2nd LE Module 6, 7, 8 Flashcards

1
Q

How does electrical excitation work for neurons?

A

They use the electrical current to rapidly transmit nerve impulses or action potential

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2
Q

How do muscle cells use electrical excitation?

A

They use it to initiate muscle contraction

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3
Q

What are the parts of the neuron or nerve cell?

A

Nerve cell body
Dendrites
Axon hillock
Axon
Node of ranvier
Schwann cells

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4
Q

What is the function of the nerve cell body?

A

To receive stimulus from dendrites
To send stimulus through nerve axon

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5
Q

True or false.
Nerve cell bodies receive stimulus from the nerve axon and send stimulus through the dendrite.

A

False
Nerve cell bodies receive from the dendrite and send stimulus through the axon

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6
Q

What are dendrites?

A

Short processes in neurons
Receive, conduct stimulus and produce voltage changes in response to stimulus
Assist in generating nerve impulses

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7
Q

If a neuron did not have dendrites. Would pain signals still be transmitted? Why?

A

No. Dendrites are how the nerve cell body receives stimulus. Without it then there would be no action potential sent to muscle cells to retract from pain.

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8
Q

What is an axon hillock?

A

It processes voltage changes from the cell body and dendrites
Assists in generating nerve impulse

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9
Q

What is an axon?

A

A singular, long process in neurons
Conducts nerve impulses to the axon terminal or neuromuscular junction

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10
Q

What is a neuromuscular junction?

A

The juntion between nerves and muscles. Muscles receive electrical stimulus through this that allows them to contract.

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11
Q

What is the Node of Ranvier?

A

Gaps between the myelin sheaths in the nerve axon
Facilitates generation and transmission of nerve impulses

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12
Q

What are Schwann cells?

A

Cells that generate myelin sheaths
Myelin sheaths increase the transmission speed of signals

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13
Q

How do Nodes of Ranvier facilitate generation and transmission of nerve impulses?

A

Through the opening of sodium channels that are present at every Node of Ranvier.

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14
Q

What is the distribution of ion channels in myelinated neurons?

A

Surface of myelin in nerve axons = <25
Axon terminal = 20-75
Initial segment of axon = 350-500
Nerve cell body = 50-75
Nodes of Ranvier = 2000-12000

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15
Q

What is resting membrane potential (RMP)

A

Difference between inside & outside of all cells
Determine by measuring the voltage of ICF vs ECF

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16
Q

What are the RMP of neurons, muscle cells, thyroid cells, and fat cells?

A

Neurons = -70 mV
Muscle cells = -70 mV
Thyroid cells = -50 mV
Fat cells = -40 mV

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17
Q

In general, what causes the negative RMP of the ICF vs the ECF?

A

Due to the unequal flow of ions across the membrane

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18
Q

Why is the interior of the cell slightly negative?

A

Due to ion concentration difference
Cell membrane’s selective permeability
Movement of ions across the membrane

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19
Q

What specific ions cause negative potential of ICF?

A

K and Negative Charge Protein (NCP)

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20
Q

What causes the potential difference in ECF?

A

High concentration of Na and Cl ions

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21
Q

True or false.
The negative change of ECF is due to NCP which remains inside the cell because it is too large to pass through the membrane.

A

False.
The negatve change of ICF is due to the NCP

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22
Q

True or false.
While at rest, Na ion conductance is 10x higher than K ion conductance.

A

False.
K ion ion conductance is 10x higher than Na ion because the cell membrane is highly permeable to K ions.

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23
Q

What are the two factors that determine the RMP?

A

concentration gradient for ion (chemical gradient)
membrane permeability or ion conductance (electrical gradient)

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24
Q

Situational question.
If K+ is abundant in the ICF what happens to the cell?

A

It will cause K+ to drive out of the cell and follow its concentration gradient by leaking out

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25
Q

Situational question.
If Na+ is abundant in the ECF what happens to the cell?

A

Na will follow its concentration gradient and move into the cell

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26
Q

What is the cell membrane permeability for Na ions?

A

Not very permeable
The Na+ ions leak into the cells via leaky channels but are pumped out by the Na-K pump at the same rate it leaks in

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27
Q

What is the cell membrane permeability for K ions?

A

Highly permeable to K+ ion and leaks out of the cell
Cell actively pumps K+ back into the cell but leaks at the same rate

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28
Q

True or false.
The chemical gradient and electrical gradient contribute to the net movement of negatively charged ions out of the cells.

A

False.
Chemical and electrical gradients equate to net movement of positively charged ions out of the cell

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29
Q

What causes cells to have an RMP?

A

Na-K ATPases pumping out 3Na in the cell and 2K out of the cell.
K+ leaving the cell through leaky K+ channels
Free phosphates and proteins that dissociate from K+ remaining in the cell

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30
Q
A
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31
Q

True or false.
K+’s chemical gradient pushes it out of the cell.

A

True. Because K+ is more abundant in the ICF thus leaky channels naturally push it down its concentration gradient out of the cell into the ECF.

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32
Q

What are the determinants of resistance across the cell membrane?

A
  1. Number of ion channels
  2. Type of ion channels
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33
Q

True or False.
Both the chemical and electrical gradients drive K+ out of the cell.

A

False.
Only the chemical gradient drives K+ out of the cell.
Electrical gradient opposes the chemical gradient since the + charge of K is attracted to the negatively charged proteins (NCP) in cell

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34
Q

What drives Na+ into the cell?

A

Both chemical and electrical gradient. Since Na+ is attracted to the negative interior of the cell.

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35
Q

What does the Nernst Potential measure?

A

The amount of work that can be done by an ion diffusing down its gradient

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36
Q

What is the unit of Nernst Potential?

A

electrical equivalent Veq or mV

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37
Q

When there is no net movement of K+, what is the Nernst Potential of K+ and Na+

A

K+ = -90mV (90%)
Na+ = +70mV (10%)

RMP EK+ + ENa+ = -70mV

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38
Q

What is a current?

A

It is the flow of ions across the cell membrane and eliminates electrical potential (kinetic movement?)

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39
Q

What is the function of the cell membrane in regards to the current?

A

It acts as a resistor by resisting the flow of ions down their concentration gradient

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40
Q

What happens if the resistance is high?

A

The current will be low and the cell membrane channels will be closed thus not allowing the flow of ions

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41
Q

What happens if resistance is low?

A

Current will be high and the cell membrane channels will be high and allow the flow of ions

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42
Q

True or False.
Recall the conductance-time graph of K+ and Na+ channels. Both Na and K channels have the same maximum conductance.

A

True

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43
Q

True or False.
Na+ and K+ channels have the same activation and inactivation time.

A

False.
Sodium channels have an earlier activation time and are open briefly before slowly closing.
K+ channels have a slower activation time but an immediate inactivation time.

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44
Q

What happens when cells are electrically stimulated?

A

They generate action potential or nerve impulse

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45
Q

What are the requirements for generating an action potential?

A
  1. Part of a neuron to stimulate
  2. Change in membrane potential
  3. Electrical stimulus is strong enough to cause depolarization
  4. Change in membrane conductance
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46
Q

What part of the neuron is stimulated to generate an action potential?

A

Membrane of axon

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47
Q

Change in membrane potential must be from __ mV to __ mV

A

-70 mV to +45 mV

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48
Q

During depolarization what is the overall potential of the membrane?

A

Less negative

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49
Q

Why is there a need to have a strong stimulus for depolarization?

A

In order to open the voltage gated Na channels

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50
Q

What causes changes in membrane conductance

A

An increase in membrane conductance of Na and K ions

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51
Q

When doesnt an action potential occur?

A

Subthreshold stimulus

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52
Q

What is the principle that explains the mechanism of AP generation in regards to stimulus?

A

All-or-none principle or quantal response

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53
Q

What happens if the electrical stimulus reaches the threshold potential?

A

Action potential occurs

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54
Q

What happens if a suprathreshold stimulus occurs?

A

Action potential occurs

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55
Q

True or False.
The size and form of the AP generated by a suprathreshold stimulus is different from the AP generated by a threshold stimulus.

A

False.
The AP size and form remain the same

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56
Q

What happens if a subthreshold stimulus occurs?

A

AP is not generated.

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57
Q

What happens after proper nerve stimulation?

A

An action potential or nerve impulse

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58
Q

What does the all or none process of action potential mean?

A

It means its a domino effect where AP is conducted through the entire length of nerve axons without diminishment

Basically its either the first section starts an action potential and cascades to other parts of the membrane or nothing happens at all.

The formation of AP or nerve impulses stimulates the generation of new AP or nerve impulses in the next section of the nerve axon membrane

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59
Q

Why are nerve impulses so important?

A

They are the primary signal used by the nervous system

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60
Q

Nerve impulses are used to regulate physiologic activities of animals such as?

A
  1. Stimulate other neurons and other cells
  2. Stimulate release of neurotransmitters
  3. Regulate sensory functions
  4. Regulate motor functions
  5. Regulate glandular secretions
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61
Q

What are the 6 phases of action potential?

A
  1. Threshold potential (Resting)
  2. Depolarization or up stroke
  3. Overshoot
  4. Repolarization or down stroke
  5. After depolarization
  6. Hyperpolarization
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62
Q

What happens during the threshold potential step or RMP step?

A

The Na+ channel activation gate or M gate is closed

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63
Q

What happens during depolarization?

A

Na+ channel activation gate or M gate opens

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64
Q

What causes Na+ channels to open and increase the membrane potential?

A

A nerve stimulus

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65
Q

What happens if the stimulus is unable to reach the threshold?

A

Depolarization does not occur as not enough Na+ ions entered into the cell to reach the threshold potential

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66
Q

What is the threshold potential in mV?

A

-55 mV

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67
Q

What happens during the overshoot step?

A

Na+ channel becomes refractory
Activation gate closes
Inactivation gate (H gate) opens

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68
Q

What does it mean for a Na+ channel to be refractory?

A

It means that no more Na+ ions can enter into the cell

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69
Q

What happens during repolarization?

A

K+ channel activation gate opens
Resetting of Na+ channel activation and inactivation gates

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70
Q

What are the properties of the K+ channel?

A

It is regulated by one gate (N gate)
The Activation (N) gate covers the extracellular side of the K+ channel
The opening of the N gate (activation of K+ channels) allows K+ ions to flow through the K+ channel
Absence of inactivation gate in K+ channel

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71
Q

What causes the resetting of Na+ channel activation and inactivation gates?

A

It is caused by K+ leaving the cell and the two gates reset to their original positions

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72
Q

Can a neuron be refractory to stimulation? If yes, explain how.

A

Yes
Neurons have a refractory period from the beginning of 1 action potential to the time the RMP is restored
They have two refractory periods, one of which is an absolute refractory period where no stimuli AT ALL can trigger action potential.

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73
Q

What are the two phases of refractory period?

A

Absolute and relative refractory period

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74
Q

What happens during the absolute refractory period?

A

No stimulus is able to excite the nerve and it occurs from the time the action potential is fired until 3/4 of repolarization

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75
Q

Can any stimulus trigger AP during the relative refractory period?

A

No, only stronger than normal stimuli can excite the nerve

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76
Q

Where does the action potential propagate?

A

It propagates along the nerve axon

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77
Q

Outline the pathway of the generation and propagation of an action potential?

A

In the presynaptic neuron cell body resting potential receives a stimulus
This gives way to a graded potential in the axon hillock which produces action potential
The action potential propagates along the nerve axon
The AP triggers synaptic activity in the postsyaptic cell
Which triggers information processing

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78
Q

True or False.
The entirety of the nerve axon is excited at the same time when AP is conducted.

A

False.
It is a series of depolarization, repolarization, and resting.

The soma end of the axon first becomes depolarized, which spreads down the axon.

As the AP spreads, previous sections will repolarize and eventually enters the resting phase.

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79
Q

What is the difference between an unmyelinated and myelinated axon?

A

Presence of myelin sheaths produced by the Schwann cells.
Unemyelinated axons are small and thin while myelinated axons are large and thick
Unmyelinated axons are slow propagators of AP while myelinated are rapid propagators

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80
Q

Where does the AP propagate from in unmyelinated axons vs myelinated axons?

A

In unmyelinated axons, AP is propagated from the cell body or dendrites
In myelinated axons, AP is propagated from the nodes of Ranvier

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81
Q

Where are myelinated axons normally found?

A

Axons of major descending and ascending nerves of the spinal cord
Sensory axons for tactile discrimination
All motor neurons

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82
Q

Where are unmyelinated axons commonly found?

A

In nerves that innervate muscles that require constant contraction such as those for posture like our back

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83
Q

What are the types of propagation or conduction of nerve impulses?

A

Continuous
Saltatory
Orthodromic
Antidromic

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84
Q

What is a continuous AP?

A

An action potential that originates from one point of the neuron membrane and depolarizes adjacent areas of the membrane so that APs continue to form along the membrane

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85
Q

What is a saltatory AP?

A

An AP that jumps from 1 node of ranvier to another and requires less energy

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86
Q

Which is faster, a continuous or saltatory AP?

A

Saltatory

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87
Q

What is an orthodromic AP?

A

AP that is propagated towards the nerve axon terminal

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88
Q

What is an antidromic AP?

A

AP is propagated in opposite directions

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89
Q

True or False.
Smaller nerve diameters have a high surface area thus allowing faster conduction of APs.

A

False.
The larger the diameter of the nerve, the faster the fibers conduct AP

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90
Q

What are the three types of Nerve fibers?

A

Type A
Type B
Type C

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91
Q

What are the features of the Type A fibers?

A

Large myelinated nerve fibers for proprioception, somatic motor touch, pressure, motor to muscle spindles, pain, touch, and cold

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92
Q

There are 4 kinds of Type A fibers. What are they?

A

Alpha
Beta
Gamma
Theta

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93
Q

True or false.
The following Type A fibers are arranged in ascending order of diameter and conduction velocity.

Theta - Gamma - Beta - Alpha

A

True.
Alpha Type A fibers are the largest in diameter and have the fastest conduction velocity.
Beta Type A fibers are the 2nd largest and 2nd fastest
Gamma and Theta Type A fibers are thin and not as fast

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94
Q

What are t he features of Type B nerve fibers?

A

Small myelinated nerve fibers, for the preganglionic autonomic

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95
Q

What are the features of the Type C fibers?

A

Unmyelinated nerve fibers and are found in the dorsal root of the spinal cord - responsible for pain and temperature sensing, reflexes, and mechanoreception.

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96
Q

What is myelination?

A

The formation of the myelin sheath surrounding the nerve axon or fiber

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97
Q

Why is a myelin sheath important?

A

It allows for the faster conduction of nerve impulses or action potentials

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98
Q

What produces the myelin sheath?

A

Schwann Cells in the Peripheral Nervous System
Oligodendrocytes in the Central Nervous System

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99
Q

When does myelination begin?

A

During fetal development and rapidly after birth

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100
Q

What is myelin made out of?

A

Lipids
Specifically Cerebroside, Cholesterol, Lecithin, Sphingomyelin

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101
Q

Why is the myelin sheath important in the nervous system?

A

Because they make excellent electrical conductors with the AP sliding right over or through the lipid sheath and skipping large sections of the axon by only triggering AP at the nodes of Ranvier

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102
Q

What are oligodendrocytes?

A

It produces myelin for CNS
Sends off many processes to form myelin on many axons
No repair of axons after damage
It has fewer Nodes of Ranvier

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103
Q

What is hypomyelination?

A

Impediment in the formation of normal myelin

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104
Q

What is dysmyelination?

A

Genetic disorder in myelinogenesis which leads to the formation of abnormal myelin

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105
Q

What are the two kinds of demyelination?

A

Primary and secondary demyelination

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106
Q

What is primary demyelination?

A

It is the early destruction of myelin with relative sparing of axons

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107
Q

What is secondary demyelination?

A

Damage in myelin as a result of damage to neurons (axons)

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108
Q

What is canine degenerative myelopathy?

A

An autoimmune disease that causes the destruction of the myelin sheath in the CNS

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109
Q

What breeds have a predilection to canine degenerative myelopathy?

A

German Shepherds
Welsh Corgis
Siberian Huskies
Labrador Retrievers

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110
Q

What are clinical signs for Canine Degenerative Myelopathy?

A

Lack of coordination in hind limbs
Weakness in hind limbs
Dog can no longer walk
Knuckle over
Crossing or dragging of feet

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111
Q

Notice how most of the clinical signs are related to the limbs.
What nerve fibers are targeted by Degenerative Myelopathy?

A

Nerve fibers that transmit motor signals from the brain to the limbs and those that transmit sensory signals from the limbs to the brain

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112
Q

What is CNS Demyelination?

A

It is an inherited disease which interferes with the functional maturation of oligodendrocytes.

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113
Q

What is the cause of CNS Demyelination?

A

Gene mutation or in utero exposure to Trichlorfon

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114
Q

What kind of animals can obtain CNS Demyelination?

A

Pigs
Cattle
Sheep
Siamese Kittens
Dogs

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115
Q

What dog breeds are predilected to CNS Demyelination?

A

Chowchow
Springer Spaniel
Dalmatian
Samoyed
Lurcher
Bernese Mountain Dog
Vizsla
Weimaraner
Australian Silky Terrier

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116
Q

True or False.
Clinical signs of CNS Demyelination begin at 10-12 days old or weaning age

A

True

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117
Q

What are the clinical signs of CNS Demyelination?

A

Whole body tremors
Difficulty in standing, ambulation
Pendular nystagmus or jerky nystagmus

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118
Q

What does whole body tremor look like?

A

Limbs, trunk, head, eyes are awake and excited with tremors increasing and reappearing

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119
Q

What does Difficulty in standing or ambulation look like?

A

Weakness of hind limbs

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120
Q

What does pendular or jerky nystagmus look like?

A

When eyes are involuntarily moved

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121
Q

When can we observe deficient postural reactions?

A

10-12 days old or weaning age

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122
Q

What is PNS Demyelination?

A

An inherited disease which interferes with the functional maturation of Schwann cells

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123
Q

What is the cause of PNS Demyelination?

A

Gene mutation

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124
Q

Which breed has a predilection to PNS Demyelination?

A

Golden retrievers

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125
Q

Which sex has a predilection to PNS Demyelination?

A

Male

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126
Q

What are the symptoms of PNS Demyelination?

A

Ataxia
HL Paresis
Muscle Atrophy
Hyporeflexia to areflexia
Absence of tremors

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127
Q

When can we observe symptoms?

A

5-7 weeks of age

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128
Q

What is the cause of CNS demyelination in Weinmareners

A

Genetic mutation in CNS myelination
Delay in CNS myelination

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129
Q

When can we observe CNS Demyelination in Weinmareners?

A

12 to 14 days old in pups

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130
Q

What are t he clinical signs of CNS demyelination in Weinmareners?

A

Sever tremor
Loss of coordination

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131
Q

True or False.
CNS demyelination in Weinmareners disappear by 1 year.

A

False.
Most cases disappear by 3-4 months
Others persist for life but tremors are mild

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132
Q

What is a synapse?

A

A specialized junction that transfers nerve impulse from a presynaptic neuron (N1) to a postsynaptic neuron (N2) with the release of neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft

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133
Q

What are the types of synapse?

A

Axo-axonic
Axo-dendritic
Axo-somal
Dendro-dendritic
Dendro-somatic

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134
Q

What happens after an action potential conducts along a nerve axon and terminates at a synapse?

A

It causes the release of a neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft

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135
Q

What is the effect of neurotransmitters being released from the synaptic cleft?

A

The neurotransmitters can bind to receptors in the postsynaptic neuron to cause an effect like opening of ligand gated channels

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136
Q

The release of neurotransmitters can cause 4 responses in regards to cell membrane and its potential. What are these four?

A

Fast EPSP = excitatory depolarization
IPSP = inhibitory hyperpolarization
Slow EPSP = excitatory depolarization
Coordinated intracellular response

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137
Q

What are the outcomes of a rapid, short-acting fast synaptic potential?

A

Binding of NTs to chemically gated ion channel
Opens ion channels
Can cause more Na+ to go in and cause EPSP
Can cause more K+ out or Cl- in and cause IPSP

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138
Q

What are the outcomes of a slow synaptic potential and long term effects?

A

Binding to a G-protein coupled receptor
Activation of a second messenger pathway
Alteration of open state of ion channels causing ion channels to close
Less Na+ In which causes IPSP
Less K+ out which causes EPSP
Or the modification of existing proteins or regulates new synthesis of proteins causing a coordinated intracellular response

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139
Q

What are the kinds of neurotransmitters released during a synapse?

A

Acetylcholine
Dopamine
GABA
Glutamate
NE, E
Enkephalins, Endorphins

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140
Q

What are Acetylcholines for?

A

For wakefulness, attentiveness, anger, aggression, other effects, listed in physiology of nervous system

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141
Q

What is dopamine for?

A

Controls movement,, posture, modulates mood, for positive reinforcement and dependency

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142
Q

What is GABA for?

A

Involved in regulating motor control, vision, anxiety

143
Q

What is glutamate?

A

Involved in memory, learning

144
Q

What is norepinephrine and epinephrine for?

A

Stress, regulates food intake

145
Q

What are enkephalins and endorphins for?

A

Control of pain and euphoric feeling

146
Q

What are types of synapses based on the number of presynaptic or postsynaptic neurons?

A

Convergent synapse
Divergent synapse

147
Q

What is a convergent synapse?

A

A junction that receives from different neurons (convergence, multiple) or from a single neuron with multiple axons (convergence, single)

148
Q

True or false.
The ratio of presynaptic neurons to postsynaptic neurons in a convergent synapse is from 0.5 to 1.

A

False
Ratio of presynaptic neurons to postsynaptic neurons is greater than 1

149
Q

What kind of summation do convergent synapses cause?

A

Spatial summation

150
Q

What is a divergent synapse?

A

A junction that has two or more postsynaptic neurons in the same pathway or multiple pathways.

151
Q

What is the ratio of presynaptic neurons to postsynaptic neurons in a divergent synapse?

A

Less than 1

152
Q

What kind of summation are divergent synapses responsible for?

A

Temporal Summation

153
Q

What is an excitatory post synaptic potential (EPSP)?

A

Positive postsynaptic potential that promote the generation of nerve impulses

154
Q

What is an inhibitory post synaptic potential (IPSP)?

A

Negative postsynaptic potential that prevents the generation of nerve impulses

155
Q

Which of the post synaptic potential causes depolarization?

A

EPSP because it makes the cell more positive

156
Q

Which of the post synaptic potentials cause hyperpoolarization?

A

IPSP because it makes the already negatively charged cell negative

157
Q

What is presynaptic inhibition?

A

It is the firing of an inhibitory neuron that blocks the release of a neurotransmitter at one synapse

Only one of the target cells will be blocked

158
Q

What is postsynaptic inhibition?

A

It is the simultaneous firing of one excitatory and inhibitory neuron.

This results in a signal below the threshold potential so no action potential is generated and no response occurs in the target cells

All targets are blocked equally

159
Q

What is a temporal summation?

A

It is the transmission of nerve impulses at a slow or rapid frequency at succession over the cell

160
Q

What is spatial summation?

A

The transmission of nerve impulses simultaneously to the same cell from varying numbers of nerve fibers to the same neuron

161
Q

What 3 classes of substances can affect nerve impulse transmission?

A

Nerve poison or neurotoxins
Local anesthetics
General anesthetics

162
Q

What neurotoxins are used?

A

Scorpion venom

163
Q

What is the mechanism of action for neurotoxins?

A

It opens Na+ channels but shuts K+ channels and disrupts AP

164
Q

What is an example of local anesthetics?

A

Novocaine and xylocaine

165
Q

What is the mechanism of action for local anesthetics?

A

It blocks Na+ channels and blocks AP sensory neurons for pain recognition

166
Q

What are examples of general anesthetics?

A

Ether
Chloroform

167
Q

What is t he mechanism of action of general anesthetics?

A

It prolongs the opening of Na channels and prevents the propagation of AP

168
Q

How is RMP and Action Potential recorded?

A

Intracellular recording - patch clamp
Extracellular recording

169
Q

How does intracellular recording-patch clamp work?

A

It records the change in membrane potential in a cell or isolated patch of cell membrane
It monitors the opening and closing of ion channels

170
Q

What is extracellular recording?

A

It is used to evaluate and monitor electrical activity of specific tissues or glands in the body of animals?

171
Q

What are examples of extracellular recording?

A

ECG - heart
Electroencephalography - brain
Electromyography - muscles
Brainstem Auditory Evoked Response (BAER) - hearing

172
Q

What are the three types of muscles?

A

Skeletal
Smooth
Cardiac

173
Q

Which of the muscles have cross striations?

A

Both skeletal and cardiac

174
Q

Which of the muscles are involved in involuntary contraction?

A

Smooth and cardiac

175
Q

Outline the overall anatomy off skeletal muscles.

A

Epimysium -> Muscle Fascicles
Muscle fascicles -> Perimysium -> Endomysium
Endomysium -> Muscle fibers
Muscle fiber -> Sarcolemma

176
Q

What is a sarcolemma?

A

It is the membrane of the muscle cells

177
Q

What are myofibrils?

A

Threadlike strands within a muscle fiber and make up sarcomeres which are separated by Z disk

178
Q

What are our contractile filaments?

A

Thin (Actin, Troponin, Tropomyosin) Filaments
Thick (Myosin) Filaments

179
Q

Where are our transverse tubules located?

A

At the junction of the A (thick filaments) and I (thin filaments) band

180
Q

What is the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

A

It forms contacts with the transverse tubules and is the storage site of Ca ions

181
Q

What is a z-line or disc?

A

It marks the boundaries of the sarcomere and anchors the thin filaments
It transmits tension from one sarcomere to the next during a muscle contraction

182
Q

What makes up our sarcomere?

A

The I band and A band

183
Q

What makes up our thin filaments?

A

Actin
Tropomyosin
Troponin Complex

184
Q

What makes up our thick filaments?

185
Q

What is actin?

A

A type of thin filament made out of 2 chains and is important for muscle contraction
It is composed out of multiple G and F actin proteins

186
Q

What is tropomyosin?

A

A type of thin filament that coils around actin and covers the myosin binding site

187
Q

What is troponin?

A

A type of thin filament that contains Ca binding sites and controls the position of tropomyosin
Made out of Troponin T, I, and C

188
Q

What are thick filaments?

A

A type of filament that is composed of 300 myosin molecules
They are interspersed between thin filaments at the center of the sarcomere

189
Q

What are the sarcomere supportive proteins?

A

Nebulin
Tropomodulin
Titin

190
Q

What is the function of Nebulin?

A

It defines the length of the thin filaments

191
Q

What is the function of Tropomodulin?

A

It caps the end of the thin filaments

192
Q

What is the function of Titin?

A

It enters the thick filament and is shaped like a spring coil

193
Q

What do the sarcomere banding patterns represent?

A

The interdigitating or intercalating light and dark bands

194
Q

What is a dark or Anisotropic (A) band?

A

It contains the thick filaments

195
Q

What is a light or Isotropic (I) band?

A

It contains the thin filaments and the Z disc

196
Q

What is the H band or H zone?

A

The area of A band that lacks the thin filaments
It is also the area that is covered by thin filaments during a contraction

197
Q

What is the M line?

A

A line at the center of the H band
It is a region of thick filaments and lacks a cross band

198
Q

The Transverse Tubules and Sarcoplasmic Reticulum form what?

A

A TRIAD Arrangement

199
Q

True or False.
The sarcolemma has invaginations which extend as the transverse tubules and are attached directly to the sarcoplasmic reticulum to form the TRIAD arrangement.

A

False.
The transverse tubules are attached to the terminal cisternae which become the sarcoplasmic reticulum

200
Q

What is a neuromuscular junction or motor end plate?

A

It is the site of synapse and connects the neurons to the muscles and serves as a way for muscles to receive signals from the nervous system

201
Q

What is the neurotransmitter released by the neuromuscular junction?

A

Acetylcholine

202
Q

What is the function of Acetylcholine in the NMJ?

A

Causes an action potential that depolarizes the skeletal muscle fiber

203
Q

Why is it important that acetylcholine depolarizes the skeletal muscle fiber?

A

So that it opens voltage gated Na+ channels which in turn allow voltage gated Ca2+ channels to open the gated Ca2+ release channels and release Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and allow for contraction of muscle fibers

204
Q

True or False.
The action potential from the neuromuscular junction allows for the release of Ca ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

A

True.
The action potential spreads to the T-tubule membrane which have intrinsic voltage-sensitive proteins which are bound to Ca2+ release channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane. The action potential then allows for the opening of these Ca2+ release channels and frees Ca ions from the lumen of the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the cytosol of the muscle cell

205
Q

Why is calcium so important in muscles?

A

Because it exposes the binding sites for myosin in the actin (thin) filament and allows for muscle contraction

206
Q

The contraction of skeletal muscles is primarily due to what?

A

The crossbridging of actin and myosin

207
Q

Outline the steps of skeletal muscle contraction and relaxation

A
  1. ATP binds to the myosin head
  2. The ATP allows the myosin head to bind to the thin filament
  3. The power stroke of the thin filament pulls back the myosin head and locks it in place and releases ATP (this is the contraction)
  4. New ATP binds to the myosin head which releases the myosin from the thin filament
  5. ATP is hydrolyzed which causes t he myosin to return to its original orientation
208
Q

What is the sliding filament theory?

A

It is a model of muscle contraction. The actin and myosin filaments in a sarcomere slide past one another without shortening

209
Q

What are the types of skeletal muscle contraction?

A

Muscle twitch
Staircase
Incomplete tetany
Complete tetany
Summation
Fatigue

210
Q

How does a muscle twitch appear as in a graph?

A

It is bell-shaped with a period of contraction and relaxation

211
Q

How does a staircase contraction appear in a graph?

A

Increasing amplitude of contraction

212
Q

How does incomplete tetany appear in a graph?

A

Fusing contraction due to frequent stimulation of muscle prior to relaxation

213
Q

How does complete tetany appear in a graph?

A

Fused contraction (high amplitude with no signs of relaxation) due to rapid stimulation of muscle

214
Q

How does summation appear in a graph?

A

The amplitude of the 2nd contraction is higher than the 1st contraction due to stimulation of muscle prior to relaxation

215
Q

How does fatigue appear in a graph?

A

Prolonged muscle contraction since it is the inability of contractile filaments and metabolic processes of muscle to supply the same work output

216
Q

What compound is needed for muscle contraction?

217
Q

What is the protein that breaks down ATP during a skeletal muscle contraction?

A

myosin ATPase

218
Q

What are the sources of ATP for a skeletal muscle contraction?

A

Phosphocreatine (PC)
Glycolysis
Oxidative phosphorylation

219
Q

Which ATP source is the largest contributor of ATP for skeletal muscle contraction?

A

Oxidative phosphorylation because it lasts as long as O2 is in the body

220
Q

What muscles use Oxidative phosphorylation the most?

A

Those that are always contracted such as the muscles of posture like the epaxial mm.

221
Q

What are the biochemical properties of skeletal muscle fibers?

A

Oxidative capacity
Type of ATPase

222
Q

What are the contractile properties of skeletal muscle fibers?

A

Maximal force production
Speed of contraction
Muscle fiber efficiency

223
Q

There are two types of fibers. What are they?

A

Slow fibers (postural mm.) or Type I fibers
Fast fibers or Type II fibers

224
Q

What are the two kinds of Type II fibers?

A

Type IIa and Type IIb

225
Q

What is the metabolic property of Type I fibers?

A

Oxidative phosphorylation

226
Q

What type of motor neuron is used by slow fibers?

A

a1 unmyelinated

227
Q

Which muscle fiber has the smallest neuron size?

A

Slow fibers

228
Q

What is the conduction speed of Type I fibers?

229
Q

Why do slow fibers have slow conduction velocity?

A

Because they are unmyelinated

230
Q

The recruitment threshold of Type I fibers is low. Explain why.

A

Because the motor neuron is small and the muscles it innervates need to constantly contract to maintain stability thus it has a lower threshold for a contraction

231
Q

What are the differences between Type IIa and Type IIb fibers?

A

Type IIa fibers use oxidative phosphorylation while Type IIb fibers use glycolysis

Type IIb fibers are also faster in conducting APs than Type IIa

232
Q

Correlate the type of motor neuron of the fast fibers with their conduction velocity.

A

The fast fibers have intermediate to fast speed which is aided by the a2a and a2b myelinated motor neurons

233
Q

Why do both fast fibers have high recruitment thresholds?

A

Because they have large motor neurons which require larger stimuli

234
Q

What other characteristics do our slow fibers have given what we know about their biochemical and conductive properties?

A

They are unfatigueable
They have a lot of mitochondria due to relying on oxidative phosphorylation
They are vascular or have a large capillary supply and very red so that they have a lot of O2

235
Q

Between the two Fast fibers, which one is more fatigable?

A

Type IIb
They are fatigable because they rely more on glycolysis and phosphocreatine and though they contain a lot of glycolytic enzymes they are faster and do not last long

236
Q

Knowing that Type IIb fibers rely on glycolysis and PC while Type IIa relies on oxidative phosphorylation and glycolysis, how would one discern between the two through observation of the muscles only?

A

By observing their colors.

Type IIb fibers have fewer mitochondria and a low concentration of myoglobin since they don’t rely on oxidative phosphorylation so they have a white appearance.

237
Q

In descending order, rank the 3 fibers based on their maximal shortening velocities?

A

Type IIb
Type IIa
Type I

238
Q

Fast twitch or Type IIb muscles have a maximum contraction of 3-5 milliseconds. What muscle would make use of this?

A

Eyeball muscles

239
Q

Intermediate twitch (Type IIa) muscles have a 10-20 millisecond maximum shortening velocity. What muscles would require such a speed?

A

Muscles that exhibit most body movements

240
Q

What muscles would make use of the slow twitch muscles?

A

Postural muscles

241
Q

How is force generated in muscles?

A

By overlapping myosin and actin

AKA the sliding filament mechanism

242
Q

Why is force important in muscles?

A

It is necessary for stretching a relaxed muscle

243
Q

What happens to the muscles when it relaxes?

A

The distance between the origin and insertion of the muscle increases

244
Q

What happens when a muscle contracts?

A

It decreases the distance of a muscle’s origin and insertion around a lever

245
Q

What are the factors that can increase the force of skeletal muscle contractions?

A

Recruit or increase the # of active motor units

Increase frequency of stimulation (frequency of summation) of individual motor units

246
Q

If force increases with more motor units, what kind of work is needed when only small motor units are used?

247
Q

What are the factors involved in the generation of force needed for skeletal muscle contractions?

A

Length of muscle
Shortening velocity of muscle (rate at which a muscle is shortened)

248
Q

What factors affect the force that develops when muscles contract?

A

The initial length of muscle (preload)

Load (force) applied to the muscle before it is stimulated

249
Q

True or False.
A long relaxed muscle generates more force.

A

False.
A half-contracted muscle generates more force because it has a higher shortening velocity, still has available binding sites for actin and myosin

250
Q

Why is maximal force obtained when the preload (initial length of muscle) is set close to their resting length?

A

Because it allows for most efficient overlap between the actin and myosin filaments

When a muscle contraction is initiated then there are more myosin heads that are readily available to bind with the the actin filaments

251
Q

What happens if you increase your preload?

A

There is decreased overlap between thick and thin filaments

When a muscle contraction is initiated then there are less myosin heads binding with actin filaments

252
Q

What happens if you decrease your preload?

A

The bumping of actin filaments make it difficult to bind with myosin

There is bumping of thin filaments, binding sites are exhausted and are represented by tetany

253
Q

True or False.
The heavier the weight a muscle lifts (Afterload), the slower the velocity of muscle shortening

A

True.
This is because there is an inverse relationship between the force of muscle contraction and the velocity of muscle shortening

254
Q

What are the classifications of voluntary contractions?

A

Eccentric contraction
Concentric contraction

255
Q

What is an eccentric contraction?

A

It is a contraction where the force generated is not enough to overcome resistance

256
Q

What happens to the muscle during an eccentric contraction?

A

The muscle lengthens while it is still contracted and it is used to decelerate body parts

This means that overlap is not fully saturated and there are still actin and myosin heads being released

257
Q

Give an example of an eccentric contraction?

A

A bent elbow straightening out and moving away from the shoulder

258
Q

What is a concentric contraction?

A

It is a contraction where there is enough force generated to overcome the resistance on the muscle

259
Q

What happens to the muscle during a concentric concentration?

A

The muscle shortens as it contracts

260
Q

Give an example of a concentric contraction?

A

Bicep curls

261
Q

Why is ATP so important in muscle contraction?

A

Because the myosin cross bridge cycle uses ATP

ATP is needed to pump Ca ions into the SER

ATP is needed to activate the Na-K pump to reestablish the membrane potential

262
Q

What are the two types of smooth muscles?

A

Single unit smooth muscles or Syncytial smooth muscle
Multi-unit smooth muscle

263
Q

Where are the smooth muscles found?

A

Walls of hollow organs (GIT)
Eyes (iris of the eye)
Skin (Arrector pili muscle)

264
Q

What is the shape of smooth muscles?

A

Spindle-shaped with nucleus

265
Q

What is the arrangement of myosin and actin in smooth muscles?

A

Dispersed throughout the smooth muscle cell cytoplasm

266
Q

Is there interdigitation between myosin and actin in smooth muscles?

A

No, there is no distinct sarcomere

267
Q

What structures are present or developed in skeletal muscles that are absent or not as developed in smooth muscles?

A

Sarcoplasmic reticulum and Transverse tubules

268
Q

What does the absence of T-tubules and few SR imply in smooth muscles?

A

That their Ca2+ source is not in the SR but rather in the ECF

269
Q

What are dense bodies in smooth muscles?

A

They are similar to the Z-discs of skeletal and cardiac muscle
They are attached to the sarcolemma and anchors the actin

270
Q

What are single unit smooth muscles?

A

Smooth muscle cells joined by gap junctions that synchronize depolarization and allows muscles to contract as a single unit

271
Q

Where can we find the Single Unit Smooth Muscle?

A

The walls of GIT, urinary and reproductive system

272
Q

What is the function of Syncytial muscle?

A

It permits smooth muscles to stretch during the filling of hollow organs, contract and immediately relaxes

It also maintains smooth muscle tone when organ empties and shrinks

273
Q

What are multi-unit smooth muscles?

A

They are smooth muscle cells that do nott possess gap junctions and contractions dont spread from one cell to another

274
Q

Where can we find the multi-unit smooth muscle cells?

A

In large blood vessels
Respiratory tract wall
Eyes

275
Q

What is the function of the multi-unit smooth muscle?

A

To keep contractions confined to the cell that is stimulated and to contract as a response to stimulus from autonomic nerves or hormones

276
Q

Whatt controls the smooth muscle contractions?

A

Neural stimulation by autonomic nervous system
Hormones
Local factors

277
Q

The autonomic nervous system is divided into two divisions. Parasympathetic and Sympathetic. What are their neurotransmitters released and action?

A

Acetylcholine : contraction

Epinephrine & Norepinephrine : relaxation

278
Q

What can stimulate spontaneous action potential in smooth muscles?

A

Presence of varicosities in the axons

Presence of pacesetter cells in the walls of hollow organs

279
Q

What do these varicosities contain?

A

Acetylcholine

280
Q

What maintains the structure and anchors the smooth muscle cell?

A

Attachment plaques and dense bodies

281
Q

What are attachment plaques?

A

They serve as attachment sites for actin filaments and link the contractile apparatus of the muscle cell to the extracellular matrix

They also aid in transmitting force

282
Q

Where are attachment plaques located?

A

Located on the sarcolemma (cell membrane) of smooth muscle cells

283
Q

What are attachment plaques made of?

284
Q

What are dense bodies?

A

Serve as anchorage points for actin filaments and are similar to the z-discs

They help coordinate contraction by holding actin filaments in place and maintaining structure of the cell during contraction

285
Q

Where are dense bodies found?

A

In the cytoplasm and along the inner surface of the plasma membrane

286
Q

What are dense bodies made of?

287
Q

Are attachment plaques the same as dense bodies?

A

No.
They are different
Attachment plaques are found on the sarcolemma and connect the cell to the ECM

Dense bodies are found in the cell and are involved in anchoring actin filaments

288
Q

The sarcoplasmic reticulum of smooth muscle cells are only few. Why?

A

Because smooth muscle cells only use the SR as a minor source of Ca ions

289
Q

What do you call the invaginations of the SR membrane?

290
Q

What is the function of the Caveolae?

A

facilitate ion release from the SR

291
Q

What is the major source of Ca ions for smooth muscles?

292
Q

The smooth muscle myosin head has 4 light chain proteins. What are these?

A

2 Essential Light chains
2 Regulatory Light chains

They also have two Globular head or main domains

293
Q

What do the light chain proteins and head domains form in the SM thick filament?

A

“Side-polar” cross bridge arrangements

294
Q

There are three kinds of actin in smooth muscles. What are they?

A

Actin
Tropomyosin
Caldesmon

295
Q

What is the function of actin filaments in smooth muscle cells

A

Contain the myosin binding site

296
Q

What is the function of tropomyosin in smooth muscle cells?

A

covers the myosin binding sites in actin filaments

297
Q

What is the function of the caldesmon?

A

Ca-Calmodulin binding protein

Similar function to troponin in skeletal muscles

298
Q

Outline the steps of a smooth muscle contraction

A
  1. Action potential increases Ca conc in smooth muscle fibers
  2. The Ca ions bind with calmodulin
  3. A Ca-calmodulin complex binds with caldesmon and activates the myosin light chain kinase
  4. Changes in tropomyosin structure to expose the myosin active sites
  5. Activation of myosin via phosphorylation of the myosin regulated light chain
  6. Attachment of myosin with actin via cross bridging
  7. Smooth muscle contraction
299
Q

What does a smooth muscle contraction look like and why?

A

Because the dense bodies are within the periphery of the cell and attached to the sarcolemma it pulls the cell inward to itself

300
Q

How does a smooth muscle relax?

A

Via an increase in Myosin Light Chain Phosphatase activity and a decrease in Ca ion concentration

301
Q

What is the action of the Myosin Light Chain Phosphatase (MCLP)

A

It catalyzes dephosphorylation of the myosin regulated light chain

302
Q

Where is MCLP found?

A

In the fluids of smooth muscle cells

303
Q

What is the effect of the MCLP?

A

Smooth muscle relaxation via detachment of actin and myosin

304
Q

True or false.
Smooth muscles and Skeletal muscle both have prolonged tonic contraction that can last for hours or days,

A

False.
Only smooth muscles exhibit prolonged tonic contraction because the slow cycling of myosin occurs 1\10 in smooth muscles vs 1\300 in skeletal

305
Q

What are the other explanations for the prolonged smooth muscle tonic contraction?

A

Slow initiation of smooth muscle contraction in response to Ca ions

Slow onset & prolonged smooth muscle contraction

Latch bridge mechanism

306
Q

True or false.
Stress relaxation is only in smooth muscles.

307
Q

Why do latch bridges occur in smooth muscles?

A

Because dephosphorylated myosin remains attached to actin

308
Q

Why are latch bridges important?

A

It allows for the long term maintenance of tone in smooth muscle organs with little energy expenditure

309
Q

What are the organs exhibiting latch bridges?

A

GIT, urinary bladder, gall bladder, ureter

310
Q

What is stress-relaxation of smooth muscles?

A

It is the capacity of smooth muscles to return to its original force of contraction after it has been contracted or stretched

311
Q

Why is stress relaxation imporant?

A

It allows a hollow organ to maintain the same amount of pressure inside its lumen despite a long-term, large change in volume

312
Q

What are some organs that exhibit stress relaxation?

A

Smooth muscles of hollow organs
- uterus, ureter, urethra, urinary bladder

313
Q

True or False.
Stress relaxation works in reverse.

A

True.
Whether or not a change in pressure comes about via an increase or decrease in pressure, the pressure will always revert back to its original level

314
Q

What are the three kinds of action potential in smooth muscles?

A

Spike potential
Repetitive spike potential
Action potential with plateau

315
Q

How long does a spike potential last and what organ exhibits it?

A

10-50 seconds
GIT

316
Q

How long does a repetitive spike potential last and what organ exhibits it?

A

8-10 seconds
GIT

317
Q

How long does an action potential with plateau last and what organ exhibits it?

A

0.3 - 0.4 millisecond
Ureter, uterus, vascular smooth muscles

318
Q

What is the shape of the cardiac muscles?

A

Ribbon like and extensively branching

319
Q

What is unique about the cardiac muscles?

A

It is syncytially connected at their ends by the intercalated discs

320
Q

What is the function of the intercalated discs?

A

It allows coordinated contractions of cardiac muscles to pump into the circulatory system

321
Q

Do cross striations occur in cardiac muscles?

322
Q

Why would cross striations occur in cardiac muscles?

A

Because there is interdigitation of actin and myosin

323
Q

What are the types of cardiac muscles?

A

Atrial muscle
Ventricular muscle
Purkinje fibers
Bundle of His

324
Q

What is the function of the atrial muscle?

A

To contract the atria

325
Q

What is the function of the ventricular muscle?

A

To contract the ventricles

326
Q

What is the function of the Purkinje fiber?

A

Special excitatory and conductive muscle for rhythmic conduction of nerve impulse in the heart

327
Q

What is the bundle of His?

A

Special excitatory and conductive muscle for rhythmic conduction of impulse in the heart

328
Q

What is the function of the two syncytium of the heart?

A

It allows atria to contract a short time ahead of the ventricle for effectiveness of heart blood pumping

329
Q

What are the two syncytium of the heart?

A

Atrial syncytium
Ventricular syncytium

330
Q

Why is it important that the atrial syncytium contracts ahead of the ventricular syncytium?

A

Because blood needs to go to the atrium first before being transferred to the ventricles

331
Q

Where is our atrial syncytium?

A

In the walls of our left and right atrium

332
Q

Where is our ventricular syncytium?

A

In the walls of our left and right ventricle

333
Q

Where is the intercalated disc located?

A

Part of the sarcolemma and contains the gap junction and desmosomes

334
Q

What is the purpose of the gap junction and desmosomes in the intercalated disc?

A

The gap junction is for electrical connection

The desmosomes are for mechanical connection

335
Q

What is the function of the gap junction in the intercalated disc?

A

it forms channels between adjacent cardiac muscles

This allows ions that cause AP to travel from one cardiac cell to the next

Produces depolarization of the heart muscle

336
Q

What is the function of the desmosome in the intercalated disc?

A

It anchors the ends of cardiac muscle cells together so the cells dont pull apart during contraction

337
Q

True or False.
The mechanism of contraction of cardiac muscles, specifically atrial and ventricular are different from the smooth and skeletal muscles.

A

False.
Atrial and ventricular muscles contract similarly to the skeletal muscles but they have a longer duration of contraction

338
Q

The RMP of atrial and ventricular muscles is from -85 to -95 and Purkinje fibers range from -90 to -100. Why do they have highly negative RMPs?

A

It helps to bring the cells closer to the threshold for initiating AP and allows for faster conduction of the electrical signals that regulate heartbeats

339
Q

What is the conduction velocity of your atrial, ventricular, and Purkinje fibers?

A

0.3 - 0.5 m\sec

340
Q

True or False.
The myosin and actin filaments of the cardiac muscles are similar to that of the smooth muscle cells.

A

False.
Their thin filaments contain actin, troponin, and tropomyosin which is more similar to skeletal muscle cells

341
Q

What is the major source of Ca ions for cardiac muscles?

A

ECF

SR is minor lang

342
Q

How do Ca ions enter into the cardiac muscles?

A

Via the T tubules and L-type Ca channels

343
Q

Why are T-tubules the mode of entry for Ca ions into the cardiac muscle?

A

Because T-tubules have high amounts of electronegatively charged mucopolysaccharides that can bind to a high amt of Ca ions

344
Q

What is an L type calcium channel?

A

A voltage gated ion channel that refers to the “long-lasting” or sustained opening of the channels during an action potential

345
Q

Where can we find these L type Ca channels?

A

In the sarcolemma

346
Q

Outline the mechanism of action for these L type Ca channels?

A
  1. Activation via AP opens the channel
  2. Upon opening, Ca ions flow into the cardiac cell
  3. Influx of calcium triggers Calcium-induced calcium release (CICR) from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. This triggers contraction
  4. Prolonged contraction or plateau phase
347
Q

Why are L type channels important in a clinical context?

A

Because they can be the target for certain heart medications like calcium channel blockers

348
Q

What is the difference in the SR and TT arrangement of cardiac muscle cells and skeletal muscle cells?

A

SR are few and less developed
TT runs along the Z-discs

They form DIADS instead of TRIADS

349
Q

Why is the DIAD arrangement so important for muscle contraction?

A

Because the depolarization spreads down the T-tubules which is adjacent to the SR

The depolarization can open the Ca-release channels in the SR

350
Q

What makes the DIAD structure so different?

A

It means that it can only spread the depolarization towards one terminal cisterna of a SR

This improves the coordinated heartbeat

351
Q

Where does AP start in the heart?

A

At the SA (sinoatrial) node for the atrium

At the AV (atrioventricular) node for the ventricles

352
Q

What makes the AP of the cardiac muscles different?

A

It has a longer AP because of the plateau

353
Q

What does the plateau indicate in the cardiac AP?

A

The opening of slow Ca-Na channels

354
Q

Although the AV node is found in the left atrium, it is responsible for AP in the ventricles. How is it able to send signals to the ventricles?

A

Through the atrioventricular bundle or the Bundle of His and the Purkinje fibers