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1-125 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Two kilogram of gas is confined in a 1m^3 tank 200kpa and 88degC. What type of gas is in the tank?

a). Helium
b). Ethane
c). Methane
d). Ethane

A

b). Ethane

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2
Q
  1. In Refrigeration, how do you call a heat exchanger in which low-pressure refrigerant boils or vaporizes, thus absorbing heat that was removed from the refrigerated area by the cooling medium (water)?

a) Evaporator
b) Chiller
c) Cooler
d) Flooded Evaporator

A

b) Chiller

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3
Q
  1. It is a type of refrigeration system where only part of the circulated refrigerant is evaporated, with the remainder being separated from the vapor and then recirculated. How do you call this system?

a) Absorption refrigeration system
b) Vacuum refrigeration system
c) Vapor-compression refrigeration system
d) Flooded refrigeration system

A

d) Flooded refrigeration system

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4
Q
  1. How do you call the mixtures or substances that are used in laboratory methods of producing a drop in temperature? The most common example is the mixture of ice and salt.

a) Calorific mixture
b) Water-ammonia mixture
c) Frigorific mixture
d) Hygroscopic mixture

A

c) Frigorific mixture

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following is a scale of temperature in which the melting point of ice is taken as 0 o and the boiling point of water is 800?

a) Reaumur Scale
b) Carrene Scale
c) Genetron Scale
d) Frigorie Scale

A

a) Reaumur Scale

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6
Q
  1. What is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of one pound of water one degree Fahrenheit? It is 1/180 of the heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water from 32 to 212 oF at constant atmospheric pressure of 14,696 psi absolute.

a) Specifc heat
b) British thermal unit
c) Calorie
d) Sensible heat

A

b) British thermal unit

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7
Q
  1. It the maximum temperature of any gas or vapor at which it may be condensed into a liquid; above this temperature, it is impossible to condense regardless of the pressure applied.

a) Saturation temperature
b) Superheated temperature
c) Critical temperature
d) Dew point temperature

A

c) Critical temperature

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8
Q
  1. Any refrigerant that exists as a liquid under normal atmospheric pressure and temperature must be vaporized in an evaporator under a pressure below atmospheric. This is sometimes referred to as:

a) Halogenated refrigerant
b) Freon refrigerant
c) Vacuum refrigerant
d) Halocarbon refrigerant

A

c) Vacuum refrigerant

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9
Q
  1. It is any one of a group of refrigerants that have been developed since about 1925 to overcome the irritating or toxic effects of refrigerants, such as ammonia and sulfur dioxide and the high condensing pressures required with carbon dioxide. How do you call these refrigerants?

a) Halogenated refrigerants
b) Freon refrigerants
c) Vacuum refrigerants
d) Halocarbon refrigerants

A

a) Halogenated refrigerants

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10
Q
  1. This refrigeration system component combines the functions of a cooling tower and a condenser. It consists of a casing enclosing a fan or blower section, water eliminators, refrigerant condensing coil, water pan, float valve, and spray pump outside the casing. How do you call this component?

a) Water-cooled condenser
b) Evaporative condenser
c) Atmospheric condenser
d) Chiller

A

b) Evaporative condenser

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11
Q
  1. It refers to a factor used in calculating the over- all heat transfer through the tube walls of a condenser tube or other heating surface. It includes the sum of the heat transfer rate of the layer of dirt and foreign material that builds up on the water side of the tube. What is this factor?

a) Cooling factor
b) Contact factor
c) By-pass factor
d) Fouling factor

A

d) Fouling factor

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12
Q
  1. It is a refrigeration system evaporator which is arranged with a with a tank or tank or a single drum (accumulator) located above the coil so that the inside of the evaporator is full of refrigerant. How do you call this type of evaporator?

a) Flooded evaporator
b) Dry evaporator
c) Cooing coil evaporator
d) Headered coil evaporator

A

a) Flooded evaporator

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13
Q
  1. What is the standardized term used by the industry to describe any device that meters or regulates the flow of liquid refrigerant to an evaporator?

a) Refrigerant control
b) Expansion valve
c) Throttling valve
d) Capillary tube

A

b) Expansion valve

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14
Q
  1. Define a “control valve”.

a) The value set on the scale of the control system in order to obtain the required condition
b) The quantity or condition of the controlled medium
c) The flow or pressure of the steam (or fluid) being manipulated
d) The valve of the controlled condition actually maintained under steady state conditions

