307 exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Examination Sequence For GI System

A
  1. Inspect
  2. Auscultate
  3. Percussion
  4. Palpate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Usual Examination Sequence

A
  1. Inspect
  2. Palpate
  3. Percuss
  4. Auscultate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe “hyperactive” bowl sounds. What could they indicate?

A

-More sounds than normal
-Could indicate illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe “hypoactive” bowl sounds. What could they indicate?

A

-Decreased bowl sounds
-Constipation, blockage/obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If chyme moves more slowly through the intestines would the stool be harder or softer, and why?

A

Chyme will be harder because it has more time for water to be reabsorbed into the body mostly through the large intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the characteristics assessed for in the “Inspection” portion of the abdominal assessment?

A

-Contour, symmetry, size
-Skin: color lesions, veins, hernias, hair
-Movements: Pulsations, peristalsis
-Umbilicus: size and position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

List “normal” findings for inspection of abdominal assessment

A

-Flat or rounded
-Positive bowel sounds in all four quadrants
-Soft, nontender
-Bilaterally symmetrical
-Skin smooth, intact with no pulsations or visible peristalsis
-No masses or profusions
-Umbilicus midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What could you see on the abdomen that would alert you that palpation is contraindicated? What would you do?

A

-Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm
-Call the provider

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define appendicitis, how it typically presents, and assessments to aid in diagnosis.

A

-Inflammation of appendix
-Pain in lower right quadrant
-Nausea and or fever
-McBurney’s Point: 2/3 the distance from navel to right hip
-Rebound Tenderness: Pain with release of palpation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define peritonitis. List 3 signs typically associated with it and the definition of them.

A

-Inflammation of peritoneum
-Rigidity, rebound tenderness
-Localized or pain spread out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Know the 2 Types of Bowel Obstruction

A
  1. Mechanical
  2. Functional (Ileus)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Mechanical Bowl Obstruction Characteristics

A

-Partial: Liquid stool and gas can pass
-Complete: Nothing can pass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Functional (Ileus) Bowl Obstruction Characterisitics

A

-Will disrupt peristalsis
-Due to neurological dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are potential normal abdominal/gastrointestinal findings related to pregnancy?

A

-Striae on skin as it stretches
-Diastasis Recti (separation of rectus abdominus muscles)
-Acid Reflux
-Constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

List ways that the abdominal/gastrointestinal system changes as we age

A

-Altered gastric motility
-Decreased secretion of digestive enzymes and protective mucus
-Can impair digestive ability and lead to food intolerances
-Decreased taste and smell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Gravida Definition

A

Number of pregnancies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Para Definition

A

-Number of births after 20 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Five Digit System (GTPAL)

A

-G: total number of pregnancies
-T: full term (37-40wks)
-P: Preterm (20-36wks)
-A: Abortions and miscarriages (before 20wks)
-L: Living Children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy (BPH)?

A

-Enlargement of the prostate that is non-cancerous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Symptoms of BPH

A

-Increased frequency of urination
-Peeing more often at night
-Trouble starting stream
-Weak stream
-Dribbling
-Not fully emptying bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Signs of pyelonephritis

A

-fever
-chills
-pain in low back
-confusion in elderly
-pain with urination
-bloody or cloudy pee
-urgency to pee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where is palpation done to aid in diagnosis of pyelonephritis

A

-One hand flat against back, thump with fist
-Patient will yelp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Signs of bladder infection

A

-Fever
-Increased WBC count
-Confusion in elderly
-Pain/difficulty with urination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What could a black tarry stool indicate?

A

-Called: Melena
-Indicates blood in stool
-More likely blood is coming from small intestine due to darker color

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What creates S1 heart sound?

A

Sound of mitral and tricuspid (atrioventricular) valves closing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What creates S2 heart sound?

A

Pulmonic and aortic (semi-lunar) valves closing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What causes S3 heart sound?

A

Sound of large amount of blood hitting a compliant left ventricle
(can be normal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What causes S4 heart sound?

A

Caused by atria contracting forcefully to overcome an abnormally stiff or hypertrophic ventricle
(not normal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does an elevated jugular venous pressure indicate?

A

-Inadequate blood draining from the head
-Blockage or weakness of right side of heart causing backup of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is meant by Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)?

A

-MAP is average blood pressure throughout one cardiac cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is normal MAP range?

A
  • 70-100mmHg
    (less than 60, not enough blood flow to perfuse through critical organs)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are cardiac auscultation landmarks?

A

-A: Aortic Area
-P: Pulmonic Area
-E: Erb’s Point (use bell)
-T: Tricuspid Area
-M: Mitral Area or Apex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What heart sounds should be loudest at each landmark?

A

-A: Aortic valve
-P: Pulmonary valves
-E: S2 sound
-T: Tricuspid valves
-M: Mitral valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How is the cardio/peripheral system impacted with aging?

A

-Arteries stiffen with age
-Myocardium decreases in elasticity and becomes more rigid
-Decreases response to stress
-Increase in 02 demand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is Hypovolemia

A

-Body fluid loss
-Decrease in BP and MAP
-low blood volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD)

A

-Narrowing of the arteries usually in legs or pelvis
-Symptoms: Cramping, pain, tired legs, tired muscles, pain worsens with walking/activity and decreases with rest
-Hyperlipidemia causes atherosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Venous Insufficiency

A

-Vein walls are weakened and valves are damaged
-Veins stay filled with blood, especially when standing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)

A

-Blood clot that forms in deep veins (usually legs but sometimes arms)
-Can be caused by decreased blood flow, high cholesterol
-Major risk is clot can move to lungs cutting off blood flow (pulmonary embolism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Why is circulation different in the fetus?

A

-Circulating blood bypasses the lungs and liver by flowing in different pathways and openings called shunts
-When umbilical cord is clamped, first breath causes lungs to expand and the shunts close, allowing normal circulatory function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Cranial Nerve I

A

-Olfactory Nerve
-Function: Smell
-Test: Have patient identify a scent with eyes closed in each nostril separately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Cranial Nerve II

A

-Optic Nerve
-Function: Visual acuity and field
-Test: Have patient perform visual field test and visual acuity test with Snellen and Rosenbaum charts. Size, shape of pupil and reaction to light (direct and consensual)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Cranial Nerve III

A

-Oculomotor Nerve
-Function: Opening and moving your eyes and adjusting pupil width
-Test: Test extraocular movements and convergence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Cranial Nerve IV

A

-Trochlear Nerve
-Function: Looking down and moving your eyes toward your nose or away from it
-Test: Follow penlight down and sidways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Cranial Nerve V

A

-Trigeminal Nerve
-Function: Providing sensations in your eyes, most of your face, and inside of mouth. Allows you to chew food
-Test: Place fingers over masseter muscles and ask patient to clench teeth. Light touch sensation on forehead, cheeks and jaw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Cranial Nerve VI

A

-Abducens Nerve
-Function: Moving your eyes from left to right
-Test: Move penlight side to side and diagonal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Cranial Nerve VII

A

-Facial Nerve
-Function: Controlling facial muscles to make facial expressions and provide the sense of taste in part of your tongue
-Test: have patient raise eyebrows, close eyes tightly, smile, and puff cheeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Cranial Nerve VIII

A

-Vestibulocochlear Nerve
-Function: Provide sense of hearing and balance
-Test: Assess hearing (use finger rub or whisper test)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Cranial Nerve IX

A

-Glossopharyngeal Nerve
-Function: Provide taste sensation, control muscles for swallowing
-Test: Asses swallowing and gag reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Cranial Nerve X

A

-Vagus Nerve
-Function: Regulate digestion, blood pressure, heart rate, breathing, mood, saliva production
-Test: Asses gag reflex and swallowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Cranial Nerve XI

A

-Accessory Nerve
-Function: Control shoulder and neck movement
-Test: Shrug shoulders, turn head (with and without resistance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Cranial Nerve XII

A

-Hypoglossal Nerve
-Function: Controlling tongue movement (for speech, eating, and swallowing)
-Test: Assess tongue fasciculations, symmetry, deviation, movement, and strength (listen to speech, have patient stick out tongue and move side to side)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Central Nervous System (CNS) Components

A

-Brain
-Spinal Cord
-Neurons
Function: Integrate sensory info and respond accordingly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Afferent and Efferent Neuron Function

A

-Afferent: Carry info from sensory receptors (skin and organs) to CNS
-Efferent: Carry motor info from CNS to muscles, organs, and glands of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) Comoponets and Function

A

-Nerves and ganglia outside the spinal cord
-31 pairs of spinal nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Autonomic Nervous System

A

-Unconscious movements
-Includes: Sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Somatic Nervous System

