2° Full-Length Test Flashcards
Which of the following is a primary output of ‘Develop Project Charter’?
- A) Project scope statement
- B) Project management plan
- C) Project charter
- D) Stakeholder register
Correct Answer: C
The ‘Buyer-Conducted Performance Review’ is an activity within which process?
- A) Control Procurements
- B) Plan Procurement Management
- C) Conduct Procurements
- D) Close Procurements
Correct Answer: A
‘Project Scope Management’ includes:
- A) Defining and controlling what is included and what is not included in the project.
- B) Identifying the project outcomes beneficial to stakeholders.
- C) Managing the project team.
- D) Ensuring the project is completed within the approved budget.
Correct Answer: A
‘Earned Value Analysis’ (EVA) is utilized to:
- A) Estimate the required budget at completion of the project.
- B) Measure the project performance against the scope, schedule, and cost baselines.
- C) Define the total scope of the project.
- D) Allocate the project resources efficiently.
Correct Answer: B
The main purpose of ‘Control Schedule’ is to:
- A) Develop the project schedule.
- B) Ensure that project activities are completed on time.
- C) Monitor the status of project activities to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline.
- D) Allocate sufficient time for project tasks.
Correct Answer: C
Which process involves reviewing all change requests, approving changes, and updating the project management plan and project documents?
- A) Direct and Manage Project Work
- B) Monitor and Control Project Work
- C) Perform Integrated Change Control
- D) Control Scope
Correct Answer: C
‘Stakeholder Analysis’ is a technique used in:
- A) Develop Project Charter
- B) Identify Stakeholders
- C) Plan Stakeholder Engagement
- D) Manage Stakeholder Engagement
Correct Answer: B
The ‘To-Complete Performance Index’ (TCPI) is calculated to:
- A) Determine the cost performance required to complete the project within the original budget.
- B) Measure the cost efficiency of work performed to date.
- C) Forecast the project’s schedule performance.
- D) Assess the project team’s effectiveness.
Correct Answer: A
‘Qualitative Risk Analysis’ should:
- A) Assign a numerical value to both the probability of occurrence and the impact of project risks.
- B) Prioritize risks based on their probability of occurrence and potential impact on project objectives.
- C) Quantify the possible outcomes for the project and their probabilities.
- D) Develop responses for the highest priority risks.
Correct Answer: B
In the ‘Manage Communications’ process, what is a key activity?
- A) Creating a detailed project budget.
- B) Ensuring that project information is generated, collected, distributed, and understood.
- C) Performing a stakeholder analysis.
- D) Updating the project risk register.
Correct Answer: B
Which of the following best describes ‘Resource Leveling’?
- A) Enhancing project team members’ skills through additional training.
- B) Adjusting the project schedule to address resource over-allocation.
- C) Allocating the most skilled resources to high-priority tasks.
- D) Reducing the project scope to meet resource availability.
Correct Answer: B
The ‘Cost Management Plan’ is developed in which process?
- A) Plan Cost Management
- B) Estimate Costs
- C) Determine Budget
- D) Control Costs
Correct Answer: A
‘Procurement Statements of Work’ (SOW) are developed to:
- A) Describe the procurement item in sufficient detail to allow prospective sellers to determine if they are capable of providing the products, services, or results.
- B) Outline the project’s scope in detail.
- C) Provide vendors with a clear understanding of project timelines.
- D) Establish the project’s quality requirements.
Correct Answer: A
What does the ‘Project Schedule Network Diagram’ provide?
- A) An estimation of the project’s costs.
- B) A visual representation of the project’s activities and their interdependencies.
- C) The critical path of the project.
- D) Both B and C.
Correct Answer: D
During which process group is the ‘Project Charter’ developed?
- A) Initiating
- B) Planning
- C) Executing
- D) Monitoring and Controlling
Correct Answer: A
‘Risk Urgency Assessment’ is a tool used to:
- A) Measure the severity of potential project risks.
- B) Prioritize risks based on their urgency and potential impact on project objectives.
- C) Identify the risks that require immediate response.
- D) Determine the probability of risk occurrence.
Correct Answer: B
The main goal of ‘Plan Communications Management’ is to:
- A) Ensure that all project stakeholders are kept informed about the project status.
- B) Determine the information and communications needs of the project stakeholders.
- C) Develop an appropriate approach for project communications based on stakeholder needs and requirements.
- D) Implement the tools and techniques necessary to enhance project communication.
Correct Answer: C
The ‘Control Quality’ process is crucial because it:
- A) Defines the quality standards for the project.
- B) Identifies quality metrics for the project.
- C) Ensures that the project’s deliverables meet the defined quality standards.
- D) Develops the project management plan.
Correct Answer: C
‘Bottom-Up Estimating’ is a technique that:
- A) Estimates the project cost by aggregating the individual costs from the bottom up.
- B) Provides a quick and easy way to estimate project duration.
- C) Is used exclusively during the closing phase of the project.
- D) Relies solely on the expertise of top management for estimation.
Correct Answer: A
Which process involves establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule?
- A) Plan Schedule Management
- B) Develop Schedule
- C) Control Schedule
- D) Sequence Activities
Correct Answer: A
‘Configuration Management’ is primarily concerned with:
- A) Managing the project team’s configuration.
- B) Tracking changes to the product configuration and documenting them.
- C) Ensuring the compatibility of project hardware and software.
- D) Managing the project schedule configuration.
Correct Answer: B
‘Stakeholder Management Plan’ is developed to:
- A) Identify project stakeholders.
- B) Analyze the potential impact of project decisions on stakeholders.
- C) Outline strategies to engage stakeholders effectively.
- D) Track stakeholder satisfaction.
Correct Answer: C
The purpose of ‘Perform Integrated Change Control’ is to:
- A) Review all change requests, approve changes, and manage changes to the deliverables, organizational process assets, and project documents.
- B) Ensure that all changes are communicated to all stakeholders.
- C) Implement approved changes to the project scope, plans, and environment.
- D) Both A and C.
Correct Answer: D
What is the purpose of the ‘Monitor Stakeholder Engagement’ process?
- A) To identify all stakeholders at the beginning of the project.
- B) To plan how to engage stakeholders effectively.
- C) To track project performance and make necessary adjustments to the engagement strategies.
- D) To ensure all stakeholders are fully satisfied with the project outcomes.
Correct Answer: C
‘Critical Path Method’ (CPM) is primarily used for:
- A) Identifying the longest sequence of activities in a project plan which must be completed on time for the project to complete on due date.
- B) Estimating the shortest possible project duration.
- C) Determining the most cost-effective way to complete the project.
- D) Assessing the risk impact on project schedules.
Correct Answer: A
In ‘Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis’, what is a primary factor to consider?
- A) The numerical impact of each risk on project objectives.
- B) The probability and impact of risks occurring.
- C) The total cost of risk mitigation activities.
- D) The exact duration impact of each risk on the project.
Correct Answer: B
‘Resource Optimization Techniques’ are used to address:
- A) The alignment of project budget allocations.
- B) The improvement of team performance and skills.
- C) The balancing of resource allocation to ensure project milestones are met.
- D) The enhancement of communication methods within the project team.
Correct Answer: C
Which output from the ‘Direct and Manage Project Work’ process is used to influence and inform stakeholders of project progress?
- A) Change requests
- B) Project documents updates
- C) Deliverables
- D) Work performance data
Correct Answer: D
The ‘Schedule Performance Index’ (SPI) is a measure of:
- A) Cost efficiency on a project.
- B) Schedule efficiency on a project.
- C) The accuracy of the project scope.
- D) The effectiveness of risk management.
Correct Answer: B
What is a key activity in the ‘Manage Communications’ process?
- A) Updating the risk register with new communications risks.
- B) Ensuring that the communications meet stakeholders’ needs and are understood.
- C) Creating a new project management plan.
- D) Conducting performance reviews with the project team.
Correct Answer: B
‘Earned Value Management’ (EVM) integrates information from which areas?
- A) Scope, schedule, and quality
- B) Scope, quality, and risk
- C) Scope, schedule, and cost
- D) Cost, quality, and risk
Correct Answer: C
The primary purpose of ‘Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix’ is to:
- A) List all potential project stakeholders and their information.
- B) Document how stakeholders prefer to receive project communications.
- C) Assess the current engagement level of stakeholders and plan future engagement strategies.
- D) Evaluate the power and influence of stakeholders over the project.
Correct Answer: C
‘Plan Procurement Management’ involves:
- A) Deciding which project needs can be best met by procuring products or services outside the project organization.
- B) Selecting sellers and awarding contracts.
- C) Managing contract and vendor performance.
- D) Closing out contracts upon project completion.
Correct Answer: A
‘Analogous Estimating’ is characterized by:
- A) High accuracy and is based on detailed project data.
- B) Using historical data from similar projects as the basis for estimating.
- C) Being the most time-consuming estimating technique.
- D) Providing an estimate for the total project rather than individual tasks.
Correct Answer: B
In project management, ‘Procurement Audits’ are conducted to:
- A) Review the procurement process from planning through closure.
- B) Ensure that all procurements comply with legal requirements.
- C) Audit the project team’s performance.
- D) Assess the seller’s financial stability.
Correct Answer: A
‘Decision Tree Analysis’ is a tool used in which process?
- A) Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
- B) Plan Risk Responses
- C) Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
- D) Identify Risks
Correct Answer: A
‘Work Performance Reports’ provide information on:
- A) The physical work accomplished.
- B) Project forecasts and potential issues.
- C) Detailed financial expenditures.
- D) Compliance with project governance.
Correct Answer: B
Which of the following is true about the ‘Close Project or Phase’ process?
- A) It focuses exclusively on financial closure of the project.
- B) It involves handing off completed deliverables to the next phase or project closure.
- C) It is conducted during the execution phase to close out parts of the project work.
- D) It includes activities to transfer the completed project to operations or maintenance.
Correct Answer: D
The ‘Cost of Quality’ includes costs associated with:
- A) Procuring high-quality materials only.
- B) Prevention, appraisal, and failure (both internal and external).
- C) Training project team members on quality management processes.
- D) Meeting legal requirements for product quality.
Correct Answer: B
‘Scope Creep’ refers to:
- A) The total work included in the project scope.
- B) The uncontrolled expansion to project scope without adjustments to time, cost, and resources.
- C) The reduction of project scope during the project execution phase.
- D) Detailed documentation of the project scope.
Correct Answer: B
Which process ensures that project work is performed according to the project management plan and authorizes the transition between project phases?
- A) Monitor and Control Project Work
- B) Direct and Manage Project Work
- C) Perform Integrated Change Control
- D) Close Project or Phase
Correct Answer: B
‘Resource Smoothing’ is a technique where:
- A) Project resources are extended to lower overall costs.
- B) Resources are adjusted so that requirements on all days of the project are not to exceed certain predefined levels.
- C) Additional resources are allocated to critical tasks.
- D) Tasks are delayed to manage resource utilization.
Correct Answer: B
The ‘Project Schedule Network Diagram’ provides a graphical representation of:
- A) The project’s cost baseline.
- B) The project’s resources and their allocations.
- C) The logical relationships among all the project activities.
- D) The project’s time and cost performance data.
Correct Answer: C
In which process would you develop a ‘Stakeholder Engagement Plan’?
- A) Identify Stakeholders
- B) Plan Stakeholder Engagement
- C) Manage Stakeholder Engagement
- D) Monitor Stakeholder Engagement
Correct Answer: B
‘Plan Quality Management’ is crucial for determining:
- A) The project’s quality policy, objectives, and responsibilities so that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken.
- B) The metrics to be used for monitoring and controlling quality.
- C) The specific quality standards that the project will aim to meet.
- D) Both A and C.
Correct Answer: D
‘Earned Value Management’ (EVM) helps project managers to:
- A) Track the ethical conduct of the project team.
- B) Measure project performance against the project scope baseline.
- C) Assess project performance and progress against established scope, schedule, and cost baselines.
- D) Ensure the project team’s compliance with legal requirements.
Correct Answer: C
‘Change Management Plan’ is a component of:
- A) The project management plan that describes how changes will be managed throughout the project.
- B) The project scope statement that outlines how scope changes will be handled.
- C) The communications management plan that details how changes are communicated to stakeholders.
- D) The stakeholder engagement plan that outlines how stakeholders are informed about changes.
Correct Answer: A
‘Bottom-Up Estimating’:
- A) Is a method of estimating project duration or cost by aggregating the estimates of the lower-level components of the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).
- B) Provides an estimate for the project as a whole without going into detailed estimates for activities.
- C) Is used primarily in the early phases of project planning when detailed information is not available.
- D) Is less accurate than analogous and parametric estimating.
Correct Answer: A
What is the primary focus of the ‘Develop Schedule’ process in project management?
- A) Allocating project resources effectively.
- B) Analyzing project risks and their impact on the project schedule.
- C) Establishing the order and timing of project activities to complete the project.
- D) Documenting the roles and responsibilities of project team members.
Correct Answer: C
‘Parametric Estimating’ involves:
- A) Estimating the duration or cost of an activity by applying an average of similar activities from past projects.
- B) Using project-specific variables in a mathematical model to forecast project costs or durations.
- C) Summing the costs of individual work packages or activities to come up with a project total.
- D) Relying on the expertise of seasoned project managers to estimate costs and durations.
Correct Answer: B
In project risk management, ‘Secondary Risks’ are best described as:
- A) Risks that have been identified but are considered low priority.
- B) New risks that arise as a direct result of implementing a risk response.
- C) Risks that are identified by stakeholders external to the project team.
- D) The risks remaining after the primary risks have been mitigated.
Correct Answer: B
The ‘Manage Team’ process is crucial for:
- A) Identifying the skills and expertise required for project tasks.
- B) Developing individual team members to enhance project performance.
- C) Tracking team member performance, providing feedback, resolving issues, and managing changes to enhance project performance.
- D) Ensuring that the project team adheres to the project schedule.
Correct Answer: C
‘Work Performance Data’ includes:
- A) The analysis of project progress and performance.
- B) Raw observations and measurements identified during activities performed to carry out the project work.
- C) Recommendations for future actions to improve performance.
- D) High-level information regarding project progress.
Correct Answer: B
What is the main outcome of the ‘Plan Stakeholder Engagement’ process?
- A) A detailed list of project stakeholders.
- B) A plan describing how to effectively engage stakeholders and manage their expectations.
- C) A report on stakeholder satisfaction with the project.
- D) Documentation of resolved stakeholder issues.
Correct Answer: B
‘Cost-Benefit Analysis’ in project management is used to:
- A) Track and report actual costs incurred during the project.
- B) Evaluate the financial viability of the project.
- C) Estimate the costs associated with project risks.
- D) Determine the project’s internal rate of return (IRR).
Correct Answer: B
In ‘Perform Integrated Change Control,’ a major role of the Change Control Board (CCB) is to:
- A) Implement changes as soon as they are requested by any stakeholder.
- B) Review, evaluate, and approve or reject change requests.
- C) Ensure that all changes are reflected in the project schedule.
- D) Communicate changes to external stakeholders.
Correct Answer: B
The ‘Collect Requirements’ process is essential for:
- A) Defining and documenting stakeholders’ needs to meet the project objectives.
- B) Gathering the project team’s input on the project scope.
- C) Collecting the project deliverables at the end of each phase.
- D) Understanding the budgetary requirements of the project stakeholders.
Correct Answer: A
‘Resource Calendars’ are important in project management because they:
- A) Outline the financial resources available over the life of the project.
- B) Detail when specific project resources are available to perform project activities.
- C) Provide a timeline of project milestones and deliverables.
- D) Indicate the availability of equipment and materials required for the project.
Correct Answer: B
The main goal of ‘Control Costs’ is to:
- A) Develop an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project work.
- B) Monitor the status of the project to update project costs and manage changes to the cost baseline.
- C) Ensure that all project expenditures are recorded and reported.
- D) Provide a comprehensive breakdown of all costs associated with the project.
Correct Answer: B
‘Project Charter’ includes information about:
- A) Detailed project requirements and the project management plan.
- B) High-level project description, key stakeholders, and the project’s objectives.
- C) The project’s cost baseline and budget allocations.
- D) Specific tasks assigned to project team members.
Correct Answer: B
‘Quality Metrics’ might include measurements such as:
- A) The number of change requests approved.
- B) The percentage of tasks completed on schedule.
- C) The number of defects per thousand lines of code.
- D) The total cost of the project at completion.
Correct Answer: C
‘Stakeholder Engagement’ levels throughout a project are typically:
- A) Static and unchanging.
- B) Decreasing as the project progresses.
- C) Increasing in a linear fashion as the project moves forward.
- D) Dynamic and may change based on project phase and stakeholder influence.
Correct Answer: D
The ‘Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis’ process primarily:
- A) Assigns numerical values to the probability and impacts of identified risks.
- B) Prioritizes risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact.
- C) Involves developing options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats.
- D) Quantifies the possible outcomes for the project and their probabilities.
Correct Answer: B
‘Decision Tree Analysis’ in project management is useful for:
- A) Organizing and presenting the schedule activities in a graphical sequential order.
- B) Making informed decisions when multiple options are available with different outcomes.
- C) Tracking the project progress against its objectives.
- D) Analyzing the project team’s performance.
Correct Answer: B
‘Variance Analysis’ in the context of project management is used to:
- A) Determine the cause of differences between the planned and actual performance.
- B) Analyze the variance between different project estimates.
- C) Compare the cost variances of different projects within the same program.
- D) Establish new baselines for project performance.
Correct Answer: A
Which of the following is NOT a direct benefit of ‘Project Scope Management’?
- A) Ensuring the project includes all and only the work required.
- B) Preventing scope creep.
- C) Increasing the project’s budget to accommodate changes.
- D) Defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project.
Correct Answer: C
The ‘Manage Communications’ process is important because it:
- A) Defines the project’s communications channels.
- B) Ensures that project information is generated, collected, distributed, stored, retrieved, and disposed of according to the communications management plan.
- C) Establishes new communication technologies for project management.
- D) Documents the project’s communication requirements in the project charter.
Correct Answer: B
‘Lessons Learned’ documentation is compiled:
- A) Only at the beginning of the project during the initiating process.
- B) Exclusively at the end of the project during the closing process.
- C) Throughout the project lifecycle and finalized during the closing process.
- D) During project planning and never revisited.
Correct Answer: C
What is the primary purpose of ‘Project Integration Management’?
- A) To ensure that all project phases are completed on time.
- B) To oversee the performance of the project team.
- C) To coordinate all aspects of the project plan.
- D) To manage the integration of project budget and resource allocations.
Correct Answer: C
‘Monte Carlo Analysis’ is a tool used in:
- A) Developing the project schedule.
- B) Performing quantitative risk analysis.
- C) Estimating project costs.
- D) Planning resource allocations.
Correct Answer: B
In which process would ‘Expert Judgment’ be utilized to estimate the duration of project activities?
- A) Develop Schedule
- B) Estimate Activity Durations
- C) Plan Resource Management
- D) Define Activities
Correct Answer: B
‘Plan Cost Management’ involves:
- A) Approving project budgets and funding.
- B) Estimating costs of individual activities.
- C) Defining how the project costs will be planned, structured, and controlled.
- D) Allocating additional funds to cover project risks.
Correct Answer: C