A

d) The valve of the controlled condition actually maintained under steady state conditions

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15
Q
  1. A pneumatic temperature control is used on the steam supply to a non-storage heat exchanger that heats water serving an office heating system. What is referred to as manipulated variable”?

a) The water being heated
b) The air signal from the controller to the valve actuator
c) The steam supplies
d) The temperature of the air being heated

A

b) The air signal from the controller to the valve actuator

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16
Q
  1. How do you classify a solenoid valve?

a) A thermal valve
b) A magnetic stop valves
c) A bellows valves
d) A bi-metallic valve

A

a) A thermal valve

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17
Q
  1. What is a thermostat?

a) A temperature-operated switch
b) A pressure-operated switch
c) A superheat-operated switch
d) A back pressure-operated switch

A

d) A back pressure-operated switch

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following is the one of the main purposes of refractory in a boiler furnace?

a) Help preheat the air for the furnace
b) Help preheat the feed water
c) Protect economizer from excessive heat
d) Prevent excessive furnace heat losses

A

c) Protect economizer from excessive heat

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19
Q
  1. Balance pressure traps are what type of steam trap?

a) Thermodynamic
b) Mechanical
c) Thermostatic
d) They do not belong to any specific type of trap family

A

b) Mechanical

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20
Q
  1. What is a characteristic feature of thermodynamic steam traps?

a) They pass condensate at steam temperature
b) They operate by holding back condensate until it has cooled
c) They cannot be fitted outside
d) They can only be fitted on low pressure steam systems

A

b) They operate by holding back condensate until it has cooled

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21
Q
  1. What are the main considerations for steam trap selection?

a) Price
b) Air venting, plant performance, flow capacity and reliability
c) Connections
d) The trap must be the same size as the condensate drain line

A

b) Air venting, plant performance, flow capacity and reliability

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22
Q
  1. Can temperature-controlled applications be trapped?

a) Traps should not be fitted under any circumstances
b) Only if there is no lift after the trap
c) If the pressure on the trap is always higher than backpressure
d.) Pumps should always be fitted to remove condensate

A

c) If the pressure on the trap is always higher than backpressure

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23
Q
  1. What are the main considerations for steam trap selection?

a) Price
b) Air venting, plant performance, flow capacity and reliability
c) Connections
d) The trap must be the same size as the condensate drain line

A

b) Air venting, plant performance, flow capacity and reliability

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24
Q
  1. Can temperature-controlled applications be trapped?

a) Traps should not be fitted under any circumstances
b) Only if there is no lift after the trap
c) If the pressure on the trap is always higher than backpressure
d) Pumps should always be fitted to remove condensate

A

c) If the pressure on the trap is always higher than backpressure

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25
Q
  1. Unless they are designed to flood, what is the important when removing condensate from heat exchangers?

a) Condensate is allowed to sub-cool before reaching the trap
b) Condensate is removed at steam temperature
c) Condensate should back-up into the steam pipe
d) That the trap is fatted level with or above the heater outlet

A

b) Condensate is removed at steam temperature

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26
Q
  1. How is flash steam produced?

a) From condensate passing from high to low pressure systems
b) From saturated steam
c) From superheated steam
d) From steam mixed with high temperature air

A

a) From condensate passing from high to low pressure systems

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27
Q
  1. Are steam traps required to pass air?

a) Steam traps should not pass air under any circumstances
b) Only when the trap has passed all the condensate
c) Air should be removed as soon as it reaches the trap
d) Only on high pressure steam system

A

c) Air should be removed as soon as it reaches the trap

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28
Q
  1. How do you call a system employing open sprinklers attached to a piping system connected to a water supply through which is opened by the operation of a fire detection system installed in the same areas as the sprinklers?

a) Mechanical sprinkler
b) Automatic system
c) Wet pipe system
d) Deluge system

A

d) Deluge system

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29
Q
  1. What is probably the first consideration when selecting a control system?

a) What degree of accuracy is required?
b) Is the control for heating or cooling?
c) Is a two or three port valve required?
d) In the event of power failure, must the valve fail-open or fail-closed?

A

d) In the event of power failure, must the valve fail-open or fail-closed?

