC, ANNUAL, RECALL, AND SEPARATION EXAMS?

EZ603 | ASSIGN. 15-31

WHAT PART OF THE S.O.A.P. INCLUDES THE REASON FOR THE VISIT AND A STATEMENT OF THE CHIEF COMPLAINT?

SUBJECTIVE | ASSIGN. 15-32

WHAT PART OF THE S.O.A.P. IS GENERALLY USED BY THE EXAMINER TO MAKE A DIAGNOSIS?

ASSESSMENT | ASSIGN. 15-33

WHICH PART OF THE S.O.A.P. INCLUDES THE PATIENT’S TREATMENT NEEDS?

PLAN | ASSIGN. 15-34

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING REFERENCES SHOULD BE USED TO COMPLETE THE DENTAL EXAMINATION FORM?

MANMED, CHAPTER 6 | ASSIGN. 15-35

THE BACK OF THE EZ603 MAY BE OVERPRINTED WITH A COMMAND SPECIFIC FORMAT. TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE. | ASSIGN. 15-36

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FORMS SHOULD BE USED TO DOCUMENT DENTAL TREATMENT COMPLETED FROM THE TREATMENT PLAN, DENTAL EMERGENCIES AN DANY OTHER NARRATIVE DENTAL FINDINGS?

EZ603A | ASSIGN. 15-37

WHAT COLOR INK SHOULD BE USED FOR THE MEDICAL ALERT ENTRY ON THE EZ603A?

RED | ASSIGN. 15-38

WHICH FORM SHOULD BE USED TO RECORD THE DENTAL EXAMINATION COMPLETED IN CONJUNCTION WITH A MEDICAL PHYSICAL?

DD2808 | ASSIGN. 15-39

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ENTRIES SHOULD BE ANNOTATED IN BOX 44 ON THE REPORT FO THE MEDICAL EXAMINATION FORM?

PATIENT’S DENTAL DEFECTS | ASSIGN. 15-40

WHICH FORM SHOULD BE USED TO REFER A PATIENT TO ANOTHER SPECIALIST OR TO MEDICAL FOR FURTHER EVALUATION OR TREATMENT?

SF513 | ASSIGN. 15-41

WHICH SECTION OF THE CONSULTATION SHEET SHOULD BE LEFT BLANK FOR THE PERSON RECEIVING THE FORM TO DOCUMENT HIS OR HER FINDINGS?

CONSULTATION REPORT | ASSIGN. 15-42

THE DENTAL CHAIR SHOULD BE PLACED IN WHICH FO THE FOLLOWING POSITIONS TO DISMISS THE PATIENT?

ARM RAISED, LOWEST, UPRIGHT POSTION | ASSIGN. 15-43

WHEN PATIENTS COMPLETE THEIR DENTAL EXAMINATION THEY SHOULD BE DIRECTED TO MAKE FUTURE DENTAL APPOINTMENTS AT WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DEPARTMENTS?

FRONT DESK | ASSIGN. 15-44

OPERATIVE DENISTRY IS CONCERNED WITH THE PREVENTION AND TREATMENT OF DEFECTS OF WHAT TOOTH SURFACES?

ENAMEL AND DENTIN | ASSIGN. 16-1

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING INSTRUMENTS IS USED PRIMARILY TO REMOVE DEBRIS FROM TOOTH CAVITIES?

SPOON EXCAVATORS | ASSIGN. 16-2

AN EVEN-NUMBERED GINGIVAL MARGIN TRIMMER IS DESIGNED FOR USE ON WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TOOTH SURFACES?

DISTAL | ASSIGN. 16-3

AN ODD-NUMBERED GINGIVAL MARGIN TRIMMER IS DESIGNATED FOR USE ON WHICH OFHTE FOLLOWING TOOTH SURFACES?

MESIAL | ASSIGN. 16-4

WHAT TYPE OF WORKING END DOES AN MALGAM CARRIER HAVE FOR TRANSPORTATION?

HOLLOW | ASSIGN. 16-5

AN AMALGAM CONDENSER IS OFTEN REFERRED TO AS WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING INSTRUMENTS?

PLUGGERS | ASSIGN. 16-6

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING INSTRUMENTS IS DESIGNED FOR CARVING ALL INTERPROXIMAL TOOTH SURFACES?

HOLLENBACK #1/2 | ASSIGN. 16-7

WHAT IS AN ADVANTAGE OF USING A PLASTIC INSTRUMENT FOR PLACING COMPOSITE RESTORATIONS?

WILL NOT DISCOLOR | ASSIGN. 16-8

WHAT NUMBER SPATULA IS USED TO MIX SMALL QUANTITIES OF CEMENT?

#313 | ASSIGN. 16-9

WHAT LENGTH NEEDLE MEASURED IN INCHES, IS NORMALLY USED FOR MANDIBULAR INJECTIONS?

1 7/8 | ASSIGN. 16-10

THE WORKING END OF A RUBBER DAM PUNCH IS DESIGNED WITH WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MECHANISMS?

PLUNGER AND WHEEL | ASSIGN. 16-11

A “W” PREFIX ON A RUBGER DAM CLAMP INDICATES WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DESIGNS?

WITHOUT WINGS | ASSIGN. 16-12

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING RUBBER DAM FRAMES IS THE MOST POPULAR?

YOUNG | ASSIGN. 16-13

WHAT TYPE OF MATERIAL IS ALWAYS TIED AROUND A RUBBER DAM CLAMP BEFORE PLACEMENT IN THE MOUTH?

DENTAL FLOSS | ASSIGN. 16-14

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TYPES OF MATRIX BANDS IS MOST COMMONLY USED IN RESTORATIVE DENTISTRY?

STRAIGHT #1 | ASSIGN. 16-15

EXTENSIONS ON THE WIDE #2 MATRIX BANDS ARE KNOWN BY WHICH TERM?

APRONS | ASSIGN. 16-16

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE MSOT COMMONLY USED MATRIX RETAINER?

UNIVERSAL ADULT | ASSIGN. 16-17

WOOD OR CLEAR PLASTIC WEDGES MEASURE ABOUT HOW LONG IN LENGTH?

1/2 INCH | ASSIGN. 16-18

THE OPERATOR’S ZONE FOR A RIGHT HANDED DENTIST IS LOCATED BETWEEN WHICH POSITIONS?

8 AND 11 O’CLOCK | ASSIGN. 16-19

THE ASSISTANT’S ZONE FOR A RIGHT HANDED DENTIST IS LOCATED BETWEEN WHICH POSITIONS?

2 AND 4 O’CLOCK | ASSIGN. 16-20

THE TRANSFER ZONE IS LOCATED BETWEEN WHICH POSITIONS?

4 AND 8 O’CLOCK | ASSIGN. 16-21

THE STATIC ZONE IS LOCATED BETWEEN WHICH POSITIONS?

11 AND 2 O’CLOCK | ASSIGN. 16-22

HOW MANY INCHES SHOULD THE DENTIST’S EYE BE AWAY FROM THE TREATMENT SITE IF THE PATIENT IS PROPERLY POSITIONED?

14 TO 16 | ASSIGN. 16-23

IN WHAT ZONE WILL THE INSTRUMENT EXCHANGE BETWEEN THE DENTIST AND THE ASSISTANT TAKE PLACE?

TRANSFER | ASSIGN. 16-24

DENTAL MATERIAL IS EXCHANGED BETWEEN THE DENTIST AND THE ASSISTANT IN WHAT ZONE?

TRANSFER | ASSIGN. 16-25

THE NEEDLE END OF A CARPULE IS SEALED WITH A RUBBER MEMBRANE HELD IN PLACE BY WHAT TYPE OF MATERIAL?

METAL BAND | ASSIGN. 16-26

IF YOU MLUST RECAP A NEEDLE, WHAT TECHNIQUE SHOULD BE USED?

ONE HANDED SCOOP | ASSIGN. 16-27

WHAT DEVICE IS USED TO REMOVE BLOOD, PUS, SALIVA, AND DEBRIS FROM THE ORAL CAVITY?

HIGH VOLUME EVACUATOR | ASSIGN. 16-28

WHAT TYPE OF CAVITY IS PRESENT WHEN THREE OR MORE SURFACES ARE INVOLVED?

COMPLEX | ASSIGN. 16-29

WHEN DENTIST HAS FINISHED REMOVING THE TOOTH STRUCTURE IN A CAVITY PREPARATION, WHAT TYPE OF FEELING WILL THE DENTIN HAVE WHEN FELT BY AN EXPLORER?

FIRM | ASSIGN. 16-30

WHAT IS THE LAST CUTTING STEP IN THE PREPARATION OF A CAVITY?

FINISHING THE ENAMEL WALLS | ASSIGN. 16-31

STUBBORN PARTICLES OF DEBRIS MAY BE REMOVED FROM A CAVITY PREPARATION BY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MATERIALS DAMPENED WITH WATER OR HYDROGEN PEROXIDE?

SMALL COTTON PELLET | ASSIGN. 16-32

WHAT TWO MATERIALS ARE USED IN A CAVITY PREPARATION TO PROTECT THE PULP?

BASES AND CAVITY LINERS | ASSIGN. 16-33

WHAT MATERIAL IS USED TO SEAL THE DENTINAL TUBULES TO HELP PREVENT MICROLEAKAGE IN A CAVITY PREPARATION?

CAVITY VARNISH | ASSIGN. 16-34

WHAT INSTRUMENT WILL THE DENTIST USE TO BRING ANY EXCESS MERCURY FROM THE AMALGAM TO THE TOP OF THE RESTORATION?

BURNISHER | ASSIGN. 16-35

WHAT BUMED INSTRUCTION CONTAINS INFORMATION OF THE MERCURY CONTROL PROGRAM (MCP)?

6260.30 | ASSIGN. 16-36

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MATERIALS MAY BE USED TO REMOVE ROUGHNESS OR OVER HANGING AMALGAM IN THE PROXIMAL AREA?

METAL FILING STRIP | ASSIGN. 16-37

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING COMPOSITE RESINS IS AVAILABLE FOR USE IN OPERATIVE DENTISTRY?

- HYBRID - MACROFILLED - MICROFILLED (ASSIGN. 16-38)

WHAT COMPOSITE SHADE WILL APPEAR IF THE TOOTH BECOMES DEHYDRATED?

LIGHTER | ASSIGN. 16-39

WHAT TYPE OF MATRIX MAY BE PLACED ON THE TOOTH BEFORE THE ACID PROCEDURE BEGINS?

CELLUOID | ASSIGN. 16-40

GLASS IONOMER CEMENT WILL BOND DIRECTLY WITH WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TOOTH SURFACES?

- ENAMEL - DENTIN - CEMENTUM (ASSIGN. 16-41)

WHICH SCIENTIST FIRST DISCOVERED X-RAYS?

