Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

elements updated > 1-250 > Flashcards

1-250 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Two kilogram of gas is confined in a 1m^3 tank 200kpa and 88degC. What type of gas is in the tank?

a). Helium
b). Ethane
c). Methane
d). Ethane

A

b). Ethane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. In Refrigeration, how do you call a heat exchanger in which low-pressure refrigerant boils or vaporizes, thus absorbing heat that was removed from the refrigerated area by the cooling medium (water)?

a) Evaporator
b) Chiller
c) Cooler
d) Flooded Evaporator

A

b) Chiller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. It is a type of refrigeration system where only part of the circulated refrigerant is evaporated, with the remainder being separated from the vapor and then recirculated. How do you call this system?

a) Absorption refrigeration system
b) Vacuum refrigeration system
c) Vapor-compression refrigeration system
d) Flooded refrigeration system

A

d) Flooded refrigeration system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. How do you call the mixtures or substances that are used in laboratory methods of producing a drop in temperature? The most common example is the mixture of ice and salt.

a) Calorific mixture
b) Water-ammonia mixture
c) Frigorific mixture
d) Hygroscopic mixture

A

c) Frigorific mixture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Which of the following is a scale of temperature in which the melting point of ice is taken as 0 o and the boiling point of water is 800?

a) Reaumur Scale
b) Carrene Scale
c) Genetron Scale
d) Frigorie Scale

A

a) Reaumur Scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. What is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit? It is 1/180 of the heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water from 32 to 212 oF at constant atmospheric pressure of 14,696 psi absolute.

a) Specifc heat
b) British thermal unit
c) Calorie
d) Sensible heat

A

b) British thermal unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. It the maximum temperature of any gas or vapor at which it may be condensed into a liquid; above this temperature, it is impossible to condense regardless of the pressure applied.

a) Saturation temperature
b) Superheated temperature
c) Critical temperature
d) Dew point temperature

A

c) Critical temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Any refrigerant that exists as a liquid under normal atmospheric pressure and temperature must be vaporized in an evaporator under a pressure below atmospheric. This is sometimes referred to as:

a) Halogenated refrigerant
b) Freon refrigerant
c) Vacuum refrigerant
d) Halocarbon refrigerant

A

c) Vacuum refrigerant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. It is any one of a group of refrigerants that have been developed since about 1925 to overcome the irritating or toxic effects of refrigerants, such as ammonia and sulfur dioxide and the high condensing pressures required with carbon dioxide. How do you call these refrigerants?

a) Halogenated refrigerants
b) Freon refrigerants
c) Vacuum refrigerants
d) Halocarbon refrigerants

A

a) Halogenated refrigerants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. This refrigeration system component combines the functions of a cooling tower and a condenser. It consists of a casing enclosing a fan or blower section, water eliminators, refrigerant condensing coil, water pan, float valve, and spray pump outside the casing. How do you call this component?

a) Water-cooled condenser
b) Evaporative condenser
c) Atmospheric condenser
d) Chiller

A

b) Evaporative condenser

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. It refers to a factor used in calculating the over- all heat transfer through the tube walls of a condenser tube or other heating surface. It includes the sum of the heat transfer rate of the layer of dirt and foreign material that builds up on the water side of the tube. What is this factor?

a) Cooling factor
b) Contact factor
c) By-pass factor
d) Fouling factor

A

d) Fouling factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. It is a refrigeration system evaporator which is arranged with a with a tank or tank or a single drum (accumulator) located above the coil so that the inside of the evaporator is full of refrigerant. How do you call this type of evaporator?

a) Flooded evaporator
b) Dry evaporator
c) Cooing coil evaporator
d) Headered coil evaporator

A

a) Flooded evaporator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. What is the standardized term used by the industry to describe any device that meters or regulates the flow of liquid refrigerant to an evaporator?

a) Refrigerant control
b) Expansion valve
c) Throttling valve
d) Capillary tube

A

b) Expansion valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Define a “control valve”.

a) The value set on the scale of the control system in order to obtain the required condition
b) The quantity or condition of the controlled medium
c) The flow or pressure of the steam (or fluid) being manipulated
d) The valve of the controlled condition actually maintained under steady state conditions

A

d) The valve of the controlled condition actually maintained under steady state conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. A pneumatic temperature control is used on the steam supply to a non-storage heat exchanger that heats water serving an office heating system. What is referred to as manipulated variable”?

a) The water being heated
b) The air signal from the controller to the valve actuator
c) The steam supplies
d) The temperature of the air being heated

A

b) The air signal from the controller to the valve actuator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. How do you classify a solenoid valve?

a) A thermal valve
b) A magnetic stop valves
c) A bellows valves
d) A bi-metallic valve

A

a) A thermal valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. What is a thermostat?

a) A temperature-operated switch
b) A pressure-operated switch
c) A superheat-operated switch
d) A back pressure-operated switch

A

d) A back pressure-operated switch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Which of the following is the one of the main purposes of refractory in a boiler furnace?

a) Help preheat the air for the furnace
b) Help preheat the feed water
c) Protect economizer from excessive heat
d) Prevent excessive furnace heat losses

A

c) Protect economizer from excessive heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Balance pressure traps are what type of steam trap?

a) Thermodynamic
b) Mechanical
c) Thermostatic
d) They do not belong to any specific type of trap family

A

b) Mechanical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. What is a characteristic feature of thermodynamic steam traps?

a) They pass condensate at steam temperature
b) They operate by holding back condensate until it has cooled
c) They cannot be fitted outside
d) They can only be fitted on low pressure steam systems

A

b) They operate by holding back condensate until it has cooled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. What are the main considerations for steam trap selection?

a) Price
b) Air venting, plant performance, flow capacity and reliability
c) Connections
d) The trap must be the same size as the condensate drain line

A

b) Air venting, plant performance, flow capacity and reliability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. Can temperature-controlled applications be trapped?

a) Traps should not be fitted under any circumstances
b) Only if there is no lift after the trap
c) If the pressure on the trap is always higher than backpressure
d.) Pumps should always be fitted to remove condensate

A

c) If the pressure on the trap is always higher than backpressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. What are the main considerations for steam trap selection?

a) Price
b) Air venting, plant performance, flow capacity and reliability
c) Connections
d) The trap must be the same size as the condensate drain line

A

b) Air venting, plant performance, flow capacity and reliability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. Can temperature-controlled applications be trapped?

a) Traps should not be fitted under any circumstances
b) Only if there is no lift after the trap
c) If the pressure on the trap is always higher than backpressure
d) Pumps should always be fitted to remove condensate

A

c) If the pressure on the trap is always higher than backpressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. Unless they are designed to flood, what is the important when removing condensate from heat exchangers?

a) Condensate is allowed to sub-cool before reaching the trap
b) Condensate is removed at steam temperature
c) Condensate should back-up into the steam pipe
d) That the trap is fatted level with or above the heater outlet

A

b) Condensate is removed at steam temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. How is flash steam produced?

a) From condensate passing from high to low pressure systems
b) From saturated steam
c) From superheated steam
d) From steam mixed with high temperature air

A

a) From condensate passing from high to low pressure systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. Are steam traps required to pass air?

a) Steam traps should not pass air under any circumstances
b) Only when the trap has passed all the condensate
c) Air should be removed as soon as it reaches the trap
d) Only on high pressure steam system

A

c) Air should be removed as soon as it reaches the trap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. How do you call a system employing open sprinklers attached to a piping system connected to a water supply through which is opened by the operation of a fire detection system installed in the same areas as the sprinklers?

a) Mechanical sprinkler
b) Automatic system
c) Wet pipe system
d) Deluge system

A

d) Deluge system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. What is probably the first consideration when selecting a control system?

a) What degree of accuracy is required?
b) Is the control for heating or cooling?
c) Is a two or three port valve required?
d) In the event of power failure, must the valve fail-open or fail-closed?

