3 - PA Flashcards

1
Q

what is the definition of architectural programming?

A

important part of early design process, identify and organize the architectural, functional, aesthetic, operational, and budgetary needs of your client

put into written document called a “program”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

name 5 phases that are performed during programming

A
  1. gathering data: site surveys, use, building type, codes/zoning req, budget, schedule
  2. establishing goals: interview of owner, design goals & potential issues
  3. mapping functions: spatial requirements/sizes, adjacencies/relationships
  4. setting priorities: order of importance based on budget
  5. researching requirements: technical req, equipment, operations, performance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

true or false: programming and architectural design are completely independent of one another

A

true

during programming, problems of the project are sought out and documented

during design, problems are discussed and solutions are developed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what four items should be considered during programming?

A
  1. building function
  2. building form
  3. project budget
  4. project schedule
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

describe the programming process

A
  1. discuss goals of project with owner
  2. organize all project-specific information (codes, site conditions, bldg users, etc.)
  3. determine building hierarchy of spaces
  4. determine priorities of owner
  5. develop problem that must be solved through building design
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

if done correctly, programming should…

A
  1. clarify owner’s intentions
  2. set mutually agreed upon design direction
  3. reduce change orders during construction
  4. minimize disputes btw. owner and architect
  5. establish basis for resolving difference of opinion
  6. minimize redundancy from wasted spaces or poor relationships
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

aquifer

A

layer of water flowing underground (underground stream)

the presence of an aquifer could supply fresh water to the building, or limit the depth of the foundations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

soil load bearing capacity

A

maximum amount of pressure a foundation soil can bear without harmful settlement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

name 4 soil types and their capacities

A
  1. bedrock: 10,000 psf
  2. well graded gravel or sand: 3,000 - 12,000 psf
  3. compacted sand or fill: 2,000 - 3,000 psf
  4. silt or clay: 1,000 - 4,000 psf
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ground water table

A

the layer below the surface soil when it is saturated, sometimes 2’ below surface, or sometimes 200’ below
depth of water table will determine the type of foundation you can use, if you will need extensive waterproofing, or if a basement is possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

soil types are classified based on:

A

sizes of the particles in the soil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

name the soil types

A

gravel: well drained, able to bear loads
sand: well drained, can serve as foundation when graded
silt: stable when dry, swells when frozen, do not use when wet
clay: must be removed, too stiff when dry and too plastic when wet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

which soil type is considered best to build on?

A

bedrock & gravel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is a percolation test and when would it be used?

A

used to evaluate the rate at which soil will absorb water on site, necessary for septic draining or leach fields

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

can soil bearing capacity be increased? if so, how?

A

yes: fill, compaction, surcharging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is a proctor test?

A

used to calculate maximum density that is required for the soil on a project site

evaluates native soils in both dry and wet conditions to determine the potential negative qualities of the soil

performed by dropping a hammer on a sample of soil several times (and then dried)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

define compaction and surcharging

A

compaction: compressing soils to release air btw. grains, creates higher bearing capacity
surcharging: adding soils to the site to increase weight on soils and aid in compaction (lengthy process, can take 6-12 mo.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

name the four different levels of soil

A

level A: topsoil, essential for growth of plants, takes a long time to develop

level B: minerals, lies below plant roots, supports life

level C: weathered and fractured rock w/ little biological activity

level D: solid bedrock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

why is the location of the frost line important?

A

indicates level where soil freezes

top of footings should be at or below frost line, avoids damage to the foundation due to moisture changes throughout the year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

angle of repose

A

how soils form mounds when loose

sand & gravel are stiff, steeper angle of repose than silt & clay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what should you do if you discover large quantities of organic soils on a site?

A

remove and replace w/ alternate fill material

or, foundation piles need to extend through to solid bedrock or bearing soils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

safe bearing capacity

A

ultimate bearing capacity of soil divided by safety factor of 2x or 4x

ensures site will not endure full ultimate bearing capacity and helps to avoid structural failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

ecology

A

science of relationship between an organism or community and its environment

the community comprises of all the living plants and animals occupying a given area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are 6 strategies to reduce energy use?

A
  1. solar panels
  2. increase insulation
  3. use insulated windows
  4. orient building to sun to control heat gain
  5. install light colored roof
  6. use efficient light bulbs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what are 5 strategies to reduce water use?