WILHELM KONRAD ROENTGEN | ASSIGN. 17-1

WHAT IS THE NAME OF TH ETUBE THAT WAS DISCOVERED IN 1895?

CROOKE’S TUBE | ASSIGN. 17-2

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A CHARACTERISTIC PROPERTY OF X-RAYS?

THEY TRAVEL AT THE SPEED OF SOUND | ASSIGN. 17-3

THE RULE THAT APPLIES TO THE PRINCIPLE OF THE RADIATION SAFETY IS _____?

ALARA | ASSIGN. 17-4

WHEN TAKING RADIOGRAPHS ALWAYS DRAPE THE PATIENT WITH A LEAD APRON. TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE. | ASSIGN. 17-5

THE TIME SETTING ON THE X-RAY MACHINE IS MEASURED BY USING WHICH FO THE FOLLOWING METHODS?

FRACTIONS OF A SECOND OR MILLIAMPERES | ASSIGN. 17-6

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTION IS MOST IMPORTANT WHEN ORDERING RADIOGRAPHS FOR FEMALE PATIENTS?

ASK THE PATIENT IF SHE IS PREGNANT | ASSIGN. 17-7

THE FILM BADGE SHOULD BE PLACED BEHIND THE LEAD-LINED BARRIER AT LEAST WHAT NUMBER OF FEET FROM THE TUBE HEAD?

6 | ASSIGN. 17-8

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A SAFETY PRECAUTION FOR TAKING RADIOGRAPHS?

HOLD THE FILM PACKET IN THE PATIENT’S MOUTH DURING EXPOSURE IF NECESSARY (ASSIGN. 17-9)

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PERSONNEL ARE AUTHORIZED TO ORDER AND DIAGNOSTICALLY INTERPRET DENTAL RADIOGRAPHS?

DENTAL OFFICERS | ASSIGN. 17-10

HOW OFTEN SHOULD THE SURFACES IN THE DARK ROOM BE DISINFECTED?

DAILY | ASSIGN. 17-11

OF THE FOLLOWING PERSONNEL WHO IS NOT ALLOWED TO ORDER RADIOGRAPHS?

HM | ASSIGN. 17-12

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE INDICATION FOR A PA OF THE CHEST, EXCEPT?

RASH AND STREAKING | ASSIGN. 17-13

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ORGANS WILL NOT BE SEEN IN A KUB RADIOGRAPH?

LIVER | ASSIGN. 17-14

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STRUCTURES WILL BE SEEN IN THE AP PROJECTION OF THE CERVICAL SPINE?

C3-T1 | ASSIGN. 17-15

A PATIENT PRESENTING WITH CHRONIC CERVICAL SPINE PAIN SHOULD BE ORDERED WHAT TYPE OF RADIOGRAPH?

AP CERVICAL SPINE | ASSIGN. 17-16

AT APPROXIMATELY WHAT ANGLE SHOULD THE ANKLE BE WHEN TAKING AN OBLIQUE RADIOGRAPH?

90 | ASSIGN. 17-17

WHAT SHOULD BE SHIELDED WHEN YOU ARE TAKING AN X-RAY?

REPRODUCTIVE ORGANS | ASSIGN. 17-18

THE PARALLELING DEVICE CONSISTS OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PARTS?

ALL OF THE ABOVE: - A LOCATOR RING - AN INDICATOR ROD - A BITE BLOCK (ASSIGN. 17-19)

THE BISECTING ANGLE TECHNIQUE IS THE PREFERRED METHOD AND RECOMMENDED FOR ROUTINE USE WHEN TAKING PERIAPICAL RADIOGRAPHS. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 17-20

WHEN TAKING RADIOGRAPHS, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FACTORS SHOULD YOU CONSIDER BEFORE USING THE BISECTING-ANGLE TECHNIQUE?

ALL OF THE ABOVE: - THERE ARE NO PARALLELING DEVICES AVAILABLE - THE PATIENT CANNOT CLSOE MOUTH ON BITE BLOCK - THE PATIENT HAS RUBBER DAM IN PLACE (ASSIGN. 17-21)

WHAT LANDMARK IS USED WHEN EXPOSING TH EMAXILLARY BICUSPID AREA?

BELOW THE PUPIL OF THE EYE | ASSIGN. 17-22

THE POSITION OF THE PATIENT’S MID SAGITTAL PLANE MUST BE PERPENDICULAR TO THE FLOOR WHEN EXPOSING A PERIAPICAL RADIOGRAPH USING THE BISECTING-ANGLE TECHNIQUE. TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE | ASSIGN. 17-23

THE OCCLUSAL FILM PACKET CONTAINS TWO X-RAY FILMS. TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE | ASSIGN. 17-24

WHAT X-RAY MACHINE SETTINGS SHOULD YOU USE WHEN EXPOSING A MAXILLARY OCCLUSAL RADIOGRAPH ON AN ADULT?

10 mA, 90 KVp, AND 60 IMPULSES | ASSIGN. 17-25

WHAT VERTICAL ANGULATION SETTING SHOULD YOU USE WHEN EXPOSING A MAXILLARY ANTERIOR OCCLUSAL RADIOGRAPH?

+65 DEGREES | ASSIGN. 17-26

WHEN EXPOSING A MAXILLARY POSTERIOR OCCLUSAL RADIOGRAPH, YOU SHOULD USE WHA TVERTICAL ANGULATION SETTING?

+75 DEGREES | ASSIGN. 17-27

WHEN EXPOSING A MANDIBULAR ANTERIOR OCCLUSAL RADIOGRAPH, WHAT VERTICAL ANGULATION SHOULD YOU USE?

-10 DEGREES | ASSIGN. 17-28

A SAFE LIGHT IS THE ONLY SAFE SOURCE OF ILLUMINATION USED IN THE DARKROOM WHEN PROCESSING RADIOGRAPHS. TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE | ASSIGN. 17-29

WHEN CHECKING FOR LIGHT LEAKS IN THE DARKROOM, YOU SHOULD LEAVE THE PENNY ON THE X-RAY FILM FOR AT LEAST WHAT NUMBER OF MINUTES?

FIVE | ASSIGN. 17-30

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING METHODS IS MOST COMMONLY USED TO PROCESS DENTAL RADIOGRAPHS IN THE NAVY?

AUTOMATIC PROCESSING | ASSIGN. 17-31

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PROCEDURES SHOULD BE INCLUDED IN THE DAILY MAINTENANCE OF THE X-RAY MACHINE?

DUSTING | ASSIGN. 17-32

YOU HSOULD WAIT WHAT NUMBER SECONDS BETWEEN FILMS BEFORE INSERTING ANOTHER FILM INTO THE AUTOMATIC PROCESSOR?

15 | ASSIGN. 17-33

THE DEVELOPER AND FIXER SOLUTIONS IN THE AUTOMATIC PROCESSOR SHOULD BE CHANGED AT WHAT MINIMUM FREQUENCIES?

EVERY 3 TO 4 WEEKS | ASSIGN. 17-34

THE PROCESSING SOLUTIONS USED IN THE AUTOMATIC PROCESSOR ARE THE SAME AS THOSE USEED IN THE MANUAL PROCESSING PROCEDURE. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 17-35

THE CLEANING OF THE ROLLER TRANSPORTS AN DTHE SOLUTIONS IN THE AUTOMATIC PROCESSOR ARE ACCOMPLISHED AT WHAT MINIMUM INTERVALS?

MONTHLY | ASSIGN. 17-36

WHICH TEETH CAN BE IDENTIFIED RADIOGRAPHICALLY BY A LARGE WHITE REGION CAUSED BY THE BONE OF THE NASAL SEPTUM?

MAXILLARY INCISORS | ASSIGN. 17-37

WHEN MOUNTING RADIOGRAPHS, THE RAISED DIMPLE SHOULD BE FACING YOU. TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE | ASSIGN. 17-38

YOU SHOULD ATTEMPT TO COMPLETE ALL X-RAY REPAIRS YOURSELF. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 17-39

PHARMACOLOGY IS A BASIC MEDICAL SCIENCE THAT DEALS WITH THE STUDY OF WHICH SPECIALTY?

DRUGS | ASSIGN. 18-1

THE BRANCH OF PHARMACOLOGY THAT DEALS WITH THE PREPARATION, DISPENSING, AND PROPER USE MEDICATIONS IS?

PHARMACY | ASSIGN. 18-2

THE ACTUAL TITLE OF THE “BLUE BIBLE” OF PHARMACOLOGY IS?

REMINGTON’S THE SCIENCE AND PRACTICE OF PHARMACY | ASSIGN. 18-3

THE AMOUNT OF MEDICATION ADMINISTERED IS REFERRED TO AS WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?

DOSE | ASSIGN. 18-4

THE MINIMUMAND MAXIMUM AMOUNT OF A DRUG REQUUIRED TO PRODUCE THE DESIRED EFFECT IS REFERRED TO BY WHAT TERM?

DOSAGE RANGE | ASSIGN. 18-5

WHAT DOSE REFERS TO THE LEAST AMOUNT OF AT DRUG THAT CAN CAUSE DEATH?

MINIMUM LETHAL | ASSIGN. 18-6

THE MOST COMMON FACTOR INFLUENCING THE AMOUNT OF DRUG GIVEN TO A PATIENT IS?

AGE | ASSIGN. 18-7

WHAT TWO PRIMARY FACTORS, IF ANY, DETERMINE A DOSE?

AGE AND WEIGHT | ASSIGN. 18-8

WHAT IS THE PROPER DOSE IN MILLILITERS OF AMPICILLIN FOR AND 8-YEAR OLD CHILDE IF THE ADULT IS 15 ml?

8/(12+8) x 15 mL = 8/20 x 15 mL = 2/5 x 15 mL ANSWER = 6 mL (ASSIGN. 18-9)

WHAT IS THE NAME OF THE RULE USED TO DETERMINE APPROPRIATE DOSAGE OF MEDICATION BASED ON A CHILD’S WEIGHT?

CLARK’S RULE | ASSIGN. 18-10

DETERMINE THE APPROPRIATE DOSE IN MILLIGRAMS OF MEDICATION FOR A CHILD WEIGHING 30 POUNDS IF THE AVERAGE DOSE FOR AN ADULT IS 600 mg.

30/150 x 600 = 600/5 = 120 mg (ASSIGN. 18-11)

IN COMPUTING THE AMOUNT OF DRUG TO BE GIVEN TO AN UNDERWEIGHT FEMALE, WHAT ADJUSTMENTS TO THE NORMAL DOSAGE WOULD ORDINARILY BE MADE?