A

d) In the event of power failure, must the valve fail-open or fail-closed?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. When adding the refrigerant in a refrigeration system, it shall be charge into which of the following parts of the system?

a) High pressure side
b) Low pressure side
c) low- and high-pressure side
d) Compressor discharge line

A

b) Low pressure side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. Why is a boiler feed tank heated to approximately 85degC?

a) To reduce the energy required to raise steam
b) To reduce the content of total dissolved solids in the water supplied to the boiler
c) To reduce the gas content of the water
d) To reduce the content of suspended solids in the water

A

c) To reduce the gas content of the water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  1. What is used to dry air?

a) A separator
b) A strainer
c) A steam traps
d) A tee pieces

A

a) A separator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  1. What causes water hammer in the boiler?

a) Suspended water droplets
b) An air/water mixture
c) Strainers fitted on their sides
d) Slugs of water in the steam

A

d) Slugs of water in the steam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  1. How does air enter a steam system?

a) Through joints, on shut down of the steam system
b) With make-up water to the boiler feed tank
c) With condensate entering the boiler feed tank
d) All items a, b, & c

A

d) All items a, b, & c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  1. Why should strainers installed on steam lines be fitted on their sides?

a) To prevent the build-up of water in the strainer body
b) To trap more dirt
c) To reduce the frequency of cleaning
d) To provide maximum screening area for the steam

A

a) To prevent the build-up of water in the strainer body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  1. What is the result of using a heat exchanger rating to calculate its steam consumption?

a) The true connected heat load may be different from the rated figure.
b) The rating does not take account of the temperature of the secondary medium
c) The rating is based on a steam pressure of 1.0 bar
d) The rating does not allow for condensate forming in the heat exchanger

A

a) The true connected heat load may be different from the rated figure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. A heat exchanger has a design rating based on a working pressure of 7 bar g. What would be the effect of supplying the exchanger with steam at 3 bar g?

a) The heat output would be greater because the enthalpy of evaporation at 3 bar g is higher than at 7 bar g.
b) The heat output would be greater because steam at 3bar g has a greater volume than steam at 7 bar g.
c) less weight of steam would be required because steam at 3 bar g has a higher enthalpy of evaporation than 7 bar g.
d) The output would be reduced because the difference in temperature between the steam and product is reduced.

A

d) The output would be reduced because the difference in temperature between the steam and product is reduced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  1. For any particular tank temperature how does the heat loss from the lid of a closed tank compare with that of bottom?

a) They are approximately double those from the bottom
b) Losses from the top are approximately double those from the bottom
c) losses from the bottom are approximately double those from the top
d) losses from the top are approximately 4 times those from the bottom

A

b) Losses from the top are approximately double those from the bottom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  1. What is the disadvantage of heating a tank by direct steam injection?

a) It agitates the solution
b) Some of the enthalpy of water is used
c) Steam traps are not required
d) It dilutes the tank content

A

d) It dilutes the tank content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  1. you are assigned as Engineer, must be replaced. Which of the following types most likely to be installed?

a) Screw chiller
b) Scroll Chiller
c) Reciprocating chiller
d) Centrifugal chiller

A

d) Centrifugal chiller

Note: Centrifugal chillers are generally selected for their high coefficient of performance, good part-load performance, and cooling capacity. The economics of large-scale applications (such as hospital) generally favor more efficient machines such centrifugal chillers. In this case, a centrifugal chiller is also the only one of the types listed that can provide the needed capacity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
  1. Refrigeration condensers are rated based upon their ability to reject the total heat that comes from which of the following?

a) Compressor work and net refrigeration effect
b) Superheating
c) Subcooling
d) Compressor work

A

a) Compressor work and net refrigeration effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
  1. A published ‘U’ value from a steam coil to a water-based solution is given as 550 1300 W/m^2-degC. When would be figure near the lower end of the range be used?

a) When the steam is known to be of good quality
b) For short coils
c) For small diameter coils
d) When scaling or fouling of the coil takes place

A

d) When scaling or fouling of the coil takes place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
  1. Steam coils should enter and leave the top of a tank when:

a) The tank contains a corrosive solution
b) When agitation of the tank solution is required
c) When steam locking the trap draining a base coil could occur
d) When good heat distribution is required

A

a) The tank contains a corrosive solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
  1. A tank is to be heated by direct steam injection. How will the quantity of heat required compare with steam coil heating?

a) It depends on the temperature of the water being heated
b) More heat will be required
c) The same amount of heat will be required
d) less heat will be required

A

c) The same amount of heat will be required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
  1. Which of the following parameters has the greatest? limiting effect on the thermal performance of an open, evaporative cooling tower?

a) Wet-Bulb temperature
b) Dry-Bulb temperature
c)Range
d) Approach

A

a) Wet-Bulb temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
  1. It is a space, or several rooms, or units of space having some sort of coincident loads or similar operating characteristics. It may or may not be an enclosed space, or it may consist of many partitioned rooms. How do you call this?

a) Zone
b) Room
c) Space
d) Plenum

A

a) Zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
  1. In air conditioning, it indicates either a volume or a site without a partition or a partitioned room or group of rooms. How do you call this?

a) Zone
b) Room
c) Space
d) Plenum

A

c) Space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
  1. It is an enclosed or partitioned space that is usually treated as a single load. If conditioned, it often has an individual control system. What is this?

a) Zone
b) Room
c) Space
d) Plenum

A

b) Room

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
  1. It represents the rate, in Btu/hr or W, at which heat enters a conditioned space from an external source or is released to the space from an internal source during a given time interval.

a) Space heat gain
b) Space cooling load
c) Space heating load
d) Space heat extraction rate

A

a) Space heat gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q
  1. It is the rate, in Btu/hr or W, at which heat must be removed from a conditioned space so as to maintain a constant temperature and acceptable relative humidity. Its sensible load component is equal to the sum of the convective heat transfer from the surfaces of the building envelope, furnishings, occupants, appliances, and equipment. How do you call this?

a) Space heat gain
b) Space cooling load
c) Space heating load
d) Space heat extraction rate

A

b) Space cooling load

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q
  1. An Engineer claims to have created a heat engine that produces 15 kW of power for a 20 kW input while operating between energy reservoirs at 37degC and 400degC. Is the Engineer’s claim valid?

a) Valid
b) Not valid
c) Probably
d) May be valid

A

b) Not valid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q
  1. A process that the body uses to convert energy in food into heat and work, or it is the process that determines the rate at which energy is converted from chemical to thermal form within the body.

a) Metabolism
b) Eating
c) Body food processing
d) Blood circulation

A

a) Metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q
  1. What is a body insulation that is usually described as a single equivalent uniform layer over the whole body?

a) Skin
b) Blood
c) Clothing
d) Water

A

c) Clothing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q
  1. What is the insulating value of clothing?

a) Btu unit
b) Clo units
c) Calorie unit
d) Frigorie Unit

A

b) Clo units

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q
  1. What is the basic index used to describe the radiant conditions in a space, it is the mean temperature of an individual; exposed surfaces in the environment?

a) Index temperature
b) Mean radiant temperature
c) Space temperature
d) Dry bulb temperature

A

b) Mean radiant temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q
  1. In order to avoid cavitation in a centrifugal pump, which of the following is true?

a) Installation NPSH is greater than or equal pump NPSH
b) Installation NPSH less than or equal pump NPSH
c) Installation NPSH < pump NPSH
d) Installation NPSH should be negative

A

a) Installation NPSH is greater than or equal pump NPSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q
  1. What always accompanies an isentropic expansion of steam?

a) An increase in entropy
b) An increase in enthalpy
c) A decrease in entropy
d) A decrease in enthalpy

A

d) A decrease in enthalpy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q
  1. Those substance that are particularly variable in the moisture content that they can possess at different times.

a) Wet materials
b) Hygroscopic materials
c) Gross materials
d) Bone-dry-weight material

A

b) Hygroscopic materials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q
  1. The hygroscopic moisture content of a substance expressed as a percentage of the bone-dry-weight of the material.

a) Moisture content
b) Regain
c) Bone-dry-weight
d) Gross weight

A

b) Regain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q
  1. What is the advantage of a pressurized deaerator oven an atmospheric deaerator?

a) A boiler feed tank is no longer required
b) less over all energy will be required to produce the steam
c) It can be fitted at ground level
d) It removes more oxygen.