A

-Guides voluntary movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

PERRLA

A

Pupils equal, round, reactive to light and Accommodation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Consensus of the Eye

A

Both pupils react equally when light is shone in only one eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Snellen test

A

-Vision test conducted with chart at 20ft
-EX: 20/30 means you see at 20ft what perfect vision sees at 30ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Confrontation Eye Test

A

-Tests visual filed including peripheral vision
-Have patient cover one eye and test all 4 quadrants of visual field by holding up fingers
-Do with both eyes one at a time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Extraocular Muscle (EOM) Function

A

-Have client follow fingers as you through all 6 fields of gaze (H pattern)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Palpation of Frontal Sinus

A

-Place thumbs above eyes under boney ridge of upper orbits
-Apply gentle pressure
-Ask if tenderness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Palpation of Maxillary Sinus

A

-Place thumbs on each side of nose just below cheek bone with fingertips on forehead
-Apply gentle pressure
-Ask if tenderness or pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Nasal Patency Test

A

-Occlude one nostril and breath
-Repeat with other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Palatal Reflex Test (CN IX & X)

A

-While visualizing with pen light and tongue depressor have client say “ah”
-Soft palate and uvula should rise symmetrically and remain midline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Ischemic Stroke

A

-Blood to brain blocked or reduced
-87% of strokes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Hemorrhagic Stroke

A

-Vessels in brain leak or burst causing bleeding and increased pressure on brain
-17% of strokes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Autonomic Nervous System (ANS) Components

A

-Sympathetic Nervous System (fight or flight)
-Parasympathetic Nervous System (rest and digest)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Non-synovial Joints

A

-Cartilaginous (slightly moveable ex: vertebrae)
-Fibrous (immovable sutures ex: skull)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Synovial Joints

A

-Freely movable
-Bones are separated from one another in joint filled with synovial fluid
-Bursa: Sac of viscous synovial fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Skeletal Muscle

A

Voluntary movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Smooth Muscle

A

-Involuntary movements
-Peristalsis, uterine contractions

33
Q

Cardiac Muscle

A

Involuntary, striated muscle

33
Q

Synovial Joint Types

A

-Ball and Socket (shoulder and hip)
-Hinge (elbow and knee)
-Condyloid (Wrist and finger)

33
Q

Function of Skeletal System

A

-Support
-Movement
-Protect vital organs
-Produce WBC, RBC, platelets
-Reservoir of essential minerals (calcium and phosphorus)

33
Q

Normal For Joints and Muscles

A

-No crepitation (hearing or feeling cracking/popping in joint)
-Normal ROM
-Symmetry of muscles
-No tenderness or bogginess
-Not squishy

33
Q

Active Range of Motion (AROM)

A

-Ability to move joint with own strength
-Full or Limited ROM

34
Q

Passive Range of Motion (PROM)

A

-Someone moves your joints through movements
-Full or Limited ROM

34
Q

CMS

A

-Circulation (color, pulse, temp, capillary refill)
-Motion (passive and active ROM)
-Sensation (assess with light touch, soft and sharp, joint position)

34
Q

Sterognosis

A

Identify object by feeling in hand

34
Q

Graphesthesia

A

Identify number drawn in palm

34
Q

DTR 4-point scale

A

0: no response
1+: slight response but present
2+: brisk response, normal
3+: very brisk response, can be normal/abnormal
4+: Tap elicits repeating reflex (clonus), abnormal

34
Q

Level of Consciousness (LOC)

A

-Alert: Normal
-Lethargy: Appear drowsy, respond then fall asleep
-Obtunded: Open, look at you, respond slow and confused
-Stupor: Wake with painful stimuli, verbal response slow or absent (return unresponsive when stimuli stops)
-Coma: Fully unconscious

34
Q

Fracture Risk Factors

A

-Age and gender
-Postmenopausal
-Osteoporosis
-Falls
-Low body weight
-Smoking
-Alcohol abuse
-Steroids
-Theumatoid Arthritis
-Family history
-Previous fracture

34
Q

Rheumatoid Arthritis

A

-Swollen, inflamed synovial membrane
-Erosion of bone
-Symmetrical
-Stiffness longer than 30min in the morning

35
Q

Osteoarthritis

A

-Loss of cartilage
-Bones rub together
-Asymmetrical

35
Q

Special Considerations for Infant Bone Growth

A

-Bones increase in girth all around
-Bones increase in length at growth plate (epiphyses)
-Ligaments are strong than bones until adolescents