DECREASE THE DOSAGE BECAUSE OF HER SEX AND FURTHER DECREASE BECAUSE OF HER WEIGHT (ASSIGN. 18-12)

A DRUG GIVEN CONTINUOUSLY TO A PATIENT OFTEN HAS TO BE INCREASED IN DOSAGE TO MAINTAIN THE DESIRED EFFECT. THE NEED FOR A LARGER DOSE IS PROBABLY CAUSED BY _____?

A CUMULATIVE EFFECT FROM HABITUAL USE | ASSIGN. 18-13

THE MOST COMMON METHOD OF ADMINISTERING MEDICATIONS IS _____.

ORALLY | ASSIGN. 18-14

WHAT TERM IS USED TO DEFINE A MEDICATION THAT IS PLACED UNDER THE TONGUE?

SUBLINGUAL | ASSIGN. 18-15

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN EXAMPLE OF A DRUG INJECTED INTRADERMALLY?

PURIFIED PROTEIN DERIVATIVE | ASSIGN. 18-16

WHAT TECHNIQUE INTRODUCES A DRUG DIRECTLY INTO A VEIN?

INTRAVENOUS | ASSIGN. 18-17

INWHAT FORM ARE MEDICATIONS INTRODUCED INTO THE BODY THROUGH INHALATION?

GAS | ASSIGN. 18-18

NORMALLY HOW MANY NAMES DO MEDICATIONS HAVE?

THREE | ASSIGN. 18-19

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A WAY DRUGS ARE GROUPED?

BY THEIR BRAND NAMES | ASSIGN. 18-20

ALUMINUM ACETATE, AN ASTRINGENT, IS OFTEN USED TO TREAT WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS?

ALL OF THE ABOVE: - ATHLETES FOOT - EXTERNAL OTITIS - POION IVY (ASSIGN. 18-21)

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A BRONCHOMUTROPIC AGENT?

GUAIFENESIN | ASSIGN. 18-22

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A CHARACTERISTIC SIDE EFFECT OF ANTIHISTAMINES?

DROWSINESS | ASSIGN. 18-23

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MEDICATIONS IS ADMINISTERED TO CONTROL MOTION SICKNESS?

MECLIZINE HYDROCHLORIDE | ASSIGN. 18-24

IN CONJUNCTION WITH ANTACIDS, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS USED TO TREAT DUODENAL ULCERS?

RANITIDINE | ASSIGN. 18-25

THE DRUG GROUP MOST OFTEN USED TO TREAT DYSPEPSIA IS ______?

ANTACIDS | ASSIGN. 18-26

IN ADDITION TO BEING AN ANTACID, MAGNESIUM HYDROXIDE MAY BE USED AS A/AN _____?

LAXATIVE | ASSIGN. 18-27

THE STANDARD BY WHICH ALL OTHER ANTISEPTICS ARE MEASURED IS _____?

PHENOL | ASSIGN. 18-28

THE PRIMARY PHARMACOLOGICAL ACTION OF SULFONAMIDES IS _____?

BACTERIOSTATIC | ASSIGN. 18-29

THE MOST COMMON USE FOR SYSTEMIC SULFONAMIDES IS IN THE TREATMENT OF WHICH OF THE CONDITIONS LISTED BELOW?

URINARY TRACT INFECTIONS | ASSIGN. 18-30

SILVER SULFADIAZINE IS USED ALMOST EXCLUSIVELY IN THE TREATMENT OF _____?

BURNS | ASSIGN. 18-31

THE DRUG OF CHOICE FOR UNCOMPLICATED GROUP A BETA-HEMOLYTIC STREPTOCOCCAL PHARYNGITIS IS _____?

PENICILLIN V POTASSIUM | ASSIGN. 18-32

PATIENT SENSITIVE TO PENICILLIN MAY ALSO EXHIBIT SENSITIVITY TO CEPHALO SPORINS. TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE | ASSIGN. 18-33

MILK OR MILK PRODUCTS MAY INTERFERE WITH THE ABSORPTION OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DRUGS?

TETRACYCLINE HYDROCHLORIDE | ASSIGN. 18-34

MACROLIDES ARE EFFECTIVE AGAINS WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ORGANISMS?

GRAM-POSITIVE COCCI | ASSIGN. 18-35

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS AN APPROPRIATE SUBSTITUTE FOR PENICILLIN WHEN PENICILLIN IS CONTRAINDICATED?

ERYTHROMYCIN | ASSIGN. 18-36

UNDECLYENIC ACID IS USED AS A/AN _____?

ANTIFUNGAL | ASSIGN. 18-37

SUPPLEMENTAL POTASSIUM MAY BE REQUIRED WITH WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CATEGORIES OF DRUGS?

DIURETICS | ASSIGN. 18-38

THE DRUG OF CHOICE FOE THE TREATMENT AND MANAGEMENT OF GRAND MAL SEIZURES IS _____?

PHENYTOIN SODIUM | ASSIGN. 18-39

PROCHLORPERIZINE I SUSED MAINLY TO _____?

TREAT SYMPTOMS OF NAUSEA AND VOMITING | ASSIGN. 18-40

MUSCLE RELAXANTS INCLUDE ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT ____?

METHYLPHENIDATE | ASSIGN. 18-41

WATER-SOLUBLE VITAMINS ARE NOT EXCRETED IN THE URINE AND ARE STORED IN THE BODY IN MODERATE AMOUNTS. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 18-42

THE VITAMIN DEFICIENCY ASSOCIATED WITH NIGHT BLINDNESS IS _____?

VITAMIN A | ASSIGN. 18-43

THE AGENT USED TO TREAT PERNICIOUS ANEMIA IS _____?

CYANOCOBALAMIN | ASSIGN. 18-44

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE VITAMIN INVOLVED IN ABSORPTION AND USE OF CALCIUM AND PHOSPHOROUS?

VITAMIN D | ASSIGN. 18-45

THE CORRECT ABBREVIATIONS FOR THE METRIC SYSTEMS OF PRIMARY UNITS OF MEASURE FOR WEIGHT, VOLUME, AND LINEAR DIMENSIONS ARE _____?

- GRAMS (g) - LITERS (L) - METERS (m) (ASSIGN. 18-46)

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS EQUAL TO ONE-HUNDREDTH OF A LITER?

CENTILITER | ASSIGN. 18-47

A PRESCRIPTION REQUIRES TWO OUNCES OF A SUBSTANCE SUPPLIED IN LITERS. HOW MANY MILLILITERS ARE REQUIRED TO FILL THE PRESCRIPTION?

3.8 L/GAL x 1 GAL/128 oz. = 3800 mL/128 oz. x 2 = 60 mL | ASSIGN. 18-48

YOU HAVE 360 GRAMS OF A COMPOUND. IF 54 GRAMS OF THE COMPOUND IS SILVER NITRATE, WHAT IS THE PERCENTAGE STRENGTH OF SILVER NITRATE?

54/360 x 100 = 15% | ASSIGN. 18-49

ALL PHARMACIES THAT DISPENSE PRESCRIPTIONS ARE REQUIRED TO HAVE WHAT CLASS BALANCE?

CLASS A | ASSIGN. 18-50

WHAT DRUG INCOMPATIBILITY OCCURS WHEN AGENTS ANTAGONISTIC TO WONE ANOTHER ARE PRESCRIBED TOGETHER?

THERAPEUTIC | ASSIGN. 18-51

EUTEXIA IS AN EXAMPLE OF WHAT TYPE OF DRUG INCOMPATIBILITY MANIFESTATION?

PHYSICAL | ASSIGN. 18-52

A PROPERLY ADMINISTERED DRUG DOSAGE THAT HAS AN UNINTENDED OR HARMFUL EFFECT ON THE PATIENT IS THE DEFINITION OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TERMS?

ADVERSE REACTION | ASSIGN. 18-53

WHAT CHAPTER OF THE MANUAL OF THE MEDICAL DEPARTMENT GIVES GUIDANCE ON PHARMACY OPERATIONS AND DRUG CONTROL?

21 | ASSIGN. 18-54

WHAT DD FORM IS USED TO PRESCRIBE CONTROLLED AND NONCONTROLLED MEDICATIONS?

FORM DD 1289 | ASSIGN. 18-55

IN THE PRESCRIPTION BLOCK OF DD FORM 1289, WHAT PART LISTS THE NAME AND QUANTITY OF THE INGREDIENTS PRESCRIBED?

INSCRIPTION | ASSIGN. 18-56

IF, IN THE COURSE OF FILLING A PRESCRIPTION, THE HM FEELS THAT THERE MAY BE A DISCREPANCY OR INCOMPATIBILITY, THE HM SHOUL DTAKE WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ACTIONS?

CONSULT THE PRESCRIBER TO VERIFY THE PRESCRIPTION BEFORE FILLING (ASSIGN. 18-57)

WHAT TYPES OF PRESCRIPTION MEDICATION HAVE THE POTENTIAL FOR ABUSE?

CONTROLLED | ASSIGN. 18-58

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A SCHEDULE III MEDICATION?

NON-BARBITUATE SEDATIVE | ASSIGN. 18-59

WHAT SCHEDULE OF MEDICATIONS CAN NEVER BE ORDERED WITH REFILLS?

SCHEDULE II | ASSIGN. 18-60

HOW MANY BOARD MEMBERS ARE ON THE CONTROLLED SUBSTANCE INVENTORY BOARD?

THREE | ASSIGN. 18-61

CONTROLLED SUBSTANCES MUST BE INVENTORIED AT LEAST?

QUARTERLY | ASSIGN. 18-62

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS CONSIDERED THE PREFERRED SOURCE FOR BLOOD SPECIMENS OBTAINED FOR CLINICAL EXAMINATION?

VENIPUNCTURE | ASSIGN. 19-1

WHEN PERFORMING A FINGER PUNCTURE, THE FIRST DROP SHOULD BE WIPED AWAY TO AVOID WHICH FO THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS?

DILUTION OF THE SPECIMEN WITH TISSUE FLUIDS | ASSIGN. 19-2

HOW FAR ABOVE THE PHLEBOTOMY SITE SHOULD THE TOURNIQUET BE PLACED?

3-4 INCHES ABOVE THE SITE | ASSIGN. 19-3

THE CORRECT NEEDLE POSITION FOR VENIPUNCTURE IS (A) WHAT DEGREE ANGLE AND (B) WITH THE BEVEL IN WHAT POSITION?

(A) 15-30 (B) UP (ASSIGN. 19-4)

A TOURNIQUET IS NORMALLY APPLIED BEFORE TO AID IN THE PROCESS OF VENIPUNCTURE AT WHAT POINT IN TH EVENIPUNCTURE PROCEDURE SHOULD THE TOURNIQUET BE REMOVED?

ONCE BLOOD FLOWS FREELY INTO TUBES | ASSIGN. 19-5

WHEN SHOULD SPECIMENS BE LABELED?

