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Mycoviro (Prelim) > 3. Sero Lab > Flashcards

3. Sero Lab Flashcards

1
Q

RITM releases first 17 sets of SARS-CoV-2 genome sequences from PH cases through ____

a. Third generation Sequencing technology
b. Second generation Sequencing technology
c. First generation Sequencing technology

A

a

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2
Q

The______ mutation in the spike gene enables SARS-CoV-2 to produce more virus particles _______ compared to strains without the said mutations

a. D914G; in vitro
b. D614G; in vivo
c. D614G; in vitro
d. D914G; in vivo

A

c

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3
Q

Lineages A and B were the original strains from?

a. Philippines
b. Vietnam
c. China
d. Japan

A

China

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4
Q

Lineages B.1 and B.1.1 are associated with the outbreaks in Italy and other European countries

T or F?

A

T

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5
Q

Lineage ____ was also detected in India, UK, North America, Australia, and Singapore

a. B.1
b. B.1.1
c. B. 6
d. B

A

c

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6
Q

NOTE: All lineages of COVID from the choices and questions were identified in the Philippine sequennces

A
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7
Q

Which of these methodologies is not based on
antigen-antibody reactions?
A. agglutination
B. precipitation
C. gene amplification
D. neutralization

A

C

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8
Q

Antigen on the red cell membrane

a. Agglutinogen
b. Agglutinin

A

A

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9
Q

antibody in plasma or serum

a. Agglutinogen
b. Agglutinin

A

B

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10
Q

Antigen involved are soluble antigens

a. Precipitation
b. Agglutination

A

A

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11
Q

Agar is impregnated with known Ab and the positive result of this test forms a single precipitin line

Single Diffusion, Single dimension

a. Ouidin Test
b. Radial immunodiffusion
c. Ouchterlony
d. PCR

A

a

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12
Q

Agar is impregnated with known Ab

Patient serum Is placed on the wells

Semiquantitative

Single Diffusion, Double dimension

Diameter of the precipitation line is directly proportional to the concentration of target antigen

a. Ouidin Test
b. Radial immunodiffusion
c. Ouchterlony
d. PCR

A

b

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13
Q

Type of Radial immunodiffusion that uses kinetic diffusion where the test has a fixed time to progress?
a. Fahey method
b. Radial immunodiffusion
c. Mancini method
d. Ouchterlony

A

a

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14
Q

Type of Radial immunodiffusion that uses Endpoint diffusion?
a. Fahey method
b. Radial immunodiffusion
c. Mancini method
d. Ouchterlony

A

c

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15
Q

Double Diffusion, Double dimension
a. Ouidin Test
b. Radial immunodiffusion
c. Ouchterlony
d. PCR

A

C.

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16
Q

In ouchterlony, a pattern that forms smooth curve resulting in antigen in the sample is same with known antigen

a. Partial Identity
b. Identity
c. Non identity

A

B

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17
Q

In ouchterlony, a pattern that precipitin lines merge with spur formation where antigen in the sample has some similarities with known antigen

a. Partial Identity
b. Identity
c. Non identity

A

a.

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18
Q

In ouchterlony, a pattern that precipitin lines cross where antigen in the sample is different from known antigen

a. Partial Identity
b. Identity
c. Non identity

A

c

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19
Q

A procedure for the ID of monoclonal proteins that utilized both double diffusion and electrophoresis?

a. Immunoelectrophoresis
b. Counter-immunoelectrophoresis
c. Rocket electrophoresis
d. PCR

A

a

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20
Q

What is the monoclonal proteins used in immunoelectrophoresis?

This proteins is present in patient with multiple myeloma

a. Loffler proteins
b. Bence Jones proteins
c. M proteins
d. A proteins

A

B

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21
Q

Temp for precipitating Bence Jones proteins?

a. 50
b. 60
c. 37
d. 24

A

b

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22
Q

Antiserum is incorporated into the ahar and the unknown antigen is placed in the well and eletrophoresed

a. Immunoelectrophoresis
b. Counter-immunoelectrophoresis
c. Laure Techinique
d. PCR

A

C

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23
Q

Laure technique is also known as?

a. Rocket electrophoresis
b. Counter-immunoelectrophoresis
c. Immunoelectrophoresis
d. PCR

A

a

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24
Q

In rocket electrophoresis, The total distance of antigen migration and precipitation is indirectly proportional to antigen concentration.