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30
Q
  1. When adding the refrigerant in a refrigeration system, it shall be charge into which of the following parts of the system?

a) High pressure side
b) Low pressure side
c) low- and high-pressure side
d) Compressor discharge line

A

b) Low pressure side

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31
Q
  1. Why is a boiler feed tank heated to approximately 85degC?

a) To reduce the energy required to raise steam
b) To reduce the content of total dissolved solids in the water supplied to the boiler
c) To reduce the gas content of the water
d) To reduce the content of suspended solids in the water

A

c) To reduce the gas content of the water

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32
Q
  1. What is used to dry air?

a) A separator
b) A strainer
c) A steam traps
d) A tee pieces

A

a) A separator

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33
Q
  1. What causes water hammer in the boiler?

a) Suspended water droplets
b) An air/water mixture
c) Strainers fitted on their sides
d) Slugs of water in the steam

A

d) Slugs of water in the steam

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34
Q
  1. How does air enter a steam system?

a) Through joints, on shut down of the steam system
b) With make-up water to the boiler feed tank
c) With condensate entering the boiler feed tank
d) All items a, b, & c

A

d) All items a, b, & c

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35
Q
  1. Why should strainers installed on steam lines be fitted on their sides?

a) To prevent the build-up of water in the strainer body
b) To trap more dirt
c) To reduce the frequency of cleaning
d) To provide maximum screening area for the steam

A

a) To prevent the build-up of water in the strainer body

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36
Q
  1. What is the result of using a heat exchanger rating to calculate its steam consumption?

a) The true connected heat load may be different from the rated figure.
b) The rating does not take account of the temperature of the secondary medium
c) The rating is based on a steam pressure of 1.0 bar
d) The rating does not allow for condensate forming in the heat exchanger

A

a) The true connected heat load may be different from the rated figure.

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37
Q
  1. A heat exchanger has a design rating based on a working pressure of 7 bar g. What would be the effect of supplying the exchanger with steam at 3 bar g?

a) The heat output would be greater because the enthalpy of evaporation at 3 bar g is higher than at 7 bar g.
b) The heat output would be greater because steam at 3bar g has a greater volume than steam at 7 bar g.
c) less weight of steam would be required because steam at 3 bar g has a higher enthalpy of evaporation than 7 bar g.
d) The output would be reduced because the difference in temperature between the steam and product is reduced.

A

d) The output would be reduced because the difference in temperature between the steam and product is reduced.

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38
Q
  1. For any particular tank temperature how does the heat loss from the lid of a closed tank compare with that of bottom?

a) They are approximately double those from the bottom
b) Losses from the top are approximately double those from the bottom
c) losses from the bottom are approximately double those from the top
d) losses from the top are approximately 4 times those from the bottom

A

b) Losses from the top are approximately double those from the bottom

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39
Q
  1. What is the disadvantage of heating a tank by direct steam injection?

a) It agitates the solution
b) Some of the enthalpy of water is used
c) Steam traps are not required
d) It dilutes the tank content

A

d) It dilutes the tank content

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40
Q
  1. you are assigned as Engineer, must be replaced. Which of the following types most likely to be installed?

a) Screw chiller
b) Scroll Chiller
c) Reciprocating chiller
d) Centrifugal chiller

A

d) Centrifugal chiller

Note: Centrifugal chillers are generally selected for their high coefficient of performance, good part-load performance, and cooling capacity. The economics of large-scale applications (such as hospital) generally favor more efficient machines such centrifugal chillers. In this case, a centrifugal chiller is also the only one of the types listed that can provide the needed capacity.

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41
Q
  1. Refrigeration condensers are rated based upon their ability to reject the total heat that comes from which of the following?

a) Compressor work and net refrigeration effect
b) Superheating
c) Subcooling
d) Compressor work

A

a) Compressor work and net refrigeration effect

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42
Q
  1. A published ‘U’ value from a steam coil to a water-based solution is given as 550 1300 W/m^2-degC. When would be figure near the lower end of the range be used?

a) When the steam is known to be of good quality
b) For short coils
c) For small diameter coils
d) When scaling or fouling of the coil takes place

A

d) When scaling or fouling of the coil takes place

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43
Q
  1. Steam coils should enter and leave the top of a tank when:

a) The tank contains a corrosive solution
b) When agitation of the tank solution is required
c) When steam locking the trap draining a base coil could occur
d) When good heat distribution is required

A

a) The tank contains a corrosive solution

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44
Q
  1. A tank is to be heated by direct steam injection. How will the quantity of heat required compare with steam coil heating?

a) It depends on the temperature of the water being heated
b) More heat will be required
c) The same amount of heat will be required
d) less heat will be required

