Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

elements updated > 301-375 > Flashcards

301-375 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. A material best suited for manufacturing of fuse wire

A. Aluminum
B. Silver
C. Lead
D. Copper

A

B. Silver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. The laminations are made from

A. Low carbon steel
B. Silicon sheet steel
C. Nickel alloy steel stays
D. Chrome steel sheets

A

B. Silicon sheet steel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Which of the following metals gets deposited to provide an undercut for chromium?

A. Copper
B. Silver
C. Bronze
D. Lead

A

C. Bronze

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. In nickel-iron cell, the electrolyte is:

A. Dilute sulphuric acid
B. Dilute potassium hydroxide
C. Dilute sodium ammonium hydroxide
D. Dilute sodium chloride solution

A

B. Dilute potassium hydroxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a primary cess?

A. Carbon zinc
B. Silver oxide
C. Silver zinc
D. Nickel – cadmium

A

C. Silver zinc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Select from the conductors below that has the least electrical conductivity

A. Lead
B. Tin
C. Zinc
D. Aluminum

A

A. Lead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. The material used for commutator brushes is mostly

A. Copper
B. Mica
C. Carbon
D. Cast iron

A

C. Carbon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Generally, the material for thermocouple is

A. Chrome copel
B. Chrome alumei
C. Platinum rhodium
D. Any of these

A

D. Any of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Select the best conductor of electricity

A. Carbon
B. Silver
C. Copper
D. Iron

A

B. Silver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Any heating and cooling of steel that produces a rounded or globular form of carbide.

A. Spheroidizing
B. Malleability
C. Graphizing
D. Normalizing

A

A. Spheroidizing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Steel that has been hammered rolled or drawn in the process of electricity

A. Wrought steel
B. Rimmed Steel
C. Killed steel
D. Stainless steel

A

A. Wrought steel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Which of the following improves red hardness?

A. Boron
B. Cobalt
C. Copper
D. Columbium

A

B. Cobalt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. An alloy of nickel and copper

A. Monel
B. Inconel
C. Titanium
D. Vanadium

A

A. Monel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Commutator segments are made of

A. Zinc
B. Brass
C. Copper
D. Nickel

A

C. Copper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. What are the most commonly used materials as photo cathode for the photoelectric emission?

A. Barium and calcium
B. Cesium and rubidium
C. Arsenic and boron
D. Thorium and tungsten

A

C. Arsenic and boron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Manganese is an alloy of

A. Copper, manganese and nickel
B. Copper, aluminum and chromium
C. Copper, zinc and lead
D. Copper, chromium and cadmium

A

A. Copper, manganese and nickel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. The one that is an acceptor impurity element

A. Antimony
B. Gallium
C. Arsenic
D. Phosphorus

A

B. Gallium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a method of non-destructive testing of steel castings and forging?

A. Radiography
B. Magnetic particle
C. Ultrasonic
D. Chemical analysis

A

D. Chemical analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. All of the following statements about rusting of iron are correct, except:

A. Contact with water and oxygen are necessary for rusting to occur
B. Contact with a more electropositive metal reduces rusting
C. Halides aggravate rusting process which involves electrochemical oxidation reduction reaction
D. Pitting occurs in oxygen-rich anodic areas and the rust is deposited nearby

A

D. Pitting occurs in oxygen-rich anodic areas and the rust is deposited nearby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. If 1080 steel is annealed by very slow cooling from 1000 C to ambient temperature, its microstructure will consist almost solely of:

A. Austenite
B. Bainite
C. Cementite
D. Pearlite

A

D. Pearlite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Steel can be strengthened by all of the following practices, EXCEPT:

A. Annealing
B. Quenching and tempering
C. Work hardening
D. Grain refinement

A

A. Annealing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. Intrinsic silicon becomes extrinsically conductive, with electrons as majority carriers when adopted with which of the following?