T or F

A

F, Directly

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25
Q

Antigens involved are particulate antigens

a. Precipitation
b. Agglutination

A

b

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26
Q

Type of agglutination where natural antigen and antibodies react?

a. Direct agglutination
b. Passive agglutination
c. Reverse passive agglutination
d. Agglutination inhibition

A

a

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27
Q

When antibodies are attached to particulate carriers

a. Direct agglutination
b. Passive agglutination
c. Reverse passive agglutination
d. Agglutination inhibition

A

c

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28
Q

A soluble antigen is artificially attached to a particulate carrier

a. Direct agglutination
b. Passive agglutination
c. Reverse passive agglutination
d. Agglutination inhibition

A

b

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29
Q

Homologous antigen inhibits agglutination of antigen coated particle

a. Direct agglutination
b. Passive agglutination
c. Reverse passive agglutination
d. Agglutination inhibition

A

d

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30
Q

Also called Coomb’s test where anti human IgG is added ?

a. Hemagglutination
b. Indirect agglutination (Antiglobulin technique)
c. Reverse passive agglutination
d. Agglutination inhibition

A

b

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31
Q

Agglutination of RBC due to antibody, viruses, bacteria, or other biologic
substance

a. Hemagglutination
b. Indirect agglutination (Antiglobulin technique)
c. Reverse passive agglutination
d. Agglutination inhibition

A

a

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32
Q

Best source of complement for complement fixation?

a. Cow serum
b. Rabbit serum
c. human serum
d. Guinea pig serum

A

d

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33
Q

Best source of Hemolysin/Amboreceptor for complement fixation?

a. Rabbit antisera
b. Guinea pig antisera
c. Horse antisera
d. monkey antisera

A

a

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34
Q

What is the positive reaction for complement fixation?

a. No hemolysis
b. No agglutination
c. Hemolysis
d. Agglutination

A

a

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35
Q

Disease that cause by lack of CD55 and CD59?

a. Acute glomerulonephritis
b. Rheumatoic heart disease
c. Systemic lupus Erythema
d. Paroxysmal Nocturnal hemaglobuminuria

A

d

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36
Q

A reaction where the antigenic activity is stopped by its specific antibody?

a. agglutination
b. neutralization
c. elimination
d. eradication

A

b

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37
Q

Use to detect CD markers

a. Flow cytometry
b. complement fixation
c. Fluorescence immunoassay
d. Radioimmunoassay

A

a

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38
Q

type of flow cytometry that will detect the cell size?

a. Forward scatter
b. Side scatter

A

a

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39
Q

type of flow cytometry that will detect the internal complexity

a. Side scatter
b. forward scatter

A

a

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40
Q

Indication of High IPM in flow cytometry?

a. Means there is infection happening
b. Means proliferation of Lymphocytes particularly T cells
c. Means there is platelet recovery or new platelets
d. Means indication of Low cellular mediated Immune system

A

c

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41
Q

In Flow cytometry what staining is used in platelets?

a. GrWright stain
b. Fluorescence staining
c. Acid fast stain
d. gram stain

A

b

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42
Q

Any substance that will complex to another substance

This is the substance to be measured in immuno assays?

a. Ligma
b. Ligand
c. Ligon
d. Ligase

A

b

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43
Q

Mostly used fluorescent probes in fluorescence immunoassay?

a. Texas red
b. Phycocyanin
c. Tetramethyl rhodamine
d. Fluorescein isothiocyanate (FITC)

A

d

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44
Q

Which of the fluorescent probes emits green light?

  1. Texas red
  2. Phycocyanin
  3. Tetramethyl rhodamine
  4. Fluorescein isothiocyanate (FITC)

a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 3 only
d. 4 only

A

d

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45
Q

Which of the fluorescent probes emits Red light?

  1. Texas red
  2. Phycocyanin
  3. Tetramethyl rhodamine
  4. Fluorescein isothiocyanate (FITC)

a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 3 only
d. 4 only

A

a

46
Q

Which of the fluorescent probes emits Red orange light?

  1. Texas red
  2. Phycocyanin
  3. Tetramethyl rhodamine
  4. Fluorescein isothiocyanate (FITC)

a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 3 only
d. 4 only

A

c

47
Q

Which of the radioactive isotopes does not belong in radioimmunoassay?

  1. I131
  2. I125
  3. H3
  4. C14

a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 1, 2, and 3
d. None of the above?

A

d

48
Q

Type of radioimmunoassay that Measures antigen-specific IgE where the ligand is labeled anti-IgE.