A
  1. use drip irrigation system for landscaping
  2. use low-flow or waterless toilets
  3. use native species and drought tolerant plants
  4. collect graywater from showers & laundry, reuse to water yard or flush toilets
  5. collect rainwater for reuse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

how to determine the grade or slope of a site

A

g = V/H(100)

g = grade of slope
V = rise/vertical
H = run/horizontal
x100 to convert to %

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

name 4 general rules of thumb for site grading and what they are best used for

A

less than 4% slope is considered flat, suitable for all activities

4% - 10% = moderate, requires some effort to climb or descend

10% - 50% = steep, suitable only for limited activity

50% + = very steep, subject to soil erosion/collapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is max slope allowed for an accessible ramp?

A

1:12 (8.3%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

45 degrees translates to what percentage slope?

A

100% (rise = run)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

why is solar orientation important when laying out a site design?

A

the more perpendicular the sun’s rays are to the site, the greater the amount of solar radiation received

note the amount of solar radiation received to design a building that maintains a consistent internal temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what factors of sun radiation should be taken into consideration when designing a site?

A

time of day: how much sun is received on site in morning vs. afternoon

azimuth: angle btw. sun and horizon (summer sun has larger azimuth than winter sun)

duration of sun exposure: sites in northern hemisphere have more hours of sunlight in the summer than in winter

slope of site: ground slope affects the amount of solar energy the site receives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

5 basic fundamentals of physics that affect internal building comfort

A
  1. hot air rises: place vents or windows in correct locations to create cooling breezes
  2. high summer sun: well-positioned overhangs can shade & keep cooler in summer
  3. low winter sun: sunlight passes under any overhangs to keep bldg warm
  4. thermal mass: heavy mass materials (concrete, stone, brick, water) store heat and cold; when temp. changes, release stored temp. back into air
  5. insulation: hold in interior temp, keep out ext.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

water table

A

level of water below surface of ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

how does level of water table on site affect the design of the foundation?

A

if it is located less than 6’ below surface, considered high and will limit foundation design

a mat slab or pile foundation may be necessary to evenly distribute loads of building on site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what conditions could occur if a high water table is found in a cold climate?

A

water expands as it freezes, could crack or settle if water table freezes and pushes it upward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

indigenous materials

A

locally found materials that don’t require transportation or import

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what considerations should be given for exterior building materials?

A
  • must withstand elements
  • durable
  • local conditions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is R-value?

A

insulation measured in R-value; the higher the R-value, the more insulation value

since materials like wood and siding have a low R-value, we typically add high value insulation into the walls

the thicker the wall, the more insulation it can hold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

how does R-value differ from U-value?

A

the insulating value of windows is measured in U-value, which is 1/R-value (inverse)

the lower the U-value, the more insulative value it has

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

describe thermal mass and its importance to building design

A

the ability of a material to absorb and store temperature

these materials take a long time to heat up and cool down, we can use high thermal mass materials to help keep a building at a consistent/regular temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

microclimate

A

specific local conditions of the site - vegetation, elevation, slope, water, wind, solar exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what climatic considerations should be evaluated during site design?

A
  1. temperature: comfort zone = 63-71 degrees in winter, 66-75 degrees in summer
  2. humidity: comfort zone = 30-60% relative humidity
  3. solar radiation: lack of natural light in winter can cause depression
  4. air movement: breezes promote evaporation, maintain consistent humidity levels
  5. air pollution: natural weather patterns can magnify the effects of man-made pollution
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

macroclimate

A

general climate of overall region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

list site conditions that can affect the macroclimate of the site

A
  1. site latitude (how close to equator)
  2. site elevation (affects rain/snow/temperature)
  3. prevailing winds (impact air temp)
  4. proximity to water (humidity, help maintain site temp)
  5. proximity to mountains (direct prevailing winds to rise, cools, forms clouds)
  6. topography (steep slopes increase wind velocity)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

4 different climate zones found in USA

A
  • cool (north)
  • temperate (west coast)
  • arid (midwest/desert states)
  • tropical (southern near gulf)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

difference between microclimate & macroclimate?

A
macro = refers to regional climate, like a county
micro = climate on a particular site
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what site elements can be studied to determine the effect of the microclimate on the site?

A
  • location of plants & bodies of water
  • amount & location of sun exposure
  • prevailing wind patterns
  • ground surface coverage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

albedo

A

measure of reflectivity of a material

snow has a high albedo (blinding light), while grass has a low albedo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

conductivity

A

refers to a material’s ability to absorb light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

describe albedo & conductivity in relation to site elements

A

albedo = radiant energy that is reflected by a surface where 0 is a flat black surface that absorbs heat, and 1 is a mirror

conductivity = the rate at which heat passes through a material (metals have a high conductivity, soils/sands have a low one)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is the best way to provide internal comfort in a building during a hot summer day?

A

use large overhangs to shade house from southern/western sun for most of the day

inside, use a thick concrete wall to absorb heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

how is a space heated at night during the winter if it contains thick concrete walls and floors, and has large windows facing south?

A

low winter sun warms the south side of the house all day, stone or concrete floor stores heat, hot air builds up by ceiling

at night, stored heat in floor and walls is released

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

how does a proper building siting affect the views for a project?

A

create axis to draw your eye toward view & enclose outdoor space

undesireable views can be avoided by locating service or ulitity spaces to face/block them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what are the 3 primary reasons for landscape design?

A
  1. recreation
  2. circulation
  3. comfort
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

define deciduous tree; name 3 species

A

full w/ leaves through spring/summer providing shade

leaves fall in autumn, expose bare branches through winter, allow sun to pass into a building

maple, elm, oak, sycamore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

define conifer tree; name 2 examples

A

needle-like evergreens that do not shed leaves

perfect when used as year-round windbreakers or privacy screens

pine, spruce, fir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what purpose do deciduous trees serve best on a project site?

A

best choice when a site requires shade in summer and heat from sun in winter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

your project program specifies that the site must be protected from cold winter winds

what type of tree would be best suited for this condition?

A

conifers are excellent wind breakers, retain dense, needle filled branches year-round

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

how does “smart landscaping” help act as a natural heat buffer on a site?

A
  • trees can help screen or direct winds on site
  • trees & vegetation absorb sunlight & add humidity to air
  • planted areas are cooler during hot summer days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

name 5 ways you can mitigate disturbance to local flora & fauna when designing a site

A
  1. designate no disturbance zones
  2. re-plant disturbed areas to other parts of the site
  3. minimize disturbance to natural site water supplies
  4. minimize night site lighting to not disturb fauna
  5. maintain wildlife use corridors throughout the site
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what building codes topics are typically addressed at the programming phase?

A
  • allowable floor areas

- parking requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what is model building code developed by the ICC (international code council)?

A

IBC - international building code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what is the purpose of building code enforcement?

A

health, safety, and welfare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what are 4 standardized national codes used to create the building codes adopted by municipalities?

A
  1. uniform building code (UBC)
  2. building officials code administrators (BOCA)
  3. international conference of building officials (ICBO)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what is the main intent and purpose of building codes?

A

health, safety, and welfare

safety issues such as fire protection, egress requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what US city has adopted and uses its own building code?

A

the city of chicago remains the only municipality in the US that continues to use a building code they developed on their own (municipal code of chicago)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

name 5 items the building department will review for during the plan check process

A
  1. construction standards of care (nailing patterns/connections)
  2. hurricane requirements (impact strength, roof shingle attachment)
  3. safety (guardrails, stair nosing)
  4. sanitation requirements (pipe locations/size, water supply)
  5. electrical (wiring safety, outlet locations, circuit breakers)
  6. energy efficiency requirements (min. insulation, window size/orientation)
  7. egress & exiting requirements (exit signage, hallway length/width)
  8. structural & seismic requirements (shear walls, bolting, lateral forces)
  9. health standards (ventilation, fresh air)
  10. assembly (room locations/sizes)
  11. fireplace requirements (smoke dampers, ventilation, glass doors)
  12. water efficiency requirements (low flow toilets, plumbing flow rates)
  13. fire protection (sprinklers, smoke/fire dampers, standpipes)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

ordinance

A

a municipal law in addition to a standard building code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what building spaces are sometimes allowed to fall outside of zoning height restrictions?

A
  • penthouses
  • fan rooms
  • skylights
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

describe a prescriptive code

A

a code that specifies specific techniques, materials, and methods allowed for use

simple to administer, but code allows for no innovation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

describe a performance code

A

a code that describes functional requirements that meet a certain standard, allowing the architect to find ways to meet those standards

the open nature promotes innovation, but sometimes need to provide test results ($)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what is a performance code and how does it differ from a prescriptive code?

A

a code that describes functional requirements that meet a certain standard, allowing the architect to find ways to meet those standards

the open nature of the code promotes innovation, whereas a prescriptive code does not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

name the 10 occupancy groups found in most building codes

A
Assembly
Business
Educational
Factory/Industrial
High Hazard
Institutional
Mercantile
Residential
Storage
Utility & Miscellaneous
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

name occupancy groups I, H, and A

A
I = Institutional
H = High Hazard
A = Assembly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

how does the construction type constrict the design of a building/site?

A

classified according to degree of fire resistance, determined by the fire zone it is located in and its intended use

influences height, floor area, and materials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

in zoning terms, what is the purpose of building setbacks?

A

to ensure streets will have access to light and air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

is there a standard lot setback distance?

A

no

front, side, and rear setbacks will vary between states/cities but also based on building heights etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what is the difference between a setback and an easement?

A

setbacks regulate how close a building can come to the property line

easements grant access to the property to others, often for utilities and/or municipal vehicle access

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

non-conforming use

A

where the current use of the building is no longer permitted by the zoning ordinance (but once was); the use is typically allowed to continue unless it’s unsafe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

how does a conditional use differ from a variance?

A

conditional use allows for a building in an area it is not zoned for due to its benefit and value to the public

variance is a deviation from an ordinance granted in order to avoid economic hardship

81
Q

what is the americans with disabilities act (ADA)?

A

set of prescriptive guidelines developed in 1990 for the construction (or alteration) of buildings to accommodate the needs or “persons with disabilities”

82
Q

is the ADA part of the building code?

A

no (technically)

it does not address life safety, it is a civil rights law passed by congress

83
Q

who enforces the ADA?

A

the department of justice governing public accommodations and state/local government services

84
Q

what happens if various building code or ADA requirements overlap?

A

just as with building code, if two or more different requirements are placed over a building, the most stringent requirement is the one that applies and must be incorporated

85
Q

what are the minimum clear widths for two wheelchairs to pass, minimum clear floor space, and clear space between rails on a staircase?

A

2 wheelchairs passing = 60” clear

clear floor space = 30” w X 48” l

48” clear between handrails

86
Q

what are barrier-free provisions?

A

regulations that provide accessibility to buildings and sites for persons with disabilities

87
Q

what are the requirements for hand railings at ramps?

A

handrails shall extend 12” min. beyond the top and bottom of ramp

clear space btw. handrail and wall shall be 1 1/2” min.

88
Q

minimum width for doors unless otherwise specified?

A

32” clear min. when open at 90 degrees

89
Q

minimum width for hallways?

A

36” clear, 32” at pinch point

90
Q

allowable height range for handrails?

A

34” - 38”

91
Q

describe the handrail restrictions

A

1-1/4” - 2” diameter

1-1/2” min. clear from wall

92
Q

how far must a handrail at the bottom of a stair extend?

A

12” plus depth of one tread

93
Q

what site issues will be affected by the zoning code?

A
  • building type (residential, commercial, industrial)
  • allowable building height
  • any required setbacks from property lines, rights-of-way, streets, sidewalks
94
Q

what is the primary purpose of zoning regulations

A

protecting rights of property owners, ensuring long-term quality of life for residents

95
Q

what are the 4 main purposes of zoning laws?

A
  1. protect local residents from undesirable types of businesses
  2. protect access to direct sunlight & fresh air
  3. protect amount of open space for local residents
  4. ensure incompatible types of building uses do not disturb residents (e.g. factory next to library)
96
Q

when and where were the first modern zoning codes in America?

A

New York City, 1916

97
Q

when and why was the first zoning code introduced?

A

new york city, 1916

growth of cities in late 19th/early 20th century, access to sunlight and air, property values

98
Q

incentive zoning

A

encourage new development by implementing a reward-based system for urban development; usually focuses on public benefits in form of affordable housing or community amenities

99
Q

euclidian zoning

A

single-use zoning (most widely used form in US)

segregation of land uses (shops vs. housing zone vs. industrial zone) - named for euclid, ohio

100
Q

form-based zoning

A

regulates form that land use may shape

setbacks, building heights, type of density, pedestrian access rather than type of land use

101
Q

how to calculate the F.A.R. of your site?

A

ratio of allowable floor area in relation to the size of the property

FAR of 2.0 means you are allowed to build 2x the lot area

102
Q

how might the Floor Area Ratio (FAR) impact building and site design?

A

determines upper limit of sq. footage allowable on the property based on lot size, use, type, and fire zone

fire separations, dampers, construction type, and fire sprinklers can increase the FAR limit

103
Q

Name 4 different types of site easements

A
  1. joint easement: used when it is required for two private owners to use a strip of land between two houses (property line running thru center)
  2. party wall easement: used in row housing, when a common/party wall is shared by two adjacent owners
  3. condemnation easement: for public good (street, highway, railroad r.o.w., telephone or power line)
  4. historic facade easement: est. by a municipality to protect a facade where redevelopment is occuring
104
Q

what is an air right and who generally enforces or monitors these rights?

A

air rights = the right to use the space above a property can be sold or leased to someone else

e.g. grand central & madison square garden sold their rights to taller buildings

local zoning ordinances or guidelines from the FAA can be used to enforce air rights

105
Q

how could a deed restriction impact the design for a site?

A

deed restrictions = limitations on the use of the property, typically by the original developers, sets what the land may be used for and can’t be changed by future owners

106
Q

what kind of consideration should be given to easements located on a site?

A

easement = legal right to use a portion of the site without ownership (utility or access); legally binding & attached to the deed

107
Q

eminent domain

A

grants the government the power to seize private property for public use

can be done without owner’s consent, so long as fair payment is given to the owner

108
Q

how does a deed restriction differ from a restrictive covenant?

A

deed restriction = limitations on use of property, typically by original developer, sets what land may be used for, can’t be changed by future owner

restrictive covenant = limitations and stipulations in residential developments on what is allowed on the exterior of houses (aesthetics - colors, fence materials) (pets/cleanup) (storage - parked cars/boats)

109
Q

party wall agreement

A

agreement on how to carry out construction work on a wall shared between two properties

110
Q

if utilities cannot be provided to a site, can it still be developed? if so, how?

A

yes

  • electricity can be provided by on-site energy sources
  • gas, delivered and stored
  • septic system installed
  • well can be built
111
Q

sewage drain lines must have at least a __% slope with a velocity of __ft/sec

A

2% slope

2-10 ft/sec

112
Q

why should existing utilities be located on a site during programming?

A

adding, extending, or altering utilities can add greatly to the cost of a project

113
Q

who or what typically reviews and rules on variance requests?

A

variance requests are often reviewed by the zoning administrator, zoning board, planning commission, or planning staff

114
Q

what is non-conforming use, and when would this term apply?

A

buildings that may have been permitted or allowed when built, but no longer comply with current zoning regulations (“grandfathered in”)

115
Q

conditional use permit

A

if you wish to build or use a building for a purpose not granted in the zoning code, you apply for a conditional use permit (typically with restrictions, may not be transferrable)

116
Q

how does a variance affect the zoning code applicable to a particular site?

A

variance = request to break from some of the requirements of zoning (max. height, min. setback, etc.) because complying with these req’s would create financial hardship or practical construction challenges

e.g. if zoning code says 30’ height max, but the property is on a steep site

117
Q

which department would perform plan check first in the building permit approval process?

A

planning department is always the first step

most other agencies such as Building and Safety will not perform a plan check until after Planning has completed their review

118
Q

what is required to obtain a building permit?

A

permit can only be obtained after all agencies have signed off on the project

owner or g.c. can obtain the permit, will have to show license and proof of workers comp. insurance

119
Q

what are the 3 phases of the regulatory approval process?

A
  1. entitlement phase
  2. building and safety plan check (and other local agencies)
  3. obtain building permit
120
Q

entitlement phase

A

trying to obtain permission/approval for the project prior to producing construction documents

121
Q

describe the entitlement phase and name 3 items to review that are involved

A

drawings usually in design development stage, with enough information to illustrate the size and scope of the project

drawings submitted to local planning department, who will review for compliance with environmental regulations, zoning codes, and local ordinances

122
Q

what is involved in the entitlement phase?

A
  1. submit drawings to local planning department
  2. drawings reviewed for compliance with environmental regulations
  3. drawings reviewed for compliance with zoning code & local ordinances
  4. drawings reviewed for compliance with any local specific plan areas such as local historic neighborhoods
  5. attendance at any required design review board/architectural review board meetings
123
Q

who obtains the building permit?

A

owner or general contractor

124
Q

what is an environmental impact statement (EIS)?

A

document required under US environmental law by the national environmental policy act

required by any federal government agency undertaking a project that may significantly affect the quality of the human environment

125
Q

what is an environmental impact assessment (EIA)?

A

shorter, mini EIS designed to provide just enough information to allow the permitting agency to decide whether a full EIS (environmental impact statement) is necessary

  • evaluation of possible impact (both positive & negative) that a proposed project may have on the surrounding environment
  • covers all types of impacts (environment, social, economic)
126
Q

describe the 4 sections of an EIS (environmental impact statement)

A
  1. introduction (statement of purpose, need of the proposed action)
  2. description (of affected environment & areas)
  3. range of alternatives (to the proposed actions) - considered the “heart” of an EIS
  4. analysis (of the impacts of each alternative)
127
Q

what is an environmental impact report (EIR)?

A

similar to EIA… an EIR also serves to inform permitting agencies and the public of a project’s environmental impact

128
Q

what are the 3 possible decisions a lead agency may render after reviewing a project proposal for environmental impact?

A
  1. negative declaration: the project has no significant environmental impact, no EIR required
  2. mitigated negative declaration: the project could potentially have an environmental impact, but if a list of proposed mitigation measures are added, no EIR required
  3. EIR required: the project will have a significant environmental impact
129
Q

name the 4 methods available for historic preservation

A
  1. preservation
  2. reconstruction
  3. restoration
  4. rehabilitation
130
Q

what processes, in order, does historical preservation typically follow?

A
  1. identify, retain, & preserve
  2. stabilize
  3. protect
  4. repair
  5. replacement
131
Q

name at least 3 site features that may need to be preserved on a site

A
  • landforms (terracing, berms, grading)
  • vegetation
  • circulation systems (paths, roads, parking)
  • water features
  • furnishings & fixtures
  • decorative elements (sculptures, monuments)
  • subsurface archaeology
132
Q

what are 5 methods for preserving features on a site?

A
  1. stabilize, protect, preserve existing features
  2. minimize disturbance of terrain
  3. survey, conduct field investigations
  4. evaluate condition of existing features
  5. repair and/or replace
133
Q

name 2 accessible features that must be addressed when rehabilitating a historic building

A
  1. main entrance

2. restrooms

134
Q

how could the discovery of wetlands or archaeological sites on a property impact the design?

A

may restrict buildable area (identify early in programming phase)

135
Q

what is buildable area?

A

the imaginary line beyond which a structure is not allowed to extend (most cases, cannot extend into an easement)

136
Q

what is a property line?

A

legal boundary of site outlining the ownership

137
Q

what is an accessible route?

A

a continuous, unobstructed path connecting all of the accessible elements and spaces in a building

accessible route includes doors, corridors, floors, ramps, elevators, and clear floor space at fixtures

138
Q

name 7 exceptions to ADA guidelines

A
  1. raised areas used primarily for security or life safety
  2. temporary facilities needed for construction
  3. non-occupiable service areas infrequently accessed for maintenance (catwalks, mech. rooms)
  4. water slides
  5. animal containment areas
  6. raised structures for officiating sporting events
  7. raised boxing/wrestling rings
139
Q

preliminary survey

A

basic plan showing boundaries, orientation, and some major features

used to prepare initial design plans

140
Q

construction survey

A

highly detailed plan showing exact conditions of site, details, existing structures, topography, offsets, & benchmarks

141
Q

what is a possession survey and why is it used?

A

“as-builts” reflect the project as it actually exists, incl. all changes that may have occurred during construction from the CD’s

vital for any future projects and for reference

142
Q

what is the difference between a geodetic survey and a plane survey?

A

geodetic = takes into account the spherical shape of the earth, describes large land areas w/ precision

plane = presents site as flat, used most often

143
Q

name 2 types of surveys that are considered plane surveys

A
  • land survey

- topographic survey

144
Q

in relation to surveys, what are parallels and meridians?

A

parallels = lines that run E-W, parallel to earth’s lattitude lines

meridians = lines that run N-S, parallel to earth’s longitudinal lines

145
Q

name 5 typical elements that would appear on a topographic survey

A
  1. contour intervals
  2. crowns/ridges
  3. swales/valleys
  4. hills
  5. depressions
146
Q

what level of survey would be sending an office employee to survey the site conditions for a new project be?

A

preliminary survey (would not include topography, offsets, or benchmarks)

147
Q

what is a baseline?

A

a parallel line (following latitudes of earth) used as the bases for the east-west layout of the US survey system

148
Q

on a survey, a reference to the distance above sea level or some other established reference point is called a:

A

datum

149
Q

in terms of a topographical map, what are concave slopes?

A

concave slopes = when ground is scooped out (like a cave)

150
Q

in terms of a topographical map, what are convex slopes?

A

convex slopes = when ground slopes like top of circle

151
Q

what is a ridge?

A

long, thin, flat area that slopes down on both sides

152
Q

how are summits and depressions depicted on a topagraphic map?

A
summits = high, flat areas
depressions = low areas

represented by concetric closed contours

153
Q

what is a spot elevation?

A

number corresponding to the exact elevation at a key point on the ground

154
Q

which is permitted to be steeper: a cut slope or a filled slope?

A

cut slope

cut earth is generally more stable than filled

155
Q

what is the least expensive and most convenient way to grade a site?

A

balance amount of cut and fill

156
Q

define reparian rights

A

system of rights and duties that determine the reasonable use, duties, and allocations of water to owners of waterfront property (beach, bottomland, upland, but not water itself)

owners can use water adjacent to their property, but can’t infringe upon the rights of others to use the water

157
Q

in land divison terms, a “check” refers to what?

A

refers to each 24 mile square created by the meridians and parallels, and divided into 16 townships

158
Q

what does sheet flow refer to?

A

water that flows across paved surfaces

159
Q

describe the difference between parallels and meridians

A
N-S = meridians
E-W = parallels or base lines

lines between parallels are called township lines

160
Q

define:

check, township, section, quarter

A

check: each 24 mile square ceated by the meridians and parallels

each check is divided into 4 x 4 squares, creating 16 townships per check

each township is 6 miles square and numbered and designated as north or south of the base line and east or west of the principal median

townships are divided into 6 x 6 squares, creating 36 square sections, each one sq. mile

sections are divided into 4 quarters, each 1/4 sq. mile

161
Q

what is the difference between a retention pond and a detention pond?

A

retention = designed to keep water indefinitely

detention = allow water to seep into ground (temporary, flood control)

162
Q

what is a typical slope for a sidewalk (not cross slope)?

A

4% to 10%

163
Q

in general, why are rural sites more expensive to develop than urban or suburban?

A

often have limited, outdated, or no utilities

164
Q

how could a building design be impacted if a high water table is discovered on site?

A

groundwater within 6’ of land surface may cause an issue w/ foundation

solutions: pump water out of excavation, waterproof basement walls, design to resist hydrostatic pressure, install continuous drain pipe along foundation

165
Q

a feasibility study is likely to include at least:

A
  • site considerations
  • location considerations
  • identifying potential land issues
  • codes & ordinances
166
Q

name 4 parts of a program document

A
  1. programming statement: detailed description of functional req’s, narrative
  2. relationship & flow diagrams
  3. functional program: raw data on number of users, times of use, operational needs - provided by owner
  4. facilities program: list of scope, area requirements, adjacencies, cost & site analysis
167
Q

what massing diagram options can be used during programming, and in what order?

A
  1. matrix chart
  2. bubble diagram
  3. blocking and stacking
168
Q

what 3 graphic tools can an architect use to perform a functional analysis of the client’s needs?

A
  1. space matrix
  2. bubble diagram
  3. blocking and stacking
  • solve layout of spaces
  • determine heirarchy
  • flexible, easy to change
169
Q

describe the difference between net area & gross area

A

net = area of spaces within a building not including circulation, building structure, and mechanical spaces

gross = area of all building spaces

170
Q

why is it a good idea to allow for 10-20% additional space within a programming layout?

A

this additional space will allow the architect to design a building that is flexible and allows for future expansion

171
Q

define efficiency ratio

A

ratio of net vs. gross areas

most buildings fall in 60-80% range depending on type

172
Q

arrangethe following in order from largest to smallest:

  • total building group
  • space unit
  • activity center
  • component building
A
  1. total building group
  2. component building
  3. activity center
  4. space unit
173
Q

what program format is each of the following a good example of:

  1. city hall
  2. conference room
  3. civic center
  4. department of planning
A
  1. component building
  2. space unit
  3. total building group
  4. activity center
174
Q

what is a swale?

A

elongated depression in the land that carries water downhill, seasonally wet, well vegetated (seeds get carried in)

175
Q

what considerations should an architect give a program for a project that will be separated into several phases?

A
  • find clear and logical portions to build in phases

- staging = providing areas to store building materials/supplies, etc.

176
Q

how should an architect approach the layout and design of interior spaces?

A
  • definition of spatial areas
  • zones of furniture/equipment
  • circulation patterns
  • standards, codes, accessibility
177
Q

which form of spatial organization allows for future expansion and growth?

A

clustered organization

due to flexible nature, spaces can change with ease

178
Q

what 4 conditions are out of the architect’s control when it comes to cost estimates?

A
  1. market conditions
  2. inflation & cost of goods & services
  3. contractor means & methods of construction
  4. unknown site conditions
179
Q

for the programming phase, what are 3 ways cost estimates can be performed?

A
  1. based on unit cost system
  2. historical data
  3. cost per square foot
180
Q

what is the quantity survey method of construction cost estimating?

A

detailed method typically benefits contractors’ understanding of construction cost (not typically used by architects)

separate fixtures, measure lengths of pieces

181
Q

in a basic sense, what must be considered when designing the structural system of a building?

A
  • vast range of physical loads
  • materials, equipment, other dead loads
  • winds, earthquakes
182
Q

what is a critical element to consider when laying out the ductwork design for the mechanical system?

A

duct sizing & ceiling clearances

183
Q

when spread and strip footings carry load, the reaction of the earth induces bending, much like an inverted:

A

beam

184
Q

what consideration should furniture, fixtures, and equipment (FFE) be given during the programming phase?

A

impact on design of building

185
Q

what should an architect consider when helping an owner select FFE?

A
  1. budget
  2. schedule
  3. spatial requirements
  4. effect of building codes
186
Q

what is expandability?

A

the capacity of a building to be enlarged easily, or added onto as needs change or growth occurs

187
Q

describe convertibility

A

allows an existing building or space to be changed to allow for a new use

188
Q

what is versatility?

A

ability to use the same space for a variety of functions

189
Q

with regards to the project budget, how are quantity and quality related?

A

a change in one will ultimately result in a change in the other

190
Q

when considering an existing building, what would be concerns for a renovation?

A
  • condition of exterior walls
  • water damage
  • surveying building will help prepare a rough breakdown of potential cost of saving the building
191
Q

when considering an existing building, what would be concerns for preservation?

A
  • affects cost and schedule

- an evaluation of the condition of the existing building will help determine if preservation is feasible

192
Q

what is radial organization?

A
  • directs flow in or out of a common center

- similar to how cities expand

193
Q

in terms of programming and the cost of construction, what 4 factors can the architect not control?

A
  1. market conditions
  2. inflation & the cost of goods and services
  3. contractor means & methods of construction
  4. unknown site conditions
194
Q

what would the budget be for a 50,000 sf new school building be if we used $150 per sf for construction cost?

A

$7.5 million

195
Q

what 4 factors influence the cost of construction?

A
  1. scope: size, extent, design of building
  2. quality: level of finish, technology, detail
  3. schedule: timeline for completing the project
  4. experience: comfort and ability of the contractor to work w/ the systems and materials
196
Q

what 5 ways can an architect influence the cost of a project?

A
  1. project size
  2. finish quality
  3. detail complexity
  4. program requirements
  5. number of trades used during construction
197
Q

what 3 costs should the owner consider at the beginning of a project?

A
  1. initial costs
  2. future costs
  3. operational costs
198
Q

what 5 factors are considered location factors when considering the design of a project?

A
  1. geographical
  2. geological
  3. guidelines and regulations
  4. contextual and environmental influences
  5. climate