BEFORE LEAVING PATIENT | ASSIGN. 19-6

WHICH COLOR TUBE IS THE BEST CHOICE FOR ROUTINE CHEMISTRY TESTS?

RED TOP | ASSIGN. 19-7

WHICH COLOR TUBE IS THE BEST CHOICE FOR A CBC?

LAVENDER TOP | ASSIGN. 19-8

THE PART OF THE MICROSCOPE ON WHICH THE PREPARED SPECIMEN IS PLACED FOR EXAMINATION IS CALLED THE _____.

MECHANICAL STAGE | ASSIGN. 19-9

WHAT OBJECTIVE SHOULD BE USED FOR A DETAILED SUTDY. OF STAINED BACTERIAL SMEARS?

OIL IMMERSION | ASSIGN. 19-10

A COMPLETE BLOOD COUNT INCLUDES WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?

- TOTAL RBC COUNT - HEATOCRIT - DIFFERENTIAL WBC COUNT (ASSIGN. 19-11)

THE FUNCTION OF HEMOGLOBIN IN THE BODY IS TO _____?

TRANSPORT OXYGEN TO THE TISSUES | ASSIGN. 19-12

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FACTORS AFFECT THE HEMOGLOBIN VALUES?

- AGE - SEX - ALTITUDE (ASSIGN. 19-13)

A LOW RBC COUNT MAY INDICATE THAT THE PATIENT HAS WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING LISTED CONDITIONS?

ANEMIA | ASSIGN. 19-14

THE NORMAL VALUE FOR MALE HEMOGLOBIN IS ____?

14-18 | ASSIGN. 19-15

WHAT IS THE TERM USED FOR THE VOLUME OF ERYTHROCYTES EXPRESSED AS A PERCENTAGE OF THE VOLUME OF WHOLE BLOOD IN A SAMPLE?

HEMATOCRIT | ASSIGN. 19-16

HEMATOCRIT FOR A NORMAL, HEALTHY FEMALE IS WITHIN WHAT RANGE?

37-47 PERCENT | ASSIGN. 19-17

SELECT THE TERM USED TO DESCRIBE AN ABNORMALLY HIGH WBC COUNT.

LEUKOCYTOSIS | ASSIGN. 19-18

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS MAY CAUSE LEUKOPENIA?

EACH OF THE ABOVE: - RADIATION - PSITTACOSIS - ANAPHYLACTIC SHOCK (ASSIGN. 19-19)

WHICH STUDY WITHIN A CBC OFTEN PROVIDES THE MOST HELPFUL INFORMATION IN DETERMINING THESEVERITY AND TYPE OF INFECTION?

WBC DIFFERENTIAL | ASSIGN. 19-20

WHAT IS THE FUNCTION OF LEUKOCYTES?

TO CONTROL VARIOUS DISEASE CONDITIONS | ASSIGN. 19-21

WHAT TYPE OF LEUKOCYTE COMPRISED THE LARGEST PERCENTAGE OF CELLS IN THE CIRCULATING BLOOD?

NEUTROPHIL | ASSIGN. 19-22

WHICH LEUKOCYTE FUNCTIONS BY INGESTING INVADING BACTERIA?

NEUTROPHIL | ASSIGN. 19-23

WHICH LEUKOCYTE HELPS RESPOND TO PARASITIC INFECTIONS?

EOSINOPHIL | ASSIGN. 19-24

WHEN PERFORMING A WBC DIFFERENTIAL, HWICH CELL HAS THE LARGE, SCATTERED DARK BLUE GRANULES THAT ARE DARKER THAN THE NUCLEUS?

BASOPHILS | ASSIGN. 19-25

WHICH LEUKOCYTE FIGHTS VIRAL INFECTIONS?

LYMPHOCYTE | ASSIGN. 19-26

THE LARGEST OF THE NORMAL WBC’S IS THE _____?

MONOCYTE | ASSIGN. 19-27

WHAT IS THE TERM USED FOR BACTERIA THAT CUSE DISEASE?

PATHOGEN | ASSIGN. 19-28

THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN ANAEROBES AND AEROBES IS THAT ANAEROBES NEED OXYGEN TO REPRODUCE. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 19-29

WHAT IS TH ETERM USED TO DEFINE BACTERIA THAT ARE ROUND IN SHAPE?

COCCI | ASSIGN. 19-30

IN THE GRAM’S STAIN, WHAT IS THE PRIMARY STAIN?

CRYSTAL VIOLET | ASSIGN. 19-31

GRAM POSITIVE BACTERIA STAIN WHAT COLOR?

DEEP BLUE OR PURPLE | ASSIGN. 19-32

WHICH BACTERIA CAUSES STREP THROAT?

STREPTOCOCCUS PYOGENES | ASSIGN. 19-33

WHICH BACTERIA CAUSES GONORRHEA?

NEISSERIA GONORRHOEAE | ASSIGN. 19-34

WHICH BACTERIA CAUSES TETANUS?

CLOSTRIDIUM TETANI | ASSIGN. 19-35

WHAT IS THE TERM USED FOR A SUBSTANCE THAT, WHEN INTRODUCED INTO AN INDIVIDUAL’S BODY, IS RECOGNIZED A FOREIGN TO THE BODY, AND CAUSES A DETECTABLE REACTION?

ANTIGEN | ASSIGN. 19-36

THE RPR IS A SPECIFIC TEST TO DIAGNOSE SYPHILIS. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 19-37

THE RPR TEST TO SCREEN FOR SYPHILIS IS BEST USED WITH WHAT TYPE OF SPECIMEN?

SERUM | ASSIGN. 19-38

IF THE MONOSPOT IS NEGATIVE, THE PATIENT DOES NOT HAVE INFECTIOUS MONONUCLEOSIS. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 19-39

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CHEMICAL PREPARATIONS IS FREQUENTLY USED TO DETECT FUNGI?

POTASSIUM HYDROXIDE | ASSIGN. 19-40

THE BEST URINE SPECIMEN FOR SCREENING PURPOSES IS THAT TAKEN DURING WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TIMES?

FIRST MORNING | ASSIGN. 19-41

WHAT IS THE DESIRED URINE SMAPLE VOLUME FOR ROUTINE TESTING?

12 mL | ASSIGN. 19-42

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING COLORS WOULD BE CONSIDERED ABNORMAL IN A URINE SAMPLE?

RED | ASSIGN. 19-43

WHICH URINE COLOR IS MOST RELATED WITH THE PRESENCE OF BLOOD?

RED | ASSIGN. 19-44

WHICH URINE COLOR IS MOST RELATED WITH THE PRESENCE OF BILE?

YELLOW OR BROWN | ASSIGN. 19-45

WHICH URINE COLOR IS MOST RELATED WITH A PATIENT BEING TREATED WITH PYRIDIUM?

DARK ORANGE | ASSIGN. 19-46

A REPORT ON URINE CLARITY IS VLAID REGARDLESS OF STANDING TIME. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 19-47

THE SPECIFIC GRAVITY OF A LIQUID IS THE WEIGHT OF THE SUBSTANCE AS COMPARED TO AN EQUAL VOLUME OF _____.

DISTILLED WATER | ASSIGN. 19-48

NORMAL SPECIFIC GRAVITY FOR ROUTINE URINALYSIS IS WITHIN WHAT RAINGE?

1.015-1.030 | ASSIGN. 19-49

THE ADDITION OF ONE DROP OF 2 PERCENT ACETIC ACID TO URINE SEDIMENT WILL DISINTEGRATE WHICH CELL?

RED BLOOD CELLS | ASSIGN. 19-50

WHAT CELL IS NOT NORMALLY FOUND IN URINE?

- WHITE BLOOD CELL - RED BLOOD CELL - EPITHELIAL CELL (ASSIGN. 19-51)

WHICH CRITICAL RSULT IS INDICATIVE OF UNCONTROLLED DIABETES?

GLUCOSE AND KETONES BOTH PRESENT IN URINE | ASSIGN. 19-52

WHAT OPERATIONAL PROGRAM MAY BE USED ON SOME OPERATIONAL PLATFORMS TO TREAT CRITICAL PATIENTS IN A MASS CASUALTY SITUATION WHE DELAY O FBLOOD PRODUCTS WOUIL DCAUSE A CRITICAL DELAY?

WBB | ASSIGN. 19-53

WHY IS THE SPICA OR FIGURE EIGHT BANDAGE USED AROUND THE ELBO?

ALLOWS FOR MOVEMENT WHILE HOLDING A COMPRESS | ASSIGN. 20-1

WHAT SIZE BANDAGE IS USED FOR APPLYING A ROLLER BANDAGE TO THE ANKLE OR FOOT?

3 INCH | ASSIGN. 20-2

WHAT IS A BARTON BANDAGE USED FOR?

FRACTURES FO THE LOWER JAW | ASSIGN. 20-3

THE AUTOMATED EXTERNAL DEFIBRILLATOR ANALYZES CARDIAC RHYTHM AND SELECTS THE APPROPRIATE STRENGTH OF ELECTRICAL THERAPY WHICH STOPS AN ARRHYTHMIA, ALLOWING THE HEAR TO RE-ESTABLISH A NORMAL RHYTHM. TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE | ASSIGN. 20-4

WHICH STATEMENT IS FALSE CONCERNING NORMAL SALINE?

THERE ARE NO DANGERS IN GIVING “TOO MUCH” NORMAL SALINE | ASSIGN. 20-5

HETASTARCH IS A SUBSTITUTE FOR BLOOD PLASMA AND HAS OXYGEN CARRYING CAPABILITIES. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 20-6

IN THE UNITED STATES, OXYGEN BOTTLES ARE COLORED GREEN. WHAT IS THE INTERNATIONAL COLOR CODE OF OXYGEN BOTTLES?

WHITE | ASSIGN. 20-7

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A TRUE STATEMENT CONCERNING OROPHARYNGEAL AIRWAYS?

AN AIRWAY OF PROPER SIZE IS MEASURED FROM THE TIP OF THE EARLOBE TO THE CORNER OF THE MOUTH (ASSIGN. 20-8)

THE OROPHARYNGEAL AIRWAY IS THE AIRWAY OF CHOICE FOR PATIENTS WITH A GAG REFLEX. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 20-9

THE EFFECTIVE LIFE OF AN OXYGEN BREATHING APPARATUS (OBA) IS _____?

20-45 MINUTES | ASSIGN. 20-10

HOW MANY STAGES OF EXTRICATION ARE THERE?

5 | ASSIGN. 20-11

WHICH IS A TRUE STATEMENT WHEN TREATING A PATIENT THAT IS RADIOACTIVELY CONTAMINATED?

TREATMENT OF L IFE THREATENING INJURIES TAKES PRECEDENCE OVER DECONTAMINATION PROCEDURES (ASSIGN. 20-12)

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A CONCERN ABOUT THE DISTANCE A CASUALTY CAN BE CARRIED?