A

d) It removes more oxygen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q
  1. In proximate analysis, the coal analysis is consisting of moisture content, fixed carbon. ash, and which of the following?

a) Sulfur
b) Hydrogen
c) Nitrogen
d) Volatile matter

A

d) Volatile matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q
  1. How do you call the heating value of the fuel if the water in the products of combustion is in the liquid state?

a) Higher heating value
b) lower heating value
c) Proximate heating value
d) Gravimetric heating value

A

a) Higher heating value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q
  1. What is the rate, in Btu/h or W, at which heat must be added to the conditioned space to maintain a constant temperature and sometimes a specified relative humidity?

a) Space heat gain
b) Space cooling load
c) Space heating load
d) Space heat extraction rate

A

c) Space heating load

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q
  1. Space heat extraction rate Qex, Btu /h (W), is the rate at which heat is actually removed from the conditioned space by the air system. Its sensible heat rate component is equal to the sensible cooling load only when the space air temperature remains constant.

a) Space heat gain
b) Space cooling load
c) Space heating load
d) Space heat extraction rate

A

d) Space heat extraction rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q
  1. It is the rate, in Btu/h or W, of heat transfer at the coil. Its cooling load component is the rate at which heat is removed by the chilled water flowing through the coil or is absorbed by the refrigerant inside the coil. What do you call this?

a) Coil load
b) Heating coil load
c) Refrigerating load
d) Cooling load

A

a) Coil load

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q
  1. It is the rate, in Btu/hr or W, at which heat is added to the conditioned air from the hot water, steam, or electric heating elements inside the coil.

a) Coil load
b) Heating coil load
c) Refrigerating load
d) Cooling load

A

b) Heating coil load

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q
  1. absorbed by the refrigerant at the evaporator. For central hydronic systems, it is the sum of the coil load plus the chilled water piping heat gain, pump power heat gain, and storage tank heat gain. For most water systems in commercial buildings, the water piping and pump power heat gain is only about 5 to 10 percent of the coil load. In an air conditioning system using DX coil(s), it is equal to the DX coil load.

a) Coil load
b) Heating coil load
c) Refrigerating load
d) Cooling load

A

c) Refrigerating load

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q
  1. It is a humidity sensor used to measure relative humidity, dew point, or absolute humidity of ambient or moving air. This device could be mechanical or electronic. How do you call this?

a) Hydrometer
b) Hygrometer
c) Psychrometer
d) Barometer

A

b) Hygrometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q
  1. It is a device designed to control the flow of steam, water, gas, or other fluids. It can be considered a variable orifice positioned by an actuator in response to impulses or signals from the controller. It may be equipped with either a throttling plug, V-port, or rotating ball specially designed to provide a desired flow characteristic. How do you call this device?

a) Automatic Valve
b) Automatic flow meter
c) Thermostat
d) Pyrometer

A

a) Automatic Valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q
  1. Assume that you are checking the water level in a boiler which is on the line in a power plant. Upon opening the gage cocks, you determine that the water level was above the top gage cock. Of the following actions, the best one to take first in this situation would be to:

a) Shut-off the fuel and air supply
b) Surface-blow the boiler
c) Close the steam outlet valve from the boiler
d) Increase the speed of the feed water

A

c) Close the steam outlet valve from the boiler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q
  1. It is a component in a hydro plant that absorbs water hammer during load fluctuations and serves as an auxiliary reservoir during high load demands. What is this component?

a) Spillway
b) Dam
c) Surge tank
d) penstock

A

c) Surge tank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q
  1. It is a bituminous coal that contains plenty of hydrocarbons, forming lumped masses when burned. This coal is ideal for forming carbonaceous gases for reduction of ore. What do you call this coal?

a) Coking or coking coal
b) Free burning coal
c) Peat coal
d) lignite coal

A

a) Coking or coking coal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q
  1. It is the temperature at which the oil vapors will continue to burn when ignited.

a) Fire point
b) Flash point
c) Ignition temperature
d) Creep temperature

A

a) Fire point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q
  1. It is the temperature to which oil has to be heated until sufficient flammable vapor is driven off to flash when brought into momentary contact with a flame. How do you call this temperature?

a) Fire point
b) Flash point
c) Ignition temperature
d) Creep temperature

A

b) Flash point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q
  1. The color of a lubricating oil is obtained by reference to transmitted light; the color by reflected light is referred to as:

a) Bloom
b) Reflection
c) Deflection
d) Residue

A

a) Bloom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q
  1. How do you call the material left after heating an oil under specified conditions at high temperature, and is useful as a quality control tool in the refining of viscous oils, particularly residual oils?

a) Ash
b) Color
c) Carbon residue
d) Coke

A

c) Carbon residue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q
  1. Petroleum oils, when cooled, may become plastic solids, either from wax formation or from the fluid congealing. With some oils, the initial wax crystal formation becomes visible at temperatures slightly above the solidification point. When that temperature is reached at specific test conditions, it is known as the

a) Cloud point
b) Pour point
c) Creep point
d) Flash point

A

a) Cloud point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q
  1. It is the temperature at which cooled oil will just flow under Specifc test conditions; and it indicates the lowest temperature at which a lubricant can readily flow from its container. How do you call this temperature?

a) Cloud point
b) Pour point
c) Creep point
d) Flash point

A

b) Pour point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q
  1. It is a term indicating the measure of acidic components in oils; and was original intent to indicate the degree of refining in new oils, and to follow the development of oxidation in service, with its effects on deposit formation and corrosion. What is this?

a) Neutralization number
b) Total base number
c) Total acid number
d) Neutralization number and total acid number

A

d) Neutralization number and total acid number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q
  1. How do you call a measure of alkaline components in oils, especially those additives used in engine oils to neutralize acids formed during fuel combustion?

a) Neutralization number
b) Total base number
c) Total acid number
d) Neutralization number and total acid number

A

b) Total base number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q
  1. These are materials with low coefficients of friction compared to metals, and they are used to reduce friction and wear in a variety of applications. There are a large number of such materials, and they include graphite, disulfide, molybdenum polytetrafluoroethylene, talc, graphite fluoride, polymers, and certain metal salts. How do you call these materials?

a) Greases
b) liquid lubricants
c) Solid lubricants
d) Powder lubricants

A

c) Solid lubricants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q
  1. These are engine oil additives used to help keep the engine clean by solubilizing and dispersing sludge, soot, and deposit precursors. How do you call these oil additives?

a) Detergents
b) Dispersants
c) Oxidation inhibitors
d) Corrosion inhibitors

A

b) Dispersants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q
  1. How do you call these engine oil additives used to prevent attack on sensitive bearing metals?

a) Detergents
b) Dispersants
c) Oxidation inhibitors.
d) Corrosion inhibitors

A

d) Corrosion inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q
  1. These are engine oil additives used to prevent or reduce deposits and corrosion by neutralizing combustion byproduct acids. What are these additives?

a) Detergents
b) Dispersants
c) Oxidation inhibitors
d) Corrosion inhibitors

A

a) Detergents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q
  1. What is the molecular attraction of layers of an unlike matter?

a) Adhesion
b) Cohesion
c) Advection
d) Convection

A

a) Adhesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q
  1. How do you call these engine oil additives used to prevent attack on iron and steel surfaces by condensed moisture and acidic corrosion products, aggravated by low-temperature stop- and-go operation?

a) Detergents
b) Dispersants
c) Oxidation inhibitors.
d) Rust inhibitors

A

d) Rust inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q
  1. How do you call these engine oil additives used to help enable adequate low-temperature flow, at at high along with sufficient viscosity temperatures?

a) Viscosity-index improvers
b) Pour point dispersants
c) Oxidation inhibitors
d) Rust inhibitors

A

a) Viscosity-index improvers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q
  1. These oil additives are used to minimize wear under boundary lubrication conditions, such as cam and lifter, and cylinder-wall and piston- ring surfaces.

a) Anti-wear additives
b) Pour point dispersants
c) Oxidation inhibitors
d) Rust inhibitors

A

a) Anti-wear additives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q
  1. These are engine oil additives used to allow air to break away easily from the oil.

a) Anti-wear additives
b) Defoamants
c) Oxidation inhibitors
d) Rust inhibitors

A

b) Defoamants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q
  1. These engine oil additives are used to improve fuel efficiency by reducing friction at rubbing surfaces. How do you call these oil additives?

a) Anti-wear additives
b) Friction modifiers
c) Oxidation inhibitors
d) Rust inhibitors

A

b) Friction modifiers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q
  1. How do you call an opening where hot source of energy from the earth is harnessed?

a) Crater
b) Hot water source
c) Fumarole
d) Volcano opening

A

c) Fumarole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q
  1. The speed of sound is also called as:

a) Sound velocity
b) Acoustic velocity
c) Subsonic velocity
d) Critical velocity

A

b) Acoustic velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q
  1. This is the velocity at which a small pressure wave moves through a fluid. How do you call this velocity?