35
Q

Special Considerations for Pregnancy and Musculoskeletal

A

-Increase hormone levels cause elasticity of ligaments and softer cartilage in pelvis (12-20wks gestation)
-Lordosis to shift center of gravity
-Lower back pain due to physical stress
-Increased incidence of carpal tunnel syndrome

35
Q

Special Considerations for Aging Adult and Musculoskeletal

A

-Decrease in muscle mass, tone, strength
-Decrease in reaction time, speed, agility, endurance
-Post menopause, decreased estrogen leads to increase bone resorption and decreases calcium deposition (by 80yrs, women can lost 30% of bone mass)

35
Q

Spacicity

A

Increased rigidity of muscles due to brain or spinal cord injury

35
Q

Contracture

A

-Tightening of muscles, tendons, skin, and tissues
-Causes joints to shorten and become stiff

36
Q

Know how the blood flows through the heart.

A

Inferior/Superior Vena Cava -> Right Atrium -> Tricuspid Valve -> Right Ventricle -> Pulmonary valve -> Pulmonary artery -> Lungs -> Pulmonary Vein -> Left Atrium -> Mitral Valve -> Left Ventricle -> Aortic Valve -> Aorta -> Rest of Body

37
Q

What creates the following heart sounds.

A

S1: Closing of the Mitral and Tricuspid Valves ( AV Valves) Dull, low pitch
S2: Closing of Pulmonic and Aortic Valves (Semi-Lunar) Slightly higher pitch
S3: Sound of a large amount of blood hitting a compliant left ventricle (Can be normal)
S4: Caused by atria contracting (Vibration) forcefully to overcome an abnormally stiff or hypertrophic ventricle (Not normal)

38
Q

What does an elevated jugular venous pressure indicate?

A

Blood is having trouble returning to the right side of the heart from the head.
Possible blockage

38
Q

What are concerning signs and/or symptoms that suggest a cardiac issue?

A

Jugular Vein Distension

38
Q

What is mean arterial pressure (MAP)?

What is a normal range?

A

the average blood pressure in an artery during a cardiac cycle

70-100 mmHG

39
Q

Where are the cardiac auscultation landmarks?

A

APETM

Aortic: Second intercostal space, right sternal border
Pulmonic: Second intercostal space, left sternal border
Erbs Point: Third intercostal space, left sternal border
Tricuspid: Fourth intercostal space, left sternal border
Mitral: Fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line

39
Q

Which heart sounds should be the loudest at each landmark?

A

Aortic: Second intercostal space, right sternal border
Tricuspid: Fifth intercostal space, left sternal border
Mitral: Fifth intercostal space, Midclavicular line
Pulmonary: Second intercostal space, left sternal border

40
Q

Which lifestyle habits would be good to encourage when teaching about cardiac health?

A

Healthy diet (Lower sodium, Omega 3)
Exercise
No smoking or drinking

40
Q

How is the cardio/peripheral system impacted with aging?

A

Arteries Stiffen
Myocardium becomes less elastic, more rigid
Less efficient response to stress
Increases O2 demand

40
Q

What is meant by hypovolemia?

A

Low Blood volume

40
Q

How would a hypovolemic state impact blood pressure and MAP?

A

Low Blood pressure
Low MAP

40
Q

What is peripheral arterial disease (PAD)?

A

Narrowing of the arteries, commonly the pelvis and legs
Hyperlipidemia (Cause of atherosclerosis)

41
Q

What is the main cause of PAD?

A

atherosclerosis.

Clinical Symptoms: Cramping, pain, tired legs or hip muscles that worses during walking/activity and subsides with rest

41
Q

Define venous insufficiency.

A

Inadequate return of venous blood from the legs to the heart
Clinical symptoms: Tired/Heavy, achy cramping in the legs, pain worsens when standing and improves with leg elevation and with activity

41
Q

What is a deep vein thrombosis?

A

Insufficient return of blood from the legs that creates a clot most commonly in the legs or arms

41
Q

What is a potential life-threatening emergency that could arise from a deep vein thrombosis?

A

Pulmonary embolism, the next smallest location that the clot could affect is in the lungs.
Embolism: Blockage or obstruction

41
Q

Why is circulation different in the fetus?

A

Fetal circulation compensates for non-functional fetal lungs. The fetus is oxygenated with maternal blood flow through the placenta
Circulating blood bypasses the lungs and liver by flowing in different pathways and through special openings called shunts
At birth, the umbilical cord is clamped (Baby no longer receives nutrients from the placenta). With the first breath of air the lungs start to expand and the ductus arteriosus and the foramen ovale both close

41
Q

What is the purpose of the shunts in the fetal heart?

A

Shunts are special openings that allow the circulating blood to bypass the lungs and the liver, because it gets oxygen from mother through the placenta.

41
Q

Right Upper Quadrant:

A

Liver, Right Kidney, Gall Bladder, Colon, Pancreas

42
Q

Right Lower Quadrant:

A

Appendix, Colon, Small intestine, Ureter, Major vein, and artery to right leg

42
Q

Left Upper Quadrant:

A

Stomach, Left Kidney, Spleen, Colon, Pancreas

42
Q

Left Lower Quadrant:

A

Colon, small intestine, Ureter, Major vein, and artery to the left leg

42
Q

Midline:

A

Aorta, Pancreas, Small intestine, Bladder, Spine

42
Q

What is the usual examination sequence for all systems except the gastrointestinal? What is the examination sequence of the gastrointestinal system and why does it differ from the others?

A

Gastrointestinal Examination Sequence:

Inspection: (Symmetry, Size, Condition of skin, Pulsations… Etc)

Auscultation: (All 4 quadrants, if NG tube present turn off) Normal is 5-34 per minute. If no sounds, listen for 5 minutes before deciding they are absent

Percussion

Palpation: Overall impression of the skin surface, looking for tenderness. DO NOT PALPATE aortic aneurism
Done in this order so palpation does not create false bowel sounds

42
Q

Describe “hyperactive” bowel sounds and what they indicate.

A

(increased) bowel sounds are louder and more intense than expected because of increased motility or peristalsis of the bowels as with diarrhea. You might hear rushing sounds or tinkling at a frequency of about every few seconds, and greater than 34 per minute.

42
Q

Describe “hypoactive” bowel sounds and what the indicate.

A

(decreased) bowel sounds are diminished, soft sounds that occur less than 5 per minute and could be related to impaired motility. This can be related to side effects from medication or anesthesia, constipation, or bowel obstruction.

42
Q

If chyme moves more slowly through the intestines would the stool be harder or softer, and why?

A

The speed at which chyme moves through the intestines dictates how much water is reabsorbed in the Large intestine. If the chyme moves too quickly, less water will be absorbed therefore resulting in softer stool. If chyme moves too slowly, lots of water is reabsorbed, drying it out making it harder

42
Q

What are the characteristics assessed for in the “Inspection” portion of the abdominal assessment? List “normal” findings.

A

*Flat or Rounded Contour
*Positive bowel sounds all 4 quadrants
*Soft, nontender
*Bilaterally Symmetrical
*Skin smooth and intact without pulsations
or visible peristalsis
*No masses or protrusions note
*Umbilicus midline

43
Q

What could you see on the abdomen that would alert you that palpation is contraindicated? What would you do?

A

Pulsation that would indicate an aortic aneurysm. Call provider

43
Q

What do hyperactive bowel sounds indicate? Hypoactive?

A

Hyperactive: increased motility or peristalsis of the bowels as with diarrhea.

Hypoactive: This can be related to side effects from medication or anesthesia, constipation, or bowel obstruction.

43
Q

Define appendicitis, how it typically presents, and assessments to aid in diagnosis.

A

Appendicitis – Inflammation of the appendix

Pain in lower right quadrant

Mcberneys point

rebound tenderness

43
Q

Define peritonitis. List 3 signs typically associated with it and the definition of them.

A

Peritonitis – Inflammation of the peritoneum

Rebound tenderness, Ridgidity, Extreme pain, localized or general

43
Q

Know the 2 types of bowel obstruction. List possible findings with assessment. Who is at greatest risk?

A

Functional: occurs when the muscles in the bowel don’t contract properly, preventing the movement of feces through the digestive tract
Mechanical: occurs when the flow of contents in the bowel is blocked, preventing the normal movement of digested food

43
Q

What are potential normal abdominal/gastrointestinal findings related to pregnancy?

A

Pregnancy
*Striae on the skin as it stretches
*Diastasis Recti (separation of the rectus abdominus muscles)
*Acid Reflux
*Constipation

43
Q

List ways that the abdominal/gastrointestinal system changes as we age

A

Aging Adult
* Altered gastric motility
* Decreased secretion of digestive enzymes and protective mucus
Can impair digestive ability and lead to food intolerances
* Decreased taste and smell

43
Q

Be able to define and calculate gravida, para, abortus and living (GTPAL).