A

c) The same amount of heat will be required

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45
Q
  1. Which of the following parameters has the greatest? limiting effect on the thermal performance of an open, evaporative cooling tower?

a) Wet-Bulb temperature
b) Dry-Bulb temperature
c)Range
d) Approach

A

a) Wet-Bulb temperature

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46
Q
  1. It is a space, or several rooms, or units of space having some sort of coincident loads or similar operating characteristics. It may or may not be an enclosed space, or it may consist of many partitioned rooms. How do you call this?

a) Zone
b) Room
c) Space
d) Plenum

A

a) Zone

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47
Q
  1. In air conditioning, it indicates either a volume or a site without a partition or a partitioned room or group of rooms. How do you call this?

a) Zone
b) Room
c) Space
d) Plenum

A

c) Space

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48
Q
  1. It is an enclosed or partitioned space that is usually treated as a single load. If conditioned, it often has an individual control system. What is this?

a) Zone
b) Room
c) Space
d) Plenum

A

b) Room

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49
Q
  1. It represents the rate, in Btu/hr or W, at which heat enters a conditioned space from an external source or is released to the space from an internal source during a given time interval.

a) Space heat gain
b) Space cooling load
c) Space heating load
d) Space heat extraction rate

A

a) Space heat gain

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50
Q
  1. It is the rate, in Btu/hr or W, at which heat must be removed from a conditioned space so as to maintain a constant temperature and acceptable relative humidity. Its sensible load component is equal to the sum of the convective heat transfer from the surfaces of the building envelope, furnishings, occupants, appliances, and equipment. How do you call this?

a) Space heat gain
b) Space cooling load
c) Space heating load
d) Space heat extraction rate

A

b) Space cooling load

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51
Q
  1. An Engineer claims to have created a heat engine that produces 15 kW of power for a 20 kW input while operating between energy reservoirs at 37degC and 400degC. Is the Engineer’s claim valid?

a) Valid
b) Not valid
c) Probably
d) May be valid

A

b) Not valid

52
Q
  1. A process that the body uses to convert energy in food into heat and work, or it is the process that determines the rate at which energy is converted from chemical to thermal form within the body.

a) Metabolism
b) Eating
c) Body food processing
d) Blood circulation

A

a) Metabolism

53
Q
  1. What is a body insulation that is usually described as a single equivalent uniform layer over the whole body?

a) Skin
b) Blood
c) Clothing
d) Water

A

c) Clothing

54
Q
  1. What is the insulating value of clothing?

a) Btu unit
b) Clo units
c) Calorie unit
d) Frigorie Unit

A

b) Clo units

55
Q
  1. What is the basic index used to describe the radiant conditions in a space, it is the mean temperature of an individual; exposed surfaces in the environment?

a) Index temperature
b) Mean radiant temperature
c) Space temperature
d) Dry bulb temperature

A

b) Mean radiant temperature

56
Q
  1. In order to avoid cavitation in a centrifugal pump, which of the following is true?

a) Installation NPSH is greater than or equal pump NPSH
b) Installation NPSH less than or equal pump NPSH
c) Installation NPSH < pump NPSH
d) Installation NPSH should be negative

A

a) Installation NPSH is greater than or equal pump NPSH

57
Q
  1. What always accompanies an isentropic expansion of steam?

a) An increase in entropy
b) An increase in enthalpy
c) A decrease in entropy
d) A decrease in enthalpy

A

d) A decrease in enthalpy

58
Q
  1. Those substance that are particularly variable in the moisture content that they can possess at different times.

a) Wet materials
b) Hygroscopic materials
c) Gross materials
d) Bone-dry-weight material

A

b) Hygroscopic materials

59
Q
  1. The hygroscopic moisture content of a substance expressed as a percentage of the bone-dry-weight of the material.

a) Moisture content
b) Regain
c) Bone-dry-weight
d) Gross weight

A

b) Regain

60
Q
  1. What is the advantage of a pressurized deaerator oven an atmospheric deaerator?

a) A boiler feed tank is no longer required
b) less over all energy will be required to produce the steam
c) It can be fitted at ground level
d) It removes more oxygen.

A

d) It removes more oxygen.

61
Q
  1. In proximate analysis, the coal analysis is consisting of moisture content, fixed carbon. ash, and which of the following?

a) Sulfur
b) Hydrogen
c) Nitrogen
d) Volatile matter

A

d) Volatile matter

62
Q
  1. How do you call the heating value of the fuel if the water in the products of combustion is in the liquid state?

a) Higher heating value
b) lower heating value
c) Proximate heating value
d) Gravimetric heating value

A

a) Higher heating value

63
Q
  1. What is the rate, in Btu/h or W, at which heat must be added to the conditioned space to maintain a constant temperature and sometimes a specified relative humidity?

a) Space heat gain
b) Space cooling load
c) Space heating load
d) Space heat extraction rate

A

c) Space heating load

64
Q
  1. Space heat extraction rate Qex, Btu /h (W), is the rate at which heat is actually removed from the conditioned space by the air system. Its sensible heat rate component is equal to the sensible cooling load only when the space air temperature remains constant.

a) Space heat gain
b) Space cooling load
c) Space heating load
d) Space heat extraction rate

A

d) Space heat extraction rate

65
Q
  1. It is the rate, in Btu/h or W, of heat transfer at the coil. Its cooling load component is the rate at which heat is removed by the chilled water flowing through the coil or is absorbed by the refrigerant inside the coil. What do you call this?

a) Coil load
b) Heating coil load
c) Refrigerating load
d) Cooling load

A

a) Coil load

66
Q
  1. It is the rate, in Btu/hr or W, at which heat is added to the conditioned air from the hot water, steam, or electric heating elements inside the coil.

a) Coil load
b) Heating coil load
c) Refrigerating load
d) Cooling load

A

b) Heating coil load

67
Q
  1. absorbed by the refrigerant at the evaporator. For central hydronic systems, it is the sum of the coil load plus the chilled water piping heat gain, pump power heat gain, and storage tank heat gain. For most water systems in commercial buildings, the water piping and pump power heat gain is only about 5 to 10 percent of the coil load. In an air conditioning system using DX coil(s), it is equal to the DX coil load.

a) Coil load
b) Heating coil load
c) Refrigerating load
d) Cooling load

A

c) Refrigerating load

68
Q
  1. It is a humidity sensor used to measure relative humidity, dew point, or absolute humidity of ambient or moving air. This device could be mechanical or electronic. How do you call this?

a) Hydrometer
b) Hygrometer
c) Psychrometer
d) Barometer

A

b) Hygrometer

69
Q
  1. It is a device designed to control the flow of steam, water, gas, or other fluids. It can be considered a variable orifice positioned by an actuator in response to impulses or signals from the controller. It may be equipped with either a throttling plug, V-port, or rotating ball specially designed to provide a desired flow characteristic. How do you call this device?

a) Automatic Valve
b) Automatic flow meter
c) Thermostat
d) Pyrometer

A

a) Automatic Valve

70
Q
  1. Assume that you are checking the water level in a boiler which is on the line in a power plant. Upon opening the gage cocks, you determine that the water level was above the top gage cock. Of the following actions, the best one to take first in this situation would be to:

a) Shut-off the fuel and air supply
b) Surface-blow the boiler
c) Close the steam outlet valve from the boiler
d) Increase the speed of the feed water

A

c) Close the steam outlet valve from the boiler

71
Q
  1. It is a component in a hydro plant that absorbs water hammer during load fluctuations and serves as an auxiliary reservoir during high load demands. What is this component?

a) Spillway
b) Dam
c) Surge tank
d) penstock

A

c) Surge tank

72
Q
  1. It is a bituminous coal that contains plenty of hydrocarbons, forming lumped masses when burned. This coal is ideal for forming carbonaceous gases for reduction of ore. What do you call this coal?

a) Coking or coking coal
b) Free burning coal
c) Peat coal
d) lignite coal

A

a) Coking or coking coal

73
Q
  1. It is the temperature at which the oil vapors will continue to burn when ignited.

a) Fire point
b) Flash point
c) Ignition temperature
d) Creep temperature

A

a) Fire point

74
Q
  1. It is the temperature to which oil has to be heated until sufficient flammable vapor is driven off to flash when brought into momentary contact with a flame. How do you call this temperature?

a) Fire point
b) Flash point
c) Ignition temperature
d) Creep temperature

A

b) Flash point

75
Q
  1. The color of a lubricating oil is obtained by reference to transmitted light; the color by reflected light is referred to as:

a) Bloom
b) Reflection
c) Deflection
d) Residue

A

a) Bloom

76
Q
  1. How do you call the material left after heating an oil under specified conditions at high temperature, and is useful as a quality control tool in the refining of viscous oils, particularly residual oils?

a) Ash
b) Color
c) Carbon residue
d) Coke

A

c) Carbon residue

77
Q
  1. Petroleum oils, when cooled, may become plastic solids, either from wax formation or from the fluid congealing. With some oils, the initial wax crystal formation becomes visible at temperatures slightly above the solidification point. When that temperature is reached at specific test conditions, it is known as the

a) Cloud point
b) Pour point
c) Creep point
d) Flash point

A

a) Cloud point

78
Q
  1. It is the temperature at which cooled oil will just flow under Specifc test conditions; and it indicates the lowest temperature at which a lubricant can readily flow from its container. How do you call this temperature?

a) Cloud point
b) Pour point
c) Creep point
d) Flash point

A

b) Pour point

79
Q
  1. It is a term indicating the measure of acidic components in oils; and was original intent to indicate the degree of refining in new oils, and to follow the development of oxidation in service, with its effects on deposit formation and corrosion. What is this?

a) Neutralization number
b) Total base number
c) Total acid number
d) Neutralization number and total acid number

A

d) Neutralization number and total acid number

80
Q
  1. How do you call a measure of alkaline components in oils, especially those additives used in engine oils to neutralize acids formed during fuel combustion?

a) Neutralization number
b) Total base number
c) Total acid number
d) Neutralization number and total acid number

A

b) Total base number

81
Q
  1. These are materials with low coefficients of friction compared to metals, and they are used to reduce friction and wear in a variety of applications. There are a large number of such materials, and they include graphite, disulfide, molybdenum polytetrafluoroethylene, talc, graphite fluoride, polymers, and certain metal salts. How do you call these materials?

a) Greases
b) liquid lubricants
c) Solid lubricants
d) Powder lubricants

A

c) Solid lubricants

82
Q
  1. These are engine oil additives used to help keep the engine clean by solubilizing and dispersing sludge, soot, and deposit precursors. How do you call these oil additives?

a) Detergents
b) Dispersants
c) Oxidation inhibitors
d) Corrosion inhibitors

A

b) Dispersants

83
Q
  1. How do you call these engine oil additives used to prevent attack on sensitive bearing metals?

a) Detergents
b) Dispersants
c) Oxidation inhibitors.
d) Corrosion inhibitors

A

d) Corrosion inhibitors

84
Q
  1. These are engine oil additives used to prevent or reduce deposits and corrosion by neutralizing combustion byproduct acids. What are these additives?

a) Detergents
b) Dispersants
c) Oxidation inhibitors
d) Corrosion inhibitors

A

a) Detergents

85
Q
  1. What is the molecular attraction of layers of an unlike matter?

a) Adhesion
b) Cohesion
c) Advection
d) Convection

A

a) Adhesion

86
Q
  1. How do you call these engine oil additives used to prevent attack on iron and steel surfaces by condensed moisture and acidic corrosion products, aggravated by low-temperature stop- and-go operation?

a) Detergents
b) Dispersants
c) Oxidation inhibitors.
d) Rust inhibitors

A

d) Rust inhibitors

87
Q
  1. How do you call these engine oil additives used to help enable adequate low-temperature flow, at at high along with sufficient viscosity temperatures?

a) Viscosity-index improvers
b) Pour point dispersants
c) Oxidation inhibitors
d) Rust inhibitors

A

a) Viscosity-index improvers

88
Q
  1. These oil additives are used to minimize wear under boundary lubrication conditions, such as cam and lifter, and cylinder-wall and piston- ring surfaces.

a) Anti-wear additives
b) Pour point dispersants
c) Oxidation inhibitors
d) Rust inhibitors

A

a) Anti-wear additives

89
Q
  1. These are engine oil additives used to allow air to break away easily from the oil.

a) Anti-wear additives
b) Defoamants
c) Oxidation inhibitors
d) Rust inhibitors

A

b) Defoamants

90
Q
  1. These engine oil additives are used to improve fuel efficiency by reducing friction at rubbing surfaces. How do you call these oil additives?

a) Anti-wear additives
b) Friction modifiers
c) Oxidation inhibitors
d) Rust inhibitors

A

b) Friction modifiers

91
Q
  1. How do you call an opening where hot source of energy from the earth is harnessed?

a) Crater
b) Hot water source
c) Fumarole
d) Volcano opening

A

c) Fumarole

92
Q
  1. The speed of sound is also called as:

a) Sound velocity
b) Acoustic velocity
c) Subsonic velocity
d) Critical velocity

A

b) Acoustic velocity

93
Q
  1. This is the velocity at which a small pressure wave moves through a fluid. How do you call this velocity?

a) Sonic velocity
b) Subsonic velocity
c) Supersonic velocity
d) Hypersonic velocity

A

a) Sonic velocity

94
Q
  1. What can you say about entropy in the universe?

a) Entropy is always increasing
b) Entropy is decreasing
c) Entropy will zero at the end of time
d) Entropy is stagnating

A

a) Entropy is always increasing

95
Q
  1. Pressure Vessels, it is any boiler which does not exceed any of the following limits: 405 mm inside diameter, 1065 mm overall length of outside-to-outside heats at center, 1.85 m2 of water heating surface, and 7.03 kg/cm2 maximum allowable working pressure. What is this boiler?

a) Power boiler
b) Portable boiler
c) Miniature boiler
d) locomotive boiler

A

c) Miniature boiler

96
Q
  1. It is a closed vessel in which steam or other vapor (to be used externally to itself) is generated by the direct application of heat used for power generation. How do you call this boiler?

a) Power boiler
b) Portable boiler
c) Oil-fired boiler
d) Miniature boiler

A

a) Power boiler

97
Q
  1. It is a closed vessel intended for use in heating water of for application of heat to generate steam or another vapor to be used externally from it. What do you call this pressure vessel?

a) Boiler or steam generator
b) Fired pressure vessel
c) Unfired pressure vessel
d) Pressurized tank

A

a) Boiler or steam generator

98
Q
  1. What do you call a vessel in which pressure is obtained from external sources, or from an indirect application of heat?

a) Boiler or steam generator
b) Fired pressure vessel
c) Unfired pressure vessel
d) Pressurized tank

A

c) Unfired pressure vessel

99
Q
  1. installed, placed in operation but subject to annual inspection. What do you call this?

a) Miniature boiler
b) Existing installation
c) new boiler
d) Portable boiler

A

b) Existing installation

100
Q
  1. It is a boiler that has been inspected and declared unsafe to operate or disqualified, and marked indicating its rejection. How do you call this boiler?

a) Second hand boiler
b) Reinstalled boiler
c) Condemned boiler
d) Unfired boiler

A

c) Condemned boiler

101
Q
  1. Name one characteristic feature of mechanical steam traps.

a) They pass condensate at steam temperature
b) They operate by sensing condensatet emperature
c) They can be fitted into any position
d) They are not affected by increasing back pressure

A

a) They pass condensate at steam temperature

102
Q
  1. In a mechanical steam trap, why is a float trap better at venting air than an inverted bucket trap?

a) A float can quickly adjust to the presence of air
b) A float is fitted with an automatic air vent
c) A float trap does not vent air better than bucket trap
d) The air vent orifice is adjustable on a float trap

A

b) A float is fitted with an automatic air vent

103
Q
  1. A heat exchanger is designed to operate without waterlogging of the steam space. What is the usual choice of trap for its drainage?

a) Thermostatic trap
b) Inverted bucket trap
c) Thermodynamic trap
d) Float trap with thermostatic air vent

A

d) Float trap with thermostatic air vent

104
Q
  1. In a mechanical steam trap, what advantage does a bucket trap have over a float type?

a) It is able to withstand water hammer
b) It can be used on higher pressure
c) It can discharge air freely
d) It cannot lose its water seal

A

b) It can be used on higher pressure

105
Q
  1. In a mechanical steam trap, what added benefit does the automatic air vent offer to a float trap?

a) It stops the trap from freezing in cold weather
b) The trap can be use on larger backpressures
c) It significantly increases the cold start-up capacity of the trap
d) The condensate orifice can be the same size for all pressure gauges

A

c) It significantly increases the cold start-up capacity of the trap

106
Q
  1. Which is the best trap to use when steam locking can occur?

a) An inverted bucket trap with an internal check valve mechanism
b) A balanced pressure steam trap
c) A float trap with automatic air vent
d) A float trap with steam lock release mechanism

A

b) A balanced pressure steam trap

107
Q
  1. What is a common cause of water-hammer in drying coils?

a) Wet steam supplied to the coil
b) Too low a steam pressure onto the coil
c) Condensate has to lift after the steam trap
d) The coil falling in the direction of steam flow

A

c) Condensate has to lift after the steam trap

108
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true?

