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Japanese Vocabulary > 2T071 CDC Vol 2 Cargo > Flashcards

2T071 CDC Vol 2 Cargo Flashcards

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1
Q

What was the capability of the CMOS called that automated base-level cargo processing actions?

A

CMOS Increment 1

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2
Q

Which three items, when combined, give managers total asset visibility?

A

In-Transit Visibility (ITV), In-Storage Visibility, and In-Repair Visibility

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3
Q

To whom should the CMOS System Administrator (SA) training requests be submitted?

A

Unit Training Manager

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4
Q

List five of the nine work areas within CMOS..

A

Planning & Packaging, Airlift Clearance Authority (ACA), Surface Freight Inbound, Surface Freight Outbound, Deployment Management

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5
Q

Where does data flow after you release a shipment from CMOS?

A

Supply, Destination, POE, Military Carriers, Other System Interfaces (i.e. I2P)

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6
Q

Which workstation component allows you to “talk” to CMOS?

A

Keyboard

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7
Q

What capability does the Integrated Data Environment/Global Transportation Network (IDE/GTN) convergence give its customers?

A

Seamless near real-time capability to access and employ transportation and deployment info.

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8
Q

List three users of the IDE/GTN for transportation and decision-making purposes..

A

National Command Authorities, Theater Commanders, and USTRANSCOM

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9
Q

Automates the shipment processing at aerial ports..

A

GATES

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10
Q

Automates the booking process between DOD shippers and ocean carriers..

A

IBS

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11
Q

Standard Army MIS..

A

DAMMS

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12
Q

Automates base-level cargo processing..

A

CMOS

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13
Q

Which ocean cargo information system allows you to generate reports vital to export and import procedures?

A

WPS; Worldwide Port System

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14
Q

List three functions Syncada provides to business-to-business trading partners..

A

Pre-audit invoice payments, collaboratively resolve invoice exceptions, and make electronic payments.

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15
Q

What document resulted in Syncada being adopted by the DOD to pay for transportation services?

A

MRM; Management Reform Memorandum #15 Tasking

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16
Q

List two types of data critical to the CMOS/Syncada interface..

A

SCAC; Standard Carrier Alpha Code and TAC; Transportation Account Code

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17
Q

List the four actions available to you within the manual approval function of Syncada..

A
  • Approve the Payment
  • Adjust price, approve payment, reason
  • Place transaction on hold
  • Deny payment reason
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18
Q

What mandatory computer system supports all Air Force traffic management freight functions?

A

Cargo Movement Operations System (CMOS)

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19
Q

What two mobility work centers normally use the Cargo Movement Operations System in Exercise Mode?

A

CDF and PDF; Cargo Deployment Function and Personnel Deployment Function

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20
Q

Where are electronic messages sent when released from the CMOS for cargo and passenger movement in active and exercise modes?

A

Integrated Convergence (IGC)

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21
Q

When does the automated outbound cargo process begin?

A

With electronic receipt of shipment information from the source activity.

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22
Q

What major command create and issues a Data Environment (IDE)/Global Transportation Network (GTN) Convergence (IGC) user account?

A

United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)

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23
Q

What system is the scheduled replacement for the CMOS and will feed data to the GTN?

A

TC AIMS Version II; Transportation Coordinators Automated Information for Movement Systems Version II

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24
Q

What internet payment system allows commercial business-to-business trading partners to accomplish pre-audit invoice payments?

A

Syncada

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25
Q

What MAJCOM pays for much of the transportation of Air Force sponsored cargo?

A

Air Force Material Command (AFMC)

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26
Q

What publication prescribes policies and procedures, and assigns responsibilities for performing traffic management functions initiated or sponsored by DOD activities, to include the transportation and movement of material, and pertains to cargo movements’ activities?

A

DTR 4500.9-R Part II

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27
Q

What publication assigns responsibilities, and provides guidance and procedures on the planning, documentation, funding, and other actions associated with the movement of Air Force cargo in support of peacetime, exercise, humanitarian, and contingency operations?

A

AFI-24-203 (updated to AFI 24-602V2)

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28
Q

What is the first step of the cargo movement process?

A

A demand or requirement

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29
Q

How can the originating cargo movement’s element see advance information concerning a shipment?

A

Using ILS-S, Integrated Logistics Supply-System (previously ES-S)

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30
Q

What are the two initial actions in the originating shipment planning process?

A

Shipper creates document; shipper brings cargo and document to Packing & Crating.

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31
Q

Why should the originating Packing & Crating section select the mode of shipment before packaging an item?

A

Some modes require special packaging.

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32
Q

When a shipment originates from a material management element on a DD Form 1348-1a, what do we commonly call this type of shipment?

A

MILSTRIP shipments; Military Standard Requisitioning and Issue Procedures

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33
Q

What set of procedures provide information that can be used to indicate problems with time frames that govern the movement of material from the base supply system throughout the transportation system?

A

MILSTEP; Military Supply and Transportation Evaluation Procedures

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34
Q

What are the three different documents that can be used as authority for shipping government owned cargo?

A

DD 1149, DD 1348-1a, and DD Form 250

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35
Q

What system produces the DD Form 1348-1A?

A

ILS-S/ES-S

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36
Q

If an item has a supply priority designator of 04 and an RDD code of 777, what TP is assigned?

A

TP-2; Transportation Priority-2

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37
Q

What is the first step of the in-checking process?

A

Ensure identity and quantity of material matches the document.

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38
Q

What are the two most common material conditions you encounter when in-checking cargo from the material management element?

A

Serviceable and Unserviceable

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39
Q

What code or category identifies shipments that have the most urgent need?

A

999

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40
Q

When an item is moving by public highway (truck), what publication do you use to classify that item?

A

NMFC; National Motor Freight Classification

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41
Q

When determining the classification for public highway (truck), you find the LTL class rate is 70, TL rate is 30, and MW is 30,000 pounds. What is the breakpoint for this item?

A

(TL/LTL) x MW = Breakpoint

(30/70) x 30,000 + 12857.143 pounds

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42
Q

What are the four modes of transportation?

A

Public Highway (Truck), Rail, Air, Vessel

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43
Q

What mode of transportation is the preferred mode in the CONUS for low-priority shipments?

A

Public Highway

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44
Q

What is the preferred mode of transportation for high-priority shipments of small packages?

A

Commercial Air

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45
Q

What system utilizes DOD-owned vehicles and contracted commercial vehicles?

A

DTS; Defense Transportation System

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46
Q

Within the DTS, commercial air carriers participate in what contract?

A

CRAF; Civil Reserve Air Fleet

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47
Q

During the shipment planning process, which form is most often used as the shipment planning worksheet?

A

DD Form 1348-1a

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48
Q

When annotating the method code on the shipment planning worksheet, where do you find the list of codes from which to choose?

A

DTR Part II; Appendix GG

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49
Q

What does the packing and crating representative use as a hand receipt for classified cargo before packaging is completed?

A

DD1348-1a or DD1149

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50
Q

What is the minimum TPS required for an item in security risk category one?

A

PSS, SNS, EXC, and SEV

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51
Q

What type of route order is issued for a CONUS-to-CONUS shipment?

A

DRO; Domestic Route Order

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52
Q

Where can you look to see the plain language explanation of all RINs (Routing Instruction Note)?

A

DTR Part II, Appendix B

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53
Q

What determines the size of nails used to block and brace items in or on carrier equipment?

A

Thickness of Lumber used.

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54
Q

What type of hammer is used to block and brace ammunition and explosives?

A

Brass Hammer

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55
Q

In what section of the DD Form 626, will you annotate deficiencies discovered during inspection of a commercial carrier?

A

Remarks Section

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56
Q

Who must a driver notify when a shipment of hazardous material is involved in an accident or delayed en route for more than 2 hours?

A

Notify consignor and consignee by email or phone ASAP.

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57
Q

What information should you provide to the carrier scheduling a shipment for pickup?

A

Weight, Cube, Dimensions, etc.

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58
Q

What information can be found in the TFG regarding a shipment’s delivery capability?

A

Special instructions for proper routing and delivery restrictions.

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59
Q

What publication establishes uniform policy for military services for packaging hazardous material?

A

AFI 24-210(I)

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60
Q

What publication do you use when preparing hazardous materials for movement by international vessel?

A

IMDG; International Maritime Organization Dangerous Goods Code

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61
Q

The action that begins the cargo movement process is the..

A

Creation of a demand or requirement for movement.

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62
Q

What form is used to accomplish a non-Military Standard Requisitioning and Issue Procedures (non-MILSTRIP) shipment?

A

DD Form 1149

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63
Q

What transportation priority is assigned to material that may have a supply priority designator of 03 and a blank Required Delivery Date (RDD)?

A

TP-1

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64
Q

Which transportation priority is assigned to a shipment that is non-air-eligible and is moving by military airlift deferred air freight from overseas to the United States?

A

TP-4

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65
Q

Which RDD code identifies shipments that have the most urgent need?

A

999

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66
Q

Which block should you sign when in-checking items on a DD Form 1149?

A

Block No. 18

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67
Q

What formula is used to determine the breakpoint for each shipment when using the NMFC?

A

(Truck Load divided by Less Than Truckload) multiply Minimum Weight equals Break Point.

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68
Q

When requested, SDDC routes shipments..

A

via any surface mode.

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69
Q

When planning a shipment, the commercial mode PROBABLY NOT chosen for a transportation priority 3 item is..

A

air.

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70
Q

Which air dimension code from the DTR indicates a shipment is “not a consolidation and does not exceed 84 inches in any dimension”?

A

Air Dimension Code A

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71
Q

Which method code from the DTR, Part II, indicates the method is motor and less than a truckload?

A

Method Code B

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72
Q

Which form is used to process outbound transportation protective service (TPS) material for movement?

A

AF Form 4387

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73
Q

What transportation protective service code identifies shipments that require continuous attendance and surveillance by two qualified drivers?

A

DDP; Dual Driver Protective Service

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74
Q

What is the name of the service provided by the SDDC to keep shippers and receivers informed on the location of loaded freight cars from origin to destination?

A

Military Traffic Expediting Service

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75
Q

Which security risk category has the highest sensitivity?

A

SRC 1

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76
Q

Within how many days is the SDDC required response time for international route orders (IRO) of nonemergency shipments?

A

Within 10 days

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77
Q

Saw blade binds in the wood?

A

Kickback

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78
Q

Causes damage to your lungs?

A

Dust

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79
Q

Hidden hazard that can cause long-term physical disability?

A

Noise

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80
Q

Leading hazard in a packaging environment?

A

Rotating Blade

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81
Q

Which hazards are most difficult to control?

A

Mishaps/Accidents

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82
Q

A consolidation of all 91-series FOSH standards that relate to general operations w/in the Air Force..(AFI?)

A

AFI 91-203

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83
Q

Managing risks both on and off duty..(AFI?)

A

AFI 91-202

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84
Q

Safety Investigations and Reports..(AFI?)

A

AFI 91-204

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85
Q

What are the five steps in the risk management process?

A
  1. Identify Hazards
  2. Assess Hazards
  3. Develop Controls and Make Decisions
  4. Implement Controls
  5. Supervise and Evaluate
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86
Q

Of the five steps in the risk management process, which steps will you typically deal with?

A
  1. Identify Hazards and 4. Implement Controls
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87
Q

How do Air Force leaders use information from accident reports?

A

To find causes of accidents and take appropriate actions to prevent recurrence.

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88
Q

How are most mishaps associated with transporters categorized?

A

Ground Mishaps

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89
Q

What is “preservation”?

A

Application of materials or methods designed to protect an item during shipment, handling, and storage.

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90
Q

What do you when the preservation operation has been interrupted?

A

Use temporary wraps, covers, or enclosures.

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91
Q

When you receive an item to be packed and the method of preservation is not specified, what do you do?

A

Refer to MIL-STD-2073, Appendix A

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92
Q

What level of protection should be used when you are packaging items you know will be placed in open storage?

A

Level A Protection

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93
Q

What type of load requires a high degree of protection to prevent puncture, shock, or distortion of the shipping container?

A

Type 3 Load

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94
Q

What basic method of preservation includes using a desiccant?

A

Basic Method 50

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95
Q

List the power saws used in the cargo movement element..

A

Band, Table, Panel, Radial Arm, Portable Circular

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96
Q

Identify the saw which can be used for curved cuts and straight cutting..

A

Band Saw

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97
Q

What saw is used for primarily ripping cuts?

A

Panel Saw

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98
Q

What type of cuts may the panel saw be used for?

A

Ripping and Cross-Cutting

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99
Q

How do you prevent kickbacks when using the panel saw?

A

Ensure wood is level with rollers.

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100
Q

As a precautionary measure, what should be done before you use the portable circular saw?

A

Tighten depth adjustment knob

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101
Q

In what AFI/chapter will you find guidance for the lockout/tagout procedures regarding power saws?

A

AFI 91-203

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102
Q

Basic formula for Center of Balance (CB)?

A

(D1 x W1) + (D2 x W2) all divided by GWT = CB

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103
Q

What is the most frequent and important use of cushioning?

A

Absorb energy from impact

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104
Q

What term describes the difference between the original thickness of cushioning material and the thickness of the same material after it is released from compression?

A

Compression Set

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105
Q

What term describes the time it takes for cushioning material to return to its original shape after compression?

A

Rate of Recovery

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106
Q

What type of cushioning comes in sheets or rolls, and is useful when a high degree of protection is required in a small space with a minimum of cushioning weight?

A

PPP-C-850 Polystyrene Cushioning

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107
Q

What is the cube for a shipment 48 inches long, 24 inches wide, and 12 inches high?

A

L x W x H /1728 = 8 cube

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108
Q

What is the center of balance on a vehicle that has a 20 inch distance from the reference datum line to the front axle, a 150 inch distance from the reference datum line to the rear axle, 2870 lbs FAW, 2550 lb RAW and 5420 lb GWT?

A

CB = 81 inches

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109
Q

What is the first step in any packaging operation?

A

Examine item to be packed

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110
Q

What are the five item characteristics to consider when selecting a container for packaging?

A
  1. Shape
  2. Size
  3. Weight
  4. Strength
  5. Degree of Fragility
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111
Q

What type of containers, when broken down, can be stored lying flat, thus saving space?

A

Fiberboard containers

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112
Q

What is the primary advantage of wooden boxes over fiberboard containers?

A

Strength

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113
Q

Which of the four major wood groups is most useful for making box ends and cleats?

A

Medium Density Hardwoods

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114
Q

What maximum outside dimensions are most desirable for crates?

A

30 ft x 9 ft x 7 ft

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115
Q

Of the three types of wooden crates, which does not require diagonal frame members?

A

Plywood sheathed crate

116
Q

When selecting wood to construct crates, what slope in grain should not be exceeded?

A

1 inch in 10 inches of length

117
Q

What are the categories of reusable containers?

A

Long-life, Short-life, Multi-application, and Specialized

118
Q

What are the three distinct types of reusable containers?

A

Fast packs, Standard packs, Containers requiring SPI drawings

119
Q

What is the key to interpreting the SPIs?

A

Reference column in drawing

120
Q

What does the Routing Identifier Code (RIC) on the Special Packaging Instruction (SPI) identify?

A

It identifies Item Manager (IM) and Air Logistics Center (ALC).

121
Q

What is the primary purpose of the reusable container program?

A

To ensure containers are available at a moment’s notice.

122
Q

What happens if a reusable container is not available for an item that must be returned to a depot for repair?

A

Packing and Crating must construct one.

123
Q

What three functions do blocking and bracing serve?

A

Secure the item, Reinforce Container, Distribute Weight

124
Q

What must you do when you use the fiberboard for blocking and bracing?

A

To prevent movement of disassembled parts and provide openings for bags of dessicant

125
Q

What are the most common types of nails used in blocking and bracing?

A

Standard cement coated or chemically etched sinkers and coolers.

126
Q

What are the three types of bolts you most likely use in blocking and bracing operations?

A

Step, Carriage, and Machine

127
Q

What are the three specialty bolts used in blocking and bracing operations?

A

J-Bolts, U-Bolts, and Tie Rods

128
Q

What are the two most commonly used banding and strapping materials?

A

Flat metal banding and Nylon filament reinforced tape.

129
Q

When the length of a fiberboard container is between 30” and 48”, how many metal girth wise bands should be used?

A

3 bands

130
Q

When strapping fiberboard containers with tape, you should completely encircle the container, and then overlap the end of the tape. How many inches of tape overlap should you allow?

A

4 inch overlap

131
Q

What is the primary difference between the function of banding wooden boxes and banding fiberboard containers?

A

Bands close fiberboard container, Bands hold wooden crate together.

132
Q

In the context of transportation, what is the purpose of marking and labeling?

A

To ensure packs move smoothly to their destination.

133
Q

What is the most important factor in marking military supplies?

A

Surface preparation

134
Q

What size should you make the letters when you’re marking packages?

A

No less than 1/4 inch; no more than 1 inch

135
Q

As a general rule, when would you apply an additional label on the end of a container?

A

When container is 10 cubic feet or larger

136
Q

What computer system produces a DD Form 1387?

A

CMOS

137
Q

Where do you place the packing list for a four-piece shipment of classified material?

A

Inside the No.1 Container

138
Q

What two components make up polyurethane foam?

A

Isocyanate and polyol blend or resin.

139
Q

What is meant by the term “exothermic reaction”?

A

Produces polyurethane foam that expands to a volume of 30:1 or 100:1

140
Q

What type of foam is most suitable for blocking and bracing?

A

Rigid foam

141
Q

How do you protect an item from the foam, regardless of the type of pack?

A

Wrap item is polyethylene film (plastic)

142
Q

What type of pack is best suited for heavy and bulky items?

A

Split Pack

143
Q

What common materials are prime generators of electrostatic voltage?

A

Common Plastics

144
Q

What type of protection should ESD packaging provide?

A

Prevent physical damage and maintain leads and terminals.

145
Q

What statement is marked on unit packs containing ESDS items?

A

“Attention static sensitive devices, handle only at static-safe work stations.”

146
Q

What type of term is “hazardous substance”? Where are hazardous substances listed?

A
  • EPA; Environmental Protection Agency Term.

- Table of hazardous Materials and Special Provisions in 49 CFR, Section 172.101, Appendix A.

147
Q

How does 49 CFR define HAZMAT?

A

Material that poses an unreasonable risk to health, safety, and property.

148
Q

What types of HAZMAT are identified in 49 CFR as being in Class/Division 2.1?

A

Flammable Gases

149
Q

What publication is the basis for 49 CFR?

A

Orange Book; UN Recommendations on the Transport of Dangerous Goods – Model Regulations

150
Q

What publication is applicable to commercial air, but does not carry the force of law?

A

IATA; International Airlines Transportation fjdsal;kfj

151
Q

What publication do you refer to when preparing and certifying HAZMAT for transportation on an international vessel?

A

IMDG Code

152
Q

What publication is used when you’re preparing and certifying HAZMAT for transport by military aircraft?

A

AFMAN 24-204

153
Q

How often must the HAZMAT preparers undergo training to remain qualified?

A

Every 24 months

154
Q

What form is used when you’re inspecting a truck that will carry Division 1.2 Explosives?

A

DD Form 626

155
Q

What form is used to identify and provide special handling instructions for biological, classified, in-bond, the remains of deceased personnel, nuclear weapons related material, and weapons and signature service shipments?

A

DD Form 1387-2

156
Q

What block of the DD Form 1387-2 will include one or more of the required accessorial or TPS categories required by the DTR, Part II, Chapter 205?

A

Block 6

157
Q

Who ensures that all personnel are properly trained when required to handle controlled material?

A

LRS Chief Inspector

158
Q

How often does the chief inspector conduct training to maintain awareness and competence regarding the proper management of controlled material?

A

Semi-Annually

159
Q

What command provides guidance on the code components to be regularly inventoried at 14, 30, and 90 day intervals?

A

STRATCOM (Strategic Command)

160
Q

How must the copies of source documents for classified items be stamped or handwritten?

A

In Red Ink

161
Q

What is the only method used to ship NWRM, Classified, Secret, or Confidential, Sensitive, and Controlled material to and from OCONUS?

A

AMC Airlift

162
Q

What items should the driver possess that is transporting a shipment requiring TPS?

A

Valid Operator’s License, Medical Examiner’s certificate, and Employee record card

163
Q

Which term means “deterioration of material due to electrochemical or chemical attack resulting from exposure to natural or induced environmental conditions”?

A

Corrosion

164
Q

Which items require level A packaging protection?

A

Strategic and theater deployment items

165
Q

How do you prevent kickbacks while using the portable circular saw?

A

Keep the blade away from the edge of the material before starting.

166
Q

What type of cushioning material has the advantage of good performance in cold temperatures?

A

Water-resistant cellulose cushioning

167
Q

What item characteristic dictates the cushioning, blocking, and bracing required?

A

Shape

168
Q

For at least how many trips should Category II- short life containers be reusable?

A

At least 10 trips

169
Q

What type of foam is well suited for use as cushioning material for lighter, more delicate items?

A

Flexible Foam

170
Q

What would you use to protect an item and prepare it for the foam-in place process?

A

Polyethylene Film

171
Q

Moving synthetic textiles, polyurethane, fiberglass, rubber, or other such common materials can result in electrostatic voltages up to..

A

15,000 volts

172
Q

What type of barrier material is used to provide electrostatic protection?

A

MIL-PRF-81705

173
Q

What code is marked on a package that contains a hazardous substance?

A

RQ

174
Q

What publication has tables that indicate minimum requirements for placarding trucks carrying hazardous materials?

A

49 Code of Federal Regulations (49 CFR)

175
Q

What form is used to certify hazardous materials moving by military and commercial air movements?

A

Shipper’s Declaration for Dangerous Goods (Haz Decs)

176
Q

What form is used to document that a vehicle is accepted for loading and transportation of explosives?

A

DD Form 626

177
Q

Hand-to-Hand Receipt to control cargo movement

A

DD Form 1907

178
Q

Notifies destination of incoming classified shipment

A

REPSHIP

179
Q

Shipment planning worksheet

A

DD Form 1348-1A

180
Q

Used for procurement of transportation services

A

BOL (Bill of Lading)

181
Q

OA (Obligation Authority)

A

AF Form 616

182
Q

List the two instances when you may issue a CBL after the service is performed..

A
  • Payment of additional charges

- A portion of a multiple unit moving on a single BOL is diverted.

183
Q

Which publication establishes policy and procedures intended to eliminate the introduction of agricultural pests in the US or host nations through DOD channels?

A

DTR 4500.9-R, Part V – Customs

184
Q

What documents(s) may be used in place of the DD Form 1907 for AMC shipments?

A

Air or Truck Manifest

185
Q

What chapter in the DTR outlines the use of TPS?

A

DTR 4500.9-R Part II, Chapter 205

186
Q

An OA is normally valid for how many days?

A

30 Days

187
Q

List five uses or purposes of the DD Form 361 (TDR)..

A
  • Issue an Request for Info (RFI)
  • Reply to an RFI
  • Change or cancel TDR
  • Support claims against TSPs and Contractors
188
Q

Under what circumstances is classified materials released to a carrier for repairs or salvage?

A

Under no circumstances

189
Q

Within how many days must you initiate the DD Form 361 once you determine a shipment is lost?

A

7 Days

190
Q

What actions must you take upon discovery of a discrepancy in a classified shipment?

A

RFI Advisory Message is initiated and sent to action addresses.

191
Q

All action addresses must answer the RFI within how many days when an unclassified/non-protected shipment is involved?

A

7 Calendar Days

192
Q

You should initiate claims action for an unresolved non-classified shipment discrepancy valued in excess of what amount?

A

In excess of $500

193
Q

Define SDT Funding

A

Transportation of material already in supply system

194
Q

Identify two division funded by the AFWCF.

A

Material Support Division, General Support Division

195
Q

List three examples of SDT/CMA-funded movements

A

Aircraft Engines, Munitions, and Vehicles

196
Q

How do you determine the TAC for PACER AMMO shipments?

A

Based on Federal Stock Class (FSC) and Project Code on shipping document

197
Q

List two express air contracts eligible under TPPS.

A

DOD Domestic Small Parcel and WWX (Worldwide Express)

198
Q

What must be annotated on the Airway Bill (AWB) to facilitate customs clearance at the port of entry?

A

“US Military to US Military Shipment – Not For Resale”

199
Q

What AFMAN specifies the procedures for the processing and return of the Tracer Tracker Listing (TTL) and the Delinquent Shipment Listing or R40?

A

AFMAN 23-122

200
Q

How often is the TTL provided to the Cargo Movement Section?

A

Twice a Month

201
Q

What annotation is required on the TTL upon discovering repetition of line items from the previous TTL?

A

“Previously researched by the Cargo Movement Section”

202
Q

How often is the R40 listing provided to the Cargo Movement section to trace originating outbound shipments?

A

Every two weeks

203
Q

What Part/Chapter of the DTR outlines the Carrier Performance Program (CPP)?

A

DTR Part II, Chapter 207

204
Q

Name the activities office that is responsible for ensuring that TSPs meet the CPP?

A

Shipping, Receiving, and SDDC

205
Q

What activities office will report TSP performance issues/failures that affect the safe, secure, efficient, and cost-effective transport of DOD owned cargo?

A

Shipping

206
Q

List four reasons why a LOW (Letter of Warning) or notification of non-use for up to 90 days can be issued to a TSP when failed to meet standards regarding the Carrier Performance..

A
  1. No Show
  2. Safe Equipment
  3. Substitute Equipment
  4. Shipment Refusal
207
Q

List the two types of notification letters used to notify TSPs that they do not meet the minimum performance standards.

A

Letter of Concern (LOC) or Letter of Warning (LOW)

208
Q

Who exercises the discretion of a TSPs non-use or disqualification nationwide due to the severity of violations(s), number of infractions, and TSP response?

A

SDDC

209
Q

What is the primary form used to enter cargo into the Defense Transportation System?

A

DD Form 1384 (TCMD)

210
Q

What form, although being phased out, is still used for foreign customs clearance?

A

Government Bill of Lading (GBL)

211
Q

What form is submitted to the local finance office, and then used to give you obligation authority?

A

AF Form 616

212
Q

What form is most commonly used to report TDRs?

A

DD Form 361

213
Q

What form is used to send an RFI concerning a TDR?

A

DD Form 361

214
Q

What is the four-digit designator used to identify the appropriate service, agency, foreign military sales country, or contractor responsible for funding DTS charges?

A

Transportation Account Code (TAC)

215
Q

Which major command maintains a website to determine proper transportation account code assignment based on assigned national stock number?

A

Air Force Material Command (AFMC)

216
Q

What billing procedure allows offices to cite specific Air Force Working Capital Fund or second destination transportation centrally managed allotment to pay for reparables to a contractor or depot?

A

Third-party payment systems (TPPS)

217
Q

Who tasks MAJCOMs to prepare an OPLAN of how they will react to certain circumstances?

A

Headquarters Air Force

218
Q

What code identifies the qualifications of a person or the type of equipment to be deployed?

A

Unit Type Code (UTC)

219
Q

What code identifies a specific equipment item or person to be deployed?

A

Unit Line Number (Unit Line Number)

220
Q

What deployment work center exercises overall control over deployment operations?

A

Deployment Control Center (DCC)

221
Q

What office operates the LOGMOD-B computer system?

A

Installation Deployment Readiness Cell Office (IDRC)

222
Q

What computer system is used by the UDM to input information about deploying personnel?

A

LOGMOD-B

223
Q

What two systems feed information to the CMOS?

A

LOGMOD-B and MANPER-B

224
Q

What two products of the CMOS are printed by CDF and PDF personnel in preparation for deployment operations?

A

Cargo Manifests and Passenger Manifests

225
Q

What systems do qualified load planners use to produce aircraft load plans for aircraft during deployments?

A
  • GATES
  • ICODES (Integrated Computerized Deployment System)
  • AALPS (Automated Air Load Planning System)
226
Q

Which type of airlift provides continuous air movement from the CONUS to and between different overseas locations?

A

Strategic Airlift

227
Q

Who is the single DOD operating agency responsible for providing DOD sealift service?

A

Military Sealift Command (MSC)

228
Q

Which program is a voluntary civil and military partnership that uses commercial aircraft to support DOD airlift requirements during airlift emergencies?

A

Civil Reserve Air Fleet (CRAF)

229
Q

What information does part 1 of the Base Support Plan (BSP) identify?

A

Identifies resources and capabilities of a location by functional area.

230
Q

What is the difference between a BSP and Expeditionary Support Plan (ESP)?

A
  • BSP; Permanent Air Force Presence

- ESP; Temporary Air Force Presence

231
Q

Who is responsible for establishing the BSPC?

A

Installation Commander

232
Q

What are the primary WRM categories?

A
  • Equipment
  • Consumables
  • Vehicles
  • 463L System Support Base System
  • Subsistence/Rations
  • Joint Use Equipment
  • etc.
233
Q

Who should determine if an installation augmentation program is required?

A

Host Installation Commander or equivalent Geographically Separated Unit (GSU) Commander

234
Q

After commanders exhaust their military personnel resource pool, where should they look for additional augmentation?

A

Look within organization for qualified Department of Air Force (DAF) Civilian Members

235
Q

Which type of agreement is an arrangement whereby an activity of the active duty Air Force agrees to provide support to another activity within the Air Force structure?

A

Intra Service Agreement

236
Q

What is the difference between an MOA and MOU?

A
  • MOA; Memorandum of Agreement involves reimbursement

- MOU; Memorandum of Understanding does not involve reimbursement

237
Q

What form is used to document recurring reimbursable support where the Air Force or DOD Component is the Supplier?

A

DD Form 1144

238
Q

List the areas you may have to evaluate while providing support to contracting..

A
  • Packing and Crating
  • Transportation Portions
  • Contractor’s Charges
239
Q

Which publication directs PCOs to obtain advice on transportation-related issues from the transportation officer?

A

The Federal Acquisition Regulation (FAR)

240
Q

Who has command jurisdiction over non-mobilized ANG units?

A

The Governors

241
Q

Who commands non-mobilized USAFR units?

A

AF Reserve Commander

242
Q

Where do MAJCOMs look for assistance prior to requesting ARC support?

A

Get assistance from active members from collocated units from other MAJCOMs, or ask AFMPC.

243
Q

What three things does an item’s identity include?

A

Reference/Part No., Stock Number, Nomenclature

244
Q

What system is the most widely used method for determining an item’s identity?

A

Federal Logistics (FEDLOG)

245
Q

What condition tag/label is affixed to an item that is considered suspended material?

A

DD Form 1575-1 and 1575 (Brown Tag)

246
Q

What condition tag/label is affixed to material that is unserviceable and uneconomical to repair (condemned)?

A

DD Form 1577 and 1577-1 (Red Tag

247
Q

What condition does a green tag identify?

A

Unserviceable (Reparable) (DD 1577-2 and 1577-3)

248
Q

What three elements make up a reject phrase?

A

Reject Code, Descriptive Phrase, and Action Flag

249
Q

When you receive a reject, what is the first thing you should do?

A

Ensure data was input correctly

250
Q

At what level should rejects be corrected?

A

Lowest possible level

251
Q

How soon should rejects be processed?

A

As rapidly as possible

252
Q

What listing reflects all accountable rejects and the number of times reprocessing was attempted for each reject?

A

D818; Cumulative Reject Processor

253
Q

What is the difference between a reject and a management notice?

A

Management notices are not rejects. Do not stop computer processing!

254
Q

How are management notices readily identified?

A

MGT

255
Q

List the results of an item being processed for the wrong organization code?

A
  • Delivered to wrong place
  • One pays for unnecessary item
  • Resources wasted to wrong place
  • Consumption for wrong place
256
Q

What is reverse posting used for?

A

To remove erroneous data from material management system data base.

257
Q

What four sections in Supply are authorized to process reverse post transactions?

A
  • Inventory
  • Repair Cycle Support
  • Document Control
  • Customer Service
258
Q

What are in Supply is responsible for initiating and processing RVP inputs to correct documentation errors found during quality control checks?

A

Document Control

259
Q

How often is the MILSTAMP tracer reconciliations program run?

A

Twice a month

260
Q

How are shipments identified on the Consolidated Shipment Error listing that exceed age requirements and have no due-in detail?

A

Lead TCN

261
Q

What two elements in Supply work hand in hand to resolve SDR problems?

A

Stock Control and Receiving Element

262
Q

List some of the common discrepancies for SDRs.

A
  • Product Quality
  • Transportation Type
  • etc.
263
Q

When a shortage or overage occurs for controlled items, within how many hours should the receiving activity submit a discrepancy report?

A

Within 24 hours of discovery

264
Q

When will discrepancy reports require a follow-up to occur for classified items?

A

ALWAYS

265
Q

What can happen when the wrong item/quantity of property is processed?

A

Prevent an organization from meeting mission objectives.

266
Q

How many copies of the DD Form 1348-1A normally accompany each shipment from Supply?

A

Three copies

267
Q

What is used as the accountable document for items received in Base Supply?

A

DD Form 1348-1A

268
Q

How does the DD Form 1348-1A differ from the DD Form 250 or other incoming source documents regarding the in-checking of property?

A

DD Form 250 can list more than one item

269
Q

What form is normally found on containers sent directly from a commercial contractor to a supply activity?

A

DD Form 250

270
Q

How does an individual indicate the in-check of receipt documentation and property?

A

Sign Last name on document along with Julian Date

271
Q

What item lists by operation plan all unit type codes a wing is tasked to support and indicates times, movement data, and modes of transport?

A

Time-Phased Force and Deployment Data

272
Q

What category of airlift mission provides air movement of personnel, supplies, and equipment on a sustained, selective, or emergency basis to dispersed sites within a theater of operations?

A

Theater

273
Q

What types of orders are self-triggering and become effective upon proclamation of a civil defense emergency by the president?

A

Interstate Commerce Commission Transportation Mobilization orders

274
Q

What installation-level strategy is designed to support unified and specified command wartime operation plans, as well as major command supporting plans?

A

Base Support Plan

275
Q

Who is responsible to establish a base support planning committee?

A

Installation Commander

276
Q

What program can assist commanders in validating, approving, and documenting the need for additional personnel resources to support installation-level requirements?

A

Augmentation

277
Q

What term describes using people in other than their assigned control Air Force Specialty Code duties?

A

Augmentation

278
Q

What is the agreement between the US Air Force and another service or a DOD component?

A

Inter service

279
Q

The agency that has the primary responsibility for a support agreement program is the installation…

A

Supplier Support Agreement Manager’s Office

280
Q

What does the transportation evaluator use to advise the procurement contracting officer regarding the terms in contract solicitations?

A

Officially approved charges and rates.

281
Q

When can equipment owned by the Air Reserve Components be reassigned to the active force for the Security Assistance Program?

A

Only with the advanced written approval of the Secretary or Deputy Secretary of Defense

282
Q

Who validates requests for Air Reserve component augmentation?

A

MAJCOM or Field Operating Agency (FOA) Office of Primary Responsibility

283
Q

What characteristic is NOT included in an item’s identity?

A

Condition

284
Q

What system is the most widely used method for determining an item’s identity?

A

Federal Logistics System (FEDLOG)

285
Q

How are consolidated shipments identified on the Consolidated Shipment Error list?

A

Lead Transportation Control Number (Lead TCN)

286
Q

What Defense Department (DD) form is used as an accountable document for items received in Base Supply?

A

DD Form 1348-1A

Japanese Vocabulary (3 decks)

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