A

Gravida: Total number of pregnancies
Para: Number of pregnancies after 20 weeks

G- Total number of pregnancies
T- Full term pregnancies (37-40 weeks)
P-Preterm deliveries (20-36 weeks)
A- Abortions and miscarriages (Before 20 weeks)
L- Living Children

44
Q

What is Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy(BPH)? What are the symptoms?

A

a non-cancerous condition that occurs when the prostate gland in men becomes enlarge
Difficulty urinating

44
Q

List abnormalities that might be seen on inspection of the external genitalia.

A

Urethra meatus not midline, Masses/Lumps, Cysts

45
Q

What are signs of pyelonephritis? Where is palpation done to aid in diagnosis?

A

High fever, severe tenderness to tapping over the CVA
Palpation is done over the CVA

46
Q

List signs of a bladder infection. How does this change in the aging adult?

A

Pain or burning when urinating
Frequent urination, even after emptying your bladder
Cloudy, bloody, red, or bright pink urine
Urine that has a strong odor
In older adults, signs of confusion are also associated with a UTI

47
Q

What could a black tarry stool indicate?

A

Blood in stool (melena). Likely related to gastrointestinal bleeding

48
Q

What symptoms might you see that would lead you to suspect traumatic brain injury?

A

Clear drainage from nose or ears after hit to the head

48
Q

Define the function of the thyroid. What would be abnormal findings? What signs and symptoms you might assess in someone who is hypothyroid? Hyperthyroid?

A

produces hormones that regulate the body’s metabolic rate, growth and development.

Hyperthyroidism: Nervousness, weight loss, excessive sweating, palpitations, frequent bowel movements
Hypothyroidism: Fatigue, lethargy, weight gain, dry skin, constipation
Abnormal: increase in size or nodules

49
Q

Know what assessments are made in the neck region. What would be normal findings?

A

Inspection –
Inspect the position of the trachea
Assess for abnormal nodules and swelling
Evaluate range of motion (ROM) of the neck
Assess ability to swallow
Check for jugular vein distension
Palpation –
Carotid pulse (one side at a time). Do this only after auscultation.
Trachea to determine if midline -Trachea place thumbs along each side of trachea and determine if equal distance between the out edge and sternocleidomastoid muscle.
Lymph Nodes – Using pads of fingers feel for size, symmetry, shape, mobility, consistency and ask about tenderness.
Thyroid – While gently palpating lower trachea have client swallow. Isthmus should rise. Palpate each lobe for enlargement, nodules or tenderness.
Auscultation –
Listen to carotids with bell of stethoscope. The presence of bruits is an abnormal finding.
Auscultate thyroid with bell only if you observe or palpate enlargement. Bruit could indicate a hypermetabolic state.

50
Q

What is meant by consensus in an eye exam?

A

Shine light into one eye briefly while examining the pupillary reaction in the other eye. Both eyes should constrict with light.

50
Q

What is a goiter?

A

a swelling in the neck that occurs when the thyroid gland enlarges

51
Q

What does PERRLA stand for?

A

Pupils equal, round, reactive to light and accommodation

51
Q

What does the Snellen eye assessment test for? What do the numeric results indicate?

A

Snellen – Tests visual acuity (CN II). Have client stand 20 feet from chart.
Cover one eye and read the lowest line. Repeat with second eye and then with
both eyes uncovered. (Option the “E” chart)

52
Q

How is the Whisper Test done?

A

Occlude non-tested ear and whisper 3 words in other ear asking client to repeat the whispered words

53
Q

What is the Weber test? How is it done? What is it testing for?

A

Place vibrating tuning fork on client’s temporal bone.. Ask if they
can hear it better in the left ear, right ear or both ears equally.
Normal finding – hear equally in both ears (negative Weber)

54
Q

What is the Rinne test used for?

A

Place vibrating tuning fork against mastoid bone. Have client tell you when they can no longer hear it. Note length of time it was heard. (Bone conduction – BC))
Move tuning fork in front of the ear canal and have client indicate when they can no longer hear it. Document length of time it was heard. (Air conduction – AC) AC should be longer than BC – ratio of 2:1

55
Q

What is a “normal” finding when inspecting the tonsils? What is “tonsil grading”?

A

Tonsils – Same color as surrounding mucosa, vary in size and visibility
Tonsils are graded on a scale of 0 to 4, with each grade indicating the size of the tonsils relative to the oropharynx

Grade 0: Tonsils are within the tonsillar fossa, or the tonsils have been removed
Grade 1: Tonsils are just outside the tonsillar fossa and take up 25% or less of the oropharynx
Grade 2: Tonsils take up 26–50% of the oropharynx
Grade 3: Tonsils take up 51–75% of the oropharynx
Grade 4: Tonsils take up more than 75% of the oropharynx

56
Q

Where is the uvula and what is its function?

A

Uvula – Pink, midline moves with vocalization

secretes saliva, Prevents food from entering nasal passagw while swallowing, helps with speech, gag reflex to prevent choking

57
Q

What is meant by fasciculation? Is it always an abnormal finding?

A

a condition where a muscle involuntarily twitches, or contracts, in a small, localized area
Not always abnormal

58
Q

What is a normal finding of the uvula with phonation?

A

the uvula and soft palate are directed upward, thereby walling off the nasal cavity from the pharynx.

59
Q

How is patency of the nares tested for? What would it indicate if one side was not patent?

A

Have client occlude one nostril and breath in and out through the other. Repeat on the other nostril.

60
Q

What are the parts of the CNS (central nervous system)?

A

Brain and spinal cord and neurons

60
Q

List the XII cranial nerves.

A

Olfactory
Optic
Oculomotor
Trochlear
Trigeminal
Abducens
Facial
Vestibulocochlear
Glosopharyngeal
Vagus
Accessory
Hypoglossal

61
Q

What assessments are utilized to determine if each of the XII cranial nerves is functioning appropriately?

A

Olfactory - Identify smell with eyes closed
Optic - Visual field/ visual acuity test
Oculomotor- PERRLA
Trochlear- Follow movement of penlight down and sideways
Trigeminal - Identify sharp or soft touch on face
Abducens- Follow penlight movement side to side and diagonally
Facial- Frown, Smile, Raise eyebrows, puff out cheeks, close eyes tightly
Vestibulocochlear - Whisper test
Glosopharyngeal- Have patient say ah and to swallow
Vagus- Gag reflex, swallowing
Accessory - Shrug shoulders, have patient turn head
Hypoglossal - Stick out tongue, move side to side

61
Q

What activities are associated with each of the nerves (sensory, motor or both)?

A

Olfactory - Sensory
Optic - Sensory
Oculomotor- Motor
Trochlear- Motor
Trigeminal -Both
Abducens- Motor
Facial -Both
Vestibulocochlear - Sensory
Glosopharyngeal - Both
Vagus- Both
Accessory - Motor
Hypoglossal - Motor

62
Q

What is a dermatome?

A

a specific area of skin that is supplied by a single spinal nerve

62
Q

Define afferent and efferent neurons.

A

Afferent- carry info from sensory receptors (skin and other organs) to the CNS
Efferent- carry motor info from the CNS to muscles and glands of the body

63
Q

What makes up the PNS (peripheral nervous system)?

A

All of the nerves extending to the periphery of the body

64
Q

What do the autonomic and somatic nervous systems control?

A

Somatic nervous system: Guides voluntary movements.
Autonomic nervous system: Responsible for control of the bodily functions not consciously directed, such as breathing, the heartbeat and digestive processes
Sympathetic: Fight or flight
Parasympathetic: Rest and digest

64
Q

Define pronator drift. When might you see this?

A

occurs when one arm and palm turn inward and downward. This is an indication of muscle weakness and an abnormal function of the corticospinal tract, the upper motor neurons in the brain and spinal cord that control voluntary muscle movement

64
Q

When would nurses use the NIHSS (National Institute of Health Scale)?

A

a tool that healthcare professionals use to assess the severity of a stroke
Ischemic – blood supply to part of the brain blocked or reduced (87%)
Hemorrhagic - Blood vessels in the brain leaks or bursts causing bleeding in the brain and increased pressure on brain cells (17%)

64
Q

Define sympathetic and parasympathetic regarding the nervous systems?

A

Sympathetic: Fight or flight
Parasympathetic: Rest and digest

64
Q

What does the Romberg test assess?

A

a physical exam that assesses balance and neurological function
A positive test is an inability to maintain an erect posture over 60 seconds with eyes closed.

64
Q

What is the Glascow Coma Scale? What does it assess?

