1.0 Administration Procedures Flashcards

0
Q

Department Policy - a written expression of a guiding principlce requiring compliance by all members until __ or __.
1.
2.

A
  1. Rescinded

2. Suspended

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1
Q

Department Order - a written directive requiring compliance by all affected members for a period of __ years.

A

Two

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2
Q

Department Procedure - a written description of procedural that must be followed by all affected members of the Department until __ or __ .
1.
2.

A
  1. Rescinded

2. Suspended

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3
Q

Who is responsible for drafting, editing, revising and publishing all Department Policies and Procedures and Orders__?

A

The Research Analysis and Planning Unit.

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4
Q

Department Orders shall only be issued with the specific approval of the __?

A

Executive Assistant Chief of Police via the Assistant Chief of the Neighborhood Policing.

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5
Q

Recommendations for new department policies or changes to existing policies may originate from who?

A

Any member of the department via chain of command.

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6
Q

All department procedures shall be reviewed and revised by the originating division every __ years, or as necessary.

A

Three

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7
Q

Vehicle Pursuit - an event involving one or more law enforcement officers attempting to apprehend a __ or __ violator of the law in a motor vehicle while the driver is using evasive tactics.
1.
2.

A
  1. Suspected

2. Actual

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8
Q

Initiating a Pursuit - the officer must have __ __ to believe the driver, or occupants of the vehicle have committed an infraction or misdemeanor in his/her presence or a felony has been committed.

A

probable cause

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9
Q
Factors to take into consideration whether to continue a pursuit is?
1.
2. 
3. 
4.  
5.
6.
7.
8.
A
  1. Pedestrian traffic
  2. Vehicular traffic patterns and volume
  3. Location of the pursuit
  4. Time of day
  5. Speed of fleeing suspect
  6. Weather and visibility.
  7. Road conditions
  8. Whether the identity of the suspect is known.
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10
Q

Officer engaged in a pursuit must drive with __ __ for the safety of all persons using the highway.

A

due regard

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11
Q

Only __units shall be actively involved in a pursuit unless a filed supervisor, Field Lieutenant, or the Watch Commander approves additional units.

A

Two

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12
Q

Communications Division will assign a __ __ as the supervisor of record to assume control and monitor a pursuit.

A

field supervisor

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13
Q

Who may cancel a vehicle pursuit?

A

Any field supervisor, Field Lieutenant, Watch Commander

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14
Q
The initiating pursuit unit or ABLE shall state on the radio specific information identifying?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
A
  1. Suspect(s)
  2. Involved vehicle
  3. What the vehicle is wanted for
  4. The pursued vehicle’s speed
  5. A description of the area the pursued vehicle is traveling through.
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15
Q

During a pursuit, driving the wrong side of a divided roadway is __ prohibited except in the most grievous circumstances when imminent danger to life exists.

A

generally

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16
Q

Driving the wrong way on freeways is __ prohibited.

A

strictly

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17
Q

During a pursuit, police vehicles generally may not be used to __ a suspect vehicle:
1.
2.

A
  1. box in

2. ram

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18
Q

During a pursuit, officers __ not use a police vehicle to perform a PIT maneuver.

A

shall

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19
Q

During a pursuit, only __ cover unit may follow the primary unit unless additional cover units are authorized by a supervisor.

A

one

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20
Q

Upon initiation of a pursuit, a supervisor __ __ to the vicinity of the pursuit without becoming actually involved.

A

shall proceed

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21
Q

During a pursuit, supervisors __ respond to the location at the end of the pursuit to ensure compliance with post-pursuit reporting requirements.

A

should

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22
Q

During a pursuit, a supervisor __ __ on the air that he/she is authorizing additional units to become involved in the pursuit.

A

must state

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23
Q

The initiating agency __ retain jurisdiction and responsibility for a pursuit in progress, in the event the pursuit enters another agency’s jurisdiction.

A

should

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24
Q

SDPD units __ __ join in an active pursuit initiated by another agency unless specifically requested and then only with the approval of a Field Supervisor, Field Lieutenant, or Watch Commander.

A

shall not

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25
Q

When entering another jurisdiction, personnel of this department shall immediately abandon the pursuit when a supervisor of that agency orders termination of the pursuit.
True or False

A

True

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26
Q

During a multi agency pursuit, what frequency will be used to communicate between agencies?

A

PATCH

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27
Q

During a pursuit, ABLE shall never assume the role of the __ pursuit unit.

A

primary

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28
Q

Shooting at or from vehicles is __ except when reasonably necessary to protect persons from death or serious injury.

A

prohibited

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29
Q

Tire deflation devices __ be used to stop motorcycles, moped or other similar types of vehicles.

A

shall not

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30
Q

Barricading a roadway must be considered a force likely to result in death or serious injury. This method may be used as a __ __ to apprehend a dangerous known felon who posers an immediate serious threat to the safety of the public.

A

last resort

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31
Q

Barricading a roadway is __ prohibited unless approved by a field supervisor, Field Lieutenant, or the Watch Commander.

A

strictly

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32
Q

The driver of the unit who initiated the pursuit, or assumed the pursuit from another agency is responsible for filling out the top form of the CHP-187A. This form will be submitted to the driver’s immediate supervisor for approval when?

A

At the end of the officer’s workday.

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33
Q

The pursing officer’s supervisor shall complete the CHP-187 form and forward the commander officer in __ days for approval.

A

three

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34
Q

The original CHP-187A forma must be forwarded in __ days to the Fleet Safety Sergeant.

A

five

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35
Q

The U.S. Supreme Court in Graham vs. Connor acknowledged that the __ when analyzing the use of force.

A

reasonableness factor

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36
Q

Active Resistance - behavior that consists of a refusal to comply with verbal commands and conveys a threat to the officer or another person, or consists of physical opposition to attempts of control by the officer.
True or False?

A

True

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37
Q

Assaultive Behavior - behavior that consists of aggressive physical opposition to being physically controlled and conveys a threat of injury to the officer, or behavior that consists mom a threat of attack conveyed through aggressive physical actions or aggressions.
True or False?

A

True

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38
Q

Compliant Behavior - behavior that complies with officers verbal commands.
True or False?

A

True

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39
Q

Defending Force - the force needed to stop assaulting behavior against an officer or another person.
True or False?

A

True

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40
Q

Distraction Techniques - acts used to divert or redirect a subjects focus away from resistive behavior.
True or False?

A

True

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41
Q

Officers shall not discharge a firearm at an occupant of a vehicle unless:
1.
2.

A
  1. The officer has probable cause to believe the subject or vehicle poses an immediate threat of death or serious physical harm to the officers and there’s no reasonable alternative.
  2. The officer has probable cause to believe the subject or vehicle poses and immediate threat of death or serious physical harm to another persons.
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42
Q

When an officer uses force resulting in injury that necessitates medical treatment of any person, the officer shall immediately contact a __.

A

field supervisor

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43
Q

Warning shots present a danger to the officer and other persons. They are prohibited except under exigency circumstances when:
1.
2.

A
  1. The officer has a reasonable belief that a subject or animal poses an imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury to the officer or another person.
  2. When necessary to apprehend a fleeing suspect if there is probable cause to believe the suspect has committed a felony involving the infliction or threatened infliction of death or serious bodily injury, and the officer believes the suspect is armed with a deadly weapon and the suspects escape would pose a threat.
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44
Q

Officer shall immediately notify ___ of any unintentional discharge.

A

Watch Commander’s Office.

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45
Q

Officers shall be limited to __ approved hand guns for on-of duty use.

A

five

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46
Q

Who will be noticed of a retest firearms failure?
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. In-Service Training Lieutenant
  2. Assist Chief of Neighborhood Policing
  3. The officers chain of command
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47
Q

An extended leave of absence of _ days or more requires an officer to requalify at with their duty weapon.

A

120

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48
Q

Officers who, due to medical restrictions, have been removed from full duty and have not qualified in the Department’s firearms proficiency shoot for more than _ from the time of medical restricts shall not carry a firearm on duty.

A

1 year

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49
Q

OC spray may be used on person engaged in __ resistance, __ behavior or __ __ behavior.
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. Active resistance
  2. Assaultive behavior
  3. Life threatening behavior
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50
Q

OC spray may only be used on handcuffed prisoners who are __, are about to cause or are causing injury to themselves or others, or are as using damage to property.

A

violent

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51
Q

Generally, OC should not be used to disperse a crowd without approval the on-scene __ or __. In a crowd control situation, it is imperative that officer respond in a coordinated manner.
1.
2.

A
  1. field supervisor

2. incident commander

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52
Q

OC spray may be used on a spitting person in order to again control and/or when applying a slit sock?
True or False?

A

True

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53
Q

OC spray is isq effective from __ to __ feet in calm, still air.
1.
2.

A
  1. five

2. twenty five

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54
Q

The effects of OC spray generally last __ to __ minutes.
1.
2.

A
  1. 20

2. 30

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55
Q

First aid treatment should be rendered as soon as possible after OC spray is applied. It must be done within __ minutes of applying the chemical agent.

A

30

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56
Q

The taser applies 1200 volts of electricity affecting the person’s __ and __ system.
1.
2.

A
  1. sensory

2. motor nervous system

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57
Q

The taser cartridges are effective from point blank to 21 feet, with optimal range being __ to __ feet.
1.
2.

A
  1. 7

2. 15

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58
Q

The taser may be used more than once on a subject If reasonable to gain compliance over a subject. If after __ cycles, officers should consider other appropriate force options.

A

2

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59
Q

Tasers should not be used on handcuffed subjects unless the subject display’s life threatening behavior?
True or False?

A

True

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60
Q

Tasered subjects whether by dry probes or drive stunned shall be transported to a contract hospital prior to booking or final disposition?
True or False?

A

True

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61
Q

Subjects tasered more than once, whether by probes or drive stun, shall be transported by __

A

paramedics

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62
Q

The carotid restraint may be used on subjects who are __ or __.
1.
2.

A
  1. actively resisting

2. assualtive

63
Q

Absent exigent circumstances, the carotid restraint shall not be used on an individual more than __ during a 24 hour period.

A

twice

64
Q

A subject who has been rendered unconscious through the use of the carotid restraint shall be be transported to a contract hospital for medical examination prior to final disposition.
True or False?

A

True

65
Q

Any subject rendered unconscious by use of the carotid restraint shall be transported for medical examination by:
1.
2.

A
  1. two officers

2. paramedics

66
Q

Officers shall notify a supervisor as soon as practical whenever they render a subject unconscious by use of the carotid restraint.
True or False?

A

True

67
Q
Category 1 complaints are:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
A
  1. Arrest
  2. Criminal conduct
  3. Discrimination
  4. Force
  5. Slur
68
Q
Category 2 complaints are:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
A
  1. Service
  2. Courtesy
  3. Procedure
  4. Conduct
  5. Other (specify)
69
Q

A citizen complaint investigation will not start until Internal Affairs does what?

A

Assigns a case number.

70
Q

Upon receiving the CCF, the Internal Affairs Unit will notify the complainant in writing. The __ colored copy will be sent to the complainant.

A

green

71
Q

The “inquiry only” box will not be checked by the member initially taking the the complaint. Inquiry designation may only be made by the __.

A

investigating supervisor’s commanding officer.

72
Q
The following offices receive citizen complaints:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
A
  1. Officer of the Chief of Police
  2. Internal Affairs Unit
  3. Area Commands
  4. Mayor’s office
  5. Citizen Review Board on Police Practices
73
Q

If a citizen requesting to lodge a complaint confronts a Department member, that member will contact a __.

A

supervisor

74
Q

When a citizen calls communications division expressing concerns regarding the actions of an officer or the service delivered by the department, communications personnel will format the call as a __.

A

PSI

75
Q

If a supervisor chooses to refer the citizen to another supervisor who may have more information regarding the PSI call, the citizen must agree to this referral. If this occurs, the original supervisor shall add the following to the CAD incident:
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. The name and ID number of the second supervisor.
  2. The complainant was notified of the second supervisor.
  3. The second supervisor was notified of the incident via email.
76
Q

Category 1 complaints shall be completed within __ days. Only Inetrnal Affairs may grant an extension.

A

90

77
Q
Completed investigations will be forwarded to the Internal Affairs Unit, the findings will be classified as follows:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
A
  1. Sustained
  2. Not sustained
  3. Exonerated
  4. Unfounded
  5. Other findings - the investigation revealed violations of Department policies/procedures not alleged in the complaint.
  6. Complainant not cooperative.
78
Q

The Homicide Unit will conduct criminal investigations of all incidents in which a Department member intentionally shoots a person , including such incidents resulting in no injury.
True or False?

A

True

79
Q

The Internal Affairs Unit will conduct and administrative investigation to determine of the officer involved shooting was within policy.
True or False?

A

True

80
Q

Field supervisors are responsible for completing a thorough Supervisor’s Investigation into all shootings involving animals or accidental discharges not resulting in injury.
True or False?

A

True

81
Q

If a supervisor determines during a witness officer/member interview that the interviewee is actually a subject officer/member, the supervisor must immediately advise the member of his/her change in status and inform him/her right to __.

A

representation

82
Q

If during an internal interview with an officer/member, the supervisor believes criminal conduct may be involved, the interview will be stopped and __ will be notified.

A

Internal Affairs Unit

83
Q

When Internal Affairs identify misconduct, the investing will be routed to the appropriate __ for review for appropriate discipline.

A

Commanding Officer

84
Q

If a members disagrees with the disposition or finding of the investigation, they may for a writ tend rebuttal within __ days from the date they reviewed the case.

A

30

85
Q

Should you become involved in a police equipment accident, your first duty is to __.

A

notify radio dispatcher

Then protect the scene and render first aid as necessary.

86
Q

The Traffic Investigation Unit Sergeant and Fleet Safety Sergeant shall be notified immediately any time one of the following collisions occurs involving an officer or civil Police Department employee driving a City vehicle:
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. Fatality or serious injury to the officer, civilian employee, volunteer, or citizen.
  2. Probable felony prosecution.
  3. A pursuit ending in a serious injury or fatality.
87
Q

The Watch Commander will notify __ __ personnel a situations dictate (serious police equipment accidents)

A

Risk Management

88
Q

The on-scene supervisor investigating a police equipment collision must fill out a Supervisor Vehicle Accident/Industrial Incident Report form (RM-1555) within __ hours of the incident and ensure that both forms are forwarded to the Fleet Safety Sergeant.

A

48

89
Q

Only units within a __ distance, considering the listed factors shall respond to an 11-99 location code-3.

A

reasonable

90
Q

Sworn supervisors may AUTHORIZE a code -3 respond to incidents they are reasoning to or monitoring.
True or False?

A

True

91
Q

All sworn supervisors have the the responsibility to TERMINATE code-3 vehicle operation, particularly in pursuits when safety risks or lack of urgency warrant it.
True or False?

A

True

92
Q

The Traffic Safety Sergeant will review each police equipment accident within __ calendar days to determine if it was preventable, non preventable or no-vehicle accident.

A

15

93
Q

Preventable accidents will be classified as following:
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. Category 1 - an accident that occurs because of misjudgment of clearance, or failure to drive defensively.
  2. Category 2 - an accident t that occurred because the employee was negligent and/or violated City or Department rules, policies, and procedures, or violated any section of the CVC, except this we noted in Category 3.
  3. Category 3 - an accident that occurred because the employee was under the influence of alcohol and/or illegal drugs a to any degree, or who was flagrantly, willfully, or deliberately disregarded safety.
94
Q

If an employee disagrees with the finding of a police equipment accident, they have __ calendar days from the date they were notified to file a written appeal to the Traffic Division Lieutenant.

A

15

The Lieutenant will have complete a report of the finding ands forward it to the employee via the chain of command within 30 days.

95
Q

Any disciplinary action taken from vehicle accidents will be initiated by __.

A

the employee’s command

96
Q

Discipline may be increased or decreased from these guidelines at the discretion of the command. Command must prepare a full report of any extenuating circumstances of the case justifying the departure rom this regulation. All disciplinary action for preventable vehicle accidents shall be administered in accordance with ___.

A

Civil Service Commission Rules and Procedures

97
Q

Department members __ use take-home vehicles for travel outside of San Diego county unless specifically authorized within their units take home policy or procedure.

A

may not

98
Q

If a Department member is suspected of DUI , when possible, a supervisor of __ rank or higher should be present during present procedures.

A

one

99
Q

__ officers shall be responsible for ensuring proper administration of their vehicle inspection program.

A

Commading

100
Q

Department Announcements shall only be issued with the specific approval of the __.

A

Executive Assistant Chief

101
Q

Compensation time __ be taken on holidays.

A

may not

102
Q

NOTE TO SUPERVISORS - Per FSLA rules, all hours worked must be compensated, and the employer is liable if the employer knew or should have known the employee worked.
True or False?

A

True

Even if the employee broke Department rules, they need to be compensated then counseled on on the broken rule.

103
Q

Except in emergency, members shall receive at least __ days notice prior to a permanent or extended work schedule change.

A

5

104
Q

An officer’s permanent work shift hours may be adjusted with at least __ hours notice without the necessity of paying premium overtime.

A

72

Unless they voluntarily waive this provision.

105
Q

Emergency situations will be defined as unforeseen crime problems, natural or man-made disasters, and special events of which the Department has little or no advance knowledge.
True or False?

A

True

106
Q

An officer schedule may be adjusted up to __ hours prior to the beginning of the shift to correspond to a court appearance.

A

2

107
Q

The employee’s __ __ is responsible for receiving and verifying the subpoena and resulting overtime claim.

A

immediate supervisor

108
Q

Overtime Authorization Request Forms are to be completed by all personnel requesting overtime and must be submitted for approval within __ calendar days of the overtime worked.

A

3

109
Q
SUPERVISOR/COMMANDING OFFICER RESPONSIBILITIES (payroll)
Supervisor are responsible for:
1.
2.
3.
A
  1. Reviewing all overtime claims and determining their validity.
  2. Scheduling or otherwise assigning personnel so as to minimize the need for overtime.
  3. Providing periodic reporters on overtime hours worked by subordinates to their immediate supervisor in the form and manner determined by individual units.
110
Q

The __ __ Unit is assigned responsibility and delegated authority to administer the Petty Cash Fund.

A

Fiscal Management

111
Q

When referring to “supervisor” for purpose of petty cash reimbursement, this refers to:
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. Captain and above
  2. Civilian Commanding Officer and above
  3. Lieutenant only when there is no Captain in the direct chain of command.
112
Q

In addition to the inspections described in then operations manual, all commanding officers should concur __ special inspections or audits during each fiscal year.

A

2

113
Q

Authorized Access/Release of Criminal History Record Information

A local agency shall furnish local criminal history to persons authorized in PC 1300. These include:
1.
2.
3.
4.
A
  1. Peace officers
  2. District Attorneys and Prosecuting City attorneys
  3. Probation and parole officers
  4. The subject of the criminal probe
114
Q

Arrest reports may be released to:
1.
2.

A
  1. The individual who is the subject of the report or authorized representative.
  2. Any other member of the public if the date of arrest was within the past 60 day period.
115
Q
Crime reports may be released to:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
A
  1. The victim of the incident or authorized representative.
  2. The victim of DV.
  3. An insurance carrier against which a claim has been made.
  4. Any person suffering bodily injury or financial loss as a result of the incident.
  5. Representatives of the press.
116
Q

Any member of the Department who prepares a news release must route the release through __.

A

Media Services Office

The exception is the Homicide Unit.

117
Q

It is the responsibility of the __ to disseminate information and available news releases to authorized news media.

A

Watch Commander’s Office

During regular business hours, the Media Service Office will have the task of disseminating copies of Department news releases to the media as they become available.

118
Q

Media identifications cards shall be issued for __ years, or until the card is revoked by the Chief of Police.

A

2

119
Q
Media identification cards, to be valid must  have the following information:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
A
  1. Name and photograph of holder
  2. Name of organization represented
  3. A distinct number
  4. Signature of the Chief of Police
  5. Date of expiration
120
Q

Diplomatic immunity and consulate notification.

Diplomatic agents enjoys the __ degree of immunity.

A

highest

121
Q

The __ shall process field inquiries regarding diplomatic immunity.

A

Watch Commander’s Office

122
Q

The Watch Commander’s Office will contact the __ upon being notified of a detention or arrest of a foreign national.

A

US Department of State - Office of Policy Coordination and Public Affairs

123
Q

When a foreign national is arrested and booked or detained for more than __ hours, he/she must be advised of the right to have their consulate notified.

A

2

124
Q

Parking citations and moving citations should be issued without status of individuals or vehicles (Diplomatic Status)
True or False?

A

True

125
Q

Stopping a diplomat or consulate officers does not constitute arrest or detention and is permissible, although a signature on the citation by such individual __ required.

A

is not

126
Q

Sobriety tests may be offered to diplomats or consulates in accordance width local procedures, but __ not be required.

A

may not

127
Q

Criteria for seizing a vehicle. The fair market value of the vehicle must be greater than __.

A

$2,500

There must be no outstanding liens on the vehicle.

128
Q

Only __ personnel who have completed an approved training course and annual refresher training are authorized to deploy special munitions.

A

SWAT

129
Q

Non-Swat personnel who have completed an approved training course are authorized to deploy the extended range impact weapons.
True or False?

A

True

130
Q

Patrol supervisors may request the use of all specialty munitions and may authorize the use of extended range impact weapons and pepper balls, however the final decision for deployment of specialty munitions only available to SWAT personnel rests with __.

A

him

131
Q

Except in the immediate threat of serious bodily injury or death , specialty munitions only available to SWAT personnel shall not bed used without prior authorization of a __ __.

A

SWAT supervisor

132
Q

Whenever a person has been struck by specialty munitions, the officer who deployed the munitions shall notify a __, or __ in the case of 40mm, beanbag, or pepper ball.
1.
2.

A
  1. SWAT supervisor

2. Field supervisor

133
Q

Personnel strictly certified as bilingual in American Sign Language __ meet the Department requirements of qualified interpreter and shall not be used to Mirandize or interview arrestees.

A

do not

Certified bilingual Department members should only be used in emergencies and for basic information translations.

134
Q

__ __ __ of San Diego is the designated sign language interpreter service formSDPD.

A

Deaf Community Services

Sign language interpreters are also available through Network Interpreting Service.

135
Q

Extended Range Impact Weapon (ERIW) system consists of a device firing a special projectile designed to fain compliance, overcome resistance, or prevent serious bodily injury or death. The Department currently uses __ systems.

A

2

Both the beanbag shotgun and 40mm single shot launching system shall be classified as ERIW for identification within Departement Procedure 1.04.

136
Q

Officer should generally not fire either ERIW from a distance less than __ feet.

A

10

Target area should be the lower girdle area of the subject.

137
Q

At the beginning of the shift, the __ officer of the unit shall load the beanbag shotgun in the proper manner.

A

driver

138
Q

When feasible, prior to deploying each EWIR round, officers will announce they are firing their ERIW to prevent __ or __ fire.
1.
2.

A
  1. Contagious

2. Sympathetic

139
Q

In the event a person is struck by an ERIW projectile, the arresting officer __ ensure that the subject is taken to a medical facility for treatment prior to being booked into jail or released.

A

shall

140
Q

All potential grants will be approved by the Administrative Service Manager prior to be presented to the __ __ __.

A

Chief’s Executive Committee

141
Q

Officer Involved Shootings
Upon approval from the __, risk management personnel from intone involved agency may be permitted access to the shooting scene.

A

Homicide Lieutentant

142
Q

During an Officer Involved Shooting, the agency that employs the officer __ participate in the investigation of the shooting.

A

may

143
Q

Officer who discharge a firearm on-duty, except at a target range, or discharge a firearm off-duty causing potential or actual injury to a person or property damage shall immediately notify __.

A

The Watch directly or via Communications Division.

The Watch Commader shall initiate and required investigation.

144
Q

If the discharge of the firearm was on-duty, not directed at a person, and did not result in death or injury, the Watch Commander shall ensure that a __ responds to the scene to conduct an investigation.

A

supervisor

The supervisor shall prepare an OIS report and a Shooting Incident Report.

145
Q

If the discharge of a firearm was within the guidelines of Department Procedures, Handling of Injured Animals, a__ __ __ shall be prepared by a supervisor who responded to the scene.

A

Shooting Incident Report

146
Q

If no discrepancy is found, the Shooting Incident Report will be forward to IA. If a discrepancy is found, the commanding officer will order a __ __.

A

Superior Investigation

147
Q

Under circumstances why the shooting was intentionally directed at a person or resulted in death or injury, the away h Commander will make the appropriate notification. The Watch Commander shall immediately notify the following personnel:
1 -11

A
  1. The on-call Homicide Lieutenant
  2. The Chief of Police, the Executive Chief of Police, and the Assistant Chiefs
  3. The on-call Internal Affairs Lieutenant
  4. The Captain responsible for the area where the incident occurred. If the area command Captain is not available, the duty Captain shall be notified.
  5. The commanding officer of the officer involved.
  6. The on-call POA attorney or legal representative.
  7. The district City Council member, the Mayor via the Chief’s office.
  8. Peer support via Medical Assistance Unit.
  9. The service area lieutenant responsible for the area where the incident occurred.
  10. The lieutenant of the officer involved in the shooting.
  11. The on-call Psychological Service staff member.
148
Q
The ranking officer resounding to the shooting scene shall be responsible for controlling the scene and ensuring:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
A
  1. The officer involved should be isolated as soon as possible. When more than one officer is involved, they should be isolated from each other. A peer support officer should be assigned to accompany each officer involved.
  2. Officers involved inns shooting incident shall not discuss the situation at the scene with anyone other than the first arriving supervisor, Homicide investigators, Internal Affairs investigators or the officer’s legal representative.
  3. The first arriving supervisor swill be responsible for developing sufficient information to ensure public safety for a tactical response and provide investigators with an overview of the incident. All I inquiries are subject to the Police Officers Bill of Rights.
  4. Only Homicide/or Internal Internal Affairs investigators, whichever is appropriate under the circumstances, will conduct in-depth interviews o involved officers. Subject to POBAR.
  5. The Investigation II Captain or a Homicide Lieutenant shall coordinate the release of information or statement regarding the incident.
149
Q

Officers involved in traumatic events, such a shooting or in-custody deaths, may need __ __ __.

A

critical incident debriefing

150
Q

Reports of police shooting incidents shall be routed as follows:
1.
2.

A
  1. The Shooting Incident Report will be forwarded directly to the Assistant Chief of Neighborhood Poling and the Internal Affairs Unit.
  2. A copy of all police shooting investigations conducted. Y field supervisors and the Homicide Unit will be routed to Internal Affairs via the appropriate commanding officer.
151
Q

The __ __ __ shall be the central repository for all police shooting incidents and shall maintain appropriate statistical records.

A

Internal Affairs Unit

152
Q

The Long Range Acoustical Device (LRAD) is a type of loudspeaker that emits focused and directional beam of sound. There are _ models of the LRAD.

A

2
Model 100X is a small portable device
Model 500 is transportable, the size of a large stage speaker.

153
Q

Authority to use the LRAD must be approved by the:
1.
2.

A
  1. Incident Commander

2. SWAT Commanding Officer or their designee.

154
Q
The LRAD 100 and 500 have four primary law enforcement uses:
1.
2.
3.
4.
A
  1. Public Address to issue Emergency Evacuation Orders
  2. Communicate with subjects during a SWAT or other law enforcement operations where direct communications is not possible or feasible and loud, clear commands need to be relayed.
  3. When direction needs to be relayed to a group/crowd in a noisy environment.
  4. The LRAD can be used to move a disruptive crowd ( an unlawful assembly order should be given)
155
Q

The LRAD shall not be operated in the red zone if subjects are closer than __ yards from the LRAD 100X and __ yards for the LRAD 500X
1.
2.

A
  1. 15

2. 8

156
Q

The LRADis used as a device to move a disruptive crowd. It __ considered a use of force.

A

is