THE AMOUNT OF RADIATION WITH WHICH THE VICTIM IS CONTAMINATED (ASSIGN. 20-13)

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A PHASE OF CARE OF PATIENT EN ROUTE?

MEDICAL EVACUATION CARE | ASSIGN. 20-14

LINE #3 IN THE MEDEVAC REQUEST IS _____?

NUMBER OF PATENTS BY PRECEDENCE | ASSIGN. 20-15

WHEN ESTABLISHING A HELICOPTER LANDING SITE, THE GROUND SLOPE CAN BE NO MORE THAN _____ DEGREES.

15 | ASSIGN. 20-16

THE NATIONAL FIRE PROTECTION ASSOCIATION HAS DEVELOPED A LABELING SYSTEM FOR INDICATING THE HEALTH, FLAMMABILITY, AND REACTIVITY HAZARDS OF CHEMICALS. THE LABELS ARE MAD INTO SQUARES TO COMPRISE A DIAMOND SHAPED LABEL. WHAT DOES RED INDICATE?

INDICATES FLAMMABILITY | ASSIGN. 20-17

INDICATES ANY SPECIAL HAZARDS | ASSIGN. 20-18

INDICATES HEALTH HAZARDS | ASSIGN. 20-19

INDICATES THE REACTIVITY | ASSIGN. 20-20

IN HAZMAT MANAGEMENT SITUATIONS, SITE CONTROL IS DIVIDED INTO 3 ZONES. IN WHICH ZONE DOES PERSONNEL DECONTAMINATION HAPPEN?

WARM ZONE | ASSIGN. 20-21

WHEN DECONTAMINATING PERSONNEL CONTAMINATED FROM A HAZMAT SITUATION, THE MOST FREQUENTLY APPROPRIATE METHOD OF DECONTAMINATION IS _____?

DILUTION | ASSIGN. 20-22

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE MEASURES FIRST AID IS INTENDED TO ADDRESS EXCEPT?

REPLACE PROPER MEDICAL DIAGNOSIS AND TREATMENT | ASSIGN. 21-1

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE RULES TO FOLLOW WHEN PROVIDING FIRST AID EXCEPT?

PANIC AT THE FIRST SIGHT OF BLOOD | ASSIGN. 21-2

WHICH ONE IS NOT RECOMMENDED WHEN PREPARING FOR EMERGENCY SITUATIONS?

FAMILIARIZING YOURSELF WITH YOUR EQUIPMENT WHILE RESPONDING TO AN EMERGENCY SCENE (ASSIGN. 21-3)

CASUALTIES IN A NON-TACTICAL ENVIRONMENT WHOSE INJURIES ARE CRITICAL BUT WHO WILL REQUIRE ONLY MINIMAL TIME OR EQUIPMENT ARE?

PRIORITY 1 | ASSIGN. 21-4

WHAT IS THE METHOD FOR SORGIN CASUALITES IN A MULTIPLE CASUALTY INCIDENT (MCI)?

S.T.A.R.T. | ASSIGN. 21-5

A PATIENT IN A TACTICAL SETTING WITH AN UPPER AIRWAY OBSTRUCTION AND LIFE THREATENING BLEEDING WOULD FALL INTO WHICH CATEGORY?

IMMEDIATE | ASSIGN. 21-6

WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM AMOUNT OF TIME ALLOWED FOR CONTINOUS SUCTIONING OF AN INFANT’S AIRWAY?

5 SECONDS | ASSIGN. 21-7

WHEN INSERTING THE COMBITUBE AND AFTER THE DEVICE IS SITTING BETWEEN THE TEETH AND PROPERLY ALIGNED BETWEEN THE PRINTED BLACK RINGS, WHAT IS THE NEXT STEP?

INFLATE THE BLUE CUFF | ASSIGN. 21-8

CASUALTIES WITH AT TOTAL UPPER AIRWAY OBSTRUCTION, INHALATION BURNS, OR MASSIVE MAXILLOFACIAL TRAUMA WHO CANNOT BE VENTILATED BY OATHER MENAS ARE CANDITATES FOR THE KING LT AIRWAY. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 21-10

WHEN PERFORMING A NEEDLE CHEST DECOMPRESSION, WHAT IS THE PREFERRED SIZE OF THE NEEDLE REQUIRED TO ADEQUATELY DECOMPRESS THE CHEST?

14 GAUGE | ASSIGN. 21-10

DISTRIBUTIVE SHOCK IS A LOSS OF INTRAVASCULAR VOLUME, WHIHC MAY OCCUR FROM BLOOD, PLAMA, OR FLUID LOSS. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 21-11

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE STAGES OF SHOCK EXCEPT?

EARLY | ASSIGN. 21-12

NORMALLY, A LOSS OF APPROXIMATELY _____ OF THE PERSON’S BLOOD VOLUME WILL CREATE A LIFE-THREATENING CONDITION.

1 LITER | ASSIGN. 21-13

A PATIENT WITH A SKIN ASSESSMENT OF PALE AND COOL AND WHOSE BLOOD PRESSURE DROPPED BRIEFLY WOULD BE CONSIDERED TO BE IN WHAT TYPE OF SHOCK?

PSYCHOGENIC | ASSIGN. 21-14

APPROXIMATELY HOW LONG DOES IT TAKE FOR DEATH TO OCCUR FROM MASSIVE HEMMORAGE?

2 MINUTES | ASSIGN. 21-15

WHAT IS THE MOST COMMON CAUSE OF SHOCK THAT THE HM WILL ENCOUNTER?

UNCONTROLLED HEMORRAGE | ASSIGN. 21-16

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE COMPONENTS OF THE SCENE SIZE UP EXCEPT?

TYPES OF INJURY | ASSIGN. 21-17

THE INDEX OF SUSPICION IS DERIVED DIRECTLY FROM WHIHC OF THE FOLLOWING?

MECHANISM OF INJURY | ASSIGN. 21-18

THE GENERAL IMPRESSION IS CRUCIAL TO IDENTIFYING WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?

ALL OF THE ABOVE: - TRANSPORT DECISION - PATIENT’S OVERALL SYSTEMIC CONDITION - OBVIOUS SIGNIFICANT EXTERNAL PROBLEMS (ASSIGN. 21-19)

AN INTERRUPTION OF ARTERIAL BLOOD FLOW TO THE BRAIN IS BEST DESCRIBED AS A/AN _____.

CEREBROVASCULAR ACCIDENT | ASSIGN. 21-20

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE STEPS IN TREATING SYCOPE EXCEPT _____?

GIVING THE PATIENT SOMETHING TO EAT | ASSIGN. 21-21

WHAT DOES THE ACRONYM AVPU STAND FOR?

- ALERT - VERBAL - PAINFUL - UNRESPONSIVE (ASSIGN. 21-22)

WHAT IS THE ACRONYM USED WHEN ASSESSING A PATIENT DURING A RAPID PHYSICAL EXAM?

DCAP-BTLS | ASSIGN. 21-23

A PATIENT EXPERIENCING RESPIRATORY DISTRESS CAN RAPIDLY PROGRESS TO FULL ARREST. ALWAYS BE PREPARED TO UTILIZE _____.

ADVANCED AIRWAY PROCEDURES | ASSIGN. 21-24

A PATIENT EXPERIENCING RESPIRATORY DIFFICULTY SHOULD BE FORCED TO LIE DOWN IN ORDER TO EASE THEIR BREATHING AND REDUCE THE WORKLOAD ON THE BODY. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 21-25

THE HM CAN ADMINISTER A NEBULIZER TREATMENT WITHOUT A MEDICAL OFFICER’S ORDER. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 21-26

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A CONTRAINDICATION FOR USING ACTIVATED CHARCOAL FOR PATIENTS SUFFERING FROM POISON INGESTION?

UNABLE TO SPEAK | ASSIGN. 21-27

IF A PATIENT IS HYPOTENSIVE, THEN THE SYSTOLIC BLOOD PRESSURE IS BELOW WHAT?

90 | ASSIGN. 21-28

IN CASES OF AIRWAY OBSTRUCTION FROM SEVERE GLOTTIC EDEMA WHAT PROCEDURE MAY BE NECESSARY?

CRICOTHYROIDOTOMY | ASSIGN. 21-29

DURING A PATIENT ASSESSMENT THE HM NOTICES THAT THE PATIENT SEEMS TO HAVE A FRUITY BREATH ODOR, THE HM SUSPECTS THE PATIENT IS SUFFERING FROM _____.

HYPERGLYCEMIA | ASSIGN. 21-30

THE HM SUSPECTS A PATIENT IS SUFFERING FROM A BRAIN INJURY. UPON ASSESSMENT THE HM DISCOVERS THE PATIENT HAS ASYMMETRICAL PUPILS, HEADACHE NAUSEA, AND VOMITING. THE HM SUSPECTS PATIENT IS SUFFERING FROM _____.

INCREASED INTRACRANIAL PRESSURE | ASSIGN. 21-31

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SIGNS AND SYMPTOMS IS CONSIDERED A LATE SIGN OF A HEMOTHORAX?

DEVIATED TRACHEA | ASSIGN. 21-32

WHEN TREATING A PATIENT WITH AN ABDOMINAL EVISCERATION, IT IS ACCEPTABLE TO PLACE THE ORGANS BACK INSIDE THE ABDOMINAL CAVITY IN ORDER TO KEEP THE ORGANS WARM AND MOIST AS WELL AS PREVENT INFECTION. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 21-33

AFTER THE BABY HAS BEEN DELIVERED AND THE CORD HAS BEEN CUT, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STEPS IS CORRECT WHEN DELIVERING THE PLACENTA?

WAIT APPROX. 10-20 MINUTES FOR THE PLACENTA TO DELIVER SPONTANEOUSLY (ASSIGN. 21-34)

WHAT IS THE FIRST STEP IN THE MANAGEMENT PLAN FOR CARE UNDER FIRE?

RETURN FIRE/TAKE COVER | ASSIGN. 21-35

DURING TACTICAL FIELD CARE, WHAT IS THE BEST WAY TO CONTROL COMPRESSIBLE HEMORRAGE WHEN A TOURNIQUET IS NOT AMENDABLE?

ALL OF THE ABOVE: - USE COMBAT GAUZE AS THE HEMOSTATIC AGENT OF CHOICE WITH AT LEAST 3 MINUTES OF DIRECT PRESSURE - MAKE THE TOURNIQUET WORK - USE A LARGE BATTLE DRESSING (ASSIGN. 21-36)

WHAT IS THE USUAL DOSE OF MORPHINE FOR ADULT PATIENTS IN SEVERE PAIN?