A

a neurological tool used to measure a patient’s level of consciousness and the severity of a brain injury
The GCS assesses a patient’s responsiveness to stimuli in three areas: eye opening, motor response, and verbal response
Scored 3-15, high score is better neurological functioning

65
Q

What are some normal reflexes for infants that disappear as the child ages?

A

Stepping- When held upright they try to walk
Moro- Cause body to stiffen and shoot arms out and open hands
Grasp- Close hand when palm is touched
Tonic neck- One side of the body will straighten when head is turned
Babinski- Fanning out of toes

66
Q

List signs of a cerebral vascular accident.

A

Loss of balance, headache or dizziness, blurred vision, drooping of one side of the face, arm or leg weakness, speech problems

67
Q

Explain the difference between a synovial and non-synovial joint.

A

Synovial – Freely moveable, bones are separated from one another and enclosed in a joint cavity filled with lubricant or synovial fluid (knee, shoulder)
Non-synovial – bones are united by fibrous tissue or cartilage
Fibrous: Immovable joints
Cartilagenous: slightly movable

68
Q

What is a ligament?

A

Ligaments - flexible fibrous bands running from one bone to another strengthening the joint and helping to prevent movement in undesirable directions.

68
Q

What is the difference between a ligament and a tendon?

A

Tendon connects muscle to bone where Ligament is Bone to Bone

69
Q

What is a tendon?

A

Tendon - band of dense fibrous connective tissue that connects muscle to bone.

70
Q

What is a bursa and what is its purpose?

A

Bursa – Enclosed sac filled with viscous synovial fluid.
to reduce friction between moving parts of the body, such as bones, joints, tendons, and skin

71
Q

List the 3 muscle types.

A

Skeletal
Smooth- Internal organs
Cardiac- Heart muscle

72
Q

What is the difference between “full” ROM and “limited” ROM?

A

Full ROM is moving as far as anatomically possible during an exercise.
Limited ROM is when a joint can’t move through its normal range

73
Q

What is the difference between “active” ROM and “passive” ROM?

A

*Active Range of Motion (AROM) - the range of flexibility in a joint reached by voluntary movement.
*Passive Range of Motion (PROM) - the range that can be achieved by external means such as another person or a device.

74
Q

What is osteoporosis and the role estrogen plays in it for post-menopausal women?

A

a disease that weakens bones, making them more likely to break
Low estrogen levels can cause osteoporosis by increasing bone resorption and decreasing bone formation

75
Q

What are the 3 main types of spinal deformities?

A

Scoliosis: lateral curvature of the spine
Kyphosis: Outward curvature of the cervical spine
Lordosis: Common in pregnancy, Inward curvature of lumbar spine

76
Q

Explain the difference between cartilage and bone.

A

Bones: Hard, Ridgid, Rich blood supply, Protect vital organs

Cartilage: Soft flexible, lacks blood vessles, Protect bones from rubbing together

77
Q

What does CMS stand for? How do you assess it?

A

Circulation: assess color, pulse, temperature and capillary refill ( a measure of peripheral circulation)
Motion: ◦Assess motion using passive and active ROM movements.
Sensation: assess sensation using light touch of soft or sharp object and joint position.

78
Q

When would you assess for CMS?

A

Post Operation?
Suspicion of neurological damage?

79
Q

What are symptoms that there are problems with the patients CMS?

A

Cool skin, Poor cap refill, Lack of range of motion, lack of sensation

80
Q

What are the 4 signs of inflammation?

A

Heat, Swelling, Redness, Pain

81
Q

Define the skeletal muscle movements (flexion, extension etc).

A
  • Plantar Flexion – Standing on the toes
  • Dorsiflexion – Foot lifted towards the shin
  • Flexion – Decreases joint angle
  • Extension – Increases joint angle
  • Hyperextension – Extension of body part beyond normal range of movement
  • Adduction – Movement of limb towards midline
  • Abduction – Movement of limb away from midline
  • Inversion – Turning sole of foot inward
  • Eversion – Turning sole of foot outward
  • Rotation – Turning on a singe axis
  • Pronation – Rotation of the hand or foot so palm or sole faces backward or downward
  • Supination – Rotation of the hand or foot so palm or sole faces upward or outward.
  • Internal Rotation- Rotation of hip or shoulder towards midline
  • External Rotation – Rotation of hip or shoulder away from midline
  • Circumduction – The movement of a limb in a circle.