3.0 Investgations Procedure Flashcards
0
Q
Mopeds, pedicabs, motorcycles, motorcycle frames, engines, or any times with a fuel-operated engine are to me impounded at:__
A
a tow yard
1
Q
The Department’s automated property management system is call:__
A
FileOnQ
2
Q
If a perishable item needs to be examined for evidentiary purposes, contact __ to determine the best impounding procedure.
A
laboratory personnel
3
Q
If perishable items are not needed for examination, they should be discarded and not impounded. Whenever possible, these should be __.
A
photographed and the photograph impounded.
4
Q
During a shoplift case, the store should maintain the evidence. The citizen making the arrest should be instructed to place the date and his/her initials on the evidence and secure it for trial. The citizen should be instructed to call the the appropriate investigator __.
A
the next day
5
Q
Officers will inform store personnel that, __ days after the arrest! it will be their responsibility to telephone the City Attorney’s Office to determine the status of the case.
A
ten
6
Q
If other than a routine shoplifting case, where the facts are such that a crime may constitute a burglary or other felony, the evidence shall __.
A
be impounded in the usual manner
No other items involving the firearm other than associated with it (ammunition, holsters, etc…) shall be placed in the same package with the firearm.
7
Q
If property has been identified as stolen and has evidentiary value in the criminal prosecution of a case, investigators may seize and impound the property from a __ or __.
1.
2.
A
- Pawnbroker
2. Secondhand Dealer
8
Q
No property shall be seized from a Pawnbroker for the purpose of__.
A
returning it to the victim
9
Q
When impounding firearms, do not include GSR kits on the same property tag.
True or False?
A
True
10
Q
Money over the amount of _ must be impounded on a separate property tag.
A
$20
11
Q
All prisoner personal property that can released to the owner must be impounded at __.
A
Headquarters
12
Q
Money impounds over __ must be impounded at Headquarters.
A
$500
13
Q
Jewelry over __ must be impounded at Headquarters.
A
$1,000
14
Q
All loaded firearms that must be left loaded must be impounded at __.
A
The Watch Commander’s Office
15
Q
When the Headquarter’s property room is closed, the following items must be impounded at the Watch Commander’s Office:
1.
2.
3.
A
- All loaded firearms
- Money impounds of $500 or over
- Jewelry deemed to be values over $1,000
16
Q
All firearms that come into the possession of a Department employee in the course of their duty, __ be impounded.
A
must
17
Q
When impounding a firearm, a receipt for weapons shall be attached unless:
1.
2.
3.
A
- The use of the receipt will compromise the investigation
- Circumstances are such that no individual was in possession. Of the firearms(s) or the individual is incapable of signing a receipt
- The firearms(s) are being impounded as a result of a search warrant seizure
18
Q
All firearms will be unloaded prior to impounding unless needed for evidence. Firearms held for prints, and it may be loaded will be labeled as a loaded firearm and impounded at __.
A
The Watch Commander’s Office
19
Q
The __ is responsible for the release and disposition of all impounded firearms.
A
gun desk
20
Q
For money amounts over __, the receipt for weapons/currency must be attached to the impound.
A
$20
21
Q
Amounts of money over __, must be impounded separately.
A
$20
The impounding and witness are required to sign the money envelope.
22
Q
Currency up to __ and jewelry up to __, may be impounded at area stations.
1.
2.
A
- $500
2. $1,000
23
Q
Prisoner bulk property shall be impounded at Headquartrs. The property will be disposed of in __ days.
A
90
24
Officers shall not remove or impound unidentifiable property valued at less than __ found on private property.
$100
25
Officers shall not remove or impound unidentifiable property found on public property that is non-sealable, or valued less than __ per item.
$100
26
Personal property found on public property without a readily identifiable owner is presumed to be abandoned property. If the abandoned property is sanitary, sealable or useable, and of a value greater than __, the property must be impounded as unclaimed property and held for __ days.
1.
2.
1. $100
| 2. 90
27
Officers receiving found property that is identifiable are to check the article through __ and __ property systems prior to impounding the article.
1.
2.
1. Arjis
2. SUN
The purpose of conducting these computer checks is to determine if the articles may have been reported lost or stolen and if they can be related to an owner.
28
Found property will be retained for __ days if the owner cannot be located.
90
29
All locked safes that need to be impounded must be impounded at __.
Headquarters
If the safe is to heavy to move, a locksmith can be called to the scene.
30
Alcoholic beverages not needed for evidentiary reasons should be __ at the scene.
poured out
31
If an alcoholic beverage is not in its original container and needs to be analyzed by the crime lab, a __ sample should be collected.
vial
32
Property seized pursuant to a search warrant is governed by penal code 1535 through 1540. Property seized pursuant to a search warrant cannot be released without a __.
court order
33
Impounded vehicles for evidence must be released within _ working days. This applies to vehicles towed to tow yards.
three
The Lieutenant of the investigating unit must approve exceptions to this rule.
34
All vehicles towed to the Police Vehicle Impound Facility (at Traffic Division) must have the approval of __.
The Watch Commander
35
Vehicles will not be impounded and stored at the substation parking lots without express permission from __.
The Tow Administrator during normal business hours or they Watch Commander after hours
36
The impounding officer will not conduct an inventory of the vehicle being held as evidence. It shall be the responsibility of the assigned investigator to conduct the inventory and document the findings in the investigative follow-up report. The assigned investigator and/or Laboratory personnel will process the impounded vehicle and release it within three working days, unless extenuating circumstances require an extension of the hold. If more time is required, the investigator shall obtain authorization from __. Once the appropriate __, or designee, approves the extension, he/she shall prepare a memo to be sent to the Tow Administrator who maintains oversight and accountability for the impound lots. The Tow Administrator and his/her designee are responsible for tracking all vehicles stored at the Police Vehicle Impound Facility. These include the enclosed facility, as well as impound Lots #1, 2, and 3.
his/her Lieutenant
37
The __ retaines control over the impound lots.
Tow Administartor
38
Investigators shall NOT contact the tow yard to initiate the release of a vehicle on hold. Only the __ and __ have authorization to remove the hold in the tow system or authorize the payment of costs associated with the tow.
1.
2.
1. Tow Administrator
| 2. Watch Commander
39
Officers in the field __ directly mark on evidence.
will not
40
Identifiable initials and date will be placed on the __ or __ that can be attached to the items of evidence.
1.
2.
1. Container
| 2. Wire tags
41
The Juvenile Index is a central record file of all San Diego County juvenile residents taken into custody within this __.
County
42
Officers should take __ and __ of all juveniles taken detained for 602 WI.
1.
2.
1. photographs
| 2. full set up fingerprints
43
Officer must fingerprint juveniles arrested for __. (three sets of cards)
felony crimes
44
The Watch Commander or __ must approve all Juvenile Hall placements.
Field Lieutenant
45
Juvenile Hall cannot accept a juvenile under the age of __ without a judge's approval.
12
46
Juvenile Hall will accept 18 year olds, until their 19th birthday with __.
no bail warrants originating from Juvenile Court
47
```
Officer may not release juveniles in the field if:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
```
1. Under 14 years of age
2. Under the influence of alcohol or drugs
3. Juvenile requires medical attention
4. The crime involves a great deal of sophistication
5. the immediate release of the juvenile would jeopardize the prosecution of the offense(s)
6. There is a reasonable likelihood that the offense(s) would continue or resume, or the release of the juvenile would imminently endanger the safety of persons or property.
48
```
Parent Notification Letter
The juvenile meets the criteria for a PNF when:
1
2.
3.
4.
```
1. A companion of a person interviewed, cited, or arrested for a narcotics violation
2. A companion of a person interviewed, cited or were arrested for an alcohol violation.
3. A companion of the person involved in criminal activity where that person is listed as a suspect, cited, or arrested for a crime.
4. A companion of a person known to be a member of a street gang.
49
An officer who photographs of juvenile will notify the parent or guardian that the photos were obtained. If photographs are obtained subsequent to a custodial arrest, the officer will include notification information the JCR or on FI.
True or False?
True
50
```
An officer may take DNA mouth swabs from a juvenile for investigative purposes under the following conditions:
1.
2.
3
4.
5.
```
1. The juvenile is being legally detained as a suspect in a criminal investigation
2. If the juvenile is in a place of confinement, immediate steps must be taken to notify the juveniles parents, guardian, or responsible relative that the minor is in custody and the location the minor is being held.
3. The juvenile has been identified and the means by which he or she was identified was documented
4. A JCR documenting the reasons for the detention and circumstances for the contact is completed
5. To obtain a mouth swab from a juvenile under the age of 14 years, it must be established the juvenile knew what they did was wrong at the time of the commission of the crime
51
Prior to taking a DNA mouth swab from a juvenile, officers will notify their __ or contact the __ for approval.
1.
2.
1. Supervisor
2. Field Lieutenant
Officers must document the name of the supervisor in the report.
52
Officers shall fill out the "Consent to Collect Saliva Sample" form and obtain the signature of the __.
juvenile
Officers who obtain a mouth swab from a juvenile will notify the parent or legal guardian and document it on the JCR.
53
Undocumented Juveniles - Dependent Children
13 years of age or older, the juvenile will be released to their non-offending parent or guardian regardless of immigration status.
If the juvenile's parent or guardian cannot be located, the juvenile will be released to __.
Customs and Border Protection agents.
54
Undocumented Juveniles - Dependent Children
| If the undocumented juvenile is under 13 years of age, the juvenile will be transported to __.
Polinsky Children's Center
55
```
Status Offense (truants,curfew and runaways)
If the juveniles parents or guardian are in the U.S. and can be located, the juvenile will be released to them regardless of immigration status. If the family resides in a foreign country, the juvenile will be translated to __.
```
Polinsky Children's Center
56
```
Status Offense (truants,curfew and runaways)
13 years of age or older, the police department will return the juvenile without parental supervision to their parents,guardians, or school official. If the juvenile's parents can not be located, the juvenile will be released to __.
```
Customs and Border Protection
57
602 WI - Minor Offenses
Under 13 years of age, if the parent can not be contacted, a court order is required before Polinsky Children's Center will accept them. In these case, __, will responsible for obtaining the court order,
personnel at the Polinsky Children's Center
58
602 WI - Minor Offenses
13 years of age or older , if a juvenile is arrested and the parents can not be contacted,the juvenile will be placed in __.
Juvenile Hall
59
602 WI - Serious Offenses
| Juveniles arrested for serious or violent crimes shall be placed in __.
Juvenile Hall
60
The California DOJ required information on missing or runaway juveniles be entered into __ and __ computer systems.
1.
2.
1. California Law Enforcement Telecommunications System CLETS
2. National Crime Information Center (NCIC)
61
The DOJ has divided missing, juveniles including runaways, into three categories:
1.
2.
3.
1. Juveniles at risk
2. Juveniles under 16 years of age and not at risk
3. Juveniles 16 years of age and older and not at risk
62
A missing person report will be conducted on every missing juvenile and a case number obtained within _ hours.
4
63
When a missing juvenile is found, located, or apprehended: Prior to, or during, the investigation, the officer will notify the dispatcher and forward the completed missing person report to Records Division. Do not void the case number.
True of False?
True
64
When the parent of a found RJ cannot be located:
And resides within SD County, the officer will place the juvenile in an approved shelter or may call Juvenile Probation intake for placement referrals.
Or resides within SD County and the juvenile is 13 years of age or younger, the officer will place the juvenile in the Polinsky Center.
Or risedes outside SD County, or the guardianship cannot be readily determined, the officer should place the child (13 or younger) in Polinsky Center. The officer will notify Teletype to send a "locate notification" to the hometown agency.
True or False?
True
65
The patrol sergeant/incident commander will ensure that within 4 hours of the time the reporting party calls Communications about a RJ:
1.
2.
3.
1. A case number is assigned
2. A recent photograph of the missing juvenile is obtained
3. The Authorization to Release Dental/X-Ray Information form is signed by the parent or legal guardian.
66
In the event of a field command post is established, the Watch Commander will notify the area __ and __.
1.
2.
1. Captain
| 2. Service area Lieutentant
67
In child abduction by family member cases, the patrol officer will determine if any court orders exists regarding custody of the children. If an order exists __ act on them unless you can _ the orders are the most recent and valid.
1.
2.
1. Never
2. Verify
If you cannot determine the validity of the order, than do not act on it. Contact the D.A. Child Abduction Unit.
68
If no order exists, the under California law, both parents have an equal right of custody. Never act on out-of-state orders. Refer all out-of-state orders to __.
The D.A. Child Abduction Unit
69
The CARE Alert is a communications partnership between local broadcast media, SD County law enforcement agencies, and emergency personnel that notifies the public within or region immediately following a child abduction using the __ __ __.
Emergency Alert Sytem
70
CARE Alert activation requirements:
1.
2.
3.
1. The victim must be a minor, 17 years of age or younger, or have a proven mental or physical disability.
2. The victim must have been removed from his or her environment by someone other than a parent without parent/guardian permission.
3. Be considered to be in grave danger.
71
Upon determining the abducted child meets the CARE Alert requirements, the supervisor will contact the __ and relay the details of the abduction. The supervisor will request that a CARE Alert be initiated.
Watch Commander
72
The Watch Commander will prepare a brief announcement that will be transmitted to __ via fax.
The SD County Sheriff's Communications Center Watch Commander
The announcement should include: a child has been abducted, where, when, a description of the child,a description of the adductor, description of any vehicle involved, last known direction of travel, the telephone number for public response, and a statement that no action should be taken other than to inform the police.
73
Similar to the CARE Alerts but wider in it's scope, an __ __ also uses the Emergency Alert System to ask the public's help locating a juvenile abduction.
Amber Alert
74
The Amber Alert may be activated __ or within __ regions.
1.
2
1. Statewide
| 2. Selected
75
All persons arrested for felony narcotic violations __ be taken into custody.
shall
76
Violations of 11360b HS, giving away, offering to give away, or transporting one ounce of marijuana will be issued a misdemeanor citation. Other misdemeanor narcotic offenders __ ordinarily be booked in mail and may only be released with the approval of the Watch Commnander.
should
77
It is not in the scope of a police officer's authority to decide not to take enforcement, even though the controlled substance is, in the mind of the offender, not a __ __.
useable amount
78
The __ and __, not the police officer, have the responsibility to determine what is a useable amount.
1.
2.
1. Courts
| 2. Prosecuting agency
79
California H&S codes govern the seizure and disposition of all controlled substances. All controlled substances and unlawful paraphernalia shall be seized and ultimately turned over to the __ for destruction, whether an arrest is made or not.
State
80
Pharmaceutical or Prescription fraud are investigated by__.
the narcotics section
81
When impounding a vehicle as a narcotic seizure the following guidelines will me met:
1.
2.
3.
1. Establish a value of at least $5,000
2. Contains any useable quantity of narcotics
3. Registered owner is aware of drug use/or transportation of drugs.
82
Prior to impounding a suspect vehicle, contact the following for approval:
1.
2.
1. The NTF agent/supervisor from the Asset Removal Group
| 2. The Watch Commander if NTF supervisor is not available
83
Whisper Stops and Wall Cases are cases in which a confidential informant is legally denied to the defense. The purpose of such an investigation is to separate the smaller components of the organization for prosecution without jeopardizing the overall investigation, or revealing the informant , or undercover operative.
The is conspired building a __ between the two cases.
wall
84
If a patrol officer is contacted by an outside agency regarding a Whisper Stop or Wall Case, they should immediately contact a supervisor from __.
The Narcotics Section
85
Uniformed field officers are inherently restricted in their ability to adequately manage informants due to other responsibilities and time consumption.
True or False.
True
86
Each potential informant must profiled, by the detective handler as to:
1.
2.
3.
1. True identity
2. Criminal history
3. Criminal expense
87
Active or potential informants with felony offenses shall be prosecuted. The D.A.'s Office, Special Operations Division, must be advised and subsequently concur with the use of a charged defendant as an informant.
True or False?
True
88
Being a missing adult is not a criminal matters. There is __ minimum time requirement before a report maybe taken.
no
89
A Missing Person is an individual whose whereabouts are unknown to the reporting party. A missing person includes a child who is missing voluntarily or involuntarily, or under circumstance not conforming to his norther ordinary habits or behavior and may be in need of assistance. The report will be taken without __.
delay
90
Missing persons fall into two categories:
1.
2.
1. At risk
| 2. Not at risk
91
```
At risk missing person circumstances include but are not limited to:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
```
1. Victim of a crime or foul play
2. In need of medical attention
3. No pattern of running away or disappearing
4. Mentally impaired or cannot care for his or her own welfare
5. An elderly person with Alzheimer's disease or Dimentia
92
Not at risk Missing Person included:
1.
2.
1. An escapee or “walk away” from a mental health facility is not considered “at risk” unless he/she is a danger to him/herself or others; and,
2. The conservator has the responsibility of filing a Detention Order with the courts, in the case where a conservatee has walked away from a mental health facility and is not considered “at risk.”
93
During 0700-2200 hours, seven days a week, CTRU will take the report if the missing adult is considered __.
not at risk
94
When CTRU is not in operation, __ will take all missing adult reports.
Communications Division
Communications Division will dispatch a unit on all calls of missing persons at risk
95
When the dispatcher formats the at risk MP report, an electronic message is automatically relayed to Teletype, who will immediately enter the information into __.
Missing Persons System (MPS)
96
If there are facts to indicate the at risk missing adult has a proven physical or mental disability, has been abducted, and great bodily injury or death is imminent, then an __ alert shall be requested.
Emergency Alert System (EAS) for adults
| California Child Safety Am er Network Activation for minors
97
A field supervisor will be notified when an Alzheimer's disease or Dementia patient is reported missing.
True or False?
True
98
```
Persons not considered bonafide missing, unless extenuating circumstance exist, include:
1
2.
3.
4.
```
1. A deserting spouse
2. Fugitive from justice (AWOL)
3. A person left a note or told someone they are leaving. An exception would be a suicide not.
4. A person who is simply not been in touch with rap for an extended period of time, unless extenuating circumstances exist.
99
Peace officers who apprehend a missing person from a mental health facility must return the person to __.
The designated mental health facility
100
If a missing Alzheimer's patient is located and does and does not have a bracelet, call the __.
National Safe Return Program
The SD County Psychiatric Hospital will hold some generic beds for such unidentified Alzheimer's Disease patients.
101
The SD County Sheriff has the responsibility of coordinating all extraditions proceedings. When a fugitive from this jurisdiction is arrested in another state, the arresting agency will notify the Sheriff's Office who will:
1.
2.
1. Contact the DA for approval of the extradition.
2. Secured necessary waivers from the suspect through the arresting agency. If the suspect refuses extradition, the Sheriff's Office will initiate formal proceedings for a Governor's Warrant of Extradition.
102
Officers visiting or interviewing witnesses, victims, or suspect in hospitals are to make all requests through __.
The hospital administrative office
103
For a Drop/Change of Charge form, under no circumstance is __ __ alone an acceptable reason.
insufficient evidence
104
The __ shall be the only person other than investigative personnel! authorized to prepare and 849(b)(1) release or Drop/Charge form, reducing original booking.
Watch Commander
105
The __ day hold is mandatory but the State for pawnbrokers to hold pawned property in the store.
30
106
The __ day hold is the time frame a pawnbroker must retain the property if a peace officer puts a hold on such property because the peace officers had probable cause to believe the property is stolen.
90
107
A 90-day hold should be used when the officer has probable cause to believe property is stolen and additional time is needed to make a positive identification or have the victim view the property. This type of hold does not preclude the actual physical seizure of the item at a later time.
The 90 day hold should be used unless the following three factors are present:
1.
2.
3.
1. There is no question that the property in question is stolen.
2. There is no question related to the identity of the property
3. There is a reasonable likelihood a case will be issued by the prosecuting agency
If these three factors are present, the detective may seize and impound the property.
108
Any peace officer may place a verbal hold on property found in a pawn or secondhand shop. All verbal holds must be followed up y a written notification. Only __ notification legally obligates the store owner to hold the property.
written
109
The officer will notify __ unit if the verbal hold hold and provide the case number, location, description of the property, the name of the pledgor or seller, the date of the transaction, and the loan number.
The Police Permits and Licensing
110
Property Seizure thresholds: from property must be the proceeds from narcotic trafficking, transportation or facilitate sales, or intended to be furnished in exchange for controlled substances.
1. Cash
2. Jewelry
3. Vehicles
4. Vessels or aircrafts
5. Real property
1. Cash - $1,000 with an arrest, or $5,000 without an arrest
2. Jewelry or real property - $5,000 or more
3. Vehicles - $10,000 or more
4. Vessels or aircraft - $10,000 or more
5. Real property - $2,000 or 20% of the appraised value, whichever is greater
111
The Watch Commander's Office has a list of __ agents on call 24 hours a day and MUST be on scene of the arrest /investigation if the property is to be seized.
NTF Asset Removal Group
DEA policy requires 2 law enforcement personnel to transport US currency to the DEA office for processing.
112
Only SDPD detectives assigned to __ are authorized to remove seized property or currency from the SDPD property impound room.
NTF
113
All seized vehicle will be transported to the __ for storage and processing.
DEA San Diego Field Division Office
114
Vehicles seizures can only be authorized by __.
an NTF agent
The agent will contact the Fleet Services Division to ensure the Department has a potential use of the vehicle.
115
Only SDPD police officers assigned to __ are authorized to seize assets.
NTF
116
Receipt for weapons and currency shall be completed whenever:
1.
2.
1. Any firearm or money in an amount over $20.00 are impounded
2. Deadly weapons we impounded in DVD incidents
It's the officer's discretion to issue a receipt for impounds less than $20.00
117
```
A receipt is not required under the following circumstances:
1.
2.
3.
4.
```
1. Firearms or money over $20.00 is seized pursuant to a search warrant.
2. Firearm or money recovered by a police officer at a scene where no one claims ownership.
3. Firearms recovered at a suicide.
4. Firearms or money obtained in an undercover investigation.
118
As a __ policy, Department. Personnel should refrain from video recording or photographing peaceful demonstrations.
general
The incident dent commander will use their discretion concerning the use of video recording.
119
Criminal investigation be be placed on __ disc.
one
Multiple routing traffic stops can be on one disc
120
If a news media reporter records a crime in progress, the recording shall not be seized.
If the recording of a crime in progress is made by a member of the public, contact that member and request a transfer of the recording. If the person refuses, contact the __ to authorize immediate seizure of the recording.
field lieutenant or duty captain
If there is no exigency to view the media, it shall not be viewed until a search warrant or court order has been obtained
121
A receipt __ be issued whenever media is seized.
shall
122
Medical Marijuana
When an officer contacts a subject with marihuana, it is the detainee's/arrestees obligation to show an identification card or to assert an affirmative defense. It is not the officers duty to inquire.
True or False?
True
123
If the person has a valid Identification Card, the. The person is not subject to arrest for possession of marijuana or detention by SDPD __ __ __ to verify his or her status and if the amount of marijuana possess is within leg las limits.
longer than necessary
Officer should complete a detention report on persons detained for this
124
To be a person with a patient identification card, the individual:
1.
2.
1. Must be a Qualified Patient
| 2. Must have applied for and received a valid identification card issued by San Diego County Health and Human Resources
125
To be a Person with a Primary Caregiver Identification Card, the individual:
1.
2.
1. Must be a Primary Caregiver
2. Must have applied for and received a valid primary caregiver identification card is by San Diego County Health and Human Services
126
If not a card holder under the MMP and an affirmative defense is asserted, then the officer should determine if the individual meets the requirements to be a Qualified Patient or Primary Caregiver under the CUA. If it is determined them lesson meets these criteria, the marijuana should be __.
released to that person
127
MMP stands for:
| CUA stands for:
Medical Marijuana Program
| Compassionate Use of Marijuana
128
```
To be a qualified patient under the MMP, the individual:
1.
2.
3.
4.
```
1. Must be a California resident
2. Must have a serious illness
3. Must have been examined by a physician
4. Must have a recommendation (written or oral) from a physician. The patient is not required to have written documentation of the recommendation.
129
To be a Primary Caregiver, the individual:
1.
2.
3.
1. Must be 18 years of age with a few rare exceptions
2. Must be designated as such by the Qualified Patient
3. Must be someone who has consistently assumed the responsibility for the housing, health, or safety of the Qualified Patient.
130
Qualified Patients or Primary Caregivers may:
| 1-7
1. Possess or cultivate marijuana for other than personal medical purposes of the Qualified Patient
2. Divert marijuana to any other person or sell it
3. Possess or cultivate any amount greater then is consistent with the physician's recommendation for the Qualified Patient's personal use
4. Transport marijuana unless the quantity transported and the method, timing and distance of the transportation are reasonably related to the patient's current medical needs
5. Engage in behavior that would endanger others, such a driving a motor vehicle under the influence of marijuana
6. Smoke marijuana in a car that is being drive by another person
7. Smoke marijuana anywhere in public or in public view, even on private property
131
A person __ possess more marijuana than that is recommended by their physician
may not
132
Marijuana Plants under the SDMC:
1.
2.
3.
1. A person with a Patient Identification Card may possess a maximum of 24 in harvested marijuana plants growing in an area of no more than 64 square feet.
2. A person with a Primary Caregiver Identification Card may possess no ore than the amount recommended for each qualified patient for whom the individual serves as a verified primary caregiver, not to exceed a total of 99 plants, whichever is less.
133
Law Enforcement Officers are mandated reporters or elder and dependent adult abuse cases. Failure to meet these reporting standards is a __ crime
misdemeanor
134
In every situation involving suspected or actual abuse, including cases of self neglect, officers should first call __, to telephonically report the incident.
A&IS (Aging and Independence Services)
135
Additionally, the officer should complete a __ form an and fax it to A&IS by the end of shift.
Report of Suspected Dependent Adult/Elder Abuse
136
Elder - any person __ years of age or older
65
137
Dependent adult - any person between the ages of __ and __, who has physical or mental limitations which restrict their ability to carry out normal activities. Having a caretaker does not, by itself , make the person a dependent adult.
1.
2.
1. 18
| 2. 64
138
Notify Elder Abuse Unit on:
1.
2.
3.
1. Any in-custody arrest, prior to booking the suspect
2. Any severe neglect cases, or when the call is generated by a health care facility
3. All deaths of elders which are not the result of a vehicle collision or medically documented natural deaths
139
```
Elder Abuse Unit is responsible for investigating all felony crimes involving elders and dependent adults' except the following:
1.
2
3
4.
5.
6.
7.
```
1. The DV Unit will handle all crimes involving domestic violence
2. The Homicide Unit will handle all suspicious deaths
3. The Robbery Unit will handle all kidnap pings and home-invasion robberies
4. The area commands will handle all street robberies and residential burglaries where the suspect is unknown and there is. I evidence indicating the victim was targeted due to their age
5. The area command JST will handle all cases with juvenile suspects
6. The Sex Crimes Unit will handle all sex crimes
7. The Economic Crimes Section will handle all identifying theft or financial crimes where the suspect is unknown
140
The Elder Abuse Unit will handle all __ crimes committed against elders or defendant adults where the suspect is a caregiver or relative.
misdemeanor
141
The objective of the PDIS are to __ and _ crime! while conforming to privacy and constitutional rights of groups and individuals.
1.
2.
1. Prevent
| 2. Control
142
The goals of the PDIS are to provide liaison, coordination, and resource assistance in the collection, storage, exchange or dissemination, and analysis of criminal intelligence information in ongoing investigations or prosecution activities relating to specific areas of criminal activity.
True or False?
True
143
They PDIS is controlled and minted by __.
CIU
144
SDPD personnel shall not collect or maintain criminal intelligence information about political, religious, or social views, associations, or activities of any individual or group, unless such information directly related to criminal conduct or activity and there is __ __ that the subject of the information is, or may be, involved in criminal conduct or activity.
reasonable suspicion
145
The Childe Abuse Unit is responsible for:
1.
2.
3.
1. Investigations of al child abuse and neglect cases when the suspect is in position of guardianship or trust
2. Investigations of all felony sexual assaults when the victim is 13 years of age and under (at the time of the report), regardless of the relationship with the suspect
3. Investigations of all child death cases under the age of 18, excluding obvious homicides, traffic-related deaths, suicides,, or terminal illness.
146
Law Enforcement __ cross-report child abuse incidents to the Child Abuse Hotline.
must.
Immediately or as soon as practically possible
147
If one or more witnesses have provided adequate information necessary to make immediate safety and investigative decisions, no attempt should be made to interview the child in the field. Do. It interview the child without express permission and/or guidance from __.
Child Abuse personnel
148
If a child is removed from a home, do not release the child to a friend or relative. The child will be admitted to __. Only Child Welfare Services can authorize such a release.
Polinsky Children's Center
149
During a preliminary investigation,detectives often need to investigate further to ensure a crime occurred. Circumstances that may indicate an arrest is appropriate include:
1.
2.
3.
1. The suspect is caught committing the crime
2. The suspect is a flight risk
3. The suspect is likely to continue offending
150
Whenever an immediate arrest is pending or made, the Child Abuse Unit must be notified as soon as possible.
True or False?
True
151
```
Command reasons not to make make an immediate arrest:
1.
2.
3.
4.
```
1. Age of victim ( too young to give a statement)
2. Corporation is necessary
3. A forensic interview and/or further evidence are necessary
4. The case needs to be reviewed by the DA