10-20 mg | ASSIGN. 21-37

MORPHINE CAN BE GIVEN TO PATIENTS WHO HAVE SUFFERED A HEAD INJURY. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 21-38

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STEPS IN BLEEDING CONTROL ARE NO LONGER UTILIZED?

- APPLY TOURNIQUET - ELEVATE THE EXTREMITY (ASSIGN. 21-39)

AFTER BLEEDING HAS BEEN CONTROLLED BY A TOURNIQUET, HOW IS THE PATIENT MARKED?

A “T” WITH THE TIME MARKED ON THE FOREHEAD | ASSIGN. 21-40

WHAT IS THE FIRST STEP IN TREATING FOR HYPOVOLEMIC SHOCK?

TAKE BSI PRECAUTION | ASSIGN. 21-41

WHICH TYPE OF SUTURE MATERIAL IS BEST USED FRO SURFACE CLOSURES AND CAUSE VERY LITTLE TISSUE REACTION?

DERMALON | ASSIGN. 21-42

THE MOST COMMON METHOD OF ANESTHESIA USED BY THE HM IS THE INFILTRATION OF THE ANESTHETIZING AGENT INTO THE NERVE TRUNKS THAT INNERVATE THE FINGERS OR TOES. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 21-43

FOR A LARGE, GAPING, SOFT-TISSUE WOUND, A PRIMARY CLOSURE IS ACCEPTABLE. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 21-44

WHEN CUTTING SUTURES WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM ACCEPTABLE LENGTH FOR THE TAILS TO BE?

1/4 INCH | ASSIGN. 21-45

ANY PERSON WHOH HAS AN ACUTE PAIN IN THE BACK OR NECK AS WELL AS A SIGNIFICANT MECHANISM OF INJURY, SHOULD BE TREATED AS THOUGH THERE IS A FRACTURED SPINE, EVEN IF THERE ARE NO OTHER SYMPTOMS. TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE | ASSIGN. 21-46

WHEN IS IT ACCERPTABLE TO MOVE A PATIENT WITH A SUSPECTED PELVIC FRACTURE?

WHEN ABSOLUTELY NECESSARY AFTER MAST GARMENTS HAVE BEEN APPLIED TO STABILIZE THE PELVIC REGION (ASSIGN. 21-47)

WHAT METHOD SHOULD BE UTILIZED WHEN OPENING THE AIRWAY OF A PATIENT WHO IS SUSPECTED OF HAVING A SPINAL CORD INJURY?

JAW THRUST | ASSIGN. 21-48

NEVER ATTEMPT TO REMOVE A FOREIGN BODY STUCK TO OR PENETRATING AN EYEBALL. TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE. | ASSIGN. 21-49

WHEN BANDAGING AN EYE WITH AN IMPALED FOREIGN OBJECT, WHAT SHOULD BE DONE?

BANDAGE BOTH EYES | ASSIGN. 21-50

WHEN APPLYING FIRST AID FOR REMOVING FOREIGN OBJECTS, WHICH STATEMENT BELOW IS NOT CORRECT?

REMOVE BULLETS TO AID IN STOPPING BLEEDING | ASSIGN. 21-51

WHEN APPLYING AID FOR ANIMAL BITES WHAT SHOULD NEVER DO?

CAUTERIZE AREAS THAT ARE BLEEDING TO AID IN TRANSPORT | ASSIGN. 21-52

WHAT DEGREE OF THERMAL BURNS TO THE SKIN IS CHARACTERIZED BY EPIDERMAL BLISTERS, MOTTLED APPEARANCE AND A RED BASE? DAMAGE EXTENDS INTO BUT NOT THROUGH THE DERMIS. RECOVER USUALLY TAKES 2 TO 3 WEEKS.

SECOND DEGREE BURN | ASSIGN. 21-53

THE RULE OF NINES ASSIGNS WHAT PERCENTAGE VALUE FOR BURNS OF THE ANTERIOR CHEST AND ANTERIOR NECK?

14 | ASSIGN. 21-54

UNDER NORMAL CONDITIONS HEAT EXPOSURE INJURIES ARE PREVENTABLE INJURIES. TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE | ASSIGN. 21-55

WHAT IS THE MOST COMMON CONDITION CAUSED BY WORKING OR EXERCISING IN HOT ENVIRONMENTS?

HEAT EXHAUSTION | ASSIGN. 21-56

WHICH COLD INJURY IS MILD COLD INJURY THAT HAPPENS FROM PROLONGED EXPOSURE IN TEMPERATURES ABOVE FREEZING TO AS HIGH AS 60 DEGREES FAHRENHEIT.

CHILBLAIN | ASSIGN. 21-57

A DILUTED SOLUTION OF WHICH OF THE LISTED SUBSTANCES WILL NEUTRALIZE ALKALI BURNS TO THE SKIN?

VINEGAR | ASSIGN. 21-58

THE USUAL TREATMENT FOR CHEMICAL BURNS IS TO FLUSH WITH COPIUS AMOUNTS OF WATER. THE TWO EXCEPTION TO THIS RULE ARE IN THE CASE OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CHEMICALS?

DRY LIME AN CARBOLIC ACID | ASSIGN. 21-59

WHAT IS THE MOST EFFECTIVE METHOD OF RE-WARMING A VICTIM OF HYPOTHERMIA?

IMMERSION IN A TUB OF WARM WATER | ASSIGN. 21-60

HWO MANY ADDITIONAL ATMOSPHERES OF PRESSURE ARE APPLIED AT A DEPTH OF 33 FEET IN SEA WATER?

1 | ASSIGN. 21-61

WHAT IS NOT ONE OF THE THREE PRINCIPLE CATEGORIES FOR INJURIES WHEN DISCUSSING DIVING RELATED DISORDERS?

TRAUMA | ASSIGN. 21-62

A MIDDLE EAR SQUEEZE IS CLASSIFIED UNDER WHICH TYPE OF DIVING INJURY?

BAROTRAUMA | ASSIGN. 21-63

THE TREATMENT FOR A MIDDLE EAR SQUEEZE CONSISTS OF ALL THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT?

ADMINISTER EAR DROPS FOR RUPTURED EAR DRUM | ASSIGN. 21-64

WHICH LAW DEAL WITH DECOMPRESSION SICKNESS (DCS)?

HENRY’S LAW | ASSIGN. 21-65

WHICH STATEMENT BELOW IS NOT APPLICABLE FOR TREATMENT OF DECOMPRESSION SICKNESS?

DO NOT PRESSURIZE THE CABIN OF AIRCRAFT WHEN TRANSPORTING TO TREATMENT FACILITY (ASSIGN. 21-66)

POISONING IS DEFINED AS CONTACT WITH OR EXPOSURE TO A TOXIC SUBSTANCE. TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE | ASSIGN. 22-1

TOXICOLOGY IS DEFINED AS THE SCIENCE OF POISONS. TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE | ASSIGN. 22-2

A PATIENT PRESENTS WITH DILATED PUPILS, FEVER, DRY SKIN, URINARY RETENTION, DECREASED BOWEL SOUNDS, ADN INCREASED HEART RATE. WHAT TOXIDROME DOES THIS SET OF SYMPTOMS SUGGEST?

ANTIOCHOLINERGIC | ASSIGN. 22-3

A PATIENT PRESENTS WITH SALIVATION, LACRIMATION, URINATION, AND MSUCLE WEAKNESS. WHAT TOXIC SYNDROME DOES THIS SET OF SYMPTOMS SUGGEST?

CHOLINERGIC “S.L.U.D.G.E.” (ASSIGN. 22-4)

WHAT IS THE MOST COMMON ROUTE OF EXPOSURE TO TOXIC CHEMICALS IN THE HOME?

INGESTED | ASSIGN. 22-5

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS THE METHOD OF CHOICE FOR THE HM TO USE TO INDUCE VOMITING?

15-30 cc OF SYRUP OF IPECAC | ASSIGN. 22-6

WHEN A PATIENT INGESTS AN ACID OR BASE TREATMENT IS TO GIVE A NEUTRALIZING AGENT ORALLY. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 22-2

IF THE HM IS UNABLE TO REACH THE POISON CONTROL CENTER OR A PHYSICIAN FOR SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS, HOW SHOULD THE HM TREAT A VICTIM WHO HAS INGESTED TURPENTINE?

GIVE 1 TO 2 OUNCES OF VEGETABLE OIL ORALLY | ASSIGN. 22-8

OF THE FOLLOWING, WHICH IS CONSIDERED THE MOST COMMON AGENT IN INHALATION POISONING?

CARBON MONOXIDE | ASSIGN. 22-9

TREATMENT FOR AN INHALATION POISONING VICTIM INCLUDES ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT _____?

ADMINISTRATION OF STIMULANTS | ASSIGN. 22-10

A PATIENT PRESENTS EXHIBITING SIGNS OF ANAPHYLACTIC REACTION TO A BEE OR A WASP STING OF THE FOLLOWING, WHICH IS NOT CONSIDERED APPROPRIATE TREATMENT?

WARM PACKS OVER STING SITE | ASSIGN. 22-11

THE VICTIM OF A SCORPION STING MAY SAFELY BE GIVEN ANY OF THE FOLLOWING PHARMACEUTICALS EXCEPT ______?

ALL OF THE ABOVE: - DEMEROL OR MORPHINE - CALCIUM GLUCONATE - VALIUM (ASSIGN. 22-12)

SYMPTOMS OF A BLACK WIDOW SPIDER BITE MAY INCLUDE SEVER PAIN DYSPNEA, AND _____.

ABDOMINAL RIGIDITY | ASSIGN. 22-13

CROTALIDS ARE IDENTIFIED BY _____.

- SLIT-LIKE PUPILS OF THE EYES - FLAT, TRIANGULAR HEADS (ASSIGN. 22-14)

WHAT IS THE KEY IDENTIFYING FEATURE OF THE NORTH AMERICAN CORAL SNAKE THAT DISTINGUISHES IT FROM OTHER SNAKES WITH SIMILAR MARKINGS?

THE YELLOW BAND IS ALWAYS NEXT TO TH ERED BAND (RED AND BLACK VENOM LACK. RED AND YELLOW KILL A FELLOW) (ASSIGN. 22-15)

ON PATROL, A MEMBER OF THE UNIT RECEIVES A RATTLESNAKE BITE JUST BELOW THE ELBOW WHAT FIRST AID TREATMENT SHOULD BE PERFORMED?

PLACE A CONSTRICTING BAND 2 INCHES PROXIMAL TO THE BITE SITE | ASSIGN. 22-16

VALUABLE INFORMATION ON THE ANTIVENOM IS FOUND IN THE PACKAGE INSERTS. TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE | ASSIGN. 22-17

THE PUFFER, SURGEON TRIGGER, AND PARROT FISH ARE KNOWN TO BE _____J.

POISONOUS AT ALL TIMES | ASSIGN. 22-18

A PERSON SUFFERING FROM A VENOMOUS FISH STING SHOULD _____?

SOAK THE WOUND IN HOT WATER FOR 30 TO 90 MINUTES | ASSIGN. 22-19

IDENTIFYING THE FISH WITH WHICH THERE IS ANTIVENOM AVIALABLE.

STONEFISH | ASSIGN. 22-20

ANTIVENIN IS AVAILABLE TO NEUTRALIZE THE EFFECTS OF THE FOLLOWING TYPES OF COELENTERATES?

SEA WASP, BOX JELLYFISH | ASSIGN. 22-21

HWO MANY HOURS AFTER THE LAST DOSE DOES NARCOTIC WITHDRAW NORMALLY PEAK?

72 HOURS | ASSIGN. 22-22

THE MOST WIDELY ABUSED DRUG(S) IS/ARE?

ETHANOL | ASSIGN. 22-23

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A SYMPTOM OF ALCOHOL ABUSE?

INCREASED LEVEL OF CONSCIOUSNESS | ASSIGN. 22-24

WITHDRAWAL FROM BARBITUATES IS LESS LIFE THREATENING THAN NARCOTIC WITHDRAWAL. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 22-25

CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM STIMULANTS ARE USED FOR ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT?

DECREASE MENTAL ALERTNESS | ASSIGN. 22-26

SIGNS AND SYMPTOMS OF STIMULANT INTOXICATION INCLUDE ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT _____?

INCREASED APPETITE | ASSIGN. 22-27

A PERSON MAY DISPLAY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SIGN(S) AFTER USING A HALLUCINOGENIC DRUG?

FLUSHED FACE | ASSIGN. 22-28

MARIJUANA FALLS INTO WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CATEGORIES OF DRUGS?

CANNABIS | ASSIGN. 22-29

PERSONS WHO REGULARLY ABUSE INHALANTS RISK WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING INJURIES?

ALL OF THE ABOVE: - SEVERE BRAIN DAMAGE - DAMAGED INTERNAL ORGANS - DEATH (ASSIGN. 22-30)

IN CARING FOR DRUG-INTOXICATED PERSONS, THE HM SHOULD PERFORM WHAT ACTIONS AS THE FIRST PRIORITY?

CHECK FOR AN ADEQUATE AIRWAY | ASSIGN. 22-31

WHEN WAS THE FIRST LARGE SCALE USE OF CHEMICAL AGENTS?

WWI | ASSIGN. 23-1

TERRORISTS WILL NOT USE CHEMCIAL AGENTS BECASUE THEY ARE DIFFICULT TO MAKE? TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 23-2

M9 CHEMICAL AGENT DETECTION PAPER TURNS WHAT COLOR IF A NERVE IS PRESENT?

RED | ASSIGN. 23-3

M8 CHEMICAL DETECTION PAPER TURNS WHAT COLOR WHEN IT COMES INTO CONTACT WITH VX?

GREEN | ASSIGN. 23-4

M8 CHEMICAL. DETECTION PAPER TURNS WHAT COLOR WHEN IT COMES INTO CONTACT WITH G CLASS NERVE AGENTS?

YELLOW | ASSIGN. 23-5

WHAT MOPP LEVEL AFFORDS THE MOST PROTECTION?

4 | ASSIGN. 23-6

NERVE AGENTS ENHANCE THE NERVE IMPULSES. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 23-7

NERVE AGENTS ENTER THE BODY THROUGH WHAT AREA?

- EYES - SKIN - RESPIRATORY TRACT (ASSIGN. 23-8)

A MARK I KIT CONSISTS OF _____?

- ATROPINE - 2-PAM Cl (ASSIGN. 23-9)

FOR SEVERE NERVE AGENT SYMPTOMS GIVE HOW MANY MARK I KITS IN A ROW?

3 | ASSIGN. 23-10

HOW MANY MARK I KITS CAN A NON-MEDICAL PERSON GIVE?

3 | ASSIGN. 23-11

HOW LONG DO YOU WAIT AFTER GIVING THE FIRST MARK I KIT BEFORE GIVING ANOTHER IN A PATIENT WITH MODERATE SYMPTOMS?

10 TO 15 MINUTES | ASSIGN. 23-12

TO DECONTAMINATE A PATIENT WITH NERVE AGENT YOU USE?

- SOAP AND WATER - 0.5% HYPOCHLORITE SOLUTION - M291 (ASSIGN. 23-13)

CHEMICAL AGENTS H, HD, AND HN ARE ALL WHAT TYPE OF AGENTS?

BLISTER | ASSIGN. 23-14

SYMPTOMS OF MUSTARD AGENT CONTACT ARE?

BLISTERS | ASSIGN. 23-15

WHAT ANTIDOTE IS USED FOR LEWISITE?

BAL (BRITISH ANTI-LEWISITE) (ASSIGN. 23-16)

DECONTAMINATION OF BLISTER AGENT WITHIN TWO MINUTES WILL REDUCE THE TOXIC EFFECTS BY _____?

50% | ASSIGN. 23-17

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A BLOOD AGENT?

AC | ASSIGN. 23-18

WHAT IS THE INITIAL TREATMENT FOR CYANIDES?

SODIUM NITRATE, IV | ASSIGN. 23-19

WHICH AGENT SMELLS LIKE NEW MOWN HAY?

CG | ASSIGN. 23-20

CS IS A HIGHLY TOXIC SUBSTANCE. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 23-21

LACRIMATORS ARE ALSO KNOWN AS _____?

TEAR GAS | ASSIGN. 23-22

DECONTAMINATION FOR HARASSMENT AGETNS GENERALLY CONSISTS OF _____?

WASHING WITH BABY SHAMPOO | ASSIGN. 23-23

THE FIRST PRIORITY FOR FIRST AID FOR A CHEMICAL AGENT PATIENT IS _____?

CONTROL MASSIVE HEMORRAGE | ASSIGN. 23-24

INITIAL MANAGEMENT OF A CHEMICAL AGENT CASUALTY IS _____?

- REMOVAL OF MOPP GEAR - DECONTAMINATION WITH 0.5% HYPOCHLORITE SOLUTION (ASSIGN. 23-25)

WHAT ARE THE THREE TYPES OF BIOLOGICAL AGENTS?

BACTERIA, VIRUSES, AND TOXINS | ASSIGN. 23-26

WHAT CLASS OF BIOLOGICAL AGENT IS ANTHRAX?

BACTERIA | ASSIGN. 23-27

WHAT CLASS OF BIOLOGICAL AGENT IS PLAGUE?

BACTERIA | ASSIGN. 23-28

WHAT CLASS OF BIOLOGICAL AGENT IS SMALLPOX?

VIRUS | ASSIGN. 23-29

WHAT CLASS OF BIOLOGICAL AGENT IS RICIN?

TOXIN | ASSIGN. 23-30

WHAT CLASS OF BIOLOGICAL AGENT IS MARBURG?

VIRUS | ASSIGN. 23-31

WHAT CLASS OF BIOLOGICAL AGENT IS BOTULISM?

TOXIN | ASSIGN. 23-32

WHAT CLASS OF BIOLOGICAL AGENT IS EBOLA?

VIRUS | ASSIGN. 23-33

BIOLOGICAL OUTBREAKS THAT OCCUR IN MULTIPLE GEOGRAPHICAL LOCATION ARE CLASSIFIED AS _____?

- NATURAL OCCURENCE - INTENTIONAL RELEASE (ASSIGN. 23-34)

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT AN INDICATOR OF BIOLOGICAL AGENT RELEASE?

- UNUSUAL DISEASE FOR THE GEOGRAPHIC AREA - ABSENCE OF COMPETENT NATURAL VECTOR - RESTRICTED GEOGRAPHICAL DISTRIBUTION, EPIDEMIOLOGICAL GROUPING OR CLUSTERING (ASSIGN. 23-35)

VIRUSES CAN BE TREATED WITH THE USE O FANTIOBIOTICS. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE. | ASSIGN. 23-36

VIRAL HEMORRHAGIC FEVERS ARE SUSCEPTIBLE TO _____?

- PHENOLIC DISINFECTANTS - 1% BLEACH SOLUTION (ASSIGN. 23-37)

A DIRTY BOMB COULD BE USED BY A TERRORIST ORGANIZATION. TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE | ASSIGN. 23-38

WHAT TYPE OF RADIATION IS SOMETIMES CALLED PENETRATING RADIATION?

GAMMA | ASSIGN. 23-39

A LETHAL FULL BODY DOSE OF RADIATION IS _____?

4 TO 5 Sv | ASSIGN. 23-40

WHAT IS THE MOST EFFECTIVE SHIELDING?

LEAD | ASSIGN. 23-41

THE TIME OF ONSET OF WHICH SYMPTOMS WILL GIVE YOU AN ESTIMATE OF RADIATION DOSE/EXPOSURE?

NAUSEA AND VOMITING | ASSIGN. 23-42

ONCE A PATIENT IS REMOVED FROM A RADIATION SOURCE, CHRONIC RADIATION SYMPTOMS WILL RESOLVE. TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE | ASSIGN. 23-43

INJURIES RESULTING FROM A NUCLEAR EXPLOSION ARE TREATED DIFFERENTLY. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 23-44

A PATIENT CAN BE CERTIFIED DECONTAMINATED FROM A RADIOLOGICAL INCIDENT WITH _____?

AN/VDR 2 | ASSIGN. 23-45

THE HM MAY PROVIDE TEMPORARY EMERGENCY DENTAL TREATMENT UNDER WHICH O FHTE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS?

- TO COMBAT INFECTION - TO PROVIDE RELIEF FROM PAIN - TO PREVENT FURTHER DAMAGE TOORAL STRUCTURES (ASSIGN. 24-1)

IF A PATIENT REPORTS TO THE DENTAL CLINIC AFTER HOURS WITH A TOOTHACHE WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STEPS SHOULD THE DUTY HM FIRST TAKE?

NOTIFY THE DUTY DENTAL OFFICER | ASSIGN. 24-2

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWINGCHOICES BEST DESCRIBES A SYMPTOM?

THE PATIENT INFORMS THE HM OF A TOOTHACHE | ASSIGN. 24-3

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CHOICES BEST DESCRIBES A SIGN?

HM OBSERVES A LARGE HOLE IN A PATIENT’S TOOTH | ASSIGN. 24-4

WHEN PAIN FROM AN AFFECTED TOOTH MANIFESTS TO A HEALTHY, NON-INVOLVED TOOTH, WHAT IS THE CONDITION CALLED?

REFERRED PAIN | ASSIGN. 24-5

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS EXISTS IF A PATIENT IS EXPERIENCING PAIN CAUSED BY THE PRESSURE OF FLUID BUILDING UP INSIDE THE PULP CHAMBER?