a) Bimetallic steam traps are an ideal choice for rotating cylinders
b) Rotating cylinders cannot suffer from steam locking
c) Strainers cannot be fitted to float traps which have a steam lock release
d) Air vents around the thermodynamic and inverted bucket traps can considerably improve start-up times

A

d) Air vents around the thermodynamic and inverted bucket traps can considerably improve start-up times

109
Q
  1. Name the principal cause of water-hammer?

a) Water particles suspended in steam
b) Water allowed to build up in pipes
c) Water droplets carried along the insides of pipes
d) Wet steam passing through steam traps

A

b) Water allowed to build up in pipes

110
Q
  1. What do you call a boiler of which both the location and ownership have been change after primary use?

a) Second hand boiler
b) Surplus boiler
c) Miniature boiler
d) Reinstalled boiler

A

a) Second hand boiler

111
Q
  1. What effect does steam locking have on rotating machinery?

a) None at all
b) It reduces the drying rate of drying cylinders
c) It increases the drying rate of drying cylinders
d) It causes the steam trap to air bind

A

b) It reduces the drying rate of drying cylinders

112
Q
  1. It is a boiler removed from its original setting and re-erected at the same location. or erected at a location without change of ownership. How do you call this boiler?

a) Second hand boiler
b) Surplus boiler
c) Miniature boiler
d) Reinstalled boiler

A

d) Reinstalled boiler

113
Q
  1. Each miniature boiler shall be equipped with which of the following for the determination of water level?

a) Safety valve
b) Fusible plug
c) Water gage glass
d) Pressure gages

A

c) Water gage glass

114
Q
  1. The maximum allowable working pressure of a non-code steel or wrought iron heating boiler of welded construction shall not exceed to which of the following pressures?

a) 1 atmosphere
b) 1 Bar
c) 100 kPa
d) 2 gage pressures

A

b) 1 Bar

115
Q
  1. What do you call a refrigeration system in which the refrigerant gas evolved in the evaporator is taken up in an absorber and released in a generator upon the application of heat?

a) Absorption refrigeration system
b) Cascade refrigeration system
c) Flooded refrigeration system
d) Steam jet refrigeration system

A

a) Absorption refrigeration system

116
Q
  1. What do you call a shut-off valve other than a valve for controlling the flow of refrigerant in a refrigeration system?

a) Fusible valve
b) Stop valve
c) Check valve
d) Relief valve

A

b) Stop valve

117
Q
  1. What is a device, used in refrigeration system, having a predetermined temperature fusible member for the relief of pressures?

a) Fusible valve
b) Stop valve
c) Check valve
d) Relief valve

A

a) Fusible valve

118
Q
  1. It is a measure of the lack of potential or quality of energy; and once that energy has been exchanged or converted, it cannot revert back to a higher level. What is this?

a) Specifc heat
b) Entropy
c) Internal energy
d) Molecular energy

A

b) Entropy

119
Q
  1. What do you call the method used to evaluate all welds performed on pressure parts of boiler tube materials?

a) Radiographic test
b) Hydrostatic test
c) Vacuum test
d) Orsat analysis

A

a) Radiographic test

120
Q
  1. What do you call a form of boiler fuel that is easy to burn, with very little excess air?

a) Coal
b) Oil
c) Gas
d) Bunker

A

c) Gas

121
Q
  1. It is a boiler testing method that is used to verify the microstructure of the boiler tubes using optical microscopes. How do you call this method?

a) Tube sampling
b) Metallurgic replication
c) Radiographic testing
d) Optical testing

A

b) Metallurgic replication

122
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding the relation of rk and re for spark-ignition engine, where rk = compression ratio while re = expansion ratio?

a) rk > re
b) rk < re
c) rk = re
d) re is not considered in the spark-ignition engine

A

c) rk = re

123
Q
  1. It is the generic term given to a family of solid fuels with high carbon content. How do you call this?

a) Solid fuel
b) Coal
c) Anthracite
d) Bituminous

A

b) Coal

124
Q
  1. It is a boiler fuel created from the residue produced from crude petroleum after it has been distilled to produce lighter oils like gasoline, paraffin, kerosene, diesel or gas oil. What is this fuel?

a) Oil
b) Kerosene
c) Coke
d) Peat

A

a) Oil

125
Q
  1. The second law of thermodynamics says that whenever energy is exchanged or converted from one form to another, the potential for energy to do work will be

a) Decreased
b) Increased
c) Zero
d) Stagnant

A

a) Decreased

elements updated (4 decks)

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