Usually used For allergy

a. Radioallergosorbent test (RAST)
b. Radioimmunosorbent test (RIST)
c. Radioallergodiffusion (RAD)
d. Radioallergoimmunoassay (RAIA)

A

a

49
Q

Type of radioimmunoassay that is a A competitive RIA for total serum IgE

a. Radioallergosorbent test (RAST)
b. Radioimmunosorbent test (RIST)
c. Radioallergodiffusion (RAD)
d. Radioallergoimmunoassay (RAIA)

A

b

50
Q

RIST Activity is directly proportional to IgE concentration

T or F

A

F, indirectly

51
Q

What is the end reaction for enzyme immunoassay?

a. Agglutination
b. Precipitation
c. Colorimetric reaction
d. Glacial reaction

A

c

52
Q

All enzymes are used in enzyme immunoassay except?

  1. ALP
  2. Horseradish Peroxidase
  3. Glucose oxidase
  4. B-galactosidase
  5. Sodium hydroxide

a. 2 and 5
b. 2 only
c. 5 only
d. None of the above

A

c

53
Q

Enzyme immunoassay that Used to detect HIV and Hepa-B

a. ELISA
b. FLuorescence immunoassay
c. Radioimmunoassay
d. Blotting techinques

A

a

54
Q

An assay that combines chemiluminescence technique with immunochemical reactions

This Utilizes chemical probes which could generate light emission through
chemical reaction to label the antibody

a. Chemiluminescence
b. Blotting technique
c. ELISA
d. PCR

A

a

55
Q

What test has a duration of 10 - 15 mins?

  1. Rapid antibody test
  2. ECLIA serology test
  3. Rapid antigen
  4. RT-PCR

a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

A

a

56
Q

What test has a duration of 15 - 30 mins?

  1. Rapid antibody test
  2. ECLIA serology test
  3. Rapid antigen
  4. RT-PCR

a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

A

b

57
Q

This test uses blood as sample and the test detects antibodies. Usually, the best time to use this test is min. 7 days after exposure and the results are out in 30 mins to 1 day

a. Rapid antibody test
b. ECLIA serology test
c. Rapid antigen
d. RT-PCR

A

a

58
Q

This test uses blood as sample and the test detects antibodies. Usually, the best time to use this test is min. 7 days after exposure and the results are out in 1-2 days

a. Rapid antibody test
b. ECLIA serology test
c. Rapid antigen
d. RT-PCR

A

b

59
Q

This test uses Mucus from nasal tract as sample and the test detects viral antigen. Usually, the best time to use this test is 1-5 days after exposure and the results are out in 1 hour to 1 day

a. Rapid antibody test
b. ECLIA serology test
c. Rapid antigen
d. RT-PCR

A

c

60
Q

This test uses Mucus from nasal tract as sample and the test detects viral genetic material. Usually, the best time to use this test is 5-7 days after exposure and the results are out in 1-7days

a. Rapid antibody test
b. ECLIA serology test
c. Rapid antigen
d. RT-PCR

A

d

61
Q

Covid test:
Pros = Affordable, widely available
Cons = Not yet an official travel prerequisite

a. RT-PCR
b. ECLIA serology test
c. Rapid antibody test
d. Rapid antigen

A

c

62
Q

Covid test:
Pros = More accurate than rapid antibody test
Cons = Not yet an official travel prerequisite

a. RT-PCR
b. ECLIA serology test
c. Rapid antibody test
d. Rapid antigen

A

b

63
Q

Covid test:
Pros = Positive result usually accurate
Cons = Negative results should be confirmed with an RT-PCR

a. RT-PCR
b. ECLIA serology test
c. Rapid antibody test
d. Rapid antigen

A

d

64
Q

Covid test:
Pros = Results are highly accurate
Cons = Expensive, facilities not widely available

a. RT-PCR
b. ECLIA serology test
c. Rapid antibody test
d. Rapid antigen

A

a

65
Q

What is the pH required for Ag-ab reactions?

a. 6.8-7.2
b. 5.5-8.5
c. 5.5-7.5
d. 6.8-8.2

A

b

66
Q

Cross reactivity?

a. False positive
b. False negative

A

A

67
Q

Zonal reaction

a. False positive
b. False negative

A

b

68
Q

Uses colorimetric reagent cards that is used for detection on antimicrobial resistance?

a. ELISA
b.Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)
c. Single nucelotide polymorphism (SNP
d. automated microbiology

A

d

69
Q

The instrument uses pulses of laser light to vaporize the
oligo/matrix in a process known as desorption.

a. Matrix-assisted Laser desorption ionization0time of flight Mass spectrometry (MALDI-TOF)
b.Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)
c. Single nucelotide polymorphism (SNP
d. automated microbiology

A

a

70
Q

DNA is broken into pieces and digested by restriction enzymes and the
resulting fragments separated according to their lengths by gel
electrophoresis

a. Matrix-assisted Laser desorption ionization0time of flight Mass spectrometry (MALDI-TOF)
b.Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)
c. Single nucelotide polymorphism (SNP
d. automated microbiology

A

b

71
Q

Underlie differences susceptibility to disease (sickle cell anemia, Bthalassemia, cystic fibrosis)

a. Matrix-assisted Laser desorption ionization0time of flight Mass spectrometry (MALDI-TOF)
b.Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)
c. Single nucelotide polymorphism (SNP
d. automated microbiology

A

c

72
Q

Measures expression levels of many genes simultaneously or to
genotype multiple regions of a genome

a. DNA microarray
b.Short Tanden Repeat Polymorphism (STR)
c. Laser Capture microdissection
d. automated microbiology

A

a

73
Q

Method of isolating cells of interest from microscopic regions of tissues/cells

a. DNA microarray
b.Short Tanden Repeat Polymorphism (STR)
c. Laser Capture microdissection
d. automated microbiology

A

c

74
Q

Variation in DNA sequences where it uses DNA analysis in forensic cases and paternity testing

a. DNA microarray
b.Short Tanden Repeat Polymorphism (STR)
c. Laser Capture microdissection
d. automated microbiology

A

b

75
Q

Nuclei Acid Hybridization is created by __________ in 1961?

a. Ivanovski and Beijerink
b. Loeffler and Frosch
c. Marmur and Doty
d. Pardue and Gall

A

c

76
Q

Which of the following are DNA RNA hybrid?

a. GTTTATCGTATAAAG / CAAATAGCATATTTC
b. GTTTATCGTATAAAG / CAAAUAGCAUAUUUC
c. GUUUAUCGUAUAAAG / CAAAUAGCAUAUUUC

A

b

77
Q

Macromolecule composed of chains of a monomeric nucleotide?

a. Proteins
b. Phosphorus
c. Nucleic acid
d. Amino acid

A

c

78
Q

Process of establishing a non-covalent, sequence-specific interaction between two or more complementary strands of nucleic acid into one strand

a. Covalent bonding
b. Denaturation
c. Annealing
d. Hybridization

A

d

79
Q

Fragment of DNA or RNA of variable length, which is used in DNA or RNA samples to detect the presence of nucleotide sequences

a. Covalent probe
b. Denaturation probe
c. Hybridization probe
d. Nucleic probe

A

c

80
Q

A process by which double-stranded DNA unwinds and separates into single-stranded through the breaking of hydrogen bonding between the bases

a. Denaturation
b. Annealing
c. Extension

A

a

81
Q

For every turn of the nucleic acid of the DNA, there are _____ amino acids.

a. 3.4
b. 3.6
c. 3.9
d. 3.1

A

b

82
Q

A technique used to detect a specific DNA sequence in a large, complex sample of DNA?

a. Southern blot
b. Northern blot
c. In-solution hybridization
d. Western blot

A

a

83
Q

Southern blotting is developed by?

a. Edward Jenner
b. Edward Southern
c. Edward Monisi
d. Edward Crowe

A

b

84
Q

In southern blotting, this use the identified robe to query the target RNA by identified fragments in the complex target

T or F?

A

F, DNA not RNA

85
Q

What is the confirmatory test for hepatitis and HIV?

a. Southern blot
b. Northern blot
c. In-solution hybridization
d. Western blot

A

d

86
Q

To determine size of particular RNA molecules and to semi quantitate the amount of particular RNA transcript

a. Southern blot
b. Northern blot
c. In-solution hybridization
d. Western blot

A

b

87
Q

In-Situ hybrization was developed by ________ in 1969

a. Ivanovski and Beijerink
b. Alwine
c. Marmur and Doty
d. Pardue and Gall

A

d

88
Q

This uses Chemiluminescent based which confirms cultures of bacteria and fungi

Rapid detection of infectious agent

a. Gel electrophoresis
b. PCR sequencing
c. In-solution hybridization
d. Western blot

A

c

89
Q

Which pair is correct?

a. Denaturation: 94C; Annealing: 50C; Elongation: 70C
b. Denaturation: 50C; Annealing: 94C; Elongation: 70C
c. Denaturation: 70C; Annealing: 50C; Elongation: 94C
d. Denaturation: 94C; Annealing: 70C; Elongation: 50C

A

a

90
Q

Which of the advantages is part of PCR sequencing?

a. Rapidly increase the target microorganism’s nucleic acid in sample
b. Provide Qualitative data
c. Track the progress of disease.
d. A and C
e. All of the above

A

d

91
Q

In the history of PCR sequencing, what year did Kleppe synthesize DNA?

a. 1971
b. 1980
c. 1986
d. 1988

A

a

92
Q

Thermal cycle is invented in?

a. 1971
b. 1980
c. 1986
d. 1988

A

c

93
Q

Who developed PCR into the current application?

a. Kary B. Mulis, 1980
b. Kary B. Mulis, 1988
c. Pardua C. Nikke, 1980
d. Pardua C. Nikke, 1988

A

a

94
Q

What is invented in 1988 that is associated by PCR sequencing?

