3- Periodic Table, Physical Chemistry Flashcards

1
Q

What is ionisation energy

A

The amount of energy required to remove one electron form each atom in one mole of gaseous atoms of an element to form one more of gaseous 1+ ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Show first ionisation energy as a reaction

A

X(g) —> X+(g) +e-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Show second ionisation energy as a reaction

A

X+(g) —-> X2+ (g) + e-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What factors effect ionisation energy

A

The charge on the nucleus

The distance of the outer electrons from the nucleus

Amount of Sheila if created by the electrons between the outer electrons and the nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How does the charge on the nuclus effect ionisation energy

A

More protons = more nuclear charge
More energy needed to remove an electron —> so a greater ionisation energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How does the distance of the outer electrons from the nucleus effect ionisation we
Energy

A

Bigger distance - less attraction between electron and nucleus
Less energy needed to remove electron = smaller ionisation energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How does the amount of shielding created by the electrons between the outer electrons and the nucleus effect ionisation energy

A

More energy levels = more sheliding
Less energy needed to remove an electron = smaller ionic energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

As you go down the group the energy required to remove an electron …….
And why

A

Decreases as it’s further from the nucleus and shielding by more electron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Generally as you go across a period the energy required to remove an electron ……..
Because..

A

Increases
As the electron you are removing is attracted more strongly by the nucleus because it has extra protons by t the distance + shielding have both remained the same (except a slight drop in atomic radius as you go across the period due to the increase in nuclear charge)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Do ionisation energy’s increase or decrease when there successive

A

Increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe second ionisation energy

A

The energy required to remove one electron from each ion in one mole of gaseous 1+ ions of an element to form one more of gaseous 2+ ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does successive ionisation energy provide evidence for and how

A

the differnce energy levels
The jumps in ionisation energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Why are there jumps in ionisation energy
Give an example

A

When you try to remove electrons from a lower quantum number there is a huge jump in ionisation energy
Eg. Sodium in group one
Removing one electron from 3s then it tried to remove one from 2p ( this is a huge increase in ionisation energy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Ionisation energy generally increases as you go across the period .
What are the two exceptions

A

From group 2 to group 3
And
Form group 5 to group 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Why is there a lower ionisation energy in group 3 than group 2

A

Group 3 is removing a p subshell
Group 2 is removing a s subshell

It’s easier to remove an electron from the p-subshell even though there is an extra proton increasing the attraction
This is because the 3s subshell is shielding the p-electron and the p-subshell is further away so less attraction

These factors override the effect of the increased nuclear charge resulting in the ionisation energy dropping slightly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why is there a lower ionisation energy in group 6 than group 5

A

You have to start double fill in the orbitals in group 6

The repulsion between the 2 electrons in the same sub-orbital means that the electron is easier to remove so less energy is required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Is ionisation endothermic or exothermie and why

A

Endothermic - you have to put energy in to ionise an atom or a molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Is a lower ionisation energy easier to form an ion or harder

A

Easier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does a high ionisation energy mean

A

There’s a strong attraction between the electron and the nucleus so more energy is needed to overcome the attraction and remove the electron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

On a successive ionisation energy graph how can you tell which group an element is on

A

Count how many electrons are removed before the first big jump to find the group number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In the early 1800s, what were the only 2 ways to categorise elements

A

Physical and chemical properties
And by their relative atomic mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When and by who attempted to group similar elements

A

1817
Johann döbereiner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What were the groups called in the 1817 on the periodic table

A

Döbereiner triad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How did johann döbereiner order the periodic table (why)

A

He saw that chlorine , bromine and iodine had similar characteristics
He also realised that other properties of bromine fell alfway between chlorine and iodine ,
He found other such groups of 3 elements (eg, lithium , sodium and potassium ) and called them triads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What and when did John newlands work on the periodic fable
And what did he call it

A

1863
He noticed that If arranged the events in order of mass, similar elements appeared at regular intivals - every 8th element was similar,
He called it law of octaves
He listed some known elements in rows od seven so that the similar elements lined up in columns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Why did John Newlands listing known elements in rows of 7 so that similar elemenys lined up in columns not work

A

The pattern broke down on the third row
With many transition elements like fe, cu, zn messing it up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Who created the first accepted periodic table amd when

A

Dmitri Mendeleev
1869

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How did dmitri mendeleev order the periodic table

A

He arranged all the known elements by atomic mass, but left gaps in the table where the next element didn’t seem to fit
He could keep elements with similar chemical properties in the same group
He also predicted the properties of undiscovered elements that would go in the gaps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What showed Mendeleev was correct

A

When element were discovered with properti3d that matched Mendeleevs prediction and fit the gaps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Who and when produced the modern periodic table

A

Henry Moseley
1914

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How did henery Moseley order elements

A

increasing atomic numbe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

All elements within a period have the same …..

A

number of electron shells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Elements in a period have the same number of electron shells , what does this mean for trends

A

Repeating trends in physical and chemical properties across each perioid
This is known as periodicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is periodicity

A

Repeating trends in physical and chemical properties across each perioid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Elements in the same number of ….so,,,,

A

Electrons in their outer shells,
This means they have similar chemical properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How can rhe periodic table be split up

A

S-block
D-block
P-block
f-block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What do ionisation energy prove exists

A

Shells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Is it an endothermic or exothermic reaction to ionise an atom or molecule

A

Endothermic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is big jumps in ionisation energy show

A

New shells are broken into
(An electron is being removed from a shell closer to the nucleus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are diamond, graphite and graphene

A

Giant covalent lattices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are giant covalent lattices

A

Huge network of covalently bonded atoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is another name for a giant covalent lattice

A

Macromolecules structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Why can carbon atoms for giant covalent lattices

A

They can form 4 string covalent bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are differnt forms of the same element inn the same state called

A

Allotropes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the allotropes of carbon you need to know

A

Diamond
Graphite
Graphene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How many covalent bonds are there in diamond for each carbon

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What shape to atoms arrange themselves into in diamon d

A

Tetrahedral shape

It’s a crystal lattice structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is diamonds melting point

A

Very high
It sublimes Over 3800K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Properties of diamond

A

Very high melting point
Hard
good thermal conductor
Can’t conduct electricity
Won’t dissolve in any solvent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Why is diamond a good thermal conductor

A

Vibrations travel easily through the stuff lattice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Why cant diamond conduct electristy

A

Held in localised bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How many cobalent binds are in each silicon atoms in a crystal lattice

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What element are the properties of silicon similar to

A

Carbon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Describe the structure of graphite

A
  • the carbon atoms are arranged in sheets of flat hexagons covalently bonded with 3 each
  • the sheets of hexagons are bonded together by weak London forces
  • the 4th outer electron of each carbon atom is delocalised between sheets of hexagons
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Why does graphite feel slippers

A

The weak London forces between layers in graphite are easily broken sot he sheets can slid over each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is graphite oftern used as and why

A

Dry lubricant and in pencils as slippery
Less dense - so is used to make strong lightweight sport equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Can graphite conduct electristy and why

A

The delocalised electrons in graphite arnt attached to any particular carbon atoms so are free to move along the sheets so an electric current can flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Is graphite less dense than diamond + why

A

Yes
The layers are quite far apart compared to the length of the covalent bond , so graphite is less dense than diamond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

does graphite have a high melting point + why

A

Strong covalent bonds in the hexagon sheets
Sumblimes ober 3900K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Is graphite soluble + why

A

No
The covalent bonds in the sheets are too strong to break

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is graphene

A

A sheet of carbon atoms joined together in hexagons
The Sheet is one atom thick, making a two dimensional compound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How many carbons is each carbon bonded to in graphene

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Is graphene a good electrical conductor + why

A

Yes
The delocalised electrons in graphene are free to move along the sheet, without layers they can move quickly above and below the sheet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Is graphene strong + why

A

Yes
The delocalised electrons also strengthen the covalent bonds between the carbon atoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are the properties of graphene

A

Good electrical conductor
Strong
Transparent and light ( as only a single layer )
High melting point
Insoluble

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Uses of graphene

A

High speed electronics
Aircraft’s technology
Touchscreens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are the properties of graphene that give it the uses of Hugh speed electrons and aircraft technology

A

High strength
Low mass
Good electrical conductor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the properties of graphene that give it the uses of touchscreens

A

Flexibility
Transparency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What do metal elements exist as

A

Giant metallic lattice structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Desicbe the structure and bonding if a giant metallic lattice structure

A

Rhe electrons in the outermost shell of metal atoms are delocalised
The electrons are free to move about the metal
This leaves a positive charged metal cations

The metal cations are elecrtostaticslly starched to the delocalised negative electrons, they form a lattice of closely packed cations in a sea of delocalised electrons,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What effects the melting point in giant metallic lattices

A

The number of delocalised electrons per atoms
The more there are the stronger the bonding will be and the higher the melting pinup

The size of the metal ions
The smaller ionic radius will hold the delocalised electrons closer the the nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Why are metals malleable and ductile

A

There are no bond shielding specific ions together so the metal ions can slide past each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Why are metals good thermal conductors

A

The delocalised electrons can pass kinetic energy to each others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Why are metals good electrical conductors

A

The delocalised electrons can move and carry a current

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

are metals soluble and why

A

No except in Liquid Metal’s
Becuase of the strength of metallic bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Properties of metals

A

Malleable
Ductile
Good thermal conductors
Good electrical conductors
Insoluble

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Why are the simple molecular structures got a low melting and boiling point

A

The covalent bonds between the atoms in the molecule are very strong, but the melting and boiling points of simple molecular substances depend upon the strength of the induced dipole-dipole forces between their molecules. These intermolecular forces are weak and easily overcome, so these elements have low melting and boiling points.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Why is the melting point in S8 bigger than phosphorus or chlorine

A

Sulphur us a bigger molecule so stronger London forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Why are the melting and boiling points in nobel gases very low

A

They exist as individual atoms
( so. Very weak London forces )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

For period 2, how does the melting and boiling points change across the period

A

For metals They increase across the period because the metallic bond get stronger as the ionic radius decreases and the number of delocalised electrons increase

Then at giants covalent lattices they have strong covalent bonds Linking all the atoms tougher
A lot of energy is needed to break these bonds

Then at simple molecular structures, have only weak intermolecular forces to overcome between there molecules so they have low melting and boiling points

The noble gases have the lowest melting points as they are held togetehr by the weakest force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What charge ions do group 2 elements form

A

2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

How does ionisation energy change down group 2 and why

A

Ionisation energy decreases
Due to increasing atomic radius and sheliding effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

How do reactivity change down group 2 and why

A

When group 2 elements react they lose electrons, forming positive ions
The easier it is to lose electrons, the more reactive the element
So reactive increases Down the group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

When group 2 elements react, are they oxidesed or reduces
And how do the oxidation states change

A

Oxidised
0 to +2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What do group 2 events react with water to produce

A

Metal Hydroxides + hydrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

How does reactivity with water to produce hydroxides differ between elements in group 2

A

Be = doesn’t react
Mg = very slowly
Ca= steadily
Sr- fairly quickly
Ba - rapidly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What do group 2 elements burn in oxides to produce

A

Solid white oxides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What do group 2 elements produce when they react with dilute acid

A

Salt and hydrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the general trend for how vigorous a reaction gets with group 2 metals down the group

A

Increases down the group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

The oxides and hydroxides of group 2 are …….., ………..in water and also ……….

A

Bases
Soluble
Alkalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What do the oxides of group 2 metals react readily with water to form.
What kind of PH is the solution
+ what is the exception

A

Metal hydroxides
Which dissolve

Strongly alkaline

Magnesium oxide as only reacts slowly and the hydroxide isn’t very souble

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Do the oxides form stoneger or weaker alkaline solution as you how down group 2 + why

A

Stringer
The hydroxides get more soluble

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the name for group 2 elements

A

Alkaline earth metals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What are many of group 2 compounds used for

A

Neutralising acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Uses of calcium hydroxide

A

Slakes lime
Used in agriculture to neutralise acidic soils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Uses of magnesium hydroxides and calcium carbonate

A

Used in some indigestion tables as antacids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Colour of florine

A

Pale yellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Colour of chlorine

A

Green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Colour of bromine

A

Red-brown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Colour of iodine

A

Grey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What state is florine in at 20°c

A

Gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What state is choline in at 20°c

A

Gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What state is bromine in at 20°c

A

Liquid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What state is iodine in at 20°c

A

Solid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What do halogens exist as

A

Diatomic molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

How does rhe boiling and melting point change down group 7 and why

A

Increases
Due to the increase if strength of London forces as the size and relative mass of the atom increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

How does volatile chmage down group 7

A

Decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What does it mean if a substance is said to be volatile

A

Said to have a low boiling point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What word should be used to describe a negative group 7 ion

A

Halide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

How do halogens react

A

By gaining an electron to there outer shell,l forming 1- ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Are Halogens reduced or oxidised

A

Reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Are holgens reducing agents or oxideisined agent +why

A

Oxidising agents as they oxidise another substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

How does atomic radii change down group 7

A

Increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Why does reactivity decrease down group 7

A

As you go down the group, the atomic radi increase so the outer electrons are further fron The outer electrons are also shielded more from the attraction of the positive nucleus, because they are more inner electrons
This makes it harder for larger atoms to attract the electron needed to form an ion ( despite the increased charge on the nucleus), so larger atoms are less reactive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What is another way of saying that halogens get less reactive down the group

A

They become less oxidising

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Where can halogens relative oxidising strengths can be seen

A

In their displacement reactions with halide ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

How can u make changes easier to see when doing a displacement reaction with halide ions

A

Shaking with an organic solvent like hexane
The halogen that’s present will dissolve readily in the organic solvent, which settles out as a disticny layer about the aqueous solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

When will a halogen displace a halide form a solution

A

If the halide is below it in the periodic table

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

How to test form haldies

A

Add nitric acid to remove ions that might interfere with the test
Then add silver nitrate solution
A precipitate is formed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

For the silver nitrate test for halide ions what colour will the precipitate be for chloride ions

A

White

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

For the silver nitrate test for halide ions what colour will the precipitate be for bromine ions

A

Cream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

For the silver nitrate test for halide ions what colour will the precipitate be for iodine ion

A

Yellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

How can you back up your silver nitrate test for halides

A

By adding ammonia solution
Each silver halide has a differnt c9ublity in ammonia, the larger the ion is the more difficult it is to dissolve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What colour is chlorine water

A

Colourless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What colour is bromine water

A

Yellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What colour is iodine solution

A

Orange / brown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What reaction takes places between KCl and chlorine water/ bromine water or iodine solution in either an aqueous solution or in organic solution

A

No reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What colour is KCl

A

Colourless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What colour is KBr

A

Coloureds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What colour is KI

A

Colourless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What colour is the reaction between KCl and choline water in an aqueous solution and in organic solution

A

Colourless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

How many group are on the periodic table

A

18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Second ionisation energy

A

Energy required to remove one electron form each ion in on mole of gaseous 1+ ions of an element to from one mole of gaseous 2+ ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Is second or first ionisation energy higher

A

Second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Units of ionisation energy

A

Kjmol-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Do group 2 hydroxides become more soluble up or down the group

A

Down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

All group 2 hydroxides when no soluble appear as a …..

A

White precipitate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Explain the observations of ca if excess h20 present

A

Effervescence
And solid ca dissapearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Is. Magnesium hydroxides soluble or insoluble in water

A

Insoluble

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Observation of magnesium hydroxides in water

A

A suspension of magnesium hydroxide in water
will appear slightly alkaline (PH9)
And some OH- ions must have been produces by a vert slight dissolving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What is calcium hydroxide classified as in term if solublitlity

A

Partially soluble I’m water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What is calcium hydroxides used in

A

Agriculture to neutralise acidic soils (slaked lime )
CaO- fuel gas desulfurisatuon
Limestone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What is magnesium hydroxide used in

A

Used as anti acids for treating acid indigestion

Milk of magnesia ( suspension of white mg2OH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Use of barium sulphate

A

Barium meal (medical diagnostic tool)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Observation of magnesium in water

A

No reaction (very slow) with cold water

Burns with white foam to from a white powder wig steam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Observation if calcium and water

A

Fizzes in water and after time a white soils forms , which is slightly soluble in water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Observation of Sr in water

A

Fizzes in water and form a colourl3ss solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Observation of barium in water

A

Fizzes in water and forms a colourless solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

A suspension of calcium hydroxide in water will appear what PH

A

Alkaline
11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Why does calcium hydroxide appear my alkaline in water than magnesium hydroxide

A

As it is more soluble so there will be more hydroxide ions present in solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What is limewater made of

A

Calcium hydroxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

How to test fro co2

A

Lime water
Turns cloudy as where calcium carbonate is produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Calcium oxide with water observations

A

Effervceseze
Solid ca disappeares
Solution forms

When solution becaime saturated and further metal ions - OH- will from, in a solid preciipitae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Does group 2 sulfate become less soluble up or down the group

A

Down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

All group 2 sulfate when not soluble appear as what …..?

A

White precipitates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

As group 2 becomes more reactive down the group

A

Fizzing (more vigorous down a group )
Metal disappearing (faster down the group )
Solution heating up ( greater temp change down the group)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What group 2 metal would would produce a white precipitate and why when reacted with water

A

Calsium
As it’s the least soluble hydroxide of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Summarise the displacement reaction with halogens amd ions

A

Dissolve chlorine, bromine and iodine to prodice chlroine, bromine and iodine water

The use a poppet to drop i, Cl and br water onto a 3 by 3 grid

Then drop a drop of potassium choride solution in one of each halide water, then again with potassium bromide solution and potassium iodide

You can then observe which displacement reactions take place via a colour change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Chlorine amd bromine react with water so they appear what in water

A

Partially soluble

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

What does HClO act as

A

Bleach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Describe the trend in atomic radius down group 7

A

Atomic radius increases as you go down the group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Explain the increasing in atomic radius down group 7

A

In all of group 7 the outer electrons have a net pull of 7+ from the nucleus
Therefore the only factor effecting size of the atom is the number of layers of inner electrons
The more layers of electrons the more space they take up. Means atoms are to get bigger down the group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What is the trend in Electronegativity down group 7

A

Falls down the groups as the atoms become less good at attracting bonding pairs of electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Explain the decreasing in Electronegativity down group 7

A

The bonding pair of electrons feel the same net pull of 7 +. However for larger atoms down the group the bonding pair is further away from the nucleus so it won’t be as strongly attracted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Trends in melting and boiling point down group 7

A

Both melting and bp rise as you go down the group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Explain the trend in mp and bp down group 7

A

All halogens exist as diatomic molecules so IMF between molecules are London forces
As the molecule gets bigger, more e- which move around and set up temporary dipoles, which create attractions. The stronger London forces means more energy needed to melt/boil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

What is bond enthalpy

A

The heat needed to break one mole of a covalent bond to produce individual atoms, starting form the origional substance in the gas state, and ending with gaseous atoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

What does bond ehtlapies in halogens depend on and what is the trend

A

Size of covalent bind attraction will depend on the distance form the bonding pair to tow nuclei
As all halogens - net pull of 7+ fro, both ends of the bond, so as the atom gets bigger bonding pairs get further from the nucleus so the strength of the bond falls.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Why is there an exception in bond enthalpys trend in F2

A

Because F-F atoms are so small it’s a very weak bind, as there are also 3 non binding pairs of electrons- as the bond is short the lone pairs get close enough to set up repulsion (weakening the bond)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

When halogen atoms attach to a H atoms the effect of the F-F weakened bond doesn’t ahppen, why

A

There are no lone pairs on hydrogen atoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

What colour is fluorine gas

A

Pale yellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

What colour is chlorine gas

A

Green gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

What colour is bromine liquid

A

Orange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

What colour is iodide solid

A

Black / grey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

What state is fluorine in at rtmp

A

Gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What state is chlorine in at rtmp

A

Gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

What state is bromine in at rtmp

A

Liquid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

What state is iodine at rtmp

A

Solid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

What colour is iodine gas ( and how does it become at gas)

A

Purple
Sublimes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

What colour is bromine gas

A

Orange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

What is the trend in oxidising ability down group 7

A

Decreasing down a group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

T or f
Stronger oxidising agents take the place of weaker oxidising agents

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

What colour is the separated layer of chlorine when mixed with cyclohexane

A

Pale green

184
Q

What colour is the separated layer of bromine when mixed with cyclohexane

A

Orange

185
Q

What colour is the separated layer of iodine when mixed with cyclohexane

A

Purple

186
Q

Is there a reaction between Bromine water and KCl in a aqueous solubtiom and organic solution
And what are the colours in each

A

No
aq - yellow
Organic - orange

187
Q

Is there a reaction between iodine solution and KCl in a aqueous solubtiom and organic solution
And what are the colours in each

A

No
Aq- organe / brown
Organic - purple

188
Q

Is there a reaction between chorine water and KBr in aqueous and organic solution + colours

A

Yes
Aq- yellow (br2)
Organic - orange (Br2)

189
Q

Is there a reaction between bromine water and KBr in aqueous and organic solution + colours

A

No
Aq- yellow
Organic - orange

190
Q

Is there a reaction between iodine solution and KBr in aqueous and organic solution + colours

A

No
Aq- orange / red
Organic - purple

191
Q

Is there a reaction between choline water and KI in aqueous and organic solution + colours

A

Yes
Aq- orange / brown ( I2)
Organic - purple (I2)

192
Q

Is there a reaction between bromine water and KI in aqueous and organic solution + colours

A

Yes
Aq- orange / brown (I2)
Organic - purple (I2)

193
Q

Is there a reaction between iodine solution and KI in aqueous and organic solution + colours

A

No
Aq - orange / brown
Organic - purple

194
Q

What is rhe symbol equation for chlorine with water

A

Cl2 + H2O -> HCL + HClO

195
Q

Chlorine normally dissolves inc after to give what colour

A

Pale green

196
Q

What is the name of HClO

A

Hypochlorous acid

197
Q

Is chorine and water a reversbale reaction

A

Yes

198
Q

If u add universal indicator is the products of chlorine and water what colour would it go

A

Red then HClO would bleach the colour

199
Q

What is the name of NaClO

A

Sodium hypochlorate

200
Q

What is the symbol equation of chlorine and dilute sodium hydroxide

A

Cl2 + NaOH —> NaCl + NaClO + H2O

201
Q

How does the reducing power of halide ions change down the groupo and why

A

Increases as more deadly donates electrons as the outer electrons are further away from the nucleus and there is more shielding

202
Q

Why does silver nitrate not work to test for fluorine

A

As silver floruide is soluble in water

203
Q

Why is the silver nitrate test is it first acidified with diluiste nitiric acid

A

To remove any CO3 2- o4 OH_ ions present. Nitiric acid is chosen because we are using silver nitrate so NO3- ions won’t have an effect

204
Q

If the colour isn’t obvious for the silver nitrate test for halide ions what can u do +what are the result s

A

Ammonia test
AgCl dissolves in dilute NH3
AgBr dissolves in conc NH3
Agl doesn’t dissolve

205
Q

Halogens react with cold dilute alkali solutions In what type of reaction

A

Disproportionation

206
Q

What is household bleach

A

NaClO

207
Q

What is sodium chlorite (l) solution used in

A

Water treatment
To Bleach paper and textiles
Toilet cleaner

208
Q

What are the products when chlorine mixes with water
And what type of reaction is thus

A

Hydrochloric acid and chloric (l) acid
Disproportionation

209
Q

What is another name for chloric (l) acid

A

Hypochlorous acid

210
Q

Aq chloric (l) acid ionises to make what

A

Chlorare (l) ions

211
Q

What is another name for chlorate (l) ions

A

Hypochlorite

212
Q

Why does added chlorine to water make it safe to drink

A

The product formed is chlorate (l) ions kill bacteria

213
Q

What does chlorine do to make water safe

A

Kills disease causing microorganisms

Some chrloine remains in water and prevents re infection further down the supply

It prevents the growth of algae, eliminating bad tastes and smells and removes discolouration caused by organic compounds

214
Q

How many people die each year due to waterborne disease such as …….

A

3.4 million
Eg. Cholera, typhoid, dysentery

215
Q

Risks of chlorine to treat water

A

Chlorine gas is very harmful if breathed in - irritates respiratory system

Liquid chlorine on the skin or eyes causes severe chemical burns

Water contains a variety of organic compounds. Chlorine reacts with these compounds to form chlorinated hydrocarbons
And many of these are carcinogenic

216
Q

what are the ethical considerations to chlorinated water

A

We don’t get a choice
Some people object to thus as forced ‘mass medication ‘

217
Q

What could u use as an alternative to chlorine to clean water

A

Ozone
Uv

218
Q

How does ozone (o3) clean water
+ negative

A

Strong oxidising agent which makes it great at killed microorganism
Expensive to protines and it’s short half life in water means that’s treatment isn’t permanent

219
Q

How Does UV light clean water
+ negatives

A

kills microorganism by damaging their DNA
ineffective in cloudy water and it won’t stop the water being contaminated further down the line

220
Q

How do u test for carbonates

A

Add dilute acid
If present then co2 will be released
Bubble through limewater - if co2 present limetwater turns cloudy ( as co2 forms a white precipitate of calcium carbonate)

221
Q

Why do you use barium chrloide to test for sulfate

A

More sulfate are soluble in water but barium sulfate is insoluble so a precipitate will form

222
Q

Explain the test for sulfate

A

Add dilute hcl
Then barium chloride solution

A white precipitate will form (barium sulfate)

223
Q

What is the test for halides

A

Nitric acid
+ silver nitrate solution
Silver chloride - white precipitate
Silver bromide - cream precipitate
Silver iodide - yellow precipitate

224
Q

If halide test is hard to see colour what further test can u do

A

Test solubility with ammonia
AgCl dissolves in dilute NH3
AgBr dissolves in Conc NH3
AgI is insoluble in NH3

225
Q

why does the litmus paper need to be damp during the ammonia test

A

so the ammonia gas can dissolve and make the colour change

226
Q

How to test if a substance contains ammonium ions

A

Add sodium hydroxide to your substance in a test tube and WARM the mixture. If ammonia is given off this means there are ammoniumions in your substanc

Ammonia gass is alkaline so to check use damp litmus paper- if present it will turn blue

227
Q

What order do u do the ions test in

A

Carbonates
Sulfate
Halides

228
Q

Describe the reaction between Cl- and br2
(No organic solvent used)

A

No reaction

229
Q

Describe the reaction between Cl- and I2
(No organic solvent used)

A

No reaction

230
Q

Describe the reaction between Br- and cl2
(No organic solvent used)

A

Yellow solution forms

231
Q

What is the equation for cl2 + br -

A

Cl2 + 2br- —> 2cl- + br 2

232
Q

Describe the reaction between br - and I2
(No organic solvent used)

A

No reaction

233
Q

Describe the reaction between I-and cl2
(No organic solvent used)

A

Brown solution forms

234
Q

Describe the reaction between I-and br2
(No organic solvent used)

A

Brown solution forms

235
Q

Order the oxidising power of halides

A

Chlorine
Bromine
Iodine

236
Q

Why does oxidising power decrease as you go down the group

A

Halogen atoms gain an electron when it oxidises the halide ion
The smaller the halogen atom the easier it is to gain an electron as it is smaller and less sheilding

237
Q

Uses of chlorine

A

Kills bacteria ( used to treat drinking water)
Testies
Insecticides
20% of chlorine is used to make OVC. ( versatile plastic used in window frames, water pipes, electrial wiring insulation)
Oxidising agent
85% if pharmaceuticals use Charlie us or it’s compounds at some stage

Used as a chemical weapon in ww1

In the past used to make chloroform

238
Q

What is the biological role of the choride ion

A

Mostly present in cell fluid as a negative ion to balence the positive (mainly potassiom) ions. Also present in extra cellular fluid. To valence positively ( mainly sodium ioms

We get most the chloride we need firm salt

239
Q

What is the main mineral minned for chlorine

A

Halite
(Sodium chloride)

240
Q

What happens when chlorine is added to water
+ how does this clean water

A

A Disproportionation reaction takes place,
Both products are acids - the bacteria is killed by chloric (l) acid and chlorate (l) ions

241
Q

Why is barium chloride solution used to test for sulfate

A

Most sulfate are soluble in water but barium sulfate isn’t its very insoluble

242
Q

What should u use instead of barium chloride if u are doing the haldie test after

A

Barium nitrate
( otherwise u are introducing chloride ions into the solution)

243
Q

How should u alter the carbonate test I fu are testing for multiple ions in one iolution

A

Continue adding nitiric acid until bubbling tops so all the CO3 2- ions will have been removed

244
Q

How should u alter the sulfate test if u are testing for a mixture of ions in one solution

A

Add an excess of barium nitrate
Any sulfate ions present will precipitate our as barium sulfate
Filter

245
Q

Why is the order of anion tests important

A

CO3 2- must come first because you add dilute acid - you are looking for co2 gas. Niether sulfate of halides produce bubbles with dilute acid - so it can be carried out without the probability of an incorrect result

SO4- if u carried out the sulfate test on the carbonate you will. Get a white precipitate tooo so u need to carry out the carbonate test first

Halides - silver carbonate and silver sulfate are both inssoluble in water + will both form precipitates so u must do this test last

246
Q

What is enthalpy change

A

delta H m is the heat energy transferred in a reaction at constant pressure. The unsure if deltas are KJ mol-1

247
Q

What does deltaH O(with a line through and up small )

A

Shows that the measurements were made under standard conditions and that the elements were in their standard states (ie. Their physical states under standard conditions)

248
Q

What are standard conditions

A

100kpa (about 1atm) pressure
298K (25°c)
Solution at 1mol dm -3
All substances should be in tori normal states at 298K

249
Q

What is an exothermic reaction

A

Gives out energy

250
Q

In exothermic reaction is delta H positive or negative

A

Negative

251
Q

Is oxidation usually exothermic or endothermic

A

Exothermic

252
Q

Guve 2 exampl3z of when oxidation is exothermic

A

Combustion of a fuel like methane (delta r H standard = -890 KJ mol-1 exothermic )

The oxidation of carbohydrates such as glucose in respiration

253
Q

What is an endothermic reaction

A

Absorb energy
Delta H is positive

254
Q

Give 2 examples of endothermic reactions

A

Thermal decomposition - of calcium carbonate is endothermic (delta r H standard = +178 Kj mol -1)

The main reactions in photosynthesis are also endothermic - sunlight provides the energy

255
Q

What do enthalpy profile diagrams show you

A

How the enthalpy changed during reactions

256
Q

What is activation energy

A

The minimum amount of energy needed to begin breaking reactant bonds and start a chemical reaction

257
Q

In endothermic reactions are reactant or products more stable

A

Reactants

258
Q

In exothermic reactions are reactants or products more stable

A

Products

259
Q

The Delta H arrow should point which way for endothermic changes

A

Up

260
Q

The Delta H arrow should point which way for exothermic changes

A

Down

261
Q

What is the activation energy drawn between on an enthalpy profile diagram

A

Reactants and the top most point of the graph

262
Q

The less enthalpy a substance has rhe ……… stable it is

A

More

263
Q

What are the 2 ways to find enthalpy changes

A

Experiment
Data books

264
Q

What are entahlpy changed you find in data books usually

A

Standard enthalpy changes

265
Q

Why is it important to use standard conditions

A

Becuse changed in enthalpy are effected by temperature and pressure
Using standard conditions means that everyone can know exactly what the enthalpy is describing

266
Q

What is standard enthalpy change if reaction

A

The enthalpy change when the reaction occurs in the molar quantities shown in the chemical equation under standard conditions with all reactants and products in their standard states

267
Q

What is standard enthalpy change of formation

A

The enthalpy change when 1 mole of a compound is formed form its elements in this standard states, under standard conditions

268
Q

What is standard enthalpy change of combustion

A

The enthalpy change when 1 mole of a substance is completely burned in oxygen under standard conditions with all reactants and products in their standard states

269
Q

What is standard enthalpy change of neutralisation

A

The enthalpy change when an acid and a base react togetehr under standard conditions to form 1 mole of water with all reactants and products In their standard states

270
Q

What is thermodynamics

A

Thermodynamics is the study of energy changes in a reaction, it allows us to look at stability of products and whether a reaction will occur or not.

271
Q

What is a system

A

A system is the chemical or chemicals
being studied. If the system is closed there
is no exchange between the system and
the surroundings.

272
Q

What is enthalpy change

A

An enthalpy change, ∆H, is the overall energy exchanged with the surroundings when a change happens at constant pressure and the final temperature is the same as the starting temperature. Units for ∆H are kjmol-1.

273
Q

What are standard enthalpy changed

A

Standard enthalpy changes refer to reactions done under standard conditions, and with everything present in their standard states. Standard states are sometimes referred to as “reference states”.
Standard conditions are:
• 298 K (25°C)
• a pressure of 1 atm (100 kPa).
• where solutions are involved, a concentration of 1 mol dm-3

274
Q

Exothermic example

A

Combustion
Respiration
Hot packs
Freezing

275
Q

Endothermic examples

A

Melting and vaporisation
Photosynthesis

276
Q

Why must energy be supplied to state a reaction

A

For a reaction to occur bonds must be broken and new ones formed

277
Q

Units for actaivation energy

A

KJ mol -1

278
Q

Activation energy definition

A

the minimum energy required to start a reaction by the breaking of bonds

279
Q

Endothermic reaction definition

A
  • a reaction in which the enthalpy of the products is greater than the enthalpy of the reactants, resulting in heat being taken in form the surroundings (delta H + ve)
280
Q

enthalpy definition

A

the heat content that is stored in a chemical system

281
Q

Exothermic reaction definition

A

a reaction in which the enthalpy of the products is smaller than the enthalpy of the reactants, resulting in heat loss to the surroundings ( delta H - ve)

282
Q

What is the standard enthalpy change of formation of an element always

A

0

283
Q

What is enthalpy

A

The measure of heat energy in a chemical system

284
Q

Can you measure enthalpy

A

No but you can measure enthalpy change

285
Q

How do you calculate enthalpy change

A

Enthalpy of products - enthalpy of reactants

286
Q

What is enthalpy change of reaction

A

Heat given out or taken in as the reaction takes place

287
Q

What is the enthalpy change equation
+ units

A

Energy (J) = mass of water (g) x specific heat capacity x temp change (c or K)

Energy (kj) / moles

288
Q

How do u find temp change

A

T final - t inital

289
Q

Is a rise in temp exo or endothermic

A

Exothermic

290
Q

Is a drop in temp exo or endothermic

A

Endothermic

291
Q

What is specific heat capacity of the surroundings

A

The energy required to raise the temperature of 1g of a substance by 1k

292
Q

After an exothermic reaction calc, what do you add to the answer

A
  • Infront of answer
293
Q

After an endothermic reaction calc, what do you add to the answer

A

+

294
Q

What is calorimetry

A

Substances are mixed in an insulated container

295
Q

Scope for error of calorimetry

A

Loss of heat energy
Assumption that all substances have the same specific heat capacity of water
What about the specific heat capacity of the calorimeter
Slow or incomplete reaction
assumptions that density of suction = 1g/cm3

296
Q

General calorimetric methord

A

washes the equipment (cup and pipettes etc) with the solutions to be used dry the cup after washing
put polystyrene cup in a beaker for insulation and support
Measure out desired volumes of solutions with volumetric pipettes and transfer to insulated cup
clamp thermometer into place making sure the thermometer bulb is immersed in solution measure the initial temperatures of the solution or both solutions if 2 are used. Do this every minute for 2-3 minutes
At minute 3 transfer second reagent to cup. If a solid reagent is used then add the solution to the cup first and then add the solid weighed out on a balance.
If using a solid reagent then use ‘before and after’ weighing method
stirs mixture (ensures that all of the solution is at the same temperature)
Record temperature every minute after addition for several minutes

297
Q

In the calorimetric method if the reaction is slow than the exact temperature rise, can be difficult to obtain as cooling occurs simultaneously with reaction. How can you counteract this?

A

Take readings at regular time intervals and extrapolate the temperature curve line back to the time the reactants were added together and also take the temperature of the act a few minutes before they added together to get a better average temperature. If the two reactants are solutions and the temperature of both solutions need to be measured before addition and an average temperature is used.

298
Q

Is bond breaking endo or exothermic

A

Eno

299
Q

Is bond forming endo or exothermic

A

Exo

300
Q

Stronger bonds take …….. energy to breaks

A

More

301
Q

The amount of energy you need per mole to break bonds is called what

A

Bond dissociation enthalpy

302
Q

Bond dissociation enthalpy always involve bond breaking in what type of compounds and why

A

Gaseous
To make comparisons fair

303
Q

Water has two O-H bonds
Does it take the same amount of energy to break Both
And why

A

No
First is higher as OH- is easier to break apart because of extra electron repulsion

304
Q

Why is the data book for O-H bond enthalpy bigger

A

It’s an average for a bigger range of molecules

305
Q

What is the literature average bond enthalpy

A

The energy needed to break one mole of bonds in the gas phase, averaged over many differnt compounds

306
Q

What do you need to know for the enthalpy change for a reaction

A

The number of moles of the stuff that is reaction
Change in temp

307
Q

How do you find the enthakpy of combustion of a flammable liquid

A

Burn it
As fuel burns, it heats the water. You can work out the heat, absorbed by the water. If you know the mass of water and temperature change. 

308
Q

What is specific heat capacity of water

A

4.18 J g-1 K-1

309
Q

The enthalpy change accompanying a chemical change is independent of …..

A

The route by which the chemical changes occur

310
Q

What is bond dissociation enthalpy

A

The amount of energy required to break one mole of a specific covalent bond in the gas phase

311
Q

T or f
The magnitude of the energy required to break a specific bond is equal to energy to reform thus same bone

A

T

312
Q

T or f
All covalent bonds require th same energy to break

A

F

313
Q

How can energy required to break differnt covalent bonds be found

A

Experimentally from calorimetry
Data book values

314
Q

Why are values of bond energy found experimentally for calorimetry differnt from data book values

A

Data book uses mean bond enthalpies

315
Q

What is mean (average) bond enthalpy

A

Enthalpy needed to break one mole of covalent bond in a gaseous molecules, averaged over differnt molecules

316
Q

Is mean bond enthalpy positive or negative
Why

A

Positive
As energy is required to break bond - only applied when substance starts and ends in gaseous state

317
Q

What can actual bond enthalpy vary depending on

A

Chemical environment of the bond

318
Q

What is Hess law

A

The total enthalpy change of a reaction is always the same, no matter which route is taken

319
Q

Describe Hess law with an equation

A

Route 1 = route 2

320
Q

In any chemical reaction energy is absorbed to ………….. and given out ……..

A

Break bonds
During bond formation

321
Q

The differnce between the energy absorbed and released is the ………

A

Overall enthalpy change of reaction

322
Q

A reaction won’t take place between two particles unless…..
And what is this called

A

1) they collide in the right direction, they need to be facing each other in the right way
2) they collide with at least a certain minimum amount of kinetic energy

Collision theory

323
Q

What is activation energy

A

The minimum amount of kinetic energy particles need to react
(The particals need this much energy to break bonds to start the reaction )

324
Q

Reactions with low activation energies happen easily or are moredifficult

A

Easily

325
Q

How can you give particles energy

A

By heating them

326
Q

Do new bonds need energy ot release energy

A

Release energy

327
Q

On an energy profile diagram, whilst the graph is rising towards activation energy what is happening to the particles

A

The bond within each particle are being stretched

328
Q

Molecules in a liquid or gas , do all the particles have the same kinetic energy

A

No
Some don’t have much and move slowly
Some have loads of kinetic energy and move quickly
Most are imbetween

329
Q

If you plot a graph of the number molcules in a substance with differnt kinetic energies you get a ……

A

Boltzmann distribution

330
Q

Describe Boltzmann distribution

A
  • curve starts at (0,0) because no molecules have 0 energy
  • then an increase as a few molecules are moving slowly
  • the top part, most molecules are moving at a moderate speed so their energies are in this range
  • then decrease, and anything after the activation energy line are the only molecules that have more energy than the activation energy, these are the only ones that can react
331
Q

If you increase the temperature , what will happen to the particles on average

A

More kinetic energy and will move faster
So will collide more oftern ( tempt reaction is faster)

332
Q

How will an increase in temperature effect the Boltzmann distribution curve

A

Greater proportion of molecules will have at least the activation energy and be able to react , this shifts the graph to the right

333
Q

The origional Boltzmann distribution curve and an increased temperature curve will have what in common

A

The total number of molecules is the same which means the area under each curve must be the same

334
Q

How does increasing concentration speed up reactions

A

If you increases the conc of reactants in a solution, the particles will be closer together, on average,
If they’re closer, they’ll collide more frequently
If there are more collisions they will have more chances to react

335
Q

How does increasing pressure speed up reactions

A

if any of your reactants are gases, increases the pressure will increase the rate of reaction.
It’s pretty much the same as increasing conc of solution, at higher pressures, the particles will be closer together, increasing the chance of successful collisions

336
Q

how does catalysts speed up reactants

A

Catalysts lower the activation energy by providing a differnt reaction pathway
If the activation energy is lower, more particles will have enough energy to react

337
Q

Catalyst definition

A

A catalyst increases the rate of reaction by providing an alternative reaction pathway with a
Lower activation energy, the catalyst is chemically unchanged at the end of the reaction

338
Q

Why do you only need a tiny bit of catalyst

A

They don’t get used up in reactions
They take part in reactions but they are remade at the end

339
Q

Do all catalysts work on everything

A

No
Many will usually only work on a single reaction

340
Q

What catalysts is used in the harbour process

A

Iron

341
Q

How does activation energy change on an enthalpy profile diagram when a catalyst is added

A

it is lower

342
Q

How does adding a catalyst effect the Boltzmann distribution curve

A

Activation energy line is lower
So more particles have the activation energy

343
Q

What 2 categories can catalysts be split into

A

Heterogenous catalysts

Homogenous catalyst

344
Q

What is a heterogenous catalysts

A

One that is in a differnt phase form the reactants
(Eg, in a differnt physical state for example the harbour process, gases are passed over a solid iron catalyst)

The reaction happens on the surface of the heterogenous catalyst. So increasing the surface area of the catalyst increases the number of molecules that can react at the same time , increasing the area of reaction

345
Q

How does increasing surface of heterogenous catalyst effect the rate of reaction

A

The reaction happens on the surface of the heterogenous catalyst. So increasing the surface area of the catalyst increases the number of molecules that can react at the same time , increasing the area of reaction

346
Q

What is a homogeneous catalysts

A

Homogeneous catalysts are in the same physical state as reactants
Usually a homogenous catalyst is an aqueous catalyst for a reaction between two aqueous solutions

347
Q

How does a homogenous catalyst work

A

By forming an intermediate species, the reactants combine with the catalyst to make an intermediate species , which then reacts to form the product and reform the catalyst

348
Q

Why do lots of industry’s rely on catalyst

A

They can lower the production costs, give more products in a shorter time and help make better products
(Eg, iron in ammonia production, if it wasn’t for the catalyst then temp would be raised loads to make reaction happen quick enough which would be expensive and reduced the amount of ammonia produced)

349
Q

give an example of how using a catalysts can change the properties of a product to make it more useful
(Eg, poly(ethene) )

A

Made without a catalyst - less dence, lesss rigid

made with a catalyst - more dence, more rigid, higher melting point

350
Q

How is using a catalyst sustainable

A

lower temps and pressures can be used to
So energy saves, less co2 released and fossil fuels reserves are preserved
Catalysts can also reduce waste by allowing differnt reactions to be used with a better atom economy

351
Q

What are catalytic converters on cars made from

A

Alloys of platinum, palladium and rhodium

352
Q

What do catalystic converters on cars do

A

They reduce the pollution released into the atmosphere by spreeding up the reaction,
2CO +2NO —> 2CO2 +N2

353
Q

What are kinetics

A

Study of factors that effect the rate of chemical reactions

354
Q

What is activation energy

A

Minimum energy needed to start a chemical reaction

355
Q

What factors effect rate of reaction

A

Temp
Conc
Pressure
Sa
Catalysts

356
Q

How does increasing temp effect rate

A

Increasing the temperature gives particles more kinetic energy. This makes particles move faster and with more energy, which means they are likely to have more frequent successful collisions if they encounter each other.

357
Q

How does increasing concentration effect rate

A

Increasing the concentration increases the number of particles in a given volume which makes them more likely to encounter each other. This means there will be more frequent successful collisions.

358
Q

How does increasing pressure affect rate

A

Increasing the pressure means the same number of particles are in a smaller space/volume. This means they are more likely to encounter each other and thus more frequent successful collisions

359
Q

How does increasing surface area effect rate

A

Increasing the surface area causes there to be more surface for the particles to react on. This means they are more likely to come into contact with each other, meaning more frequent successful collisions.

360
Q

What does a catalyst do

A

Provides an alternative route for the reaction with a lower activation energy
This means more particles are able to react, so a faster rate

361
Q

Give some examples of reactions that happen every fast

A

Combining NaCl(aq) with AgNO3 (aq) produces a rapid precipitation forming AgCl (s)

Combustion of natural gas

A neutralisation reaction between an acid and an alkali

Hydrogen balloon ( barking dog reactions)

362
Q

What does rate mean

A

Joe fast a reactant is used up or how fast a product is formed

363
Q

What is rate of reaction

A

Change in conc. of reactants / products over time

364
Q

What are the units for rate of reaction

A

Mol dm -3 s -1

365
Q

What is Collision theory

A

Two reactant particles must collide for a recation to occur
Some collisions are effect while others are ineffective

366
Q

What does they collision have to be to be effective

A

Particles collide with correct orientation
Participles have sufficient energy to overcome the activation energy barrier of the reactionn

367
Q

How can you monitor rate of reaction

A

Monitor removal of reactants
Monitor formation of a product

  • reactions where mass is lost
  • recation that produce gas
  • reactions where turbidity is measured
368
Q

What is a catalyst

A

Increases rate of reaction by providing an alternative recation pathway with a lower activation energy.
They arnt used up so can be recovered chemically unchanged at the end of the reaction

369
Q

What is most commonly used as catalysts

A

Transition metals
Or ‘valuable’ metals such as gold, platinum

370
Q

What 2 ways can catalysts work

A

Can react with a reactant to form an intermediate
Or
Provide a surface for a reactopn to take place

371
Q

What is a homogenous catalysts

A

Same physical state
Catalysts react with reactants to form an intermediate
Intermediate breaks down to give products

372
Q

Give 2 examples of homogenous catalysts

A

H2SO4 catalysed
Alcohol + Carboxylic acid —> water + ester

Cl. Catlsyses
Ozone —> O2

373
Q

What is a heterogenous catalyst (describe )

A

Differnt physical states to reactants
Usually solid in contact with gaseous reactants
Reactant molesculex are adsorbed onto surface where the reaction takes place
After the reaction , desorption of the product molecules occurs

374
Q

What does adsorbed mean

A

Weakly bonded

375
Q

What do catalytic converters do

A

Convert poisonous co, various nitrogen oxides in car exhausts into less harmful, co2 and N2

376
Q

What is used in catalystic converters

A

Platinum
Palladium
Rhodium
(As the heterogenous catalyst )

377
Q

How is the metal catalyst deposited in catalystic converted

A

Into thin layers onto a ceramic honeycomb, which maximises Sa and keeps amount of metal to a minimum

378
Q

2CO + 2NO. —-> ……..?
Catalystic converter reacher

A

2CO2 + N2

379
Q

When is nickle used as a catalyst

A

Hydrogenation

380
Q

How are catalysts sustainable

A

Approximately 90% of all materials use a catalyst
Use of a catalyst enables lower temperature so reduces energy requirements, making it cheaper
It enables products to meet faster so increases profits
Catalyst increase rate, reduce waste products and energy consumption

381
Q

What can happen to some catalysts so that they reduce in effectiveness

A

Can become ‘poisened’ by impurities

382
Q

What do industries need to consider when making a sustaible process

A

High atom economy
Few pollutants

383
Q

What is autocatalysts

A

A chemical reaction is said to have undergone autocatalysis if a reaction product acts as a catalyst for that reaction. Typically, the reaction starts slowly, and then speeds up as the products are formed. 

384
Q

What does area under the maxwells blotzman distribution curve equal

A

The total number of molecules

385
Q

What word can be used to describe the maxwells boltzman curve

A

Asymptotic

386
Q

Why is the maxwell boltzman distribution curve asymptotic

A

Never touched x axis as that would mean giving a energy limit

387
Q

Molecules in any gas are all moving at differnt ……

A

Velocities

388
Q

How does a higher temperature effect the boltzman distribution curve

A

At higher temperatures, the peak of the curve is lower and moves to the right
The number of reactant molecules were very high energy increases
The total area under the curve is the same
A small increase in temperature can cause a large increase in rate of reaction due to the significant increase in the number of molecules with energy greater than the activation energy

389
Q

How does increasing conc effect the maxwell boltzman distribution curve

A

If a concentration of the reactant molecules is increased, the curve retains the same basic shape, but the peak is higher higher. This indicates that there are more reactant molecules therefore greater area under the curve increasing concentration has a less significant effect on reaction and increasing temperature.

390
Q

How does the presence of a catalyst affect the maxwell boltzman distribution code?

A

By providing an alternative route with lower activation energy, the amount of reactant molecules with energy greater than the new activation energy increases

391
Q

What is the reactionary e

A

The rate at which a product is formed or a reactant is used up

392
Q

Rate of recation equation

A

Amount of reactant used or product formed
———— ————————————————-
Time

393
Q

How can you measure rate of reaction forms. Change in mass
+ advantage and disadvantages e

A

Change in mass
1) When the product is a gas, its formation can be measured using a mass balance.
2) The amount of product formed is the mass disappearing from the container.
3) When the reaction starts, you should start a stop clock or timer.
Then take mass measurements at regular time intervals.
4) Make a table with a column for ‘time’ and a column for ‘mass’ and fill it in as the reaction goes on.
5) You’ll know the reaction is finished when the reading on the mass balance stops decreasing.
6) This method is very accurate and easy to use but does release gas into the room, which could be dangerous if the gas is toxic or flammable.

394
Q

How can you measure rate of reaction of a gas given off
+ advantage and disadvantage

A

Volume of gas given off
1) You can use a gas syringe to measure the volume of product formed.
2) The experiment is carried out the same way as above but you measure the volume of gas in the syringe rather than the mass from the balance.
3) This method is accurate but vigorous reactions can blow the plunger out of the syringe.

395
Q

Except form change in mass and volume of gas given of
What other ways are there to measure amount of reactant used or product formed

A

Changed in pressure (for gases)
Changed in colour ( for solutions)
Changes in conductivity

396
Q

How can you measure rate of reaction form a graph

A

The gradient (tangent)

397
Q

How can reversible reactions reach equilibrium

A

2) As the reactants get used up, the forward reaction slows down — and as more product is formed, the reverse reaction speeds up.
31 After a while, the forward reaction will be going at exactly the same rate as the backward reaction so the amounts of reactants and products won’t be changing any more — it’ll seem like nothing’s happening
4) This is called dynamic equilibriume

398
Q

What happens at dynamics equlibrium

A

. At equilibrium the concentrations of reactants and products stay constant

399
Q

When can dynamic equilibrium only happen

A

In a closed system

400
Q

What is a closed system

A

Nothing can get in or out

401
Q

What principle predicts what will happen if conditions are changed at equilibrium

A

Le chatelier

402
Q

What can alter the position of an equlibrium

A

Concentration
Pressure
Temeperature

403
Q

If the equlibrium moves to the ……l you get more reactants

A

Left

404
Q

If the position of equlibrium moves to the right you get more …

A

Products

405
Q

If there is a change in conditions
The equilibrium will move to …… the change

A

Counteract

406
Q

If you increase the conc of recants
What will happen with the equilibrium

A

The equilibrium tries to get rid of the extra reactant
It does ur by making more products so the equilibrium is shifted to the right
Decreasing the concentration has the opposite effect

407
Q

If you increase the pressure what happens to the equilibrium

A

Shift the equilibrium to the side with the fewer gas molecules
Thus reduced the pressure

408
Q

If you decrease the pressure what happens to the equilibrium

A

Shifts the equilibutm to the side with more gas molecules
This raises the pressure again

409
Q

How does increasing tempertire effect equilibrium

A

Shifts in the endothermic (positive delta H) direction to absorb heat

410
Q

How does decreasing tempertire effect equilibrium

A

Equilibrium shifts in the exothermic (negative delta Hl direction to try replace the heat

411
Q

If the forward reaction is endothermic what will the reverse reaction be

A

Exothermic

412
Q

How do catalysts effect the position of equilibrium
And why

A

They don’t
They speed up the forward and reverse reaction by the same amount
So they can’t increase yield, but they do mean equlibrium is reached faster

413
Q

How is ethanol produced
And what are the conditions

A

Via a reversible exothermic reaction eg tween ethene and steam
60-70atmospheres, 300°c, phosphoric (v) catalyst

414
Q

Why are conditions compromised in the formation of ethanol

A

I Because it’s an exothermic reaction, lower temperatures favour the forward reaction.
This means more ethene and steam are converted to ethanol at lower temperatures — you get a better yieid.
2 But lower temperatures mean a slower rate of reaction. So the 300 °C is a compromise between maximum yield and a faster reaction:
Higher pressures favour the forward reaction, so a pressure of 60-70 atmospheres is used — high pressure moves the reaction to the side with fewer molecules of gas.
Increasing the pressure also increases the rate of reaction.
But high pressures are expensive to produce, you need stronger pipes and container to withstand high pressures. In this process, increasing pressure also causes a side reaction to occur
So the 60-70 atmospheres is a compromise between maximum yield and expense

In the end it comes down to minimising costs

415
Q

What do you need to work on the equilibrium constant

A

Homogenous reaction
Dynamic equilibrium
(Using conc of the products and reactants at equilibrium)

416
Q

What is equilibrium constant written at

A

Kc

417
Q

What is a homogeneous reaction

A

Where all the reactants and products are in the same physical state

418
Q

What does Kc give you an idea of

A

How far to the left or right the equilibrium is

419
Q

What is the expression for Kc

A

aA +bB ->(reverisble) dD + eE

Kc = [D]^d [E]^e
—- ————-
[A]^a [B]^b

The products go on the top line, the square brackets mean conc in mol dm-3

Lower case = the number of moles of each substance

420
Q

How do you Calculate Kc

A

You can put the equilibrium conc into the expression

421
Q

How can you estimate the position of equilibrium using the value of Kc

A

The larger, the value of KC, the further to the right, the equilibrium lies, and the more products there are relative to reactants

The smaller the value of Kc, the further to the left, the equilibrium lies , the more reactants there are relative to products

422
Q

In a closed system the brown gas NO2 exists in equilibrium with …………….
What can this be used to investigate

A

Colourless gas N2O4
Effect of change in temp on equilibrium position

423
Q

How can you use NO2 to investigate effect of changing temp on equilibrium position

A

Place two sealed tubes containing the equilibrium mixture in water baths — one in a
warm water bath and one in a cool water bath, and observe the colours of the mixure, The tube in the warm water bath will change to a darker brown colour as the
endothermic reaction speeds up to absorb the extra heat, pushing equilibrium to the let The tube in the cool water bath will lose colour as the exothermic reaction speeds up to try and replace the lost heat, pushing equilibrium to the right.

424
Q

How do you investigate changing conc on position of equilibrium

A

Mixing iron (lll) nitrate (yellow) and potassium thiocyanate (colourles) results in a reversible reaction where the product is iron(Ill) thiocyanate (blood red). You end up with the following equilibrium…

Fe 3+ + 3SCN- —->< Fe(SCN)3

You can invest age what happens to the equilibrium position when the conc of products or reaction s are changed by monitoring the colour of solution

Methord:
1) take test tube 1 is the ‘control) and nothing is added to it, it keeps its initial reddish colour
2) add some iron (lll) nitrate to test tube 2, the mixture turns a deep red colour
3) add some post assist thiocyanate to test tube 3, the mixture is a deep red coooyr
4) add some iron (lll) thiocyanate to test tube 4. The mixture turned a yellow colour r

By adding more reactants the forwards reaction. Speeds up to produce more products (as seen by test tube 2 and 3) so equilibrium moves to right

By adding more productsm the reverse reaction speeds up to produce more reactants ( as seen by test tube 4) do equilibrium moves to the left

425
Q

Equilibrium example
(Coppersulphate)

Which direction is endothermic

A

Hydrated copper sulphae =(revsible) anydoruse copper sulphate + water

Forwards

426
Q

What is dynamic equilibrium

A

Forwards and backwards reaction occur at the same time (simultaneous
Y) and at the same rate
Concentrations become constant

427
Q

What is the harber process equation

A

N2 (g) + 3H2 ==> 2NH3 (g)

428
Q

What % of ammonia from the harber process is used to make fertilizersn

A

85%

429
Q

What are the main 3 elements in fertilisers

A

NPK

430
Q

Where does nitrogen for the harber process come from

A

The air

431
Q

Where does hydrogen for the harber process come from

A

Reaction of methane with steam

432
Q

What 3 things can you change to chnageb yield

A

Pressure
Temp
Conc

433
Q

What 2 things do you need to check for, before changing pressure to alter yield

A

It only work if gases
Check number of moles on either side, same number will have no effectc

434
Q

What is le chateliers principle

A

If a change is made to the conditions of a system at equilibrium. Then the position of equilibrium moves to the oppose that change in conditonsn

435
Q

What happens to equlibrium in the harber process if we….
Increase N2

A

System opposes the change by
Shifting the position of equilibrium to the right in the forwards direction
This results in a greater yield og NH3

436
Q

What happens to equlibrium in the harber process if we….
Decrease the temperature

A

The system opposes this change by
Shifting position of equilibrium to the right in the forward (exothermic) direction
This results in an increased yield of NH3

437
Q

Why is compromised made on temperature in the harber process
What is the compromise

A

Lowering temp decrease rate
450°c

438
Q

What happens to equlibrium in the harber process if we….
Increase the pressure

A

The system will oppose this change by
Shifting the position of equilibrium to the right which is the side with fewer moles
This results in an increase in tell of NH3

439
Q

Condititin needed for an equilibrium

A

A closed system is isolated from its surroundings; temperature, pressure and concentrations are unaffected by outside influences.

The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the backward reaction.

The concentrations of reactants and products do not change.

440
Q

How can you tell equilibrium has been reached on a conc to time graph

A

Plateos

441
Q

When a system in equilibrium is subjected to an external change the system….

A

readjusts itself to minimise the effect of that change

442
Q

When the position of equilibrium shifts to the left, it means the concentration of reactants

A

Increases

443
Q

When the position of equilibrium shifts to the right, it means the concentration of products

A

Increases

444
Q

What is homogenous equilibria

A

All equilibrium species are in the same state ( phase)

445
Q

What is heterogenous equlibria

A

Species have differnt states (phases)

446
Q

What is the reversible reaction of hydrated copper(ll) sulphate symbol equation

A

CuSO4.5H2O (s) = CuSO4(s) + 5 H2O(l)

447
Q

What is the ammonium chloride decomposition symbol equation

A

NH4Cl (s) = NH3(g7 + HCl (g)

448
Q

What is the equilibrium law

A

If the conc , of all substances present at equilibrium are raised to the power of the number of moles they appear in the equation, the product of the conc. of the roductx divided by the product of the conc, of the reactants is a constant.
Provided temp. Remains constant

449
Q

What is used to represent conc

A

[]

450
Q

What is the only thing that effects the value of Kc

A

Temp

451
Q

What does the equilibrium constant tell you

A

The actual position of equilibrium

452
Q

What does the magnitude of the quill room constant indicate

A

Whether there are more reacts of more products in an equilibrium system

453
Q

What does rhe Kc value 1 indicate

A

A position of equlibrium that is halfway between reactants and products

454
Q

What does the Kc value above 1 indicate

A

A position of equilibrium that is towards the products

455
Q

What does the Kc value Bellow one indicate

A

A position of equilibrium that is towards the reactants

456
Q

What are the units of Kc

A

Varies
It may not have any units

457
Q

How do u do heterogenous equilibrium

A

When writing Kc expressions, omit any chemical substances that are solids or liquids, we only include aqueouse and gaseous chemical substances
This is because the conc. of solids and liquids are essentially constant