3° Full-Length Test

Question 1

The purpose of ‘Plan Communications Management’ is to:
- A) Archive project communications.
- B) Develop an approach for the timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information.
- C) Implement the latest communication technology in the project.
- D) Ensure the project team communicates effectively among themselves.

Answer 1

Correct Answer: B

Question 2

‘Quantitative Risk Analysis’ involves:
- A) Assigning numerical values to the probability and impacts of identified risks.
- B) Prioritizing risks based on qualitative data.
- C) Creating a risk matrix based on the project team’s intuition.
- D) Developing risk responses based on stakeholder risk tolerance.

Answer 2

Correct Answer: A

Question 3

‘Resource Leveling’ in project management is used to:
- A) Increase the amount of resources available to the project to meet a tight schedule.
- B) Adjust the project schedule to address resource constraints, often resulting in an extended project duration.
- C) Allocate the highest-performing resources to the most critical tasks.
- D) Distribute work evenly across available resources without regard for the project schedule.

Answer 3

Correct Answer: B

Question 4

The ‘Develop Schedule’ process typically produces:
- A) A list of project milestones.
- B) A project timeline with planned start and finish dates for project activities.
- C) The project budget.
- D) Resource allocation charts.

Answer 4

Correct Answer: B

Question 5

In which process is the ‘Scope Baseline’ primarily established?
- A) Collect Requirements
- B) Define Scope
- C) Create WBS
- D) Validate Scope

Answer 5

Correct Answer: C

Question 5

What does ‘Fast Tracking’ involve in project management?
- A) Performing activities sequentially.
- B) Increasing the project team size.
- C) Performing activities in parallel that were originally planned to be done sequentially.
- D) Extending the duration of activities to decrease resource usage.

Answer 5

Correct Answer: C

Question 6

‘Earned Value Management’ (EVM) is a methodology that:
- A) Compares the planned project work with what was actually completed to determine project performance.
- B) Is used to estimate the project’s financial health without considering the schedule.
- C) Focuses on the qualitative assessment of project performance.
- D) Measures project performance against project constraints other than cost and schedule.

Answer 6

Correct Answer: A

Question 7

The ‘Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis’ process is primarily used to:
- A) Quantify the financial impact of risks on the project.
- B) Assess the severity of risks based on their likelihood and potential impact on project objectives.
- C) Implement immediate responses to identified risks.
- D) Allocate budget reserves for identified risks.

Answer 7

Correct Answer: B

Question 8

‘Communication Models’ in project management include components such as:
- A) Sender, message, medium, and feedback.
- B) Communication technology, noise, and information.
- C) Project management information system (PMIS), reports, and meetings.
- D) Stakeholder identification, message encoding, and decoding.

Answer 8

Correct Answer: A

Question 9

‘Plan Stakeholder Engagement’ process aims to:
- A) Identify all potential stakeholders of the project.
- B) Document how to engage stakeholders and manage their expectations effectively throughout the project.
- C) Ensure all stakeholders approve the project before it proceeds.
- D) Assign tasks and responsibilities to stakeholders.

Answer 9

Correct Answer: B

Question 10

The ‘Cost Performance Index’ (CPI) is an example of a(n):
- A) Earned value management metric used to measure the cost efficiency of a project.
- B) Indicator of the project’s schedule performance.
- C) Tool for estimating project costs during the planning phase.
- D) Quality measurement used in the control quality process.

Answer 10

Correct Answer: A

Question 11

‘Monte Carlo Simulation’ is used in project management to:
- A) Sequence project activities.
- B) Simulate the outcomes of a project’s schedule under various conditions.
- C) Calculate the exact cost of the project at completion.
- D) Determine the fixed budget for the project.

Answer 11

Correct Answer: B

Question 12

The primary purpose of ‘Develop Project Team’ is to:
- A) Assign project tasks to team members.
- B) Improve competencies and interaction of team members to enhance project performance.
- C) Identify training needs for project team members.
- D) Form the project team.

Answer 12

Correct Answer: B

Question 12

Procurement Documents’ typically include all EXCEPT:
- A) Requests for Proposal (RFPs).
- B) Contracts.
- C) Work performance reports.
- D) Invitations for Bid (IFBs).

Answer 12

Correct Answer: C

Question 13

‘Risk Urgency Assessment’ is part of:
- A) Planning risk management strategies.
- B) Prioritizing risks for further analysis or action.
- C) Quantifying the effects of risks on project objectives.
- D) Tracking identified risks and responses over the project lifecycle.

Answer 13

Correct Answer: B

Question 14

Which of the following is a key output of the ‘Plan Procurement Management’ process?
- A) Selected sellers.
- B) Procurement strategy.
- C) Procurement management plan.
- D) Bid documents.

Answer 14

Correct Answer: C

Question 14

In ‘Monitor and Control Project Work’, a key activity is to:
- A) Direct changes to the project management plan.
- B) Review all change requests and approve or reject them.
- C) Compare actual project performance against the project management plan.
- D) Develop and manage the project team.

Answer 14

Correct Answer: C

Question 15

‘Work Performance Information’ is an output of:
- A) Direct and Manage Project Work
- B) Monitor and Control Project Work
- C) Perform Integrated Change Control
- D) Control Processes (e.g., Control Scope, Control Schedule, Control Costs)

Answer 15

Correct Answer: D

Question 16

Effective stakeholder engagement is crucial for project success. Which process ensures stakeholders’ needs and expectations are identified and managed throughout the project?
- A) Identify Stakeholders
- B) Plan Stakeholder Engagement
- C) Manage Stakeholder Engagement
- D) Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

Answer 16

Correct Answer: C

Question 17

Project scope management primarily involves:
- A) Defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project.
- B) Managing the project team and resources.
- C) Ensuring the project is completed within the approved budget.
- D) Controlling the schedule to ensure timely completion of the project.

Answer 17

Correct Answer: A

Question 18

In the context of project time management, ‘critical path’ refers to:
- A) The shortest path through the project ensuring the earliest completion date.
- B) The longest sequence of activities in a project plan which must be completed on time for the project to complete on due date.
- C) The sequence of project network activities with the highest cost.
- D) The path with the most critical resources in the project.

Answer 18

Correct Answer: B

Question 19

‘Earned Value Management’ (EVM) integrates which three aspects of project performance?
- A) Scope, quality, and cost
- B) Scope, schedule, and cost
- C) Cost, quality, and time
- D) Schedule, quality, and resources

Answer 19

Correct Answer: B

Question 20

What does the ‘Cost Performance Index’ (CPI) indicate about a project’s financial health?
- A) It shows the project is under budget when CPI is less than 1.
- B) It signifies the project is exactly on budget when CPI is 1.
- C) It indicates the project is over budget when CPI is greater than 1.
- D) It indicates the project is under budget when CPI is greater than 1.

Answer 20

Correct Answer: D

Question 21

Which process involves reviewing all change requests, approving changes, and managing changes to the deliverables, organizational process assets, project documents, and the project management plan?
- A) Perform Integrated Change Control
- B) Direct and Manage Project Work
- C) Monitor and Control Project Work
- D) Plan Risk Management

Answer 21

Correct Answer: A

Question 22

‘Resource Leveling’ is a technique used to address:
- A) Shortages or imbalances in resource availability.
- B) The need for additional resources due to scope changes.
- C) The optimization of resource allocation to reduce costs.
- D) Increasing the efficiency of resource utilization without regard for the project schedule.

Answer 22

Correct Answer: A

Question 23

The ‘Communications Management Plan’ is a key output of which process?
- A) Plan Communications Management
- B) Manage Communications
- C) Monitor Communications
- D) Plan Stakeholder Engagement

Answer 23

Correct Answer: A

Question 23

In project management, ‘fast tracking’ is a technique used to:
- A) Reduce the project’s duration by compressing the schedule.
- B) Increase the speed of project delivery by adding more resources.
- C) Perform activities in parallel that were originally planned to be done sequentially.
- D) Decrease project costs by cutting non-essential activities.

Answer 23

Correct Answer: C

Question 24

‘Qualitative Risk Analysis’ is a process that:
- A) Assesses the impact of identified risks using numerical data.
- B) Prioritizes risks based on their probability of occurrence and potential impact on project objectives.
- C) Determines the monetary value associated with each identified risk.
- D) Quantitatively analyzes the effect of risks on the project’s overall objectives.

Answer 24

Correct Answer: B

Question 25

Which of the following best defines the purpose of the ‘Develop Project Charter’ process?
- A) To formally authorize a project or a phase and document initial requirements that satisfy the stakeholder’s needs and expectations.
- B) To outline the project objectives, deliverables, and milestones.
- C) To assign the project manager and authorize them to apply organizational resources to project activities.
- D) To establish a detailed project schedule and budget for approval by senior management.

Answer 25

Correct Answer: A

Question 26

‘Procurement Documents’ are used for:
- A) Documenting project procurement decisions and approaches.
- B) Soliciting bids and proposals from prospective sellers.
- C) Outlining the project’s technical specifications and requirements.
- D) Managing the contract and supplier performance throughout the project.

Answer 26

Correct Answer: B

Question 27

In project risk management, the ‘Risk Register’ is updated during which process?
- A) Identify Risks
- B) Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
- C) Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
- D) Plan Risk Responses

Answer 27

Correct Answer: D

Question 28

The ‘Scope Baseline’ is primarily established in which process?
- A) Plan Scope Management
- B) Collect Requirements
- C) Define Scope
- D) Create WBS

Answer 28

Correct Answer: D

Question 29

‘Monte Carlo Analysis’ is commonly used in project management for:
- A) Determining the project’s critical path.
- B) Estimating the probability of completing the project on time and within budget.
- C) Analyzing the qualitative aspects of project risks.
- D) Calculating the exact cost of project activities.

Answer 29

Correct Answer: B

Question 30

The ‘Manage Communications’ process involves all of the following EXCEPT:
- A) Generating, collecting, distributing, storing, retrieving, and disposing of project information.
- B) Ensuring that project information is communicated in a timely and effective manner.
- C) Assigning communication roles and responsibilities to project team members.
- D) Updating the project management plan and project documents.

Answer 30

Correct Answer: C

Question 31

‘Earned Value Analysis’ (EVA) is a project performance measurement technique that integrates:
- A) Project scope, schedule, and cost parameters.
- B) Quality, risk, and change management aspects.
- C) Resource allocation and optimization strategies.
- D) Stakeholder engagement and communication plans.

Answer 31

Correct Answer: A

Question 32

Which process is responsible for tracking team member performance, providing feedback, resolving issues, and managing team changes?
- A) Develop Project Team
- B) Manage Team
- C) Acquire Resources
- D) Plan Resource Management

Answer 32

Correct Answer: B

Question 33

A ‘Decision Tree Analysis’ in project management is used for:
- A) Planning the project schedule.
- B) Analyzing potential future events and their impacts on project outcomes.
- C) Determining the project’s critical path and float times.
- D) Allocating resources to project activities.

Answer 33

Correct Answer: B

Question 34

The primary purpose of ‘Perform Integrated Change Control’ is to:
- A) Ensure that all changes are documented and communicated to stakeholders.
- B) Review, approve, or reject change requests and manage changes to the project deliverables, organizational process assets, and project documents.
- C) Implement approved changes to the project scope, schedule, and costs.
- D) Update the project management plan in accordance with approved changes.

Answer 34

Correct Answer: B

Question 35

‘Plan Cost Management’ establishes:
- A) The project budget.
- B) Policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, managing, expending, and controlling project costs.
- C) The cost baseline.
- D) Detailed cost estimates for project activities.

Answer 35

Correct Answer: B

Question 36

hich of the following is NOT an output of the ‘Develop Schedule’ process?
- A) Schedule baseline.
- B) Project schedule.
- C) Project calendar.
- D) Resource calendars.

Answer 36

Correct Answer: C

Question 37

‘Quality Metrics’ within the Plan Quality Management process are used to:
- A) Identify which quality standards are relevant to the project.
- B) Describe a project or product attribute and how the quality control process will measure it.
- C) Document how project needs will meet the objectives of quality management.
- D) Determine the amount of quality assurance testing required.

Answer 37

Correct Answer: B

Question 38

The ‘Direct and Manage Project Work’ process includes:
- A) Leading and performing the work defined in the project management plan.
- B) Updating the project schedule and costs based on work performance.
- C) Identifying new risks and updating the risk register.
- D) Approving project changes and updating the project management plan.

Answer 38

Correct Answer: A

Question 39

‘Work Performance Reports’ are an output of which process?
- A) Direct and Manage Project Work
- B) Monitor and Control Project Work
- C) Perform Integrated Change Control
- D) Manage Communications

Answer 39

Correct Answer: B

Question 39

The ‘Collect Requirements’ process is essential for:
- A) Gathering the needs and requirements of stakeholders to meet project objectives.
- B) Defining the project scope in detail.
- C) Creating a detailed project schedule.
- D) Estimating project costs.

Answer 39

Correct Answer: A

Question 40

What is the primary purpose of the ‘Develop Project Management Plan’ process?
- A) To document the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans into a comprehensive project management plan.
- B) To establish the project’s scope, schedule, and cost baselines.
- C) To assign project tasks to team members.
- D) To identify project risks and develop mitigation strategies.

Answer 40

Correct Answer: A

Question 41

‘Qualitative Risk Analysis’ must be performed:
- A) Before the ‘Identify Risks’ process.
- B) Simultaneously with risk identification.
- C) After ‘Quantitative Risk Analysis’.
- D) After identifying risks, to prioritize them for further action.

Answer 41

Correct Answer: D

Question 42

Which of the following best describes ‘Earned Value Management’ (EVM)?
- A) A systematic approach to comparing the actual performance of the project against the planned performance.
- B) A technique for measuring team performance and efficiency.
- C) A method for calculating the project’s return on investment.
- D) A process for continuous quality improvement in projects.

Answer 42

Correct Answer: A

Question 43

The ‘Plan Procurement Management’ process is primarily concerned with:
- A) Selecting vendors and awarding contracts.
- B) Documenting project purchasing decisions, specifying the approach, and identifying potential sellers.
- C) Managing the contract and relationship with the vendor.
- D) Closing out contracts upon project completion.

Answer 43

Correct Answer: B

Question 44

‘Control Schedule’ process aims to:
- A) Develop the project schedule.
- B) Ensure project activities are completed on time.
- C) Monitor the status of project activities to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline.
- D) Allocate sufficient time to all project tasks.

Answer 44

Correct Answer: C

Question 45

In ‘Manage Stakeholder Engagement,’ the project manager should:
- A) Identify new stakeholders not previously recognized.
- B) Communicate with stakeholders about their needs and issues.
- C) Engage stakeholders in project decisions and activities based on their interests and potential impact.
- D) Monitor stakeholder satisfaction with project outcomes.

Answer 45

Correct Answer: C

Question 46

The ‘Cost Performance Index’ (CPI) is an indicator of:
- A) The efficiency of time management on the project.
- B) The cost efficiency of the project.
- C) The accuracy of the project scope.
- D) The effectiveness of project risk management.

Answer 46

Correct Answer: B

Question 47

Which of the following is NOT a primary concern of ‘Project Scope Management’?
- A) Ensuring the project includes all the work required to complete it successfully.
- B) Managing the project team’s performance and efficiency.
- C) Controlling what is and is not included in the project.
- D) Defining and documenting the project’s objectives, deliverables, and work.

Answer 47

Correct Answer: B

Question 48

‘Resource Leveling’ can be best described as:
- A) Adding additional resources to activities to compress the schedule.
- B) Adjusting the start and finish dates based on resource constraints to balance demand with supply.
- C) Reducing the scope of the project to meet resource availability.
- D) Increasing the project budget to hire more resources.

Answer 48

Correct Answer: B

Question 49

The ‘Perform Integrated Change Control’ process involves:
- A) Automatically approving all change requests submitted.
- B) Assessing the impact, validity, and value of changes to project documents, deliverables, or baselines.
- C) Implementing changes without stakeholder consultation.
- D) Focusing solely on schedule changes and ignoring cost impacts.

Answer 49

Correct Answer: B

Question 50

‘Fast Tracking’ a project may result in:
- A) Decreased risk.
- B) Increased costs due to overtime.
- C) Improved team morale.
- D) Increased risk and potential rework.

Answer 50

Correct Answer: D

Question 51

The main output of the ‘Plan Communications Management’ process is:
- A) An updated project management plan.
- B) The communications management plan.
- C) Project reports and presentations.
- D) A stakeholder engagement assessment matrix.

Answer 51

Correct Answer: B

Question 52

Which technique is used in the ‘Estimate Costs’ process?
- A) Bottom-up estimating.
- B) Critical path method.
- C) Earned value management.
- D) Monte Carlo simulation.

Answer 52

Correct Answer: A

Question 53

‘Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix’ is used during which process?
- A) Plan Stakeholder Engagement
- B) Identify Stakeholders
- C) Manage Stakeholder Engagement
- D) Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

Answer 53

Correct Answer: D

Question 54

The primary goal of ‘Plan Risk Management’ is to:
- A) Identify project risks.
- B) Define how to conduct risk management activities for the project.
- C) Implement risk responses.
- D) Quantify the impact of risks on the project.

Answer 54

Correct Answer: B

Question 55

‘Work Performance Data’ consists of:
- A) The raw observations and measurements identified during project activities.
- B) Analyzed project data to support decision-making.
- C) Detailed reports on project progress and status.
- D) Predictive analysis on project outcomes.

Answer 55

Correct Answer: A

Question 56

In project management, ‘Scope Creep’ refers to:
- A) The expansion of the project scope without adjustments to time, cost, and resources, typically without formal approval.
- B) The intentional addition of extra features or functions to enhance the project’s value.
- C) The natural growth of the project scope due to initial underestimation.
- D) The reduction of project scope to meet budgetary constraints.

Answer 56

Correct Answer: A

Question 57

‘Earned Value Analysis’ (EVA) is primarily used to:
- A) Estimate the project’s future financial performance.
- B) Measure the project’s past performance to forecast future performance.
- C) Calculate the total estimated cost of the project at completion.
- D) Allocate the project budget to different work packages.

Answer 57

Correct Answer: B

Question 58

Which of the following best describes the ‘Direct and Manage Project Work’ process?
- A) It involves leading and performing the work defined in the project management plan.
- B) It is focused on tracking, reviewing, and regulating the progress and performance of the project.
- C) It includes managing the project team and distributing tasks.
- D) It pertains to developing and managing the project schedule.

Answer 58

Correct Answer: A

Question 59

The ‘Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis’ process helps in:
- A) Determining the cost impacts of risks on the project.
- B) Prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact.
- C) Implementing risk responses for identified risks.
- D) Developing a comprehensive risk management plan.

Answer 59

Correct Answer: B

Question 60

‘Communication Models’ in project management are important for understanding:
- A) The process of information exchange, including the sender, message, medium, receiver, and feedback.
- B) The specific tools and technologies used for project communications.
- C) The hierarchy of communication within the project team and stakeholders.
- D) The budget allocated for communication activities in the project.

Answer 60

Correct Answer: A

Question 61

The ‘Manage Communications’ process is critical for:
- A) Developing the communications management plan.
- B) Ensuring timely and appropriate collection, creation, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information.
- C) Identifying all project stakeholders and their information needs.
- D) Monitoring and controlling stakeholder engagement.

Answer 61

Correct Answer: B

Question 62

In the ‘Plan Quality Management’ process, ‘Quality Metrics’ are used to:
- A) Specify how different aspects of the project will be measured against quality standards.
- B) Document the project team’s roles and responsibilities in quality management.
- C) Determine the budget for quality control activities.
- D) Identify which quality standards are relevant to the project.

Answer 62

Correct Answer: A

Question 63

Which process involves obtaining the team and resources necessary to complete project work?
- A) Develop Project Team
- B) Plan Resource Management
- C) Acquire Resources
- D) Manage Team

Answer 63

Correct Answer: C

Question 64

‘Parametric Estimating’ is most effective when:
- A) The historical data used for estimation is considered unreliable.
- B) Projects are unique with little similarity to past projects.
- C) There is a statistical relationship between historical data and the variables of the current project.
- D) Detailed project information is unavailable.

Answer 64

Correct Answer: C

Question 65

In which process would ‘Expert Judgment’ be particularly valuable?
- A) Acquire Resources
- B) Estimate Costs
- C) Identify Risks
- D) Both B and C

Answer 65

Correct Answer: D

Question 66

What is a primary goal of ‘Perform Integrated Change Control’?
- A) To ensure that only approved changes are implemented.
- B) To eliminate the need for changes in the project.
- C) To approve all change requests without analysis.
- D) To document changes for future analysis.

Answer 66

Correct Answer: A

Question 67

‘Work Breakdown Structure’ (WBS) aids in:
- A) Estimating project costs by breaking down the project into smaller, more manageable pieces.
- B) Creating a detailed project schedule.
- C) Assigning specific tasks to project team members.
- D) Both A and C

Answer 67

Correct Answer: A

Question 68

The ‘Manage Quality’ process is important because it:
- A) Focuses solely on the final deliverable’s quality.
- B) Ensures that the project’s processes are continuously improving.
- C) Is only conducted during the project’s closing phase.
- D) Addresses the management of the project team.

Answer 68

Correct Answer: B

Question 69

‘Quantitative Risk Analysis’ often includes:
- A) A thorough examination of the project budget.
- B) Numerical analysis techniques such as Monte Carlo simulations.
- C) A detailed stakeholder analysis.
- D) Qualitative assessments of team performance.

Answer 69

Correct Answer: B

Question 70

Which statement best describes the ‘Develop Project Team’ process?
- A) It involves acquiring team members and assigning them to tasks.
- B) Its primary goal is to enhance team members’ skills, interaction, and overall team environment.
- C) It focuses on defining roles and responsibilities within the project team.
- D) It is primarily concerned with negotiating with functional managers.

Answer 70

Correct Answer: B

Question 71

The ‘Plan Stakeholder Engagement’ process results in:
- A) A detailed list of project stakeholders.
- B) The stakeholder register.
- C) A plan outlining how to engage stakeholders and manage their expectations.
- D) An analysis of stakeholder communication requirements.

Answer 71

Correct Answer: C

Question 72

‘Scope Creep’ can be best managed through:
- A) Reducing the project scope to accommodate new requests.
- B) A rigorous change control process.
- C) Informal agreements to all stakeholder requests.
- D) Increasing the project budget.

Answer 72

Correct Answer: B

Question 73

In project time management, ‘crashing’ refers to:
- A) Reducing the project scope to meet deadlines.
- B) Extending the project timeline to reduce costs.
- C) Adding additional resources to critical path activities to shorten the schedule.
- D) Decreasing the quality requirements to speed up project completion.

Answer 73

Correct Answer: C

Question 74

‘Resource Histograms’ are used in project management to:
- A) Track the costs associated with project resources.
- B) Display the amount of time a resource is scheduled to work over a given period.
- C) Illustrate the critical path of the project.
- D) Show the dependencies between project activities.

Answer 74

Correct Answer: B

Question 75

Effective ‘Change Management’ in a project requires:
- A) Avoiding changes to keep the project on its original course.
- B) Accepting all changes to satisfy stakeholder demands.
- C) A structured process for approving and implementing changes.
- D) Limiting the decision-making authority to the project manager only.

Answer 75

Correct Answer: C

Question 76

‘Communication Channels’ in a project increase significantly with:
- A) A decrease in project complexity.
- B) An increase in project documentation.
- C) An increase in the number of team members.
- D) A decrease in stakeholder engagement.

Answer 76

Correct Answer: C

Question 77

The primary function of ‘Cost Aggregation’ is to:
- A) Determine the total cost of quality for the project.
- B) Sum up individual activity costs to establish a total cost baseline.
- C) Allocate the overall project budget to specific tasks.
- D) Compare the cost of project work packages with actual expenditures.

Answer 77

Correct Answer: B

Question 78

‘Stakeholder Analysis’ in the ‘Identify Stakeholders’ process is used to:
- A) Assign project roles and responsibilities to stakeholders.
- B) Analyze the potential impact or support each stakeholder could generate and strategize accordingly.
- C) Document communication requirements for stakeholders.
- D) Develop a project charter.

Answer 78

Correct Answer: B

Question 79

A ‘RACI Chart’ is a tool used to:
- A) Estimate project costs.
- B) Schedule project activities.
- C) Clarify roles and responsibilities in project tasks.
- D) Analyze project risks.

Answer 79

Correct Answer: C

Question 80

In ‘Plan Procurement Management’, the selection of contract types depends on:
- A) The project’s budget and timeline only.
- B) The degree of risk sharing between the buyer and seller.
- C) The seller’s preference and past performance.
- D) The project manager’s experience and preference.

Answer 80

Correct Answer: B

Question 81

‘Schedule Compression’ techniques include:
- A) Only ‘crashing’.
- B) ‘Crashing’ and ‘fast tracking’.
- C) ‘Resource leveling’ and ‘resource smoothing’.
- D) Only ‘fast tracking’.

Answer 81

Correct Answer: B

Question 83

Which process aims to update and refine the project’s cost estimates as more detailed information becomes available?
- A) Determine Budget
- B) Estimate Costs
- C) Control Costs
- D) Plan Cost Management

Answer 83

Correct Answer: B

Question 84

‘Quality Audits’ differ from ‘Quality Control Measurements’ in that audits:
- A) Focus exclusively on the performance of the project team.
- B) Are designed to identify inefficiencies in the project processes.
- C) Measure the project’s outputs against the quality standards.
- D) Are typically performed by external auditors only.

Answer 84

Correct Answer: B

Question 85

‘Plan Risk Responses’ is the process of:
- A) Identifying project risks.
- B) Prioritizing risks for further analysis.
- C) Developing options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives.
- D) Monitoring identified risks and implementing risk response plans.

Answer 85

Correct Answer: C

Question 85

The ‘Manage Team’ process includes:
- A) Negotiating project contracts.
- B) Tracking team member performance, providing feedback, resolving issues, and facilitating team interactions.
- C) Assigning tasks to project team members.
- D) Developing individual team member competencies.

Answer 85

Correct Answer: B

Question 86

‘Work Performance Reports’ are used to:
- A) Inform stakeholders of project progress.
- B) Serve as inputs to performance reviews.
- C) Document detailed findings of project audits.
- D) Communicate the project’s financial status.

Answer 86

Correct Answer: A

Question 87

‘Decision Tree Analysis’ in the ‘Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis’ process helps to:
- A) Schedule project activities.
- B) Decide on the project’s budget.
- C) Choose between project alternatives by examining potential future events.
- D) Determine the critical path of the project.

Answer 87

Correct Answer: C

Question 88

Effective ‘Manage Communications’ involves:
- A) Limiting the flow of project information.
- B) Ensuring timely and appropriate collection, creation, distribution, and storage of project information.
- C) Avoiding feedback from project stakeholders.
- D) Focusing communications only within the project team.

Answer 88

Correct Answer: B

Question 89

What does the ‘Perform Integrated Change Control’ process aim to achieve?
- A) To ensure all changes are documented and only approved changes are implemented.
- B) To prevent any changes from occurring in the project.
- C) To automatically approve all change requests to accelerate project delivery.
- D) To delegate change control responsibilities to team members.

Answer 89

Correct Answer: A

Question 90

‘Risk Appetite’ is defined as:
- A) The specific amount of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives.
- B) A quantitative measure of the level of risk an organization can absorb.
- C) The level of risk that is acceptable for a project to proceed.
- D) The threshold below which risks are considered for mitigation only.

Answer 90

Correct Answer: A

Question 91

In the context of ‘Plan Cost Management’, which of the following is true?
- A) It involves identifying which costs will be incurred during the project.
- B) It defines how project costs will be estimated, budgeted, managed, monitored, and controlled.
- C) It solely focuses on reducing project costs to meet budget constraints.
- D) It is conducted after the project budget is determined.

Answer 91

Correct Answer: B

Question 92

The main purpose of the ‘Develop Project Charter’ process is to:
- A) Outline the project’s detailed scope, budget, and schedule.
- B) Formally authorize the existence of a project and provide the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.
- C) Define the project’s communication strategies and stakeholder management plans.
- D) Establish the project team and assign resources.

Answer 92

Correct Answer: B

Question 93

‘Work Breakdown Structure’ (WBS) is used to:
- A) Schedule project tasks and milestones.
- B) Organize and define the total scope of the project.
- C) Identify potential project risks and develop mitigation strategies.
- D) Allocate and manage project budgets.

Answer 93

Correct Answer: B

Question 94

Which statement best describes the ‘Manage Quality’ process?
- A) It focuses exclusively on the product’s quality, ignoring the processes used to create the product.
- B) It involves understanding, evaluating, and improving the project management and product development processes.
- C) It is conducted only at the beginning of the project to set quality objectives.
- D) It requires external certification bodies to audit the project’s quality management system.

Answer 94

Correct Answer: B

Question 95

‘Cost Performance Index’ (CPI) is an indicator that measures:
- A) The efficiency of the project team’s utilization of time.
- B) The cost efficiency of the project at a specific point in time.
- C) The effectiveness of the project’s risk management efforts.
- D) The project’s compliance with its scope baseline.

Answer 95

Correct Answer: B

Question 96

The ‘Identify Stakeholders’ process is crucial because it:
- A) Determines the project’s budget based on stakeholder requirements.
- B) Identifies people, groups, or organizations that could impact or be impacted by the project, analyzing and documenting relevant information regarding their interests, involvement, and impact on project success.
- C) Assigns specific project tasks to stakeholders.
- D) Develops a strategy for negotiating with stakeholders.

Answer 96

Correct Answer: B

Question 97

Effective ‘Change Management’ ensures that:
- A) Changes to the project are made without formal approval processes.
- B) All changes are considered and managed in a way that minimizes project risk and maximizes project benefits.
- C) No changes are allowed once the project scope is defined.
- D) Only changes related to project costs are reviewed and approved.

Answer 97

Correct Answer: B

Question 97

‘Quantitative Risk Analysis’:
- A) Prioritizes risks based on their impact on project objectives using qualitative data.
- B) Involves the numerical analysis of the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives.
- C) Is performed immediately after the project scope is defined.
- D) Determines the exact cost implications of each identified risk.

Answer 97

Correct Answer: B

Question 98

‘Resource Histograms’ are useful for showing:
- A) The total cost for each type of resource used in the project.
- B) The sequence of activities that drive the project’s duration.
- C) The distribution of work assignments among team members over time.
- D) The dependencies between different project tasks.

Answer 98

Correct Answer: C

Question 98

The ‘Develop Schedule’ process typically results in:
- A) A list of project milestones and deliverables.
- B) A detailed plan that represents how and when the project will deliver the products, services, and results defined in the project scope.
- C) Allocation of project budget across tasks.
- D) Identification of the project’s critical path.

Answer 98

Correct Answer: B

Question 99

The main purpose of ‘Control Resources’ is to:
- A) Ensure that project resources are allocated and used effectively according to the project plan.
- B) Develop detailed descriptions of the resources required for the project.
- C) Negotiate the best possible terms for resource acquisition.
- D) Reduce the project resources to meet budget constraints.

Answer 99

Correct Answer: A

Question 100

What is the primary goal of ‘Plan Stakeholder Engagement’?
- A) To document the roles and responsibilities of stakeholders in the project.
- B) To prepare a plan for how to engage stakeholders appropriately based on their needs, expectations, interests, and potential impact on the project.
- C) To identify all potential stakeholders of the project.
- D) To ensure stakeholder expectations are met in the project’s deliverables.

Answer 100

Correct Answer: B

Question 101

‘Scope Creep’ often results from:
- A) Strict adherence to the initial project scope without considering necessary changes.
- B) Poorly defined project scope at the outset.
- C) The addition of new project requirements without proper review and approval.
- D) Effective change management practices.

Answer 101

Correct Answer: C

Question 102

In project time management, ‘crashing’ a schedule means:
- A) Reducing the project timeline by cutting non-essential tasks.
- B) Applying additional resources to critical path tasks to shorten the project duration.
- C) Extending the project timeline to accommodate resource constraints.
- D) Decreasing the quality requirements to complete tasks faster.

Answer 102

Correct Answer: B

Question 103

The ‘Direct and Manage Project Work’ process is essential for:
- A) Developing the project management plan.
- B) Performing the work defined in the project management plan and implementing approved changes.
- C) Monitoring and controlling project work.
- D) Closing the project or phase.

Answer 103

Correct Answer: B

Question 104

‘Perform Integrated Change Control’ process is critical because it ensures that:
- A) All changes are implemented immediately to accommodate stakeholder requests.
- B) Changes are reviewed and approved by the project manager only.
- C) Every change request is evaluated for its impact on the project’s scope, schedule, cost, and quality.
- D) No changes are allowed once the project scope is finalized.

Answer 104

Correct Answer: C

Question 105

Which of the following best describes ‘Earned Value Management’ (EVM)?
- A) A method for measuring project performance and progress in terms of scope, time, and cost.
- B) A technique for determining the project’s return on investment.
- C) A process for estimating the costs associated with project risks.
- D) A strategy for enhancing team performance and efficiency.

Answer 105

Correct Answer: A

Question 106

The ‘Plan Risk Responses’ process is designed to:
- A) Identify and document the approach to respond to project risks.
- B) Quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives.
- C) Implement risk response plans as soon as risks are identified.
- D) Continuously monitor and control identified risks throughout the project lifecycle.

Answer 106

Correct Answer: A

Question 106

The ‘Control Costs’ process involves:
- A) Developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities.
- B) Monitoring the status of the project to update the project costs and managing changes to the cost baseline.
- C) Allocating the project budget to individual tasks and activities.
- D) Estimating the project’s total cost at completion.

Answer 106

Correct Answer: B

Question 107

‘Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix’ helps in:
- A) Identifying project stakeholders.
- B) Assigning responsibilities to project stakeholders.
- C) Assessing how well stakeholders’ engagement levels meet the project’s needs.
- D) Documenting stakeholders’ communication requirements.

Answer 107

Correct Answer: C

Question 108

Effective ‘Manage Communications’ involves:
- A) Limiting the amount of information shared with stakeholders.
- B) Ensuring that information is generated, collected, distributed, stored, retrieved, and disposed of in accordance with the communications management plan.
- C) Communicating exclusively through formal reports and documents.
- D) Prioritizing communications within the project team over external stakeholders.

Answer 108

Correct Answer: B

Question 109

‘Cost Aggregation’ is a technique used to:
- A) Sum up costs of individual activities or work packages to establish a total cost baseline.
- B) Distribute the overall project budget across various project phases.
- C) Calculate the cost variance for the project.
- D) Aggregate the cost of quality for the entire project.

Answer 109

Correct Answer: A

Question 110

Which of the following is NOT typically a function of the ‘Plan Procurement Management’ process?
- A) Determining what to procure and when.
- B) Selecting potential vendors and suppliers.
- C) Documenting product requirements and identifying potential sellers.
- D) Establishing procurement protocols and contracts.

Answer 110

Correct Answer: B

Question 111

Which process involves updating the risk register and risk response plans as part of its activities?
- A) Plan Risk Responses
- B) Identify Risks
- C) Monitor Risks
- D) Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Answer 111

Correct Answer: C

Question 112

‘Schedule Fast Tracking’ might increase:
- A) Project costs due to reduced risks.
- B) The likelihood of conflicts and changes.
- C) The availability of resources.
- D) The project’s duration.

Answer 112

Correct Answer: B

Question 113

‘Resource Optimization Techniques’ include all of the following EXCEPT:
- A) Crashing.
- B) Fast tracking.
- C) Resource leveling.
- D) Resource smoothing.

Answer 113

Correct Answer: A

Question 113

In the ‘Control Scope’ process, a major activity is to:
- A) Define project and product deliverables.
- B) Manage changes to the project scope.
- C) Develop a detailed project scope statement.
- D) Create the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

Answer 113

Correct Answer: B

Question 114

Which of the following best describes the purpose of ‘Plan Communications Management’?
- A) To develop an approach for project communications based on stakeholder’s needs and requirements.
- B) To distribute project information to stakeholders as planned.
- C) To ensure all project communications are approved by the project sponsor.
- D) To update project documents with communication records.

Answer 114

Correct Answer: A

Question 115

The ‘Cost Performance Index’ (CPI) and the ‘Schedule Performance Index’ (SPI) are most directly used to:
- A) Measure project performance against the project management plan.
- B) Identify areas of the project that may require special attention.
- C) Calculate the estimated time to complete the project.
- D) Determine the project’s compliance with industry standards.

Answer 115

Correct Answer: B

Question 116

‘Qualitative Risk Analysis’ is characterized by:
- A) The use of numerical techniques to assess the impact of identified risks.
- B) Prioritizing risks based on their probability of occurrence and impact.
- C) Detailed planning for how to mitigate each identified risk.
- D) Assigning exact monetary values to each risk.

Answer 116

Correct Answer: B

Question 117

What is a key benefit of performing ‘Integrated Change Control’?
- A) Eliminating the need for changes during the project.
- B) Ensuring that changes are reviewed and approved in a timely manner.
- C) Reducing the project’s duration by implementing changes quickly.
- D) Increasing the project’s budget to accommodate all change requests.

Answer 117

Correct Answer: B

Question 118

In which process would you use ‘Expert Judgment’ to estimate the duration of project activities?
- A) Develop Schedule
- B) Estimate Activity Durations
- C) Plan Resource Management
- D) Define Scope

Answer 118

Correct Answer: B

Question 119

‘Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix’ is a tool used in:
- A) Identifying stakeholders.
- B) Planning stakeholder engagement.
- C) Managing stakeholder engagement.
- D) Monitoring stakeholder engagement.

Answer 119

Correct Answer: D

Question 120

‘Scope Creep’ can be most effectively controlled by:
- A) Limiting the inclusion of stakeholders in the planning process.
- B) Implementing a stringent change management process.
- C) Reducing the frequency of project status meetings.
- D) Increasing the project budget to accommodate unplanned changes.

Answer 120

Correct Answer: B

Question 121

‘Parametric Estimating’ involves:
- A) Estimating the duration or cost of activities using historical data and project parameters.
- B) The use of project team consensus to estimate activity durations.
- C) Analyzing current project performance to forecast future performance.
- D) Summing the lower-level cost estimates to get a total project cost estimate.

Answer 121

Correct Answer: A

Question 122

The ‘Direct and Manage Project Work’ process is primarily concerned with:
- A) Leading the project team to achieve project objectives.
- B) Performing the work defined in the project management plan.
- C) Managing communications with project stakeholders.
- D) Controlling the project schedule and costs.

Answer 122

Correct Answer: B

Question 123

The purpose of ‘Control Costs’ is to:
- A) Develop an approximation of the costs of the resources needed for project activities.
- B) Monitor the status of the project to update the project budget and manage changes to the cost baseline.
- C) Allocate the overall project budget to individual tasks.
- D) Ensure that project costs do not exceed the authorized funding.

Answer 123

Correct Answer: B

Question 124

Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities?
- A) Estimate Costs
- B) Determine Budget
- C) Control Costs
- D) Plan Cost Management

Answer 124

Correct Answer: A

Question 124

‘Work Performance Information’ includes:
- A) Raw observations and data collected during project execution.
- B) Performance data collected from various controlling processes.
- C) Aggregated project performance data analyzed in terms of overall project control.
- D) Predictions about future project status and progress.

Answer 124

Correct Answer: B

Question 125

‘Bottom-Up Estimating’ is best used when:
- A) The project scope is undefined.
- B) There is a high degree of uncertainty in project activities.
- C) Detailed information about the project is available, and a high level of accuracy is required.
- D) Quick, rough estimates of the project cost are needed.

Answer 125

Correct Answer: C

Question 126

In the context of ‘Acquire Resources’, a primary challenge is:
- A) Determining the project’s total budget.
- B) Ensuring that physical resources are procured at the lowest possible cost.
- C) Negotiating with functional managers to obtain team members with the necessary skills.
- D) Identifying all possible project risks.

Answer 126

Correct Answer: C

Question 126

The ‘Control Schedule’ process is crucial for ensuring:
- A) That the project adheres to its approved schedule baseline.
- B) The development of the project schedule.
- C) The allocation of sufficient time to all project tasks.
- D) The identification of new risks to the project schedule.

Answer 126

Correct Answer: A

Question 127

‘Risk Urgency Assessment’ in ‘Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis’ helps to:
- A) Calculate the monetary value of all project risks.
- B) Prioritize risks based on their urgency and potential impact on the project.
- C) Determine the probability of risks occurring.
- D) Identify which risks should be accepted without action.

Answer 127

Correct Answer: B

Question 128

Which statement about ‘Plan Risk Responses’ is TRUE?
- A) It involves implementing risk responses for all identified risks.
- B) It focuses on defining enhancement strategies for opportunities while ignoring threats.
- C) It includes developing options and actions to enhance opportunities and minimize threats to project objectives.
- D) It should be performed only once at the start of the project.

Answer 128

Correct Answer: C

Question 129

‘Manage Communications’ process effectiveness is measured by:
- A) The number of project meetings held.
- B) The accuracy and timeliness of the communication.
- C) The volume of communication produced.
- D) The project team’s satisfaction with communication.

Answer 129

Correct Answer: B

Question 130

A ‘Resource Breakdown Structure’ (RBS) is used to:
- A) Allocate and monitor costs of project resources.
- B) Identify and categorize project resources by type and quality.
- C) Define project roles and responsibilities.
- D) Schedule the use of resources throughout the project.

Answer 130

Correct Answer: B

Question 131

‘Quality Control Measurements’ differ from ‘Quality Audits’ in that measurements:
- A) Focus on adherence to project processes and procedures.
- B) Are typically performed by an external auditor.
- C) Involve the monitoring and recording of project results to assess performance.
- D) Aim to ensure continuous process improvement.

Answer 131

Correct Answer: C

Question 132

The ‘Develop Project Charter’ process is critical because it:
- A) Outlines the project’s detailed scope, budget, and schedule.
- B) Marks the formal start of a project by documenting initial requirements that satisfy stakeholders’ needs and expectations.
- C) Assigns the project manager and grants them the authority to apply organizational resources.
- D) Develops a detailed project schedule.

Answer 132

Correct Answer: B

Question 133

‘Earned Value Management’ (EVM) integrates which of the following sets of project metrics?
- A) Scope, quality, and risk
- B) Scope, schedule, and cost
- C) Quality, resources, and stakeholder satisfaction
- D) Cost, resources, and communications

Answer 133

Correct Answer: B

Question 134

Which process involves determining the project stakeholders’ information needs and deciding how and when to deliver the necessary information to them?
- A) Plan Communications Management
- B) Manage Communications
- C) Monitor Communications
- D) Plan Stakeholder Engagement

Answer 134

Correct Answer: A

Question 135

‘Resource Smoothing’ is a technique used when:
- A) Critical path activities are delayed.
- B) Resources are over-allocated and project flexibility with start and finish dates exists.
- C) Additional resources are added to expedite the project completion.
- D) The project schedule needs to be shortened without changing the project scope.

Answer 135

Correct Answer: B

Question 135

In which process would ‘Expert Judgment’ be particularly utilized to assess the duration and costs of project activities?
- A) Develop Schedule
- B) Estimate Activity Durations
- C) Estimate Costs
- D) Both B and C

Answer 135

Correct Answer: D

Question 136

The purpose of ‘Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis’ is to:
- A) Numerically analyze the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives.
- B) Prioritize risks based on their probability of occurrence and impact on project objectives.
- C) Implement risk responses based on the project’s risk tolerance.
- D) Determine the budget needed to address all identified risks.

Answer 136

Correct Answer: B

Question 137

‘Monte Carlo Simulation’ is used in project management for:
- A) Determining the most efficient sequence of project activities.
- B) Estimating the probability of completing the project within the scheduled time and budget.
- C) Identifying the project activities that have the highest risk.
- D) Calculating the exact duration of each project activity.

Answer 137

Correct Answer: B

Question 138

The ‘Identify Stakeholders’ process is crucial for:
- A) Assigning project roles and responsibilities.
- B) Determining the project’s communication requirements.
- C) Recognizing all people, groups, or organizations that could be affected by the project or can affect its outcome.
- D) Developing the project charter.

Answer 138

Correct Answer: C

Question 139

Which of the following best describes the ‘Manage Stakeholder Engagement’ process?
- A) It involves managing conflicts among stakeholders.
- B) It includes informing stakeholders about project progress.
- C) It focuses on involving stakeholders in the decision-making process as appropriate.
- D) It is about monitoring stakeholder relationships and adjusting strategies for engagement.

Answer 139

Correct Answer: C

Question 140

The ‘Control Scope’ process is important for:
- A) Ensuring that the project includes all and only the work required to complete the project successfully.
- B) Monitoring the status of the project and managing changes to the scope baseline.
- C) Developing a detailed project scope statement that clearly defines the boundaries of the project.
- D) Identifying and documenting the specific project and product objectives.

Answer 140

Correct Answer: B

Question 141

‘Schedule Compression’ can be achieved through techniques such as:
- A) Resource leveling and smoothing.
- B) Crashing and fast tracking.
- C) Applying Monte Carlo simulations.
- D) Increasing project resources indefinitely.

Answer 141

Correct Answer: B

Question 142

In the context of ‘Plan Cost Management’, the process is vital for establishing:
- A) The project budget baseline.
- B) Policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, managing, expending, and controlling project costs.
- C) The total amount of money that will be spent on the project.
- D) Specific cost estimates for each project activity.

Answer 142

Correct Answer: B

Question 143

The ‘Develop Project Team’ process is crucial because it:
- A) Assigns project tasks to team members.
- B) Enhances team members’ skills, improving team dynamics and overall project performance.
- C) Determines the project budget based on team composition.
- D) Identifies external resources needed for the project.

Answer 143

Correct Answer: B

Question 144

‘Quality Metrics’ within the Plan Quality Management process are primarily used to:
- A) Define how project deliverables will be tested and validated.
- B) Specify how different aspects of the project will be measured against identified quality standards.
- C) Document the operational definitions that describe what is being measured, the units of measure, and the threshold.
- D) Both B and C

Answer 144

Correct Answer: D

Question 145

Which of the following is an output of the ‘Perform Integrated Change Control’ process?
- A) Project management plan updates.
- B) Change requests.
- C) Work performance data.
- D) Activity list updates.

Answer 145

Correct Answer: A

Question 146

‘Parametric Estimating’ is most effective when:
- A) The project lacks historical information and data.
- B) The activities being estimated have little variation from one project to another.
- C) There is a high degree of uncertainty in project activities.
- D) The project is unique, with no similar past projects for comparison.

Answer 146

Correct Answer: B

Question 147

The ‘Acquire Resources’ process is primarily concerned with:
- A) Identifying the physical resources needed for the project.
- B) Obtaining the team members and physical resources necessary to complete project work.
- C) Determining the costs associated with project resources.
- D) Developing a resource management plan.

Answer 147

Correct Answer: B

Question 148

‘Risk Urgency Assessment’ is a tool used in:
- A) Plan Risk Management
- B) Identify Risks
- C) Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
- D) Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Answer 148

Correct Answer: C

Question 149

Effective ‘Manage Communications’ ensures that:
- A) Communications within the project are limited to formal methods.
- B) Project information is generated, collected, distributed, stored, retrieved, and disposed of as per the communications management plan.
- C) Only project managers are responsible for all project communications.
- D) Stakeholders receive information at the project closure only.

Answer 149

Correct Answer: B

Question 150

In ‘Monitor and Control Project Work’, a key activity involves:
- A) Redefining the project scope.
- B) Developing the project management plan.
- C) Comparing actual project performance against the project management plan.
- D) Assigning additional resources to project tasks.

Answer 150

Correct Answer: C

Question 151

‘Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix’ is particularly useful for:
- A) Tracking the physical location of stakeholders.
- B) Assessing how well project stakeholders’ engagement levels meet project needs throughout the project lifecycle.
- C) Determining the communication styles of stakeholders.
- D) Assigning roles and responsibilities to stakeholders.

Answer 151

Correct Answer: B

Question 152

The main objective of ‘Plan Risk Responses’ is to:
- A) Identify all potential project risks.
- B) Develop options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to the project’s objectives.
- C) Assign a risk owner for each identified risk.
- D) Quantify the impact of risks on the project budget and schedule.

Answer 152

Correct Answer: B

Question 153

‘Work Performance Reports’ provide information that is used to:
- A) Create the project schedule.
- B) Inform stakeholders about project progress and performance.
- C) Initiate the project.
- D) Estimate project costs.

Answer 153

Correct Answer: B

Question 153

The ‘Direct and Manage Project Work’ process includes:
- A) Leading the project team to implement project plans and make necessary changes.
- B) Implementing approved changes to objectives, plans, and the environment.
- C) Both A and B
- D) None of the above

Answer 153

Correct Answer: C

Question 154

Which technique is NOT typically used in the ‘Estimate Activity Durations’ process?
- A) Analogous estimating
- B) Parametric estimating
- C) Monte Carlo simulation
- D) Bottom-up estimating

Answer 154

Correct Answer: C

Question 155

‘Resource Optimization’ in project scheduling is used to:
- A) Increase the project budget to cover additional resource costs.
- B) Adjust the schedule to make better use of project resources, considering both resource limitations and project time constraints.
- C) Ensure that the highest quality resources are used for all project activities.
- D) Reduce the scope of the project to match available resources.

Answer 155

Correct Answer: B

Question 156

‘Scope Baseline’ is established during which process?
- A) Plan Scope Management
- B) Collect Requirements
- C) Define Scope
- D) Create WBS

Answer 156

Correct Answer: D

Question 157

In ‘Control Schedule’, a key activity is to:
- A) Develop the project schedule.
- B) Monitor the status of project activities to update project progress.
- C) Assign resources to activities.
- D) Determine the project’s critical path.

Answer 157

Correct Answer: B

Question 157

Which process ensures the project’s deliverables are completed to satisfaction and formally accepted?
- A) Control Quality
- B) Validate Scope
- C) Control Scope
- D) Close Project or Phase

Answer 157

Correct Answer: B

Question 158

‘Cost Reconciliation’ is crucial in which process?
- A) Estimate Costs
- B) Determine Budget
- C) Control Costs
- D) Close Procurements

Answer 158

Correct Answer: C

Question 159

Which of the following is NOT typically an input to the ‘Develop Project Team’ process?
- A) Resource calendars
- B) Project management plan
- C) Team performance assessments
- D) Project documents

Answer 159

Correct Answer: C

Question 160

The ‘Decomposition’ technique is used extensively in:
- A) Creating the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).
- B) Estimating activity durations.
- C) Performing qualitative risk analysis.
- D) Planning stakeholder engagement.

Answer 160

Correct Answer: A

Question 161

Which of the following best describes ‘Precedence Diagramming Method’ (PDM)?
- A) A technique used to estimate project costs.
- B) A method for calculating the critical path in the project schedule.
- C) A tool for determining project resource requirements.
- D) A strategy for stakeholder analysis and engagement.

Answer 161

Correct Answer: B

Question 162

In project risk management, ‘Secondary Risks’ are:
- A) The primary risks that have been identified for immediate mitigation.
- B) Risks that arise as a direct result of implementing a risk response.
- C) The most critical risks that can potentially halt the project.
- D) Identified during the ‘Identify Risks’ process.

Answer 162

Correct Answer: B

Question 163

‘Resource Smoothing’ involves:
- A) Adding additional resources to meet the project timeline.
- B) Adjusting activities within their float so that resource demands are within available limits.
- C) Shortening the project schedule to reduce resource needs.
- D) Increasing the project budget to hire more resources.

Answer 163

Correct Answer: B

Question 164

‘Analogous Estimating’ is:
- A) A technique that uses the actual cost of previous, similar projects as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project.
- B) The most accurate cost estimating method.
- C) Primarily used for estimating project durations.
- D) Applied during the closing phase of the project.

Answer 164

Correct Answer: A

Question 165

Which document includes detailed information on how project work will be executed to accomplish project objectives?
- A) Project charter
- B) Project management plan
- C) Scope statement
- D) Stakeholder register

Answer 165

Correct Answer: B