a) Sonic velocity
b) Subsonic velocity
c) Supersonic velocity
d) Hypersonic velocity

A

a) Sonic velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q
  1. What can you say about entropy in the universe?

a) Entropy is always increasing
b) Entropy is decreasing
c) Entropy will zero at the end of time
d) Entropy is stagnating

A

a) Entropy is always increasing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q
  1. Pressure Vessels, it is any boiler which does not exceed any of the following limits: 405 mm inside diameter, 1065 mm overall length of outside-to-outside heats at center, 1.85 m2 of water heating surface, and 7.03 kg/cm2 maximum allowable working pressure. What is this boiler?

a) Power boiler
b) Portable boiler
c) Miniature boiler
d) locomotive boiler

A

c) Miniature boiler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q
  1. It is a closed vessel in which steam or other vapor (to be used externally to itself) is generated by the direct application of heat used for power generation. How do you call this boiler?

a) Power boiler
b) Portable boiler
c) Oil-fired boiler
d) Miniature boiler

A

a) Power boiler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q
  1. It is a closed vessel intended for use in heating water of for application of heat to generate steam or another vapor to be used externally from it. What do you call this pressure vessel?

a) Boiler or steam generator
b) Fired pressure vessel
c) Unfired pressure vessel
d) Pressurized tank

A

a) Boiler or steam generator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q
  1. What do you call a vessel in which pressure is obtained from external sources, or from an indirect application of heat?

a) Boiler or steam generator
b) Fired pressure vessel
c) Unfired pressure vessel
d) Pressurized tank

A

c) Unfired pressure vessel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q
  1. installed, placed in operation but subject to annual inspection. What do you call this?

a) Miniature boiler
b) Existing installation
c) new boiler
d) Portable boiler

A

b) Existing installation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q
  1. It is a boiler that has been inspected and declared unsafe to operate or disqualified, and marked indicating its rejection. How do you call this boiler?

a) Second hand boiler
b) Reinstalled boiler
c) Condemned boiler
d) Unfired boiler

A

c) Condemned boiler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q
  1. Name one characteristic feature of mechanical steam traps.

a) They pass condensate at steam temperature
b) They operate by sensing condensatet emperature
c) They can be fitted into any position
d) They are not affected by increasing back pressure

A

a) They pass condensate at steam temperature

102
Q
  1. In a mechanical steam trap, why is a float trap better at venting air than an inverted bucket trap?

a) A float can quickly adjust to the presence of air
b) A float is fitted with an automatic air vent
c) A float trap does not vent air better than bucket trap
d) The air vent orifice is adjustable on a float trap

A

b) A float is fitted with an automatic air vent

103
Q
  1. A heat exchanger is designed to operate without waterlogging of the steam space. What is the usual choice of trap for its drainage?

a) Thermostatic trap
b) Inverted bucket trap
c) Thermodynamic trap
d) Float trap with thermostatic air vent

A

d) Float trap with thermostatic air vent

104
Q
  1. In a mechanical steam trap, what advantage does a bucket trap have over a float type?

a) It is able to withstand water hammer
b) It can be used on higher pressure
c) It can discharge air freely
d) It cannot lose its water seal

A

b) It can be used on higher pressure

105
Q
  1. In a mechanical steam trap, what added benefit does the automatic air vent offer to a float trap?

a) It stops the trap from freezing in cold weather
b) The trap can be use on larger backpressures
c) It significantly increases the cold start-up capacity of the trap
d) The condensate orifice can be the same size for all pressure gauges

A

c) It significantly increases the cold start-up capacity of the trap

106
Q
  1. Which is the best trap to use when steam locking can occur?

a) An inverted bucket trap with an internal check valve mechanism
b) A balanced pressure steam trap
c) A float trap with automatic air vent
d) A float trap with steam lock release mechanism

A

b) A balanced pressure steam trap

107
Q
  1. What is a common cause of water-hammer in drying coils?

a) Wet steam supplied to the coil
b) Too low a steam pressure onto the coil
c) Condensate has to lift after the steam trap
d) The coil falling in the direction of steam flow

A

c) Condensate has to lift after the steam trap

108
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true?

a) Bimetallic steam traps are an ideal choice for rotating cylinders
b) Rotating cylinders cannot suffer from steam locking
c) Strainers cannot be fitted to float traps which have a steam lock release
d) Air vents around the thermodynamic and inverted bucket traps can considerably improve start-up times

A

d) Air vents around the thermodynamic and inverted bucket traps can considerably improve start-up times

109
Q
  1. Name the principal cause of water-hammer?

a) Water particles suspended in steam
b) Water allowed to build up in pipes
c) Water droplets carried along the insides of pipes
d) Wet steam passing through steam traps

A

b) Water allowed to build up in pipes

110
Q
  1. What do you call a boiler of which both the location and ownership have been change after primary use?

a) Second hand boiler
b) Surplus boiler
c) Miniature boiler
d) Reinstalled boiler

A

a) Second hand boiler

111
Q
  1. What effect does steam locking have on rotating machinery?

a) None at all
b) It reduces the drying rate of drying cylinders
c) It increases the drying rate of drying cylinders
d) It causes the steam trap to air bind

A

b) It reduces the drying rate of drying cylinders

112
Q
  1. It is a boiler removed from its original setting and re-erected at the same location. or erected at a location without change of ownership. How do you call this boiler?

a) Second hand boiler
b) Surplus boiler
c) Miniature boiler
d) Reinstalled boiler

A

d) Reinstalled boiler

113
Q
  1. Each miniature boiler shall be equipped with which of the following for the determination of water level?

a) Safety valve
b) Fusible plug
c) Water gage glass
d) Pressure gages

A

c) Water gage glass

114
Q
  1. The maximum allowable working pressure of a non-code steel or wrought iron heating boiler of welded construction shall not exceed to which of the following pressures?

a) 1 atmosphere
b) 1 Bar
c) 100 kPa
d) 2 gage pressures

A

b) 1 Bar

115
Q
  1. What do you call a refrigeration system in which the refrigerant gas evolved in the evaporator is taken up in an absorber and released in a generator upon the application of heat?

a) Absorption refrigeration system
b) Cascade refrigeration system
c) Flooded refrigeration system
d) Steam jet refrigeration system

A

a) Absorption refrigeration system

116
Q
  1. What do you call a shut-off valve other than a valve for controlling the flow of refrigerant in a refrigeration system?

a) Fusible valve
b) Stop valve
c) Check valve
d) Relief valve

A

b) Stop valve

117
Q
  1. What is a device, used in refrigeration system, having a predetermined temperature fusible member for the relief of pressures?

a) Fusible valve
b) Stop valve
c) Check valve
d) Relief valve

A

a) Fusible valve

118
Q
  1. It is a measure of the lack of potential or quality of energy; and once that energy has been exchanged or converted, it cannot revert back to a higher level. What is this?

a) Specifc heat
b) Entropy
c) Internal energy
d) Molecular energy

A

b) Entropy

119
Q
  1. What do you call the method used to evaluate all welds performed on pressure parts of boiler tube materials?

a) Radiographic test
b) Hydrostatic test
c) Vacuum test
d) Orsat analysis

A

a) Radiographic test

120
Q
  1. What do you call a form of boiler fuel that is easy to burn, with very little excess air?

a) Coal
b) Oil
c) Gas
d) Bunker

A

c) Gas

121
Q
  1. It is a boiler testing method that is used to verify the microstructure of the boiler tubes using optical microscopes. How do you call this method?

a) Tube sampling
b) Metallurgic replication
c) Radiographic testing
d) Optical testing

A

b) Metallurgic replication

122
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding the relation of rk and re for spark-ignition engine, where rk = compression ratio while re = expansion ratio?

a) rk > re
b) rk < re
c) rk = re
d) re is not considered in the spark-ignition engine

A

c) rk = re

123
Q
  1. It is the generic term given to a family of solid fuels with high carbon content. How do you call this?

a) Solid fuel
b) Coal
c) Anthracite
d) Bituminous

A

b) Coal

124
Q
  1. It is a boiler fuel created from the residue produced from crude petroleum after it has been distilled to produce lighter oils like gasoline, paraffin, kerosene, diesel or gas oil. What is this fuel?

a) Oil
b) Kerosene
c) Coke
d) Peat

A

a) Oil

125
Q
  1. The second law of thermodynamics says that whenever energy is exchanged or converted from one form to another, the potential for energy to do work will be

a) Decreased
b) Increased
c) Zero
d) Stagnant

A

a) Decreased

126
Q
  1. What is true about steam as it condenses?

a) It does so at constant entropy and temperature
b) It does so at constant enthalpy and reducing temperature
c) Both enthalpy and entropy reduce and temperature remains constant
d) Both enthalpy and entropy increase

A

c) Both enthalpy and entropy reduce and temperature remains constant

127
Q
  1. It is an increase in fluid pressure in a long pipe caused by a sudden velocity decrease, where the sudden decrease in velocity is caused by a valve closing.

a) Aero dynamics
b) Water hammer
c) Terminal velocity
d) Drag

A

b) Water hammer

128
Q

128.It is an upward force that is exerted on an object (like flat plate, airfoil, rotating cylinder, etc.) as the object passes through a fluid. What do you call this?

a) Drag
b) Lift
c) Aero horsepower
d) Terminal velocity

A

b) Lift

129
Q
  1. What is a frictional force that acts parallel but opposite to the direction of motion of fluid?

a) Drag
b) lift
c) Aero horsepower
d) Terminal velocity

A

a) Drag

130
Q
  1. It is a term used by automobile manufacturers to designate the power required to move a car horizontally at 50 mi/hr against the drag force. What is this?

a) Mechanical horsepower
b) Aero horsepower
c) Fuel power
d) Fluid power

A

b) Aero horsepower

131
Q

131.A manufacturer claims that it has a COP of 2.0 when cooling a food at 5 oC using ambient air at 30 oC as a heat sink. Is the claim of the manufacturer valid?

a) Yes
b) No
c) Probably
d) It needs experimental verification

A

a) Yes

Note: Yes, because the claimed COP of the manufacturer is lower than the COP of Carnot Refrigeration

132
Q
  1. What can you say about the velocity of fluid at the center of the pipe section?

a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) Average
d) Zero

A

a) Maximum

133
Q
  1. Continuity equation is applicable to which of the following?

a) Viscous and unviscous fluids
b) Compressibility fluids
c) Conservation of mass
d) Steady and unsteady flows

A

c) Conservation of mass

134
Q
  1. Hygrometer is an instrument used to determine of which of the following?

a) Specific gravity of fluids
b) Specific gravity of gases
c) Specific gravity of liquids
d) Specific gravity of solids

A

a) Specific gravity of fluids

135
Q
  1. At critical point of a pure substance, what is the value of latent heat?

a) Maximum
b) Minimum
c) Zero
d) Below zero

A

c) Zero

note: Zero, at the critical point hg-hf=0

136
Q
  1. Which of the following is a function of a steam nozzle?

a) Converts kinetic energy into heat energy
b) Changes internal energy into kinetic energy
c) Converts potential energy into heat energy
d) Changes enthalpic energy into kinetic
energy

A

d) Changes enthalpic energy into kinetic
energy

137
Q
  1. Generally, steam turbines in power station operate at which of the following speeds?

a) 3000 rpm
b) 1000 rpm
c) 4000 rpm
d) 500 rpm

A

c) 4000 rpm

138
Q
  1. Tidal power is the power generated from which of the following?

a) Waves of the ocean
b) Thermal energy of ocean water
c) Raw sea water
d) Rise and fall of tides

A

d) Rise and fall of tides

139
Q
  1. Which of the following is an expression or equivalent of? horsepower per ton of refrigeration?

a) COP/ 4.715
b) 4.715/COP
c) COP x 4.715
d) 1/ (4.715 x COP)

A

b) 4.715/COP

140
Q

140.It is the ratio of the amount of heat taken up by a substance to the temperature at which the substance exists. How do you call this?

a) Internal energy
b) Flow energy
c) Enthalpy
d) Entropy

A

d) Entropy

141
Q
  1. Which of the following is a type of water turbine where a jet of water is made to fall on the blades or buckets and due to the impulse of water the turbine starts moving?

a) Reaction turbine
b) Steam turbine
c) Francis turbine
d) Pelton wheel

A

d) Pelton wheel

142
Q
  1. What do you call a fan in which the fluid is accelerated parallel to the fan axis?

a) Axial centrifugal fan
b) Mixed flow centrifugal fan
c) Radial centrifugal fan
d) Francis type fan

A

a) Axial centrifugal fan

143
Q
  1. It represents the loss due to mechanical friction of the moving parts of the engine, and expressed as horsepower. How do you call this?

a) Indicated Hp
b) Brake Hp
c) Combined Hp
d) Friction Hp

A

d) Friction Hp

144
Q
  1. How do you call a device or engine which continually and indefinitely discharged more energy than it receives?

a) Carnot engine
b) Generating machine
c) Stirling engine
d) Perpetual motion machine

A

d) Perpetual motion machine

145
Q
  1. In plotting the bHp versus speed in a wide- open throttle test for a spark ignition engine, the bHp curve:

a) is a Straight line.
b) tends to concave downward
c) has no characteristic shape
d) tends to concave upward

A

b) tends to concave downward

146
Q
  1. Upon entering the boiler room, you find the water out of the glass, the safety valve blowing off strong, and a fire under the boiler. Your first action would be to:

a) Remove the fire with draft and damper open
b) Cool the boiler down completely
c) Prevent priming by not raising the safety valve or making change in operating of engines or boiler
d) Cool the boiler down completely and prevent priming by not raising the safety valve

A

a) Remove the fire with draft and damper open

147
Q
  1. The A.S.M.E. Boiler code for boiler shells requires a tensile strength of which of the following, in psi?

a) 10000 to 20000
b) 25000 to 45000
c) 55000 to 63000
d) 70000 to 85000

A

c) 55000 to 63000

148
Q
  1. The best time to blow a boiler down is:

a) Once a day when the load is lightest
b) Once a day under full load
c) When the chemical concentration is greatest
d) Once a shift

A

c) When the chemical concentration is greatest

149
Q

149.In performing a hydrostatic test on an existing power boiler, the required test pressure must be controlled so that it is not exceeded by more than:

a) 2%
b) 4%
c) 6%
d) 8%

A

a) 2%

150
Q

150.The first step to take in planning a preventive maintenance program is to:

a) Replace all electric wiring
b) Make an equipment inventory
c) Replace all pump seals
d) Repair all equipment which is not in operation

A

b) Make an equipment inventory

151
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most important consideration in a fire prevention program?

a) Train the staff to place flammable in fireproof containers
b) Know how to attack fires regardless of size
c) See that halls, corridors, and exits are not blocked
d) Detect and eliminate every possible fire hazard

A

d) Detect and eliminate every possible fire hazard

152
Q
  1. Which of the following types of portable fire extinguisher is recommended as most effective for putting out oil fires?

a) Pump tank type
b) Cartridge actuated type
c) Soda acid type
d) Foam type

A

d) Foam type

153
Q
  1. Which of the following are the four stages of the warning system designated by the high air pollution alert warning system?

a) Initial, chronic, acute, penetrating
b) Forecast, alert, warning, emergency
c) light, medium, heavy, extra heavy
d) Early, moderate, severe, toxic

A

b) Forecast, alert, warning, emergency

154
Q
  1. The chemical most commonly used to speed sedimentation of sewage is known as:

a) Lime
b) Copper sulfate
c) Sulfuric acid
d) Methylene blue

A

a) Lime

155
Q

155.Most of the bacteria in sewage are:

a) Saprophytic
b) Dangerous
c) Parasitic
d) Pathogenic

A

a) Saprophytic

156
Q
  1. One of the two types of non-material nuclear radiation is:

a) Gamma radiation
b) Transmutation radiation
c) Walton radiation
d) Betatron radiation

A

a) Gamma radiation

157
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a qualification for an applicant for ME board examination?

a) A certified plant mechanic
b) At least 18 years old
c) A holder of BSME degree
d) A citizen of the Philippines

A

a) A certified plant mechanic

158
Q
  1. A thermo hydraulic feed water regulator is used to regulate the flow of water to a drum type boiler. The amount of water input to the boiler is controlled in proportion to the:

a) Boiler load
b) Setting of the feed pump relief valve
c) Amount of water in the outer tube that flashes into steam
d) Water level in the drum

A

d) Water level in the drum

159
Q
  1. The standard capacity rating conditions for any refrigeration compressor is:

a) 50F, 19.6 psig for the suction 860F, 154.5 psig for the discharge
b) 50F, 9.6 psig for the suction 960F, 154.5 psig for the discharge
c) 100F, 9.6 psig for the suction 960F, 144.5 psig for the discharge
d) 50F, 19.6 psig for the suction 960F, 134.5 psig for the discharge

A

a) 50F, 19.6 psig for the suction 860F, 154.5 psig for the discharge

160
Q
  1. In accordance with the air pollution control code, no person shall cause or permit the emission of air contaminants from a boiler with a capacity of 500 million BTU sulfur dioxide content of more than:

a) 300 parts per million by volume undiluted emissions measured at 15 percent excess air
b) 200 parts per million by volume of undiluted emissions measured at 10 percent excess air
c) 200 parts per million by volume undiluted emissions measured at 15 percent excess
air
d) 300 per million by volume undiluted emissions measured at 10 percent excess air

A

b) 200 parts per million by volume of undiluted emissions measured at 10 percent excess air

161
Q
  1. Assume that one of your assistances was near the Freon 11 refrigeration system when a liquid Freon line ruptured. Some of the liquid Freon 11 has gotten into your assistant’s right eye. Of the following actions, the one which you should not take is to:

a) Immediately call for an eye doctor specialist (medical doctor)
b) Gently and quickly rub the Freon 11 out of the eye
c) Uses a boric-acid solution to clean out the Freon 11 from his eye
d) Wash the eye by gently blowing the Freon 11 out of his eye with air

A

b) Gently and quickly rub the Freon 11 out of the eye

162
Q

162.As compared to a power-driven triplex single-acting pump of the same size and operating at the same speed, a steam-driven duplex double-acting pump will:

a) Pump more water per minute
b) Give a more uniform discharge
c) Have a higher first cost
d) Be more economical to operate

A

a) Pump more water per minute

163
Q

163.It is a device commonly used to cool condenser water in Power and Refrigeration plants. The function of which is to reject heat to the atmosphere by reducing the temperature of water circulated through condenser or other heat rejection equipment. What is this device commonly called?

a) Condenser
b) Cooler
c) Cooling tower
d) Evaporator

A

c) Cooling tower

164
Q
  1. It is a type of dryer in which the gases of combustion pass through the spaces surrounding, or in other ways heating, the drying chamber, but the gases are not allowed in contact with the material being dried. What is this dryer?

a) Direct-heat type dryer
b) Indirect-heat type dryer
c) Steam-heated type dryer
d) Rotary Dryer

A

b) Indirect-heat type dryer

165
Q
  1. In a refrigeration system, which of the following would cause a high suction pressure?

a) Expansion valve not open wide enough
b) Expansion valve open too wide
c) King valve not open wide enough
d) Dirty dehydrator

A

b) Expansion valve open too wide

166
Q
  1. In the deep well installing or operation, the difference between static water level and operating water level is called:

a) Suction lift
b) drawdown
c) priming level
d) clogging

A

b) drawdown

167
Q
  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of an impulse turbine?

a) Steam striking blades on angle
b) No steam reaction to velocity
c) Steam striking blades at zero angle
d) Steam reversing direction

A

c) Steam striking blades at zero angle

168
Q
  1. Gas produced by the combustion of fuel oil and cannot be found in the flue gases is:

a) Carbon dioxide
b) Hydrogen
c) Oxygen
d) Nitrogen

A

b) Hydrogen

169
Q
  1. Scale in boiler can:

a) Create low steam quality
b) Cause foaming
c) Overheat blow off line
d) Inhibit circulation and heat transfer

A

d) Inhibit circulation and heat transfer

170
Q
  1. The effectiveness of a body as a thermal radiator at a given temperature:

a) Absorptivity
b) Emissivity
c) Conductivity
d) Reflectivity

A

b) Emissivity

171
Q
  1. To protect adequately the engine bearings, what type and better arrangement of lubricating oil filter is most practical?

a) Full flow type filter installed between the lubricating oil pump and bearings
b) Splash lubricating system in the crank case
c) Duplex filter installed before the lubricating pump
d) Bypass filter with cleanable and replaceable elements

A

a) Full flow type filter installed between the lubricating oil pump and bearings

172
Q
  1. When the expansion or compression of gas takes place without transfer of heat t or from the gas, the process is called:

a) Reversible
b) Adiabatic
c) Polytrophic
d) Isothermal

A

b) Adiabatic

173
Q
  1. Which of the following is other name for the liquid valve?

a) Freon valve
b) shut off valve
c) King valve
d) Master valve

A

c) King valve

174
Q
  1. In accordance with recommended maintenance practice, thermostats used in a pneumatic temperature control system should be checked:

a) Weekly
b) Bi-monthly
c) Monthly
d) Once a year

A

d) Once a year

175
Q
  1. Of the following, the best method used to determine the moisture level in a refrigeration system is to:

a) Weigh the driver after it has been in the system for a period of time
b) Use a moisture indicator
c) Visually check the sight glass for particles of corrosion
d) Test a sampler lubricating oil with phosphorus pentoxide

A

b) Use a moisture indicator

176
Q

176.A full-flow drier is usually recommended to be used in in a hermetic refrigeration compressor system to keep the system dry and to:

a) Prevent the products of decomposition from getting into the evaporator in the event of motor burn-out
b) Condense out liquid refrigerant during compressor off cycles and compressor start-up
c) Prevent the compressor unit form decreasing in capacity
d) Prevent the liquid from dumping into the compressor crank-case

A

a) Prevent the products of decomposition from getting into the evaporator in the event of motor burn-out

177
Q
  1. You are supervising the installation of a steam-driven reciprocating pump. The pump’s air chamber is missing and you have to replace it with one of several salvaged ones. The salvaged air chamber selected should have a volume equal to, most nearly,

a) Half of the position displacement of the pump
b) 11⁄2 times the position displacement of the pump
c) 2 times the piston displacement of the pump
d) 2 1⁄2 times the piston displacement of the pump

A

d) 2 1⁄2 times the piston displacement of the pump

178
Q
  1. Economical partial-load operation of steam turbines is obtained by minimizing throttling losses. This is accomplished by:

a) Reducing the boiler pressure and temperature
b) Throttling the steam flow into the uncontrolled set of nozzles
c) Dividing the first-stage nozzles into several groups and providing a steam control valve for each group
d) Controlling the fuel flow to the steam generator

A

c) Dividing the first-stage nozzles into several groups and providing a steam control valve for each group

179
Q

179.How do you compare superheated steam to that of saturated steam at the same pressure?

a) Contains more heat energy
b) Has a greater enthalpy of evaporation
c) Has a smaller specific volume
d) Condenses at a higher temperature

A

a) Contains more heat energy

180
Q
  1. Which of the following is not characteristic of superheated steam?

a) It contains no water droplets
b) It causes severe erosion in pipes
c) It may cause uneven heating of a product
d) It has a temperature greater than 165C

A

b) It causes severe erosion in pipes

181
Q

181.Superheated steam at a pressure of 6 bar g:

a) Has a larger Specifc heat capacity than water
b) Has a dryness fraction of 0.99
c) Must not be used as a heat transfer medium
d) Has a temperature greater than 165 oC

A

d) Has a temperature greater than 165 oC

182
Q

182.Of the following, the main purpose of a sub- cooler in a refrigerant piping system for a two-stage system is to:

a) Reduce the total power requirements and total heat rejection to the second stage
b) Reduce the total power requirements and return oil to the compressor
c) Improve the flow of evaporator gas per ton and increase the temperature
d) Increase the heat rejection per ton and avoid system shutdown

A

a) Reduce the total power requirements and total heat rejection to the second stage

183
Q

183.In large refrigeration systems, the usual location for charging the refrigeration system is into the:

a) Suction line
b) Liquid line between the receiver shut-off valve and the expansion valve
c) line between the condenser and the compressor
d) line between the high-pressure cut-off switch and the expansion valve

A

b) Liquid line between the receiver shut-off valve and the expansion valve

184
Q

184.The effect of a voltage variation to 90 percent of normal voltage, for a compound wound DC motor, of the full load current is:

a) Increase in the full load current approximately by 10%
b) Zero
c) A decrease in the full load current of approximately 10%
d) A decrease in the full load current 20%

A

a) Increase in the full load current approximately by 10%

185
Q

185.The main advantage of operating a steam engine or steam turbine “condensing” is that it:

a) Increases the mean effective pressure in the prime mover
b) Decrease the condensate temperature
c) Permits the use of exhaust steam to drive auxiliary equipment
d) Eliminates the need for separating non- condensable from the steam

A

a) Increases the mean effective pressure in the prime mover

186
Q

186.The automatic shut off valves for a water gage installed on a high-pressure boiler must be:

a) Horizontal swing-check valves
b) Vertical swing-check valves
c) Ball-check valves
d) Spring-loaded check valves

A

c) Ball-check valves

187
Q

187.The efficiency of a riveted joint is defined as the ratio of the:

a) Plate thickness to the rivet diameter
b) Strength the riveted joint to the strength of a welded joint
c) Strength of the riveted joint to the strength of the solid plate
d) Number of rivets in the first row of the joint to the total number of rivets on one side of the joint

A

c) Strength of the riveted joint to the strength of the solid plate

188
Q

188.It corresponds to a heat absorption rate of 237.6 Btu/min (4.175 kW) with inlet an outlet pressures corresponding to saturation temperature of 23 oF (-5 oC) and 59 oF (15OC), respectively. How do you call this absorption rate?

a) American Unit of refrigeration
b) British Unit of refrigeration
c) European Unit of refrigeration
d) Standard Unit of refrigeration

A

b) British Unit of refrigeration

189
Q
  1. What is the advantage of an internal water level control over an external one?

a) The external control is in a ‘dead’ area
b) It is less likely to scale up
c) It will respond more quickly to changes in water level
d) Daily testing of the level control chamber is not required

A

d) Daily testing of the level control chamber is not required

190
Q
  1. What is the purpose of testing gauge glasses?

a) To ensure the gauge cocks are operative
b) To ensure there is sufficient water over the top fire tube
c) To ensure the boiler water level is being properly sensed
d) To check the boiler 1st and 2nd low water level alarms

A

a) To ensure the gauge cocks are operative

191
Q
  1. What is the effect of an overloaded boiler?

a) Water level rises and lock-out occurs
b) Reduced steam production
c) Water level drops and lock-out occurs
d) Steam velocity reduces and separator efficiency drops

A

c) Water level drops and lock-out occurs

192
Q
  1. Why is slow, controlled warm-up of a steam system essential?

a) To make it easier to open the boiler main stop valve
b) To minimize undue stresses and eliminate damage
c) To permit separators to remove more water
d) To prevent stress on the boiler

A

b) To minimize undue stresses and eliminate damage

193
Q
  1. Which of the following is the main purpose of the steam distribution manifold?

a) It replaces the need for a separator after the boiler
b) to remove air from the steam system
c) To provide an extra separating function
d) It is a requirement of the pressure systems regulations

A

c) To provide an extra separating function

194
Q

194.Priming of a boiler is:

a) Getting a boiler prepared for start-up
b) A reduction in boiler pressure and carryover of water
c) Occurrence of excessive TDS and carryover of water
d) Balancing of boilers in a multi-boiler installation

A

c) Occurrence of excessive TDS and carryover of water

195
Q
  1. What is the advantage of interruptible tariff?

a) Quick and easy to change to heavy fuel oil when required
b) Price of fuel
c) Price of interruptible gas lower than fixed supply
d) Convenience of supply

A

c) Price of interruptible gas lower than fixed supply

196
Q
  1. At what pressure should a boiler safety valve be set?

a) Maximum working pressure
b) Normal working pressure
c) Hydraulic test pressure
d) Feed pump maximum pressure

A

a) Maximum working pressure

197
Q
  1. What is the purpose of a bottom blowdown valve?

a) To control water level
b) To drain the boiler
c) To maintain TDS
d) To remove sludge

A

d) To remove sludge

198
Q

198.How often, as a minimum, should gauge glasses be tested?

a) Once a shift
b) Twice a day
c) Once a day
d) Once a week

A

c) Once a day

199
Q
  1. Why are two-gauge glasses often fitted?

a) One is a check against the other
b) One is a reserve
c) It is a legal requirement
d) To increase periods between maintenance

A

c) It is a legal requirement

200
Q
  1. Temporary hardness salts are reduced by:

a) Raising the water temperature
b) lowering the water temperature
c) Raising the pH value
d) letting the water settle

A

a) Raising the water temperature

201
Q

201.What is the effect of CO2 in a steam system?

a) The formation of scale
b) The formation of sludge
c) Corrosion
d) Acidity

A

c) Corrosion

202
Q
  1. Which of the following forms soft scale or sludge?

a) Magnesium sulphate
b) Sodium carbonate
c) Sodium bicarbonate
d) Calcium bicarbonate

A

d) Calcium bicarbonate

203
Q
  1. Which of the following are principal dissolved solids that are scale forming?

a) Carbonates and sulphates of sodium
b) Calcium bicarbonate
c) Carbonates and sulphates of magnesium
d) Bicarbonate of sodium and magnesium

A

c) Carbonates and sulphates of magnesium

204
Q
  1. What is the effect of temperature on calcium and magnesium sulphates?

a) They separate out as soft scale and sludge
b) They precipitate out solution and form hard scale
c) Foaming and carryover occurs
d) The TDS is increased

A

b) They precipitate out solution and form hard scale

205
Q
  1. What is the treatment for scale forming salts in boiler feedwater?

a) They are chemically treated to modify the pH
b) The feedwater tank is raised to at least 85OC
c) They are chemically treated to produce suspended solids
d) They are removed by filtration means

A

c) They are chemically treated to produce suspended solids

206
Q
  1. Which of the following types of alcohol is the most frequently considered as fuel for internal combustion engine?

a) Methyl alcohol
b) Isopropyl alcohol
c) Ethyl alcohol
d) Alcogas

A

c) Ethyl alcohol

207
Q
  1. In a thermal plant, name the components of a self-acting temperature control system.

a) Control valve and actuator
b) Control valve, actuator and sensor
c) Control valve, actuator, capillary tube and sensor
d) Control valve, actuator and capillary tube

A

c) Control valve, actuator, capillary tube and sensor

208
Q
  1. What is the purpose of over temperature protection within the self-acting control system?

a) To protect the valve from high temperature steam
b) To protect the liquid fall in the capillary from boiling
c) To protect the control system from irreversible damage
d) To protect the application from overtemperature

A

c) To protect the control system from irreversible damage

209
Q
  1. Why are three-port self-acting control valves used in an industrial steam of a thermal system?

a) To mix or divert liquids especially water
b) To dump steam to waste under fault conditions
c) Where cooling applications are required
d) When large valves are required to meet large capacities

A

a) To mix or divert liquids especially water

210
Q

210.How do you call a process in which superheated steam is either restored to its saturated state, or its superheated temperature is reduced?

a) Superheating
b) Reheating
c) Regenerative heating
d) Desuperheating

A

d) Desuperheating

211
Q

211.What does MAWP stand for?

a) Maximum attenuated working pressure
b) Maximum allowable working pressure
c) Maximum allowable with pressure
d) Minimum allowable working pressure

A

b) Maximum allowable working pressure

212
Q

212.Name one disadvantage of a direct acting pressure reducing valve.

a) It only has proportional control
b) It has proportional and integral control but no derivative control
c) It operates in an on/off fashion
d) An external power source is required for it
to operate

A

a) It only has proportional control

213
Q

213.In order to avoid cavitation in a centrifugal pump, which of the following is true?

a) Installation NPSH ≥ pump NPSH
b) Installation NPSH ≤ pump NPSH
c) Installation NPSH < pump NPSH
d) Installation NPSH should be negative

A

a) Installation NPSH ≥ pump NPSH

214
Q

214.It is dust removal equipment that consists of a cylindrical tank structure provided with a tangential opening at one end for gas passage and a spray manifold at the center which is made of a vertical pipe attached with spray nozzles where water is introduced at the bottom of this spray pipe. The gas revolves around the cylindrical body as it enters the scrubber, and comes in contact with the water spray, the dust fly ash is then wetted and hence separated from the gas leaves the scrubber at the top.

a) Cinder trap or catcher
b) Cyclonic Spray Scrubber
c) Cyclone Separator
d) Electrostatic Precipitator