Taq DNA polymerase is needed to complete the creation

a. Thermus aquaticus
b. Aqua Landificus
c. DNA sequencer
d. RNA sequencer

A

a

95
Q

Which of the following are part of the PCR components?

  1. Template DNA
  2. Oligonucleotide RNA
  3. Magnesium
  4. Buffer
  5. Deoxynucleotides

a. 1,2,3,4,5
b. 1,3,4
c. 1,2,5
d. 1,3,4,5
e. 1,2,3,4
f. All of the above

A

d, 2 should be DNA

96
Q

Which of the following is a proper sequence in contamination prevention for PCR?

a. Reagent Preparation (FH) > Nucleic Acid Extraction > Room (BSC) > Agarose Gel Electrophoresis > Thermal Cycling Room
b. Reagent Preparation (FH) > Nucleic Acid Extraction > Room (BSC) > Thermal Cycling Room > Agarose Gel Electrophoresis
c. Reagent Preparation (FH) >Room (BSC) >Nucleic Acid Extraction > Agarose Gel Electrophoresis > Thermal Cycling Room
d. None of the above

A

b

97
Q

Who invented the Real time PCR?

a. Higuchi, et al., 1990
b. Higuchi, et al. 1995
c. Himenawa, et al., 1990
d. Himenawa, et al. 1995

A

a

98
Q

This technique is used for separation of DNA, RNA, or Protein molecules using an electric field applied to a gel matrix

a. Immunodiffusion electrophoresis
b. Gel electrophoresis
c. Gel PCR
d. Gel Matrix

A

b

99
Q

The principle of Gel electrophoresis is to separate substances molecules base on there?

a. Shapes
b. Nucleic acid
c. numbers
d. Size

A

d

100
Q

Which of the components belongs to Gel electrophoresis?

a. Driving Force
b. Support Medium
c. Buffer
d. Sample
e. None of the above
f. All of the above
g. A,B,C
H. A and D
I. B,C,D

A

e

101
Q

Part of electrophoresis that maintains the pH constant along testing

a. Driving force
b. Support Medium
c. Sample
d. Buffer

A

d

102
Q

Matrix used to contain, then separate the target molecules

a. Driving force
b. Support Medium
c. Gel
d. Sample

A

c

103
Q

A type of support material that is dry brittle film with 80% air space that can be stored for a long period of time

a. Agarose Gel
b. Cellulose acetate
c. Polyacrylamide Gel
d. Starch Gel

A

b

104
Q

Highly purified seaweeds used for large nucleic acids and stain and film are stored indefinitely

a. Agarose Gel
b. Cellulose acetate
c. Polyacrylamide Gel
d. Starch Gel

A

a

105
Q

Agarose Gel came from?

a. Rhodophye gel
b. Elephantus gel
d. Roseolyticus gel
c. Maraphophye gel

A

a

106
Q

Separated Protein due to its strong and elasticity but it is toxic

a. Agarose Gel
b. Cellulose acetate
c. Polyacrylamide Gel
d. Starch Gel

A

c

107
Q

Separates protein but not widely use

a. Agarose Gel
b. Cellulose acetate
c. Polyacrylamide Gel
d. Starch Gel

A

d

108
Q

Movement of molecule through the gel matrix?

a. Locomotive force
b. Electromotive force
c. Electrophoretic force
d. Migration

A

b

109
Q

Sequence of DNA extraction:

a. Remove protein > Cell disruption > Remove membrane lipids > Precipitating DNA

b. Precipitating DNA > Remove protein > Cell disruption > Remove membrane lipids

c. Cell disruption > Remove membrane lipids >Remove protein > Precipitating DNA

A

c

110
Q

Which of the following is true about Loop Mediated Isothermal Amplification?
1. Thermal cyclers are not used in LAMP
2. Does not have the process of denaturation, elongation and annealing
3. Does not change in temperature

a. 1,3
b. 1,2
c. 2,3
d. All of the above

A

d

111
Q

NOTE: The rest are pictures seen in the PPT

A

Mycoviro (Prelim) (8 decks)

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