A. Antimony
B. Boron
C. Germanium
D. Aluminum

A

A. Antimony

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. The linear portion of the stress-strain diagram of steel is known as the:

A. Modulus of elasticity
B. Plasticity
C. Irreversible range
D. Elastic range

A

D. Elastic range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. Imperfections within metallic crystal structures may be all of the following. EXCEPT:

A. Lattice vacancies or extra interstitial atom
B. Ion pairs missing in ionic crystals
C. Displacement of atoms of interstitial sites
D. Linear defects or slippage dislocations caused by shear

A

B. Ion pairs missing in ionic crystals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. When a metal is cold worked, all of the following generally occur, EXCEPT:

A. Ductility decreases
B. Grains become equal-axed
C. Tensile strength increases
D. Slip or twinning occurs

A

B. Grains become equal-axed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. Hard water is water, which contains soluble salts of which of the following elements?

A. Sodium
B. Sulfur
C. Calcium
D. Chlorine

A

C. Calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. Which of the following metals has the highest specific heat capacity at 100C?

A. Aluminum
B. Bismuth
C. Copper
D. Iron

A

A. Aluminum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. Aluminum pistons are either cast or

A. Ground
B. Forged
C. Pressed
D. Welded

A

B. Forged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. Valves and piping in an ammonia system are made of

A. Iron
B. Bras
C. Copper
D. Bronze

A

A. Iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. Which of the following gasket materials should be used on a Freon system?

A. Metallic
B. Asbestos
C. Rubber
D. A and B

A

D. A and B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. The nonferrous alloy corrodes in ammonia is

A. Copper
B. Bronze
C. Brass
D. All of these

A

D. All of these

32
Q
  1. What is used in main condenser to control electrolysis?

A. Brass plate
B. Aluminum plates
C. Zinc plates
D. Bronze plate

A

C. Zinc plates

33
Q
  1. Which of the following types of packing would be used on steam points?

A. Asbestos
B. Neoprene
C. Metallic
D. A or C

A

D. A or C

34
Q
  1. The process applied to iron pipe, which retards corrosion

A. Galvanizing
B. Annealing
C. Soldering
D. Tinning

A

A. Galvanizing

35
Q
  1. A scriber is made from what steel?

A. Carbon steel
B. Cold rolled steel
C. Tool steel
D. Hot-rolled steel

A

C. Tool steel

36
Q
  1. For saturated air, the value of dry bulb, wet bulb and dew point temperature is

a. Proportional
b. inversely proportional
c. the same
d. unity

A

c. the same

37
Q
  1. The least number of compressors in a multi-stage system is

a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 1

A

c. 2

38
Q
  1. The refrigerant control that guards the compressor from overloading brought about by an increased loads in the evaporator due to defrosting, warm products and others is called:

a. safety valve
b. suction valve
c. solenoid valve
d. expansion valve

A

d. expansion valve

39
Q
  1. The latent heat of heat of air is a function of dew point temperature and sensible heat is a function of the:

a. wet bulb temperature
b. critical point
c. dry bulb temperature
d. dew point temperature

A

c. dry bulb temperature

40
Q
  1. Ice cubes were added to a glass of water and stirred. Moisture stars to condense at the outer surface of the glass, what is the temperature of the moisture at the outer surface?

a. critical temperature
b. surface temperature
c. dew point temperature
d. saturation temperature

A

c. dew point temperature

41
Q
  1. The force when applied to a mass of one kilogram at an acceleration of one meter per second per second is:

a. Watt
b. Joule
c. Newton
d. Pascal

A

c. Newton

42
Q
  1. The size of the reciprocating pump is stamped on the builder’s plate as 3 x 4 x 6. The diameter of the liquid cylinder is:

a. 3 inches
b. 5 inches
c. 4 inches
d. 6 inches

A

c. 4 inches

43
Q
  1. Which of the following is a type of condenser?

a. shell-and-tube evaporator
b. evaporative
c. 3-phase motor
d. cooling tower

A

b. evaporative

44
Q
  1. If the pressure exerted on a liquid is higher than the saturation pressure corresponding on its temperature, the liquid is at the __________ region.

a. saturated liquid
b. superheated liquid
c. subcooled liquid
d. highly superheated liquid

A

c. subcooled liquid

45
Q
  1. The mass and temperature of a gas are inversely proportional at a constant pressure process. This is known as:

a. Dalton’s law
b. law of buoyancy
c. Charles law
d. Newton’s second law

A

c. Charles law

46
Q
  1. What will happen when the pressure at any point in a centrifugal pump goes below the vapor pressure corresponding to the temperature of the liquid?

a. turbulent flow
b. laminar flow
c. cavitation
d. priming

A

c. cavitation

47
Q
  1. Cavitation is a phenomenon, which occurs in a __________ pump only.

a. centrifugal
b. rotary
c. reciprocating
d. centrifugal and reciprocating

A

a. centrifugal

48
Q
  1. Which of the following is/are the effects of cavitation?

a. pitting due to chemical reaction between gases and metal
b. noise accomplishing the collapse of the vapor bubbles
c. all of these
d. decreased in capacity and vibration of the pump

A

c. all of these

49
Q
  1. If Eg is the enthalpy of saturated vapor and Ef is the enthalpy of the saturated liquid. What is the expression for the heat of vaporization?

a. Eg
b. Eg – Ef
c. Ef
d. Ef/Eg

A

b. Eg – Ef

50
Q
  1. A Carnot refrigerator operates between two reservoirs. One reservoir is at a higher temperature, T, and the other is at a cooler temperature, t. What is the coefficient of performance, COP, of the refrigerator?

a. T/t
b. 1-t/T
c. t/T-1
d. t/(T-1)

A

d. t/(T-1)

51
Q
  1. If the discharge heads are far below the pump’s calibrated head at peak efficiency, cavitation will

a. not occur
b. occur
c. may occur and may not occur
d. sometimes occur and sometimes not

A

b. occur

52
Q
  1. If the speed of a pump is higher than the designed speed, cavitation will

a. not occur
b. occur
c. may occur and may not occur
d. sometimes occur and sometimes not

A

b. occur

53
Q
  1. If the net positive suction head (NPSH) is greater than the required suction head of the pump, cavitation will

a. not occur
b. occur
c. may occur and may not occur
d. sometimes occur and sometimes not

A

a. not occur

54
Q
  1. In order to avoid cavitation, the NPSH of an installation should be at least than __________ the required NPSH of the pump.

a. equal or greater
b. equal or lower
c. lower
d. equal

A

a. equal or greater

55
Q
  1. Net positive suction head (NPSH) can be increased by which of the following:

a. increasing the height of the free fluid level on the supply tank
b. reducing the temperature of the fluid
c. using larger pipe size in the suction side
d. all of these

A

d. all of these

56
Q
  1. If Hb is the pressure head corresponding to absolute pressure on the surface of the fluid, Z is the height of the fluid surface above or below the pump centerline, hf is the total friction head loss and Hv is the pressure head corresponding to the vapor pressure of the liquid. What is the available NPSH of the pump?

a. NPSH = Hb-Hv-Z + hf
b. NPSH = Hb-Hb-Z- hf
C. NPSH = Hb + Hv - Z-hf
d. NPSH = Hb + Hv - Z+hf

A

b. NPSH = Hb-Hb-Z- hf

57
Q
  1. If Pb is the Absolute pressure on the surface of the liquid, Z is the suction lift of the pump, hf is the total friction head loss and Pv is the vapor pressure of the liquid at the Determine existing temperature. corresponding NPSH of the pump.

a. NPSH = (PB - Pv)/w + Z+hf
b. NPSH (PB - Pv)/w + Z-hf
c. NPSH = (PB + Pv)/w + Z-hf
d. NPSH = (PB + Pv)/w +Z+hf

A

b. NPSH (PB - Pv)/w + Z-hf

58
Q
  1. If cavitation will occur, the available NPSH is insufficient. Which of the following is a remedy to overcome cavitation?

a. decrease the available NPSH
b. increase the required NPSH
c. increase the available NPSH
d. none of these

A

c. increase the available NPSH

59
Q
  1. Regardless of its rotative speed, the value of the specific speed of a given impeller of a centrifugal pump is:

a. Varying
b. constant
c. unity
d. increasing

A

b. constant

60
Q
  1. Specific speed of a centrifugal pump is to its operating speed.

a. indirectly proportional
b. directly proportional
c. inversely proportional
d. unity

A

b. directly proportional

61
Q
  1. What is the effect on saturation pressure if the temperature of the fluid is increased?

a. there is no effect
b. saturation temperature increases
c. saturation temperature decreases
d. saturation temperature remains the same

A

b. saturation temperature increases

62
Q
  1. What is the effect on saturation temperature if the pressure of the fluid is increased?

a. saturation temperature increases
b. saturation temperature decreases
c. saturation temperature remains the same
d. there is no effect

A

a. saturation temperature increases

63
Q
  1. The capacity of a centrifugal pump, Q, is_________ proportional to the speed N in the same pump.

a. directly
b. indirectly
c. Inversely
d. inversely and indirectly

A

a. directly

64
Q
  1. The capacity of a centrifugal pump, Q, is ________ proportional to the impeller diameter D at the same pump.

a. directly
b. indirectly
c. inversely
d. inversely and indirectly

A

a. directly

65
Q
  1. What is the pressure present inside the casing of an impulse turbine?

a. vacuum
b. atmospheric pressure
c. above atmospheric
d. zero

A

a. vacuum

66
Q
  1. Compare the refrigerating effect per unit mass of refrigerant for a saturated cycle and for a superheated cycle that produces useful cooling, for the same vaporizing and condensing temperature.

a. for a superheated cycle
b. lower for superheated cycle
c. greater for saturated cycle
d. lower for saturated cycle

A

a. for a superheated cycle

67
Q
  1. What is the effect of superheating the suction vapor with regards to the work of compressor per unit mass of refrigerant circulated?

a. Decreases
b. remains the same
c. proportional
d. increases

A

d. increases

68
Q
  1. Compare the efficiency (COP) of a refrigeration cycle if the condensing
    temperature is increased.

a. decrease in efficiency
b. increases in efficiency
c. efficiency remains the same
d. varies directly

A

a. decrease in efficiency

69
Q
  1. It is important to take some moisture from the air to dehumidify it and the relative humidity reaches high levels. To do this, it requires cooling the air

a. at wet-bulb temperature
b. above its dew point temperature
c. at critical temperature
d. below its dew point temperature

A

d. below its dew point temperature

70
Q
  1. The relative humidity of saturated air is:

a. 0%
b. 75%
c. 25%
d. 100%

A

d. 100%

71
Q
  1. The process of treating air so as to control simultaneously its temperature, humidity, cleanliness and distribution to meet the requirements of the conditioned space.

a. Refrigeration
b. air conditioning
c. ducting system
d. air mixing

A

b. air conditioning

72
Q
  1. A mechanical device used in refrigeration system for purpose of increasing the pressure upon the refrigerant.

a. Pump
b. compressor
c. expansion valve
d. drier

A

b. compressor

73
Q
  1. The process of supplying or removing air by natural or mechanical means to or from any space.

a. ventilation
b. evaporation
c. air supply
d. natural convection

A

a. ventilation

74
Q
  1. An evaporator constructed of pipe or tubing.

a. expansion coil
b. condenser coil
c. evaporative condenser
d. cooling tower

A

a. expansion coil

75
Q
  1. Two pumps are connected in parallel, if Q1 is the discharge of Pump 1 and Q2 is the discharge of Pump 2 where Q2<Q1, what is the discharge?

a. Q1
b. Q1+Q2
c. Q2
d. Q1-Q2

A

b. Q1 + Q2

76
Q
  1. In a refrigeration system, the heat absorbed in the evaporator per kg mass of refrigerant passing through:

a. equals the increase in enthalpy
b. is decreased if pre-cooler is used
c. does not depend on the refrigerant used
d. equals the increase in volume

A

a. equals the increase in enthalpy

elements updated (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions