1° Full-Length Test

Question 1

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a project?

A) Temporary
B) Unique product, service, or result
C) Ongoing operation
D) Progressive elaboration

Answer 1

Correct Answer: C

Question 2

The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:

A) Develop Project Team
B) Plan Human Resource Management
C) Acquire Project Team
D) Manage Project Team

Answer 2

Correct Answer: B

Question 3

What is the primary purpose of ‘Earned Value Analysis’ (EVA) in project management?
- A) To measure the project team’s performance and progress.
- B) To assess the project’s risk exposure.
- C) To evaluate the accuracy of the project schedule.
- D) To determine the project’s communication effectiveness.

Answer 3

Correct Answer: A

Question 4

‘Stakeholder Engagement’ levels are categorized into which of the following groups?
- A) Unaware, Resistant, Neutral, Supportive, Leading
- B) Informed, Uninformed, Supportive, Neutral, Resistant
- C) Unaware, Aware, Interested, Supportive, Active
- D) Aware, Unaware, Supportive, Neutral, Opposed

Answer 4

Correct Answer: A

Question 5

Which process is responsible for tracking team member performance, providing feedback, resolving issues, and managing team changes?
- A) Develop Project Team
- B) Manage Project Team
- C) Acquire Project Team
- D) Plan Human Resource Management

Answer 5

Correct Answer: B

Question 6

The ‘Critical Path Method’ (CPM) is used to:
- A) Identify the shortest path and longest duration to complete the project.
- B) Calculate the baseline budget for the project.
- C) Determine the most cost-effective use of resources.
- D) Assess the risk impact on project timelines.

Answer 6

Correct Answer: A

Question 7

‘Qualitative Risk Analysis’ should be performed:
- A) Only at the beginning of the project.
- B) Periodically throughout the project lifecycle.
- C) Only when new risks are identified.
- D) At the closure of the project.

Answer 7

Correct Answer: B

Question 8

What is the main goal of ‘Integrated Change Control’?
- A) To ensure that all changes are documented.
- B) To facilitate decision making on requested changes.
- C) To prevent any changes to the project scope.
- D) To monitor the project performance.

Answer 8

Correct Answer: B

Question 9

‘Resource Leveling’ will most likely result in:
- A) A shorter project duration.
- B) Increased project costs.
- C) An unchanged project scope.
- D) An extension of the project schedule.

Answer 9

Correct Answer: D

Question 10

The ‘Schedule Performance Index’ (SPI) is:
- A) A measure of schedule efficiency on a project.
- B) A projection of future project schedule performance.
- C) The ratio of earned value to planned value.
- D) The ratio of actual cost to planned cost.

Answer 10

Correct Answer: A

Question 11

‘Procurement Management Plan’ includes:
- A) Selection criteria for sellers.
- B) Work performance data.
- C) Project team members’ roles and responsibilities.
- D) Change request forms.

Answer 11

Correct Answer: A

Question 12

What does a ‘Risk Breakdown Structure’ (RBS) provide?
- A) A hierarchical decomposition of risks by category.
- B) An estimation of the probability and impact of risks.
- C) A schedule for risk management activities.
- D) A detailed plan for risk response strategies.

Answer 12

Correct Answer: A

Question 13

‘Cost Aggregation’ is used in which process?
- A) Estimate Costs
- B) Determine Budget
- C) Control Costs
- D) Plan Cost Management

Answer 13

Correct Answer: B

Question 14

The primary purpose of ‘Project Scope Management’ is to:
- A) Ensure the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.
- B) Control the costs associated with the project.
- C) Manage the timeline and schedule of the project.
- D) Define the roles and responsibilities of the project team.

Answer 14

Correct Answer: A

Question 15

In ‘Plan Communications Management,’ which factor is the most critical to consider?
- A) The project’s organizational structure.
- B) The urgency of the project.
- C) Stakeholder information needs and requirements.
- D) The budget allocated for communications.

Answer 15

Correct Answer: C

Question 16

What is the ‘Project Management Plan’?
- A) A document that describes how the project will be executed, monitored, and controlled.
- B) A formal agreement between the project team and the customer.
- C) A detailed schedule of all project activities.
- D) A chart that shows team members and their responsibilities.

Answer 16

Correct Answer: A

Question 17

‘Variance at Completion’ (VAC) is:
- A) The difference between the budget at completion and the earned value.
- B) The difference between the budget at completion and the actual cost.
- C) A forecast of the total cost variance compared to the budget at the end of the project.
- D) The amount of budget deficit or surplus at the end of the project.

Answer 17

Correct Answer: C

Question 18

The ‘Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis’ process primarily:
- A) Assesses the impact of identified risks on project objectives.
- B) Quantifies the effects of risks on project outcomes.
- C) Prioritizes risks based on their probability and impact.
- D) Develops responses to high-priority risks.

Answer 18

Correct Answer: C

Question 18

Which of the following best describes ‘Fast Tracking’?
- A) Performing activities sequentially.
- B) Adding more resources to critical activities.
- C) Performing activities in parallel that were originally planned in sequence.
- D) Reducing the project scope to speed up completion.

Answer 18

Correct Answer: C

Question 19

A ‘Bidder Conference’ is used in:
- A) Plan Risk Management
- B) Estimate Activity Durations
- C) Conduct Procurements
- D) Control Stakeholder Engagement

Answer 19

Correct Answer: C

Question 20

The purpose of ‘Control Schedule’ is to:
- A) Develop the project schedule.
- B) Shorten the project duration without changing the project scope.
- C) Update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline.
- D) Ensure that project activities are completed on time.

Answer 20

Correct Answer: C

Question 20

‘Scope Baseline’ includes all of the following EXCEPT:
- A) Project scope statement.
- B) Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).
- C) WBS Dictionary.
- D) Change Log.

Answer 20

Correct Answer: D

Question 21

What is the main advantage of ‘Decomposition’ in project management?
- A) It allows for more accurate cost and duration estimates.
- B) It speeds up the process of developing the project schedule.
- C) It eliminates the need for a project management plan.
- D) It reduces the complexity of the project scope.

Answer 21

Correct Answer: A

Question 22

The ‘Manage Quality’ process is characterized by:
- A) Ensuring the project’s deliverables meet the agreed-upon standards and stakeholder expectations.
- B) Identifying quality requirements and standards for the project and its deliverables.
- C) Implementing the quality management plan to ensure that work is being performed effectively.
- D) Monitoring and recording the results of quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes.

Answer 22

Correct Answer: C

Question 23

‘Plan Resource Management’ results in:
- A) A detailed resource calendar.
- B) The identification and documentation of project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships.
- C) Assignment of project team members to tasks.
- D) Approval of resource requests.

Answer 23

Correct Answer: B

Question 24

In project management, ‘Acceptance Criteria’ refers to:
- A) The process by which project deliverables are reviewed and accepted.
- B) The standards or requirements that project deliverables must meet to be accepted by stakeholders.
- C) The documentation that describes how project deliverables will be tested.
- D) The formal process of accepting the completed project scope by the stakeholders.

Answer 24

• Correct Answer: B

Question 25

‘Work Performance Information’ is an output of:
- A) Direct and Manage Project Work.
- B) Monitor and Control Project Work.
- C) Perform Integrated Change Control.
- D) Control Processes (e.g., Control Scope, Control Schedule, Control Costs).

Answer 25

Correct Answer: D

Question 26

What is the primary focus of ‘Project Stakeholder Management’?
- A) Identifying all people or organizations affected by the project, analyzing stakeholder expectations, and developing appropriate management strategies.
- B) Managing the project team and assigning tasks to team members.
- C) Communicating project information to stakeholders in a timely manner.
- D) Ensuring that project goals are aligned with the organization’s objectives.

Answer 26

Correct Answer: A

Question 27

‘Project Scope’ is primarily concerned with:
- A) Defining what is included in the project and what is not.
- B) Managing the project team.
- C) Controlling the project costs.
- D) Ensuring project quality.

Answer 27

Correct Answer: A

Question 28

The main purpose of the ‘Develop Project Charter’ process is to:
- A) Document the project objectives, identify the main stakeholders, and define the authority of the project manager.
- B) Create a detailed project schedule.
- C) Assign project resources.
- D) Approve project funding.

Answer 28

Correct Answer: A

Question 29

Which of the following is an output of the ‘Plan Schedule Management’ process?
- A) Activity list
- B) Project schedule
- C) Schedule management plan
- D) Schedule baseline

Answer 29

Correct Answer: C

Question 30

In ‘Manage Stakeholder Engagement,’ the primary focus is on:
- A) Identifying new stakeholders.
- B) Analyzing the power and interest of stakeholders.
- C) Communicating project information to keep stakeholders informed.
- D) Actively involving stakeholders in project decisions and activities.

Answer 30

Correct Answer: D

Question 31

‘Risk Appetite’ refers to:
- A) The level of risk that an organization is willing to accept while pursuing its objectives.
- B) The identified risks that are acceptable to the project’s objectives.
- C) The total amount of risk that an organization can handle.
- D) The specific type of risks that stakeholders are willing to accept.

Answer 31

Correct Answer: A

Question 32

The ‘Cost Performance Index’ (CPI) and the ‘Schedule Performance Index’ (SPI) are measures used in:
- A) Earned Value Management.
- B) Qualitative Risk Analysis.
- C) Resource Leveling.
- D) Critical Path Method.

Answer 32

Correct Answer: A

Question 33

‘Procurement Documents’ should be used during which process?
- A) Plan Procurement Management
- B) Conduct Procurements
- C) Control Procurements
- D) Close Procurements

Answer 33

Correct Answer: B

Question 34

The ‘Perform Integrated Change Control’ process ensures:
- A) All changes are recorded.
- B) Project documents are kept up-to-date.
- C) Changes are reviewed, approved, or rejected by the Change Control Board (CCB).
- D) Stakeholders are informed of approved changes.

Answer 34

Correct Answer: C

Question 35

What does ‘Float’ or ‘Slack’ refer to in project scheduling?
- A) The amount of time a project task can be delayed without causing a delay to the project finish date or violating a schedule constraint.
- B) The extra resources allocated to speed up the project tasks.
- C) The budget allocated for unexpected costs.
- D) The duration of the critical path.

Answer 35

Correct Answer: A

Question 36

The ‘Stakeholder Register’ is an output of which process?
- A) Identify Stakeholders
- B) Plan Stakeholder Engagement
- C) Manage Stakeholder Engagement
- D) Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

Answer 36

Correct Answer: A

Question 37

‘Monte Carlo Simulation’ is used in project management to:
- A) Estimate the project’s costs.
- B) Analyze the risk impact on project schedule and cost.
- C) Determine the project’s scope.
- D) Allocate project resources efficiently.

Answer 37

Correct Answer: B

Question 38

Which process involves developing options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?
- A) Identify Risks
- B) Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
- C) Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
- D) Plan Risk Responses

Answer 38

Correct Answer: D

Question 39

The ‘Control Quality’ process is crucial for ensuring:
- A) The project meets the identified quality standards.
- B) The project is completed on time.
- C) The project is within budget.
- D) Stakeholder satisfaction with the project.

Answer 39

Correct Answer: A

Question 39

Which of the following best describes the ‘Direct and Manage Project Work’ process?
- A) It involves leading the project team to achieve project objectives.
- B) It focuses on tracking project performance.
- C) It includes performing the work defined in the project management plan.
- D) It deals with identifying project risks.

Answer 39

Correct Answer: C

Question 40

‘Work Breakdown Structure’ (WBS) is a key deliverable that is used to:
- A) Manage stakeholder expectations.
- B) Break the project into smaller, more manageable pieces.
- C) Schedule the project tasks.
- D) Estimate project costs.

Answer 40

Correct Answer: B

Question 41

The primary objective of ‘Project Communications Management’ is to:
- A) Ensure timely and appropriate planning, collection, creation, distribution, storage, retrieval, management, control, monitoring, and the ultimate disposition of project information.
- B) Resolve project conflicts.
- C) Manage the project team.
- D) Engage project stakeholders.

Answer 41

Correct Answer: A

Question 42

‘Project Integration Management’ includes:
- A) Making choices about resource allocation.
- B) Coordinating all aspects of the project plan.
- C) Managing only the technical aspects of the project.
- D) Focusing solely on the execution phase of the project.

Answer 42

Correct Answer: B

Question 43

Which of the following is NOT typically included in the ‘Project Management Plan’?
- A) Stakeholder register
- B) Scope baseline
- C) Schedule baseline
- D) Cost baseline

Answer 43

Correct Answer: A

Question 44

‘Resource Optimization Techniques’ such as ‘Resource Leveling’ and ‘Resource Smoothing’ are used in which process?
- A) Develop Schedule
- B) Estimate Costs
- C) Acquire Resources
- D) Develop Project Team

Answer 44

Correct Answer: A

Question 44

The process of ‘Close Procurements’ is primarily concerned with:
- A) Documenting project procurement decisions.
- B) Completing and settling each contract, including the resolution of any open items.
- C) Updating the risk register with procurement risks.
- D) Establishing the procurement management plan.

Answer 44

Correct Answer: B

Question 45

What is the main focus of ‘Project Cost Management’?
- A) Estimating the costs involved in completing the project within the approved budget.
- B) Ensuring the project is completed on time.
- C) Managing the quality of project deliverables.
- D) Communicating with project stakeholders.

Answer 45

Correct Answer: A

Question 45

‘Lessons Learned’ documentation is created to:
- A) Provide a basis for rewarding the project team.
- B) Serve as a historical database for future projects.
- C) Fulfill regulatory requirements.
- D) Justify the project’s expenses.

Answer 45

Correct Answer: B

Question 46

In project management, ‘Go/No-Go Decisions’ are typically made during which process?
- A) Plan Risk Management
- B) Perform Integrated Change Control
- C) Monitor and Control Project Work
- D) Close Project or Phase

Answer 46

Correct Answer: C

Question 47

‘Project Governance’ involves:
- A) The oversight, management, and control of project activities.
- B) The technical implementation of project deliverables.
- C) The management of project resources.
- D) The creation of the project charter.

Answer 47

Correct Answer: A

Question 48

Effective project integration management primarily ensures that:
- A) Individual project components are properly coordinated.
- B) The project is completed within budget.
- C) Communication with stakeholders is maintained throughout the project.
- D) The project meets or exceeds quality standards.

Answer 48

Correct Answer: A

Question 48

The ‘Plan Stakeholder Engagement’ process aims to:
- A) Identify all potential project stakeholders.
- B) Analyze the influence and interest of the stakeholders.
- C) Develop approaches to involve stakeholders based on their needs, expectations, interests, and potential impact on the project.
- D) Ensure all stakeholders agree with the project objectives.

Answer 48

Correct Answer: C

Question 49

Which process is concerned with defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project?
- A) Develop Project Charter
- B) Develop Project Management Plan
- C) Define Scope
- D) Control Scope

Answer 49

Correct Answer: D

Question 50

The main purpose of the ‘Collect Requirements’ process is to:
- A) Determine the budget for the project.
- B) Establish the project’s scope baseline.
- C) Document stakeholders’ needs to meet project objectives.
- D) Assign tasks to project team members.

Answer 50

Correct Answer: C

Question 51

‘Crashing’ a project schedule typically involves:
- A) Adding more resources to critical path tasks without increasing the project budget.
- B) Extending the project timeline to accommodate additional tasks.
- C) Shortening the project schedule by overlapping tasks.
- D) Reducing the project scope to meet time constraints.

Answer 51

Correct Answer: A

Question 52

The ‘Control Costs’ process aims to:
- A) Update the project budget.
- B) Ensure that project costs do not exceed the budget.
- C) Reduce project costs through value engineering.
- D) Allocate additional funds to project tasks.

Answer 52

Correct Answer: B

Question 53

‘Qualitative Risk Analysis’ differs from ‘Quantitative Risk Analysis’ in that it:
- A) Focuses on prioritizing risks for further analysis or action.
- B) Assigns numerical values to the probability and impact of risks.
- C) Requires the use of software tools for risk modeling.
- D) Is performed after the project risks have been quantified.

Answer 53

Correct Answer: A

Question 54

The primary goal of ‘Plan Procurement Management’ is to:
- A) Select vendors for project resources.
- B) Determine which project needs can be best met by procuring products or services outside the project organization.
- C) Manage contracts and suppliers throughout the project lifecycle.
- D) Close contracts and complete procurements.

Answer 54

Correct Answer: B

Question 54

‘Stakeholder Analysis’ is a technique used in which process?
- A) Identify Stakeholders
- B) Plan Stakeholder Engagement
- C) Manage Stakeholder Engagement
- D) Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

Answer 54

Correct Answer: A

Question 54

A ‘Work Authorization System’ is used to:
- A) Approve project funding.
- B) Release project deliverables to the customer.
- C) Ensure that work is performed by the project team in the correct sequence and at the correct time.
- D) Authorize expenditures on the project.

Answer 54

Correct Answer: C

Question 55

‘Configuration Management’ is a process that:
- A) Manages changes to the project scope.
- B) Tracks changes to product characteristics and controls documentation changes.
- C) Ensures that project resources are used efficiently.
- D) Manages the project schedule and ensures timely completion of tasks.

Answer 55

Correct Answer: B

Question 56

In project management, ‘Assumption Analysis’ is a tool used in the process of:
- A) Collect Requirements
- B) Define Scope
- C) Develop Project Charter
- D) Identify Risks

Answer 56

Correct Answer: D

Question 57

‘Rolling Wave Planning’ is a form of:
- A) Progressive elaboration, allowing for planning in more detail as the project evolves.
- B) Risk mitigation, by planning for the worst-case scenario.
- C) Schedule compression, by overlapping tasks where possible.
- D) Cost management, by delaying the commitment of resources.

Answer 57

Correct Answer: A

Question 57

The ‘To-Complete Performance Index’ (TCPI) provides a projection of:
- A) The anticipated project completion date.
- B) The cost performance that must be achieved with the remaining resources to meet a specified management goal.
- C) The overall project performance in terms of scope, schedule, and cost.
- D) The expected total cost of the project at completion.

Answer 57

Correct Answer: B

Question 58

Which of the following best describes the ‘Monitor and Control Project Work’ process?
- A) It involves tracking, reviewing, and regulating the progress to meet the performance objectives defined in the project management plan.
- B) It focuses on completing the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy project specifications.
- C) It is primarily concerned with identifying new risks and updating the risk management plan.
- D) It deals with updating the project schedule and managing the schedule baseline.

Answer 58

Correct Answer: A

Question 59

‘Change Requests’ are an output of which process?
- A) Direct and Manage Project Work
- B) Perform Integrated Change Control
- C) Monitor and Control Project Work
- D) Control Scope

Answer 59

Correct Answer: C

Question 60

The purpose of ‘Plan Human Resource Management’ is to:
- A) Assign specific project tasks to team members.
- B) Develop an approach for how project human resources should be defined, staffed, managed, and eventually released.
- C) Document team member performance for project evaluations.
- D) Ensure that the project team has the necessary tools and training.

Answer 60

Correct Answer: B

Question 61

‘Procurement Audits’ are conducted to:
- A) Evaluate the seller’s performance and compliance with procurement contracts.
- B) Assess the procurement process for improvements.
- C) Ensure that all procurements are within the project budget.
- D) Finalize all project procurements and close contracts.

Answer 61

Correct Answer: B

Question 62

Which process involves documenting the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans?
- A) Develop Project Management Plan
- B) Develop Project Charter
- C) Plan Scope Management
- D) Monitor and Control Project Work

Answer 62

Correct Answer: A

Question 63

‘Benchmarking’ is a technique used in which process?
- A) Control Quality
- B) Plan Quality Management
- C) Perform Quality Assurance
- D) Manage Quality

Answer 63

Correct Answer: B

Question 64

The ‘Cost of Quality’ includes all of the following EXCEPT:
- A) Prevention costs
- B) Appraisal costs
- C) External failure costs
- D) Opportunity costs

Answer 64

Correct Answer: D

Question 64

‘Resource Calendars’ are an output of which process?
- A) Develop Schedule
- B) Estimate Activity Resources
- C) Acquire Resources
- D) Develop Team

Answer 64

Correct Answer: C

Question 65

A ‘Responsibility Assignment Matrix’ (RAM) such as a RACI chart is developed during which process?
- A) Plan Human Resource Management
- B) Acquire Resources
- C) Develop Team
- D) Plan Resource Management

Answer 65

Correct Answer: D

Question 65

The ‘Delphi Technique’ is used in project management to:
- A) Estimate project costs.
- B) Develop the project schedule.
- C) Gather expert opinions anonymously for risk identification or scope definition.
- D) Resolve conflicts among project stakeholders.

Answer 65

Correct Answer: C

Question 66

‘Project Scope Statement’ includes:
- A) A detailed description of the project and product deliverables.
- B) The project schedule and budget baselines.
- C) The list of project team members and their roles.
- D) The project’s procurement management plan.

Answer 66

Correct Answer: A

Question 67

Which process involves identifying the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables?
- A) Define Activities
- B) Sequence Activities
- C) Develop Schedule
- D) Estimate Activity Durations

Answer 67

Correct Answer: A

Question 67

What is the primary benefit of ‘Manage Communications’?
- A) It ensures that all project information is timely and accurately collected and distributed.
- B) It provides a clear path for project closure.
- C) It defines the project’s scope clearly to all stakeholders.
- D) It manages stakeholder expectations through negotiation.

Answer 67

Correct Answer: A

Question 68

‘Risk Urgency Assessment’ is a tool used in which Risk Management process?
- A) Plan Risk Management
- B) Identify Risks
- C) Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
- D) Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Answer 68

Correct Answer: C

Question 69

What is the main purpose of ‘Scope Baseline’?
- A) To document the project’s objectives and deliverables
- B) To serve as a standard for comparing actual and planned project scope
- C) To outline the budget for project scope management
- D) To list all the work packages in the project

Answer 69

Correct Answer: B

Question 70

‘Earned Value Management’ (EVM) integrates which three of the following components?
- A) Scope, Quality, and Schedule
- B) Scope, Schedule, and Cost
- C) Quality, Risk, and Cost
- D) Schedule, Cost, and Risk

Answer 70

Correct Answer: B

Question 71

The ‘Issue Log’ is primarily used in which process?
- A) Monitor and Control Project Work
- B) Manage Project Knowledge
- C) Manage Team
- D) Monitor Communications

Answer 71

Correct Answer: C

Question 71

What does the ‘Pareto Chart’ help identify in a quality management context?
- A) The relationship between cause and effect
- B) The most frequent causes of defects
- C) The sequence of activities for quality control
- D) The cost implications of quality

Answer 71

Correct Answer: B

Question 72

‘Analogous Estimating’ is best described as:
- A) Estimating based on detailed analysis of project activities
- B) Estimating the duration or cost of an activity using historical data from similar activities
- C) Estimating durations or costs using complex mathematical models
- D) Breaking down activities into smaller components for more accurate estimates

Answer 72

Correct Answer: B

Question 73

In project management, ‘Fast Tracking’ may increase project risk because it involves:
- A) Extending the project schedule
- B) Performing activities sequentially
- C) Performing activities in parallel that were originally planned to be done sequentially
- D) Adding more resources to the project

Answer 73

Correct Answer: C

Question 74

The ‘Manage Stakeholder Engagement’ process aims to:
- A) Identify new stakeholders throughout the project lifecycle
- B) Ensure stakeholders’ expectations are met by communicating project progress
- C) Involve stakeholders in the decision-making process
- D) Obtain stakeholder feedback to refine project objectives

Answer 74

Correct Answer: C

Question 75

‘Critical Path Method’ (CPM) is used to:
- A) Estimate the shortest project duration
- B) Identify project risks
- C) Allocate project resources
- D) Control project costs

Answer 75

Correct Answer: A

Question 76

Which of the following best describes ‘Resource Smoothing’?
- A) Adjusting the project schedule to level resource utilization when resources are overallocated
- B) Applying additional resources to critical path activities to shorten the schedule
- C) Reducing the resources assigned to non-critical activities
- D) Ensuring resources are available according to the project calendar

Answer 76

Correct Answer: A

Question 77

‘Procurement Management Plan’ includes:
- A) Criteria for selecting sellers
- B) Detailed technical specifications for required products or services
- C) The project schedule for vendor deliveries
- D) Contract closure procedures

Answer 77

Correct Answer: A

Question 78

The ‘Project Schedule Network Diagram’ is primarily used for:
- A) Estimating project costs
- B) Showing the logical relationships among project activities
- C) Displaying the project team’s organizational structure
- D) Tracking project progress against the baseline

Answer 78

Correct Answer: B

Question 79

‘Lessons Learned’ documentation is compiled:
- A) At the beginning of the project
- B) During project closure
- C) Throughout the project lifecycle
- D) After the planning phase

Answer 79

Correct Answer: C

Question 80

The ‘Control Scope’ process is crucial for:
- A) Defining the project and product objectives
- B) Managing changes to the project scope
- C) Developing the project scope statement
- D) Identifying project risks

Answer 80

Correct Answer: B

Question 81

‘Stakeholder Engagement’ levels can be classified as:
- A) Supportive, Neutral, Resistant
- B) Unaware, Resistant, Neutral, Supportive, Leading
- C) Internal, External
- D) Active, Passive

Answer 81

Correct Answer: B

Question 82

Which of the following is NOT a typical component of the ‘Project Management Plan’?
- A) Stakeholder register
- B) Schedule baseline
- C) Cost baseline
- D) Scope baseline

Answer 82

Correct Answer: A

Question 83

‘Variance Analysis’ in the context of project management is used to:
- A) Determine the cause of differences between baseline and actual performance
- B) Adjust the project scope
- C) Allocate resources between projects
- D) Select project vendors

Answer 83

Correct Answer: A

Question 84

The main goal of ‘Develop Project Team’ is to:
- A) Assign roles and responsibilities to team members
- B) Enhance team members’ skills to improve project performance
- C) Acquire the necessary human resources for the project
- D) Define the project organizational structure

Answer 84

Correct Answer: B

Question 85

‘Quantitative Risk Analysis’:
- A) Prioritizes risks based on their impact on project objectives
- B) Assesses the probability and impact of risks in numerical terms
- C) Is performed after qualitative risk analysis
- D) Identifies new project risks

Answer 85

Correct Answer: B

Question 86

In the ‘Plan Communications Management’ process, what is the primary goal?
- A) To distribute information to project stakeholders as planned
- B) To ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information
- C) To update the project management plan
- D) To monitor stakeholder communication

Answer 86

Correct Answer: B

Question 87

The ‘Bid Documents’ are used in which Procurement Management process?
- A) Plan Procurement Management
- B) Conduct Procurements
- C) Control Procurements
- D) Close Procurements

Answer 87

Correct Answer: B

Question 88

‘Monte Carlo Analysis’ is a technique used to:
- A) Determine the project budget
- B) Simulate different outcomes based on varying inputs to assess the potential impact on project objectives
- C) Analyze the project team’s performance
- D) Evaluate vendor proposals

Answer 88

Correct Answer: B

Question 89

‘Work Performance Data’ includes:
- A) Information on project progress, such as which tasks have started, their progress, and which tasks have finished
- B) Analysis of project performance
- C) Recommendations for change
- D) Updated cost forecasts

Answer 89

Correct Answer: A

Question 90

A ‘RACI Chart’ is a type of:
- A) Cost management tool
- B) Schedule management tool
- C) Responsibility assignment matrix
- D) Risk assessment matrix

Answer 90

Correct Answer: C

Question 91

What is the primary goal of ‘Conduct Procurements’?
- A) Developing the procurement management plan.
- B) Selecting qualified sellers and awarding contracts.
- C) Closing out procurement contracts.
- D) Reviewing bids and proposals.

Answer 91

Correct Answer: B

Question 92

‘Parametric Estimating’ involves:
- A) Using statistical relationships between historical data and other variables to calculate an estimate for activity parameters.
- B) Summing the lower-level cost estimates to produce a total estimate.
- C) Using the project team’s collective experience to estimate project duration and cost.
- D) Applying a percentage of the work effort for a similar project to estimate the current project’s work effort.

Answer 92

Correct Answer: A

Question 93

Which document provides detailed descriptions of work packages?
- A) Project Charter
- B) Scope Statement
- C) WBS Dictionary
- D) Project Management Plan

Answer 93

Correct Answer: C

Question 94

‘Risk Transference’ primarily involves:
- A) Reducing the probability of a risk event’s occurrence.
- B) Sharing the impact of a risk with another party.
- C) Avoiding the risk altogether.
- D) Accepting the risk and its consequences.

Answer 94

Correct Answer: B

Question 95

In the context of project scope management, ‘Control Scope’ is important because it:
- A) Defines the project scope.
- B) Ensures changes to the project scope are processed according to the change management plan.
- C) Develops a detailed project scope statement.
- D) Identifies the work needed to complete the project.

Answer 95

Correct Answer: B

Question 96

‘Project Schedule Network Diagrams’ are useful for:
- A) Showing the resource allocation for each activity.
- B) Displaying the logical relationships among project activities.
- C) Illustrating the project’s cost baseline.
- D) Representing the project team’s communication hierarchy.

Answer 96

Correct Answer: B

Question 97

‘Project Cost Management’ should:
- A) Focus only on tracking direct costs.
- B) Include consideration of cost variances and control thresholds.
- C) Be concerned exclusively with the initial budgeting process.
- D) Avoid integrating with risk management processes.

Answer 97

Correct Answer: B

Question 98

The ‘Manage Quality’ process is designed to:
- A) Identify quality standards relevant to the project.
- B) Ensure that the project employs all necessary efforts to meet these standards.
- C) Monitor specific project results to determine whether they comply with relevant quality standards.
- D) Exclusively focus on the final product’s quality.

Answer 98

Correct Answer: B

Question 98

Which of the following is a key output of the ‘Develop Project Team’ process?
- A) Team performance assessments.
- B) Change requests.
- C) Project staff assignments.
- D) Resource calendars.

Answer 98

Correct Answer: A

Question 99

‘Plan Stakeholder Engagement’ is critical for:
- A) Identifying potential project stakeholders.
- B) Developing appropriate strategies to effectively engage stakeholders.
- C) Documenting the interests of all stakeholders.
- D) Monitoring overall project stakeholder relationships.

Answer 99

Correct Answer: B

Question 99

‘Work Breakdown Structure’ (WBS) is primarily used to:
- A) Track project costs.
- B) Organize and define the total scope of the project.
- C) Assign project resources.
- D) Develop the project schedule.

Answer 99

Correct Answer: B

Question 100

The ‘Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis’ process typically involves:
- A) Assigning numerical values to the probability and impact of project risks.
- B) Prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact.
- C) Implementing risk responses.
- D) Identifying new risks.

Answer 100

Correct Answer: B

Question 101

‘Communication Methods’ in project management can include all of the following EXCEPT:
- A) Interactive communication.
- B) Push communication.
- C) Pull communication.
- D) Non-verbal communication.

Answer 101

Correct Answer: D

Question 102

‘Project Integration Management’ includes:
- A) Managing only the technical aspects of the project work.
- B) Coordinating all elements of the project, including project plan development, execution, and change control.
- C) Focusing solely on integration of project schedules.
- D) Integrating the project budget with the project scope only.

Answer 102

Correct Answer: B

Question 103

The purpose of ‘Monitor Risks’ is to:
- A) Identify new risks and reassess existing risks.
- B) Develop strategies for dealing with risks.
- C) Ensure that risk response plans are being executed as planned.
- D) Both A and C.

Answer 103

Correct Answer: D

Question 104

What is the primary function of ‘Direct and Manage Project Work’?
- A) To track project work against the project management plan.
- B) To lead the project team in accomplishing project objectives.
- C) To perform the work defined in the project management plan and implement approved changes.
- D) To develop an approach for executing project tasks.

Answer 104

Correct Answer: C

Question 105

‘Scope Verification’ differs from ‘Quality Control’ in that Scope Verification:
- A) Focuses on meeting the quality requirements specified for the deliverables.
- B) Is primarily concerned with the acceptance of project deliverables.
- C) Deals exclusively with the performance of the project team.
- D) Is performed by the project team, not the stakeholders.

Answer 105

Correct Answer: B

Question 106

‘Decision Making Techniques’ used in project management include all of the following EXCEPT:
- A) Multi-criteria decision analysis.
- B) Voting.
- C) Autocratic decision making.
- D) Stakeholder analysis.

Answer 106

Correct Answer: D

Question 107

The ‘Manage Communications’ process is crucial for:
- A) Ensuring that project information is generated, collected, distributed, stored, retrieved, and disposed of in a timely and appropriate manner.
- B) Defining the project scope.
- C) Estimating project costs.
- D) Assigning project tasks.

Answer 107

Correct Answer: A

Question 107

Which process involves monitoring the status of project activities to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline?
- A) Develop Schedule
- B) Control Schedule
- C) Define Activities
- D) Sequence Activities

Answer 107

Correct Answer: B

Question 108

‘Resource Optimization Techniques’ such as resource leveling are used to:
- A) Increase the project budget.
- B) Decrease the time needed to complete the project.
- C) Adjust the project schedule to meet the resource availability.
- D) Allocate additional resources to project tasks.

Answer 108

Correct Answer: C

Question 109

In project management, ‘Historical Information’ is used during the ‘Plan Procurement Management’ process to:
- A) Evaluate the project team’s performance.
- B) Provide insight into past project procurement decisions.
- C) Assess the current project’s schedule accuracy.
- D) Develop the project’s scope statement.

Answer 109

Correct Answer: B

Question 110

The ‘Cost-Benefit Analysis’ tool in project management is used to:
- A) Determine the feasibility of the project.
- B) Estimate the costs associated with project risks.
- C) Evaluate the potential financial benefits and costs of project actions.
- D) Allocate the project budget across tasks.

Answer 110

Correct Answer: C

Question 111

Which of the following best describes the ‘Close Project or Phase’ process?
- A) It involves completing the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications.
- B) It focuses on the formal completion of project deliverables and the approval of project outcomes.
- C) It is primarily concerned with releasing project resources and handing over the deliverables to the customer or sponsor.
- D) It includes finalizing all activities across all Project Management Process Groups to formally close the project or phase.

Answer 111

Correct Answer: D

Question 112

‘Expert Judgment’ is utilized in which of the following processes?
- A) Estimate Activity Durations
- B) Develop Schedule
- C) All of the above
- D) None of the above

Answer 112

Correct Answer: C

Question 113

What is the main purpose of the ‘Plan Risk Responses’ process?
- A) To identify potential project risks.
- B) To prioritize risks based on their impact and probability.
- C) To develop options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives.
- D) To monitor and control risks throughout the project lifecycle.

Answer 113

Correct Answer: C

Question 114

‘Cost Performance Index’ (CPI) is used to:
- A) Measure the efficiency of the resources utilized on the project.
- B) Determine the estimated cost at completion.
- C) Calculate the budget for the project’s remaining work.
- D) Assess the schedule performance of the project.

Answer 114

Correct Answer: A

Question 115

Which process involves obtaining team members and assigning them to their respective tasks?
- A) Develop Team
- B) Manage Team
- C) Acquire Resources
- D) Plan Human Resource Management

Answer 115

Correct Answer: C

Question 116

In ‘Earned Value Management’ (EVM), ‘Schedule Variance’ (SV) indicates:
- A) The cost efficiency of the project work performed to date.
- B) The difference between the work planned and the work actually completed.
- C) The projected cost overruns at project completion.
- D) The accuracy of the project budget.

Answer 116

Correct Answer: B

Question 116

‘Change Control Boards’ (CCB) are primarily involved in which process?
- A) Direct and Manage Project Work
- B) Perform Integrated Change Control
- C) Plan Risk Management
- D) Monitor and Control Project Work

Answer 116

Correct Answer: B

Question 117

‘Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix’ is a tool used in:
- A) Identify Stakeholders
- B) Plan Stakeholder Engagement
- C) Manage Stakeholder Engagement
- D) Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

Answer 117

Correct Answer: B

Question 118

The primary goal of ‘Monitor and Control Project Work’ is to:
- A) Implement approved changes to the project.
- B) Track, review, and report on project progress against the project management plan.
- C) Ensure that project objectives are met through the monitoring of project deliverables.
- D) Coordinate changes across the entire project.

Answer 118

Correct Answer: B

Question 119

What is the output of the ‘Develop Project Charter’ process?
- A) Project Management Plan
- B) Project Charter
- C) Stakeholder Register
- D) Project Scope Statement

Answer 119

Correct Answer: B

Question 120

‘Resource Leveling’ is a technique used in:
- A) Schedule management to address resource over-allocation.
- B) Cost management to adjust the project budget.
- C) Quality management to ensure standards are met.
- D) Stakeholder management to balance their expectations.

Answer 120

Correct Answer: A

Question 121

‘Work Performance Information’ is:
- A) Data collected from various controlling processes to analyze project progress.
- B) The raw observations and data identified during activities being performed to carry out the project work.
- C) Detailed descriptions of the project’s products, services, or results.
- D) Information on project progress and performance, analyzed in context and integrated based on project management plan components.

Answer 121

Correct Answer: D

Question 122

A ‘RACI Chart’ helps in:
- A) Tracking project expenses.
- B) Scheduling project milestones.
- C) Clarifying roles and responsibilities.
- D) Assessing project risks.

Answer 122

Correct Answer: C

Question 123

‘Quality Audits’ are conducted to:
- A) Identify inefficiencies in the project processes.
- B) Ensure compliance with the project management plan.
- C) Assess the performance of suppliers.
- D) Ensure the project meets specified quality standards.

Answer 123

Correct Answer: D

Question 124

In project management, ‘Procurement Negotiations’ are critical for:
- A) Finalizing the project schedule.
- B) Establishing terms and conditions of contracts.
- C) Developing the project team.
- D) Allocating project resources.

Answer 124

Correct Answer: B

Question 125

The ‘Schedule Performance Index’ (SPI) is:
- A) A measure of schedule efficiency on a project.
- B) A calculation used to estimate the project’s cost at completion.
- C) The ratio of actual work performed to work scheduled.
- D) An indicator of the cost performance of the project.

Answer 125

Correct Answer: A

Question 126

‘Risk Mitigation’ involves:
- A) Transferring the impact of a risk to a third party.
- B) Taking early action to reduce the probability and/or impact of a risk.
- C) Accepting the risk and not taking any action unless the risk occurs.
- D) Watching for risk triggers and signs of risk occurrence.

Answer 126

Correct Answer: B

Question 127

Which process ensures that the descriptions of the project’s products are correct and complete?
- A) Define Scope
- B) Collect Requirements
- C) Validate Scope
- D) Control Scope

Answer 127

Correct Answer: C

Question 128

‘Variance Analysis’ in project management is typically used in:
- A) Planning processes to estimate project costs and durations.
- B) Executing processes to allocate resources.
- C) Monitoring and Controlling processes to assess performance and recommend corrective actions.
- D) Closing processes to evaluate project outcomes.

Answer 128

Correct Answer: C

Question 129

The primary focus of ‘Plan Communications Management’ is to:
- A) Develop an approach for how project communications will be planned, structured, and monitored for effectiveness.
- B) Distribute information according to the project’s communications plan.
- C) Ensure that all project information is timely and accurately collected and distributed.
- D) Update the project management plan with new communication strategies.

Answer 129

Correct Answer: A

Question 130

‘Conflict Resolution Techniques’ in project management include all the following EXCEPT:
- A) Withdrawal/Avoidance
- B) Smoothing/Accommodating
- C) Forcing
- D) Benchmarking

Answer 130

Correct Answer: D

Question 130

In ‘Plan Quality Management,’ the main goal is to:
- A) Inspect the final product to ensure it meets customer standards.
- B) Identify which quality standards are relevant to the project and how to satisfy them.
- C) Complete the work according to the specified quality standards.
- D) Correct any defects in the final product.

Answer 130

Correct Answer: B

Question 131

What is the primary function of ‘Perform Integrated Change Control’?
- A) To develop the project management plan.
- B) To review all change requests, approve changes, and manage changes to the deliverables, organizational process assets, project documents, and the project management plan.
- C) To ensure that the project’s products are defect-free.
- D) To allocate additional resources to the project.

Answer 131

Correct Answer: B

Question 132

‘Earned Value Analysis’ (EVA) is a tool used in:
- A) Estimating the costs of project activities.
- B) Determining the physical work accomplished.
- C) Measuring project performance against the project management plan.
- D) Allocating project resources efficiently.

Answer 132

Correct Answer: C

Question 133

The ‘Manage Team’ process focuses on:
- A) Tracking team member performance, providing feedback, resolving issues, and managing team changes to optimize project performance.
- B) Developing individual team members to enhance project performance.
- C) Identifying the project team’s training needs.
- D) Assigning project tasks to team members.

Answer 133

Correct Answer: A

Question 134

‘Procurement Documents’ are used to:
- A) Close out project procurements.
- B) Solicit proposals from prospective sellers.
- C) Define the project scope.
- D) Develop the project team.

Answer 134

Correct Answer: B

Question 134

In the ‘Control Resources’ process, the main aim is to:
- A) Acquire the necessary resources for the project.
- B) Ensure that project resources are allocated and used effectively.
- C) Develop the project team’s competencies and skills.
- D) Release project resources during the project closure phase.

Answer 134

Correct Answer: B

Question 135

‘Communication Channels’ formula is used to:
- A) Determine the total number of potential communication channels in a project.
- B) Calculate the budget required for project communications.
- C) Identify the most effective communication method for project stakeholders.
- D) Estimate the time needed to manage communications in a project.

Answer 135

Correct Answer: A

Question 136

The ‘Make-or-Buy Analysis’ is performed during which process?
- A) Plan Procurement Management
- B) Conduct Procurements
- C) Plan Cost Management
- D) Estimate Costs

Answer 136

Correct Answer: A

Question 137

Which of the following best describes the purpose of ‘Plan Scope Management’?
- A) To define how the project scope will be validated and controlled.
- B) To capture and document the work required to complete the project.
- C) To establish the process that ensures the project includes all the work required.
- D) To outline the project deliverables and the work needed to create them.

Answer 137

Correct Answer: C

Question 138

‘Risk Appetite’ is defined as:
- A) The level of uncertainty an organization is willing to accept in anticipation of a reward.
- B) The specific amount of risk that an organization is able to withstand.
- C) The degree of risk that is acceptable to the project manager.
- D) The total exposure to risk that an organization has at any one time.

Answer 138

Correct Answer: A

Question 139

In project management, ‘Fast Tracking’ may result in:
- A) Decreased risk.
- B) Increased costs.
- C) Reduced changes.
- D) Increased risk.

Answer 139

Correct Answer: D

Question 140

A ‘Responsibility Assignment Matrix’ (RAM) is used to:
- A) Track project expenses.
- B) Assign project tasks to team members.
- C) Document the escalation path for resolving issues.
- D) Measure project performance.

Answer 140

Correct Answer: B

Question 141

‘Quality Metrics’ in a project might include:
- A) The number of change requests.
- B) The project’s burn rate.
- C) Defect frequencies.
- D) Stakeholder satisfaction levels.

Answer 141

Correct Answer: C

Question 142

Which process involves comparing actual project performance against the project management plan?
- A) Direct and Manage Project Work
- B) Monitor and Control Project Work
- C) Perform Integrated Change Control
- D) Plan Risk Responses

Answer 142

Correct Answer: B

Question 143

The main purpose of the ‘Develop Project Management Plan’ process is to:
- A) Outline how the project will be executed, monitored, and controlled.
- B) Establish the project’s scope, schedule, and cost baselines.
- C) Document high-level risks, assumptions, and constraints.
- D) Define project objectives and criteria for success.

Answer 143

Correct Answer: A

Question 144

‘Precedence Diagramming Method’ (PDM) is used in:
- A) Developing the project scope statement.
- B) Sequencing project activities.
- C) Estimating resource requirements for activities.
- D) Identifying critical path.

Answer 144

Correct Answer: B

Question 145

The ‘Perform Integrated Change Control’ process is vital for ensuring:
- A) All requested changes and recommended corrective actions are processed in a timely manner.
- B) The project’s product is built to meet the documented standards.
- C) The project team communicates effectively.
- D) Project risks are mitigated.

Answer 145

Correct Answer: A

Question 146

‘Cost Aggregation’ is a technique used in:
- A) Summing the lower-level cost estimates to get a total project cost estimate.
- B) Determining the budget at completion for the project.
- C) Tracking the cost performance of the project.
- D) Estimating the costs of individual activities or work packages.

Answer 146

Correct Answer: A

Question 147

Which of the following is a primary concern of ‘Project Stakeholder Management’?
- A) Managing the project team.
- B) Engaging with stakeholders to understand their needs and expectations.
- C) Estimating costs associated with stakeholder engagement.
- D) Developing a project charter.

Answer 147

Correct Answer: B

Question 148

‘Resource Optimization’ techniques are used to:
- A) Enhance the project team’s performance.
- B) Adjust schedules based on resource availability.
- C) Reduce the costs associated with resources.
- D) Increase the quality of project deliverables.

Answer 148

Correct Answer: B

Question 149

In the context of ‘Earned Value Management’, ‘Variance at Completion’ (VAC) predicts:
- A) The schedule variance at the end of the project.
- B) The cost variance between the budget at completion and the estimated total costs.
- C) The efficiency needed to complete the project on budget.
- D) The amount of budget overrun or underrun.

Answer 149

Correct Answer: B

Question 150

The ‘To-Complete Performance Index’ (TCPI) helps in assessing:
- A) The cost performance that must be achieved with the remaining resources to meet a specified financial goal.
- B) The past cost performance of the project.
- C) The likelihood of completing the project on time.
- D) The performance of the project team.

Answer 150

Correct Answer: A

Question 150

A ‘Stakeholder Engagement Plan’ is developed to:
- A) Identify project stakeholders.
- B) Outline how to communicate project information to stakeholders.
- C) Describe how project stakeholders will be engaged in project decisions and activities.
- D) Record stakeholder issues and their impact on the project.

Answer 150

Correct Answer: C

Question 151

‘Plan Schedule Management’ establishes:
- A) The project schedule including start and finish dates for project activities.
- B) Guidelines on how the project schedule will be managed throughout the project.
- C) The sequence of activities required for project completion.
- D) The duration of each project activity.

Answer 151

Correct Answer: B

Question 152

‘Work Performance Reports’ are used to:
- A) Provide information about project progress to stakeholders.
- B) Document the results of quality audits.
- C) Serve as inputs to the ‘Perform Integrated Change Control’ process.
- D) Outline the project team’s resource utilization.

Answer 152

Correct Answer: A

Question 153

In ‘Manage Stakeholder Engagement’, the main goal is to:
- A) Ensure stakeholders’ expectations are aligned with project goals.
- B) Resolve conflicts among stakeholders.
- C) Keep stakeholders informed about project progress.
- D) Actively involve stakeholders in project decisions and execution.

Answer 153

Correct Answer: D

Question 154

‘Bottom-Up Estimating’ involves:
- A) Using a single estimate for the whole project based on the project manager’s experience.
- B) Estimating the cost of individual activities and summing them to get a project total.
- C) Applying a percentage of the total project cost as an estimate for complex activities.
- D) Adjusting a project estimate based on historical data.

Answer 154

Correct Answer: B

Question 155

‘Procurement Statements of Work’ (SOW) are:
- A) Detailed descriptions of each procurement item or service.
- B) Documents that outline the total project scope.
- C) Agreements between the project team and external vendors.
- D) Budget estimates for procured items.

Answer 155

Correct Answer: A

Question 155

‘Project Governance’ framework includes:
- A) The organizational structure, processes, and procedures used to manage the project.
- B) The technology used in the execution of the project.
- C) The project management software tools.
- D) The quality metrics and standards for project deliverables.

Answer 155

Correct Answer: A

Question 156

‘Plan Quality Management’ process is crucial for:
- A) Identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them.
- B) Monitoring specific project results to determine whether they comply with relevant quality standards.
- C) Implementing the quality management plan.
- D) Completing quality audits to ensure processes are followed.

Answer 156

Correct Answer: A

Question 157

The purpose of ‘Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis’ is to:
- A) Numerically analyze the effect of identified risks on project objectives.
- B) Prioritize risks for further analysis or action by assessing their probability of occurrence and impact.
- C) Implement risk responses.
- D) Monitor identified risks throughout the project lifecycle.

Answer 157

Correct Answer: B

Question 158

What does the ‘Plan Human Resource Management’ process primarily produce?
- A) A list of project team members and their roles.
- B) A detailed timeline of team member recruitment.
- C) A management plan describing how project human resources should be defined, staffed, managed, and eventually released.
- D) Performance reports of team members.

Answer 158

Correct Answer: C

Question 159

‘Quantitative Risk Analysis’ is performed to:
- A) Evaluate the overall effect of risks on project objectives.
- B) Prioritize risks based on impact and probability.
- C) Implement risk response plans.
- D) Identify new risks throughout the project lifecycle.

Answer 159

Correct Answer: A