2920 Pathophysiology Exam Three Flashcards

1
Q

explain the pathophysiology of DKA

A

glucose enters the body, but there is no insulin to let it into the cells
glucose remains in bloodstream, elevating BG levels
liver
cell starvation leads to the liver breaking down glycogen and and the body to start breaking down fat for energy
liver creates glucose from fatty acids, which also leads to ketone formation
buildup of ketones and glucose in the bloodstream

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2
Q

how do ketones change blood chemistry?

A

they are very acidic, decreasing blood pH

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3
Q

why is electrolyte loss an issue in DKA?

A

because plasma osmolality goes up, causing osmotic diuresis and loss of electrolytes in urine

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4
Q

how does DKA differ from HHS?

A

DKA involves ketone formation from lipolysis because there is no insulin in the body at all. therefore it usually happens in type one diabetes, because they have no endogenous insulin.
HHS does not normally involve ketone formation, because type two diabetics usually have enough insulin present to prevent this

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5
Q

what symptoms do DKA and HHS share?

A

severe hyperglycemia
hyperosmolarity
dehydration

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6
Q

how quickly can/does DKA manifest?

A

often within 4-10 hours

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7
Q

what are manifestations of DKA?

A
glucose greater than 250 mg/dL
pH lower than 7.3 (metabolic acidosis)
bicarb less than 15 mEq/L
ketonuria
nausea and vomiting
dehydration
hyperventilation
coma
polyuria/polyphagia/polydipsia
hypotension
tachycardia 
irritability
weight loss
hyperkalemia
fruity smelling breath
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8
Q

what is the specific type of respirations seen in DKA?

A

Kussmaul respirations

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9
Q

what is the treatment plan for DKA?

A

Hydration
Insulin
Electrolytes

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10
Q

what are risk factors for DKA?

A
type one diabetes
not taking insulin
exercise
stress
infection/fever (majorly increases insulin needs)
undiagnosed T1DM
alcohol abuse
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11
Q

why don’t you want to lower blood glucose too quickly in DKA?

A

it can cause cerebral edema from the rapidly changing osmolarity of brain fluids

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12
Q

what will be manifestations of liver necrosis in acute liver failure?

A
decreased bilirubin metabolism
decreased bile in GI tract
decreased vitamin K absorption
increased urobilinogen 
decreased metabolism of nutrients 
decreased plasma protein
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13
Q

what are manifestations of decreased bilirubin metabolism?

A

hyperbilirubinemia

jaundice

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14
Q

what is a common manifestation of decreased bile production?

A

light colored stools

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15
Q

what is the risk with decreased vitamin K absorption?

A

bleeding tendency

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16
Q

what is a key manifestation of increased urobilinogen?

A

dark urine

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17
Q

what is an outcome of decreased metabolism of proteins, carbs, and fats in acute liver failure?

A

hypoglycemia

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18
Q

what are manifestations that accompany decreased plasma proteins?

A

ascites and edema

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19
Q

what lab values will be abnormal in acute liver failure?

A

increased AST, ALT, and alkaline phosphatase
increased bilirubin
increased prothrombin time
decreased albumin

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20
Q

what are two common (general) causes of acute liver failure?

A
liver inflammation (often viral infection) 
chemical damage
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21
Q

what is one of the first signs of acute liver failure and why?

A

changes in mentation due to hepatic encephalopathy

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22
Q

what are common manifestations of acute liver failure?

A
jaundice
hyperbilirubinemia 
anorexia
ascites
dark urine
RUQ pain
spider angiomas 
hepatomegaly and splenomegaly 
steatorrhea
decreased protein levels
decreased adrenal and sex hormones 
high ammonia levels
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23
Q

what are risk factors for acute liver failure?

A
all risk factors for hepatitis
alcohol abuse (especially mixed with tylenol) 
medications
gastric bypass surgery 
iron overload
malnutrition or rapid weight loss 
obesity
chemical/toxin exposure
wilson disease 
wild mushrooms 
epstein barr virus
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24
Q

what is the pathophysiology of bowel obstruction?

A

something blocks the bowel, and increased peristalsis and mucus production at obstruction site worsen the issue. swelling at area will cause increased permeability of intestines, leading to fluid and electrolyte shifts and possible hypovolemic shock

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25
Q

what are the two classes of bowel obstructions?

A

mechanical and non-mechanical

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26
Q

what is the number one cause of mechanical obstruction?