A

b) Cyclonic Spray Scrubber

215
Q
  1. What is a heat exchanger that allows cross contact between two media? This heat exchanger allows the cooling water to flow by gravity over the outside of tubes or plates.

a) Single-pass heat exchanger
b) Double-pass heat exchanger
c) Baudelot heat exchanger
d) Shell-and-tube heat exchanger

A

c) Baudelot heat exchanger

216
Q
  1. What is the recommended weight of the machine foundation?

a) 3 to 5 times the machine weight
b) 4 to 6 times the machine weight
c) 2 to 4 times the machine weight
d) 2 to 4 times the machine weight

A

a) 3 to 5 times the machine weight

217
Q

217.It is a bituminous coal that contains plenty of hydrocarbons, forming lumped masses when burned. This coal is ideal for forming carbonaceous gases for reduction of ore. What do you call this coal?

a) Coking or coking coal
b) Free burning coal
c) Peat coal
d) lignite coal

A

a) Coking or coking coal

218
Q

218.It is an engine in which the connecting rod is directly connected to the piston wristpin. The side thrust caused by the angularity of the connecting rod is taken by the piston bearing against the cylinder wall.

a) Opposed-piston engine
b) Trunk piston engine
c) Crosshead engine
d) 2-stroke engine

A

b) Trunk piston engine

219
Q

219.It is an internal combustion engine wherein the ignition of the fuel is not accomplished solely by the heat developed from the compression of the combustion air supplied but partly or entirely by other heat sources, such as an uncooled tube, plate, bulb or an electric resistance coil.

a) Spark-ignition engine
b) Compression-ignition engine
c) Surface-ignition engine
d) Dual combustion engine

A

c) Surface-ignition engine

220
Q

220.This is the condition in a geothermal plant wherein the ground surface where the drilled well is depressed or subsides due to depleting. What do you call this?

a) Ground subsidence
b) Thermal pollution
c) Chemical pollution
d) Dissolved solids

A

a) Ground subsidence

221
Q

221.In the critical thickness of insulator concept for a cylinder, what does the Biot number indicate if its value is less than 1?

a) Condition for optimum heat flow
b) Addition of insulation will increase heat transfer rate
c) Additional insulation will decrease the heat transfer rate
d)Heat transfer rate reaches a maximum

A

b) Addition of insulation will increase heat transfer rate

222
Q

222.How do you call the ratio of the product of a convective heat transfer coefficient and the critical radius of the insulator to that of the thermal conductivity of the insulator?

a) Biot number
b) Prandtl number
c) Nusselt number
d) Reynolds number

A

a) Biot number

223
Q

223.This is a type of dryer that consists of a vertical shaft in which the wet feed is introduced at the top and falls downward over baffles while coming in contact with the hot air that rises and exhaust at the top. This dryer is used for drying palay, wheat, and grains.

a) Rotary dryer
b) Hearth dryer
c) Tower dryer
d) Tray dryer

A

c) Tower dryer

224
Q

224.How do you call those substances that are particularly variable in the moisture content that they can possess at different times?

a) Wet materials
b) Hygroscopic materials
c) Gross materials
d) Bone-dry-weight material

A

b) Hygroscopic materials

225
Q
  1. The bottom blows down on a boiler is used to:

a) Remove mud drum water impurities
b) Increase boiler priming
c) Reduce steam pressure in the header
d) Increase the boiler water level

A

a) Remove mud drum water impurities

226
Q

226.In a Brayton cycle or gas turbine cycle, what do you call the heat exchanger that passes exhaust heat to the compressed air, prior to combustion?

a) Reheater
b) Recuperator
c) Heater
d) Heat exchanger

A

b) Recuperator

227
Q

227.The heat rejected by the working substance to the regenerator in the Stirling cycle is:

a) Equal to the heat absorbed by the working substance from the regenerator
b) Not equal to the heat absorbed by the working substance from the regenerator
c) Dependent on the value of temperature in the heat addition process
d) Measured during the constant temperature heat rejection process

A

a) Equal to the heat absorbed by the working substance from the regenerator

228
Q

228.How do you call a device that converts liquid refrigerant to vapor, with the held of the surrounding heat?

a) Condenser
b) Expansion valve
c) Compressor
d) Evaporator

A

d) Evaporator

229
Q

229.In gas compressor, when the volumetric efficiency increases, the piston displacement has:

a) Not been changed
b) Been decreased
c) Been increased
d) Been insufficient data

A

b) Been decreased

230
Q
  1. The ratio of its radiating power to that of a black body at same temperature.

a) Transmissivity
b) Reflectivity
c) Absorptivity
d) Emissivity

A

d) Emissivity

231
Q

231.Fans used to withdraw air under suction, that is, the resistance to gas flow is imposed primarily upon the inlet.

a) Blowers
b) Exhauster
c) industrial fans
d) Domestic fans

A

b) Exhauster

232
Q

232.The phenomenon of rising water in the tube of small diameter is called what?

a) Surface tension
b) Capillary rise
c) Water gage rise
d) Fluid column rise

A

b) Capillary rise

233
Q

233.Pitot tube is used to measure.

a) Height
b) Velocity
c) Viscosity
d) Density

A

b) Velocity

234
Q
  1. During engine operation, to vary the air quantity and also to vary the air fuel mixture, this is used to pen and closed the inlet manifold.

a) Throttle valve
b) Check valve
c) Choke valve
d) Gate valve

A

a) Throttle valve

235
Q
  1. It deals only with the motion of bodies without reference to the forces that cause them.

a) Kinetics
b) Motion
c) Kinematics
d) Acceleration

A

c) Kinematics

236
Q
  1. Progressive change in position of a body is called:

a) Acceleration
b) Motion
c) Force
d) Momentum

A

b) Motion

237
Q
  1. Cam in general maybe divided into two classes; uniform motion and ________ motion cam.

a) Reverse
b) gravity
c) decelerated
d) accelerated

A

d) accelerated

238
Q
  1. Product of mass and linear velocity is known as:

a) Impulse
b) Linear momentum
c) Angular momentum
d) Impact

A

b) Linear momentum

239
Q
  1. It is the motion of an object diminished/decreased speed.

a) Deceleration
b) Retarded motion
c) Negative impulse
d) All of these

A

b) Retarded motion

240
Q
  1. It is a property of matter, which causes it to resist any change in its motion or state of rest.

a) Brake
b) Friction
c) Inertia
d) Impulse

A

c) Inertia

241
Q
  1. If the velocity of mass is the same all the time during which motion takes place is called:

a) Deceleration
b) Uniform motion
c) Acceleration
d) None of these

A

b) Uniform motion

242
Q
  1. Statement that a given body is in static equilibrium means that the body cannot

a) have any type of motion
b) be acted upon by more than one force
c) undergo any displacement
d) have any type of acceleration

A

a) have any type of motion

243
Q
  1. It is a science of motion that can be solved in terms of scalar or vector algebra.

a) Kinematics
b) Curvilinear translation
c) Projectile
d) Acceleration

A

a) Kinematics

244
Q
  1. An object thrown upward will return to earth the magnitude of the terminal velocity equal to

a) zero
b) one-half the initial velocity
c) twice the initial velocity
d) initial velocity

A

d) initial velocity

245
Q
  1. The follower reciprocates or oscillates in a plane perpendicular to the axis of rotation of the cam.

a) Radial cam
b) Cylindrical cam
c) Cam curves
d) Tangential cam

A

a) Radial cam

246
Q
  1. The follower reciprocates or oscillates in a plane parallel to the axis of rotation.

a) cam curves
b) cylindrical cam
c) tangential cam
d) Radial cam

A

b) cylindrical cam

247
Q
  1. A cone formed by elements, which are perpendicular to the elements of the pitch cone at the large end.

a) cone distance
b) back cone
c) root cone
d) cone center

A

b) back cone

248
Q
  1. The ability of moving body to perform work is called:

a) Internal energy
b) potential energy
c) kinetic energy
d) flow work

A

c) kinetic energy

249
Q
  1. A slider crank chain is made up of

a) one turning and one sliding pair
b) one turning and two sliding pairs
c) two turning and one sliding pair
d) three turning and one sliding pair

A

d) three turning and one sliding pair

250
Q
  1. A Scott-Russell mechanism is made

a) rotating pair only
b) sliding and turning pairs
c) turning and rotary pairs
d) turning pair only

A

b) sliding and turning pairs

elements updated (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions