Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pathology > 3. Inflammation > Flashcards

3. Inflammation Flashcards

1
Q

What are the five cardinal signs of inflammation?

A

Rubor (redness), Calor (heat), Tumor (swelling), dolor (pain), functio laesa (loss of function). [RCTDF].

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the four steps of adhesion by complementary molecules on the surface of neutrophils and endothelium.

A

I.: at sites of inflammation, the endothelial cells have increased expression of E-selectin and P-selectin. II.: Neutrophils weakly bind to the endothelial selectins and roll along the surface. III.: Neutrophils are stimulated by chemokines to express their integrins. IV.: Binging of the integrins firmly adheres the neutrophil to the endothelial cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where are P-selectins normally stored?

A

In Weibel-Palade bodies of endothelial cells. They are redistributed to the cell surface with exposure to inflammatory mediators such as histamine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is chemotaxis?

A

It is the attraction of cells toward a chemical mediator that is released in the area of inflammation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are four important chemotactic factors for neutrophils?

A

I. Bacterial products, such as N-formyl-methionine. II. Leukotriene B4 (LTB4). III. Complement system product C5a. IV. Alpha-chemokines (IL-8).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are opsins and what are three examples of them?

A

They are factors that enhance the recognition and phagocytosis of bacteria. Important opsonins are: I. Fc portion of IgG. II. Complement system product of C3b. III. Plasma protein-collectins (bind to bacterial cell walls).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is one syndrome with defect in phagocytosis?

A

Chedieak-Higashi syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does myeloperoxidase produce in the intracellular killing?

A

Produces HOCL (hypochlorus acid). Requires hydrogen peroxide and halide (Cl-).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where are histamines produced?

A

Produced by basophils, platelets, and mast cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are four triggers for histmaine release?

A

I. IgE-mediated mast cell reactions. II. Physical injury. III. Anaphylatoxins (C3a and C5a). IV. Cytokines (IL-1).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where are serotonin produced?

A

By the platelets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What converts the prekallikrein to kallikrein?

A

The activated Hageman factor (factor XII).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does kallikrein do?

A

It cleaves the high molecular weight kininogen (HMWK) to bradykinin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the four effect of bradykinin?

A

Increased vascular permeability, pain, vasodilation, bronchoconstriction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Who produces Thromboxane A2 and what does it do?

A

Produced by platelets, it causes vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Who produces Prostacyclin (PGI2) and what does it do?

A

Produced by vascular endothelium, it causes vasodilation and inhibits platelet aggregation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are two mediators of pain?

A

Bradykinin and prostaglandins (E2).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which prostaglandins are vasodilators?

A

PGE2, PGD2, PGF2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which leukotrine from the lipoxygenase pathway is a neutrophil chemotaxis?

A

Leukotrine B4 (LTB4).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which leukotrine from the lipoxygenase pathway are vasoconstrictors?

A

C4, D4, E4.

21
Q

Which product of the complement cascade are part of the membrane attack complex?

A

C5b-C9

22
Q

Which product of the complement cascade are anaphylotoxins that stumulate the release of histamine?

A

C3a, C5a

23
Q

Which product of the complement cascade is a leukocyte chemotactic factor?

A

C5a

24
Q

What does C3b do?

A

It’s an opsonin.

25
Q

What does IL-8 do?

A

It is a neutrophil chemoattractant produced by macrophages.

26
Q

What do IL-1 and TNF do?

A

Fever and acute phase reactants. Enhances adhesion molecules. Stimulates and activates fibroblasts, endothelial cells, and neutrophils.

27
Q

What are the mediators of fever?

A

Cytokines IL-1, IL-6, TNF-alpha, prostaglandins.

28
Q

Where are macrophages derived from?

A

From blood monocytes.

29
Q

What are the tissue-based monocytes for the liver?

A

Kupffer cells.

30
Q

What are the tissue-based monocytes for the connective tissue?

A

Histiocyte.

31
Q

What are the tissue-based monocytes for the lung?

A

Pulmonary alveolar macrophages.

32
Q

What are the tissue-based monocytes for the bone?

A

Osteoclasts.

33
Q

What are the tissue-based monocytes for the brain?

A

Microglia.

34
Q

What is an example of a lymphocyte chemokine?

A

Lymphotaxin.

35
Q

What is an example of a eosinophil chemokine?

A

Eotaxin.

36
Q

What do Basophils do?

A

They play an important role in IgE mediated reactions (allergies and anaphylaxis).

37
Q

What are mast cells?

A

They are tissue-based basophils; they are present in high numbers in the lung and skin. They release histamine.

38
Q

What is chronic granulomatous inflammation?

A

A specialized form of chronic inflammation characterized by small aggregates of modified macrophages (epitheloid cells and multinucleated giant cells) usually surrounded by a rim of lymphocytes.

39
Q

What are epitheloid cells?

A

Modified macrophage transformed byINF-gamma. It has an enlarged cell with abundant pink cytoplasm. They are components of granuloma.

40
Q

What are multinucleated cells?

A

They are formed by fusion of epitheloid cells. They are components of granulomas.

41
Q

Describe a Langerhas-type giant cell.

A

They have peripheral arrangement of nuclei.

42
Q

Describe a Foregin body type giant cell.

A

Thy have haphazard arrangement of nuclei.

43
Q

Where do we see central caseous necrosis?

A

In granulomas caused by tuberculosis. Rare in other granulomatous disease.

44
Q

Describe exudative inflammation with examples.

A

Acute inflammatory response with neutrophils; bacterial meningits, bronchopneumonia and abscess.

45
Q

Describe necrotizing inflammation with examples.

A

Virulent organism producing severe tissue damage and extensive cell death; necrotizing fasciitis, necrotizing pharyngitis.

46
Q

Describe granulomatous inflammation with examples.

A

Granulomatous response predominates; slow-growing organisms such as mycobacteria, fungi, and parasites.

47
Q

Describe interstitial inflammation with examples.

A

Diffuse mononuclear interstitial infiltrate; common response to viral infectious agents like in myocarditis due to Coxsackie virus and viral hepatitis.

48
Q

Describe cytopathic/cytoproliferative inflammation with examples.

A

Infected/injured cell is altered; has intranuclear/cytoplasmic inclusions such as rabies (Negri bodies) and cytomegalic inclusion disease. Can cause syncytia formation like respiratory syncytial virus and herpes virus. And can also cause apoptosis like viral hepatitis.

Pathology (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions