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Immunoserology > 3.2 > Flashcards

3.2 Flashcards

1
Q

The interaction between an individual antigen and antibody molecule depends upon several types of bonds such as ionic bonds, hydrogen bonds, hydrophobic bonds, and van der Waals forces. How is the strength of this attraction characterized?
A. Avidity
B. Affinity
C. Reactivity
D. Valency

A

B. Affinity

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2
Q

A laboratory is evaluating an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) for detecting an antibody to cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP), which is a marker for rheumatoid arthritis. The laboratory includes serum from healthy volunteers and patients with other connective tissue diseases in the evaluation. These specimens determine which factor of the assay?
A. Sensitivity
B. Precision
C. Bias
D. Specificity

A

D. Specificity

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3
Q

The detection of precipitation reactions depends on the presence of optimal proportions of antigen and antibody. A patient’s sample contains a large amount of antibody, but the reaction in a test system containing antigen is negative. What has happened?
A. Performance error
B. Low specificity
C. A shift in the zone of equivalence
D. Prozone phenomenon

A

D. Prozone phenomenon

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4
Q

Which part of the radial immunodiffusion (RID) test system contains the antisera?
A. Center well
B. Outer wells
C. Gel
D. Antisera may be added to any well

A

C. Gel

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5
Q

What is the interpretation when an Ouchterlony plate shows crossed lines between wells 1 and 2 (antigen is placed in the center well and antisera in wells 1 and 2)?
A. No reaction between wells 1 and 2
B. Partial identity between wells 1 and 2
C. Nonidentity between wells 1 and 2
D. Identity between wells 1 and 2

A

C. Nonidentity between wells 1 and 2

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6
Q

Why is a chemiluminescent immunoassay (CIA) or enzyme immunoassay (EIA) the method of choice for detection of certain analytes, such as hormones, normally found in low concentrations?
A. Because of low cross reactivity
B. Because of high specificity
C. Because of high sensitivity
D. Because test systems may be designed as both competitive and noncompetitive assays

A

C. Because of high sensitivity

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7
Q

What comprises the indicator system in an indirect ELISA for detecting antibody?

A. Enzyme-conjugated antibody + chromogenic substrate
B. Enzyme-conjugated antigen + chromogenic substrate
C. Enzyme + antigen
D. Substrate + antigen

A

A. Enzyme-conjugated antibody + chromogenic substrate

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8
Q

What outcome results from improper washing of a tube or well after adding the enzyme-antibody conjugate in an ELISA system?

A. Result will be falsely decreased
B. Result will be falsely increased
C. Result will be unaffected
D. Result is impossible to determine

A

B. Result will be falsely increased

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9
Q

What would happen if the color reaction phase is prolonged in one tube or well of an ELISA test?
A. Result will be falsely decreased
B. Result will be falsely increased
C. Result will be unaffected
D. Impossible to determine

A

B. Result will be falsely increased

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10
Q

The absorbance of a sample measured by ELISA is greater than the highest standard. What corrective action should be taken?
A. Extrapolate an estimated value from the highest reading
B. Repeat the test using a standard of higher concentration
C. Repeat the assay using one half the volume of the sample
D. Dilute the test sample

A

D. Dilute the test sample

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11
Q

A patient was suspected of having a lymphoproliferative disorder. After several laboratory tests were completed, the patient was found to have an IgMκ paraprotein. In what sequence should the laboratory tests leading to this diagnosis have been performed?
A. Serum protein electrophoresis (SPE) followed by immunofixation electrophoresis (IFE)
B. Immunoglobulin levels followed by SPE
C. Total lymphocyte count followed by immunoglobulin levels
D. Immunoglobulin levels followed by urine protein electrophoresis

A

A. Serum protein electrophoresis (SPE) followed by immunofixation

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12
Q

An IFE performed on a serum sample showed a narrow dark band in the lanes containing anti-γ and anti-λ. How should this result be interpreted?
A. Abnormally decreased IgG concentration
B. Abnormal test result demonstrating monoclonal IgGλ
C. Normal test result
D. Impossible to determine without densitometric quantitation

A

B. Abnormal test result demonstrating monoclonal IgGλ

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13
Q

Which type of nephelometry is used to measure immune complex formation almost immediately after reagent has been added?
A. Rate
B. Endpoint
C. Continuous
D. One dimensional

A

A. Rate

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14
Q

What corrective action should be taken when an indeterminate pattern occurs in an indirect IFA?
A. Repeat the test using a larger volume of sample
B. Call the physician
C. Have another medical laboratory scientist read the slide
D. Dilute the sample and retest

A

D. Dilute the sample and retest

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14
Q

An immunofluorescence microscopy assay (IFA) was performed, and a significant antibody titer was reported. Positive and negative controls performed as expected. However, the clinical evaluation of the patient was not consistent with a positive finding. What is the most likely explanation of this situation?
A. The clinical condition of the patient changed since the sample was tested
B. The pattern of fluorescence was misinterpreted
C. The control results were misinterpreted
D. The wrong cell line was used for the test

A

B. The pattern of fluorescence was misinterpreted

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15
Q

Which statement best describes passive agglutination reactions used for serodiagnosis?
A. Such agglutination reactions are more rapid because they are a single-step process
B. Reactions require the addition of a second antibody
C. Passive agglutination reactions require biphasic incubation
D. Carrier particles for antigen such as latex particles are used

A

D. Carrier particles for antigen such as latex particles are used

16
Q

What has happened in a titer, if tube Nos. 5-7 show a stronger reaction than tube Nos.1-4?
A. Prozone reaction
B. Postzone reaction
C. Equivalence reaction
D. Poor technique

A

A. Prozone reaction

17
Q

What is the titer in tube No. 8 if tube No. 1 is undiluted and dilutions are doubled?
A. 64
B. 128
C. 256
D. 512

A

B. 128

18
Q

The directions for a slide agglutination test instruct that after mixing the patient’s serum and latex particles, the slide must be rotated for 2 minutes. What would happen if the slide were rotated for 10 minutes?
A. Possible false-positive result
B. Possible false-negative result
C. No effect
D. Depends on the amount of antibody present in the sample

A

A. Possible false-positive result

19
Q

Which outcome indicates a negative result in a complement fixation test?
A. Hemagglutination
B. Absence of hemagglutination
C. Hemolysis
D. Absence of hemolysis

A

C. Hemolysis

20
Q

What effect does selecting the wrong gate have on the results when cells are counted by flow cytometry?
A. No effect
B. Failure to count the desired cell population
C. Falsely elevated results
D. Impossible to determine

A

B. Failure to count the desired cell population

21
Q

Which statement best describes immunophenotyping?
A. Lineage determination by detecting antigens on the surface of the gated cells using fluorescent antibodies
B. Identification of cell maturity using antibodies to detect antigens within the nucleus
C. Identification and sorting of cells by front and side-scatter of light from a laser
D. Analysis of cells collected by flow cytometry using traditional agglutination reactions

A

A. Lineage determination by detecting antigens on the surface of the gated cells using fluorescent antibodies

22
Q

A flow cytometry scattergram of a bone marrow sample shows a dense population of cells located in-between normal lymphoid and normal myeloid cells. What is the most likely explanation?
A. The sample was improperly collected
B. An abnormal cell population is present
C. The laser optics are out of alignment
D. The cells are most likely not leukocytes

A

B. An abnormal cell population is present

Immunoserology (8 decks)

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