ACUTE PULPITIS | ASSIGN. 24-6

WHICH CONDITION EXISTS WHEN SWELLING IS CONFINED TO A SMALL AREA AT THE SITE OF A SINUS TRACT?

GUMBOIL | ASSIGN. 24-7

WHEN PERFORMING AN EMERGENCY TREATMENT FOR A PERIAPICAL ABCESS, WHAT INSTRUMENT WILL BE USED TO DRAIN THE ABCESS?

EXPLORER | ASSIGN. 24-8

A PATIENT WITH A PERIAPICAL ABCESS MAY COMPLAIN OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SYMPTOMS?

THE TOOTH “FEELS LONGER” THAN THE OTHERS | ASSIGN. 24-9

WHAT TYPE OF INFLAMMATION IS PRESENT IN MARGINAL GINGIVITIS?

MILD | ASSIGN. 24-10

NECROTIZING ULCERATIVE GINGIVITIS (NUG) IS COMMONLY REFERRED TO BY WHAT TERM?

TRENCHWORM | ASSIGN. 24-11

WHAT COLORED MEMBRANE WILL BE COVERING THE GINGIVA IF A PATIENT HAS NUG?

GRAY WHITE | ASSIGN. 24-12

PERIODONTIS USUALLY RESULTS FROM WHAT UNTREATED CONDITION?

MARGINAL GINGIVITIS | ASSIGN. 24-13

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONDITIONS EXIST IF A PAIENT COMPLAINS THAT THEIR GUMS ARE “ITCHING”?

PERIODONTITIS | ASSIGN. 24-14

WHAT IS THE CORRECT EMERGENCY TREATMENT FOR A PERIODONTAL ABCESS?

GENTLY PROBE THE AFFECTED AREA WITH A SCALER TO ESTABLISH DRAINAGE. (ASSIGN. 24-15)

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SOLUTIONS SHOULD BE USED TO IRRIGATE THE TISSUE FLAP IF A PATIENT HAS PERICORONITIS?

WARM SALINE SOLUTION | ASSIGN. 24-16

WHAT ARE TWO COMMON TYPES OF STOMATITIS FOUND IN THE ORAL MUCOSA?

GENITAL HERPES AND APHTHOUS | ASSIGN. 24-17

BLEEDING FROM AN EXTRACTION SITE IS REFERRED TO BY WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING TERMS?

POSTEXTRACTION HEMORRAGE | ASSIGN. 24-18

POSTEXTRACTION ALVEOLAR OSTEITIS IS A CONDITION COMMONLY REFERRED TO BY WHAT TERM?

DRY SOCKET | ASSIGN. 24-19

TO TREAT POST EXTRACTION ALVEOLAR OSTEITIS, WHAT TYPE OF DENTAL MATERIAL IS PLACED IN A TOOTH SOCKET?

IODOFORM GAUZE WITH EUGENOL | ASSIGN. 24-20

TOOTH FRACTURES ARE CLASSIFIED INTO HOW MANY DIFFERENT TYPES?

4 | ASSIGN. 24-21

FRACTURED TEETH CAN INFOLVE WHICHOF THE FOLLOWING AREAS OF A TOOTH?

ENAMEL, DENTIN, PULP, AND ROOT | ASSIGN. 24-22

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DENTALMATERIALS WILL BE USED TO TREAT A TYPE I FRACTURE?

CAVITY VARNISH | ASSIGN. 24-23

A TYPE II FRACTURE INVOLVES AN EXPOSURE OF THE PULP. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 24-24

HM’S WHO PROVIDE EMERGENCY TREATMENT OF A FRACTURED MANDIBLE WILL USE WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MATERIALS?

ELASTIC BANDAGES | ASSIGN. 24-25

ALL OF THE FOLLOWING DECEDENT AFFAIRS PROGRAMS ARE UTILIZED TO CARRY OUT STANDARD RESPONSIBILITIES EXCEPT _____?

- CURRENT DEATH - GRAVES REGISTRATION - CASUALT ASSISTANCE CALLS PROGRAM (ASSIGN. 25-1)

WHICH PROGRAM IS INITIATED DURING MAJOR MILITARY OPERATIONS?

GRAVES REGISTRATION | ASSIGN. 25-2

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING WILL NOT REQUIRE SUBMISSION OF A PERSONNEL CASUALTY REPORT?

PRISONER OF WAR | ASSIGN. 25-3

THE PADD SHOULD BE NOTIFIED OF A DEAHT DURING WHAT HOURS OF OPERATION?

0500-2400 | ASSIGN. 25-4

A CACO IS NORMALLY ASSIGNED TO ASSIST THE NEEDS OF FAMILY MEMBERS FOR WHAT PERIOD OF TIME?

90 DAYS | ASSIGN. 25-5

THE COMMANDING OFFICER MOST WRITE A LETTER OF CONDOLENCE TO THE APPROPRIATE NOK WITHIN WHAT TIME FRAME?

48 HOURS | ASSIGN. 25-6

WHEN AN INDIVIDUAL IS INVOLVED IN A MOTORCYCLE OR AUTOMOBILE ACCIDENT OR UNDER THE CARE OF A PHYSICIAN AND DEATH OCCURS, THEY MUST RECEIVE AN AUTOPSY. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 25-7

WHEN AN AUTOPSY IS DESIRED BUT NOT REQUIRED PERMISSION MUST BE GRANTED FROM THE PADD. TRUE OR FALSE?

TRUE | ASSIGN. 25-8

WHAT TYPE OF MESSAGE SHOULD BE USED TO NOTIFY BUMED AND NAVY MORTUARY AFFAIRS OF A DISASTER RESULTING IN THE DEATH OF NAVAL MEMBERS?

PRIORITY | ASSIGN. 25-9

WHEN A SERCH AND RECOVERY OPERATION CONTINUES LONGER THAN 36 HOURS HOW OFTEN IS A REPORT SUBMITTED BUMED?

24 HOURS | ASSIGN. 25-10

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING DETERMINATIONS IS NOT MADE BY NAVY MORTUARY AFFAIRS?

UNIDENTIFIABLE | ASSIGN. 25-11

THE NAVY AWARDS ANNUAL MORTUARY CONTRACTS TO LOCAL FUNERAL HOMES ANTICIPATING WHAT MINIMUM NUMBER OF DEATHS PER YEAR?

3 | ASSIGN. 25-12

WHAT TYPE OF CONTRACT IS UTILIZED WHEN THERE ARE NO MORTUARY CONTRACTS IN EFFECT?

ONE TIME CONTRACT | ASSIGN. 25-13

IN WHAT EXPENSE CATEGORY IS DRESSING?

PRIMARY EXPENSES | ASSIGN. 25-14

IN WHAT EXPENSE CATEGORY I S UNIFORM?

PRIMARY EXPENSES | ASSIGN. 25-15

IN WHAT EXPENSE CATEGORY IS REMOVAL FROM PLACE OF DEATH?

TRANSPORTATION EXPENSES | ASSIGN. 25-16

IN HWAT EXPENSE CATEGORY IS GRAVE PLOT?

SECONDARY | ASSIGN. 25-17

IN WHAT EXPENSE CATEGORY IS AUTOPSY PREPARATION?

PRIMARY EXPENSES | ASSIGN. 25-18

IN WHAT EXPENSE CATEGORY IS DELIVERY OF REMAINS TO CEMETERY?

TRANSPORTATION EXPENSES | ASSIGN. 25-19

PRIOR TO THE TRANSPORTATION OF REMAINS THEY MAY BE REFRIGERATED BELOW WHAT DEGREES FAHRENHEIT?

40 DEGREES | ASSIGN. 25-20

WHO MAY BE ABLE TO PROIDE MORTUARY SERVICES IF DEATH OCCURS IN AN AREA NOT SERVED BY NAVY FACILITIES?

DEPARTMENT OF STATE | ASSIGN. 25-21

WHAT FORM MUST ACCOMPANY THE REMAINS OF A MEMBER TO A CONUS POINT OF ENTRY FROM OCONUS?

DD 2064 | ASSIGN. 25-22

HOW MANY COPIES OF THE STATEMENT OF RECOGNITION (DD565) MUST ACCOMPANY THE REMAINS?

2 | ASSIGN. 25-23

WHAT ARE THE DIMENSIONS OF THE STANDARD AND OVERSIZED NAVAL CASKETS?

STANDARD: 23 x 78 | ASSIGN. 25-24

WHEN THE MORTICIAN IS UNABLE TO SEIZE THE ODOR OF REMAINS, THEY WILL NOT BE ACCEPTED FOR BURIAL AT SEA. TRUE OF FALSE?

TRUE | ASSIGN. 25-25

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT AN AUTHORIZED METHOD OF PRIMARY TRANSPORTATION FOR REMAINS?

TRAIN | ASSIGN. 25-26

CREMATED RAMINS MAY BE SHIPPED TO A CONUSPOINT OF ENTRY VIA COMMERCIAL AIR. TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 25-27

WHEN TRANSPORTING REMAINS OF DEATH RESULTING FROM A COMMUNICABLE DISEASE THERE IS A LABEL PLACED ON THE TRANSFER CASE THAT STATES _____.

CONTAGIOUS | ASSIGN. 25-28

TO BE SELECTED AS AN ESCORT OF REMAINS YOU MUST MEET ALL OF THE FOLLOWING CRITERIA EXCEPT ______?

FROM THE SAME CITY | ASSIGN. 25-29

THE ESCORT SELECTED BY THE PADD IS ALSO KNOWN AS _____.

SPECIAL ESCORT | ASSIGN. 25-30

WHO IS ULTIMATELY RESPONSIBLE FOR ASSIGNING AN INVENTORY BOARD FOR THE PERSONAL EFFECTS OF A DECEASED MEMBER?

COMMANDING OFFICER | ASSIGN. 25-31

TO WHOM, MUST AN APPLICATION REQUESTING A COMMERCIAL HEADSTONE BE SUBMITTED?

VETERANS AFFAIRS | ASSIGN. 25-32

WHEN REQUESTING FUNDS FOR SERVICES OF DECEASED MILITARY PERSONNEL OTHER THAN NAVY AND MARINE CORPS, WHAT FORM IS USED?

MED 5360-3 | ASSIGN. 25-33

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A CLASSIFICATION FOR NATIONAL CEMETERIES?

PLANNED | ASSIGN. 25-34

ANY NAVY AND MARINE CORPS MEMBER SERVING ON ACTIVE DUTY AT THE TIME OF DEATH MAY BE BURIED IN ANY OPEN NATIONAL CEMETERY INCLUDING ARLINGTON, VIRGINIA (WITH REQUIREMENTS MET). TRUE OR FALSE?

FALSE | ASSIGN. 25-35