2A Flight Conduct Flashcards

1
Q

What is the take-off minima for departure in the PC-12?

A

With an instrument approach procedure at the aerodrome: - The minima stated in the instrument approach

With no instrument approach procedure at the aerodrome:
- Cloud base greater than the LSALT and 5km Vis.

With an instrument approach procedure at the aerodrome that is within 20 minutes flight time:
- Cloud base 300ft and 2km Vis or the minima stated in the instrument approach for that aerodrome, WHICHEVER IS THE GREATER

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2
Q

Descent below LSALT by day?

A

Only if conducting a visual approach within 30nm

  • Clear of cloud
  • In sight of ground or water
  • 5km Vis
  • Altitude not less than the prescribed VFR minimum to the circling area (1000ft AGL etc)
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3
Q

Descent below LSALT by night?

A

If conducting a visual approach

  • Clear of cloud
  • In sight of the ground or water
  • 5km Vis
  • within the circling area (2.66nm Cat B) or
  • 5 nm aligned on centreline and ‘on slope’ on the T-VASIS or PAPI (10nm for ILS) or
  • Being vectored

Established on an Instrument Approach

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4
Q

What airspeed on descent is recommended when turbulent?

A

170 kts

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5
Q

When must reverse thrust normally be discontinued during the landing roll?

A

50 kts

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6
Q

Initial climb out for an aerodrome with no instrument procedure in IMC will remain?

A

Within 3 nm of aerodrome reference point and clear of high terrain until above LSALT

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7
Q

Initial climb out at an aerodrome with an instrument approach in IMC will remain?

A

Within the circling area and clear of any ‘no circling’ sectors until above LSALT

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8
Q

When must you conduct fuel usage progress checks?

A

At top of climb and at 30 min intervals until reaching top of descent

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9
Q

At what altitude must the aircraft have met stabilised approach criteria?

A

Visual approach: 500ft AGL

Instrument straight in approach: 1000ft AGL

Circling approach: 300ft (aligned on final)

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10
Q

What are the stabilised approach criteria?

A
  • Airspeed Vref + 10
  • Aircraft fully configured (flaps + gear down)
  • Descent rate no greater than 800 Ft/min
  • Aligned on the runway (no greater than half scale
    deflection)
  • On slope (3 - 1 red PAPI)
  • Landing clearance received
  • Minimum power adjustments
  • Landing checklist complete
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11
Q

When may SARWATCH be cancelled?

A

Only once clear of the active runway (not prior to landing)

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12
Q

You must give notification to the medical team to ensure the cabin is secure prior to commencing what?

A
  • Start-up
  • Taxi
  • Take-off
  • Descent (2 mins prior)
  • Landing
  • Entering cloud or likely turbulence
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13
Q

At Jandakot what bays must you not start on during normal engineering hours?

A

Bay 4 and 5 while facing away from the building

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14
Q

For takeoff it is the PIC’s responsibility to ensure you meet the requirments of CAO 20.7.4, What are the minimum climb gradients that must be reached?

A

Take-off config = 6%
Climb config = 4.5%
Go-around config = 3.2%

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15
Q

You are issued the SCARP SID out of Jandakot, can you accept it?

A

No, it is company policy that pilots do not accept this SID

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16
Q

What is the minimum dispatch quantity of O2 for both the med & crew bottles?

A

1500 PSI

17
Q

When visual conditions are expected to be maintained until LSALT is reached on departure, The outbound track shall be intercepted by _nms?

A

5 nm

18
Q

If operated above 10,000ft, Flight crew members require __ minutes supply of O2 and must be used at all times above a cabin altitude of ____ft?

A

15 minutes and 10,000ft

19
Q

For an aerodrome that is not serviced in the EGPWS database, when can you inhibit the terrain?

A

Day:

  • In VMC
  • At LSALT
  • In sight of ground or water

Night:

  • In VMC
  • At LSALT
  • Within 3 nm and visual of the aerodrome