A

adhesions: formations of tissue that bind organs and tissues together (often as a result of surgery) and can obstruct bowel

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27
Q

what is the biggest risk with a complete bowel obstruction?

A

perforation of bowel

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28
Q

what is a key indicators of a high bowel obstruction?

A

vomiting (often projectile)

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29
Q

what are some indicators of a lower bowel obstruction?

A

waves of pain and tenderness that occur with peristalsis

less or absent vomiting, and if present, will have a more fecal smell

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30
Q

what are some general manifestations of any bowel obstruction?

A
abdominal distension
nausea
pain
diarrhea (if partial obstruction) 
hyperactive bowel sounds (borborygmi) 
high pitched bowel sounds above area of obstruction
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31
Q

what does continuous pain indicate in a bowel obstruction?

A

ischemia or necrosis

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32
Q

what are risk factors for bowel obstruction?

A
surgery
abdominal hernias
inflammatory diseases of the bowel
infections like diverticulitis 
colon cancer
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33
Q

what treatment can help relieve pressure buildup with a bowel obstruction?

A

NG tube with suction

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34
Q

what are some key manifestations with tramatic brain injury?

A

changes in level of consciousness
increased intracranial pressure and associated symptoms
diabetes insipidus due to pressure on the pituitary gland

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35
Q

what is involved in primary insult in a spinal cord injury?

A

trauma damages neurons and glial cells due to stretching or laceration

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36
Q

describe what happens during the secondary insult of a spinal cord injury

A

ongoing, progressive damage continues due to ischemia and vascular changes, inflammatory cell release, neuronal death, and scar tissue formation

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37
Q

what is the number one risk factor for spinal cord injury?

A

being a male between the ages of 16 and 30

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38
Q

what are other risk factors for spinal cord injury?

A

motor vehicle use
age over 65
risk taking behaviors
bone or joint disorders

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39
Q

what kind of spinal cord injuries will cause respiratory issues?

A

injury at c4 or above

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40
Q

what kind of spinal cord injuries will cause neurogenic shock and cardiac issues?

A

injury at T6 or above

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41
Q

what are other clinical manifestations of spinal cord injury?

A
inability to regulate temperature 
temporary or permanent loss of sensory, motor, or autonomic function (depends a lot on where the injury is)
urinary retention
GI immobility 
pain
venous pooling/DVT
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42
Q

describe spinal shock

A

flaccid paralysis that occurs because of initial injury to the spinal cord. it will manifest as flaccid muscles, paralysis, loss of sensation below the level of injury, and bladder/bowel dysfunction. This is an initial response to spinal cord injury and may resolve hours to weeks after injury

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43
Q

what is autonomic hyperreflexia?

A

massive uncompensated cardiovascular reaction mediated by the SNS that occurs because of injury at T6 or higher

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44
Q

how will autonomic hyperreflexia manifest?

A
increased BP
decreased HR
no vasodilation
flushing above the level of injury
blurred vision
anxiety
nausea
can lead to status epilepticus, stroke, MI, and death
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45
Q

what can cause autonomic hyperreflexia?

A

return of reflexes following spinal shock
skin stimulation
overdistended bladder or constipation

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46
Q

what are some types of skeletal trauma?

A

sprains
strains
fractures

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47
Q

what are some signs and symptoms of skeletal trauma?

A
bleeding
tissue disruption
swelling
pain at joints/injury site
limited movement
changes in sensation and mobility
deformity
muscle spasms
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48
Q

what should the nurse do if she suspects abuse?

A

separate the injured party and parents/potential abusers, then ask both what happened and compare stories

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49
Q

what should the nurse chart in suspected abuse cases?

A

exactly what the family/parties said happened, with direct quotes in quotation marks

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50
Q

what accounts for about 75% of traumatic deaths?

A

chest trauma

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51
Q

what are the two general types of chest trauma?

A

blunt trauma

penetrating trauma

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52
Q

what are risk factors for chest trauma?

A
motor vehicle accident
fall
assault
crush injury
explosion
knives
gunshots
arrows
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53
Q

what are general signs and symptoms of chest trauma?

A
dyspnea
respiratory distress
air escaping from chest wound
decreased BP
rapid thready pulse 
dysrhythmias 
bruising on torso
asymmetrical chest movements
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54
Q

what is a pneumothorax?

A

air enters the pleural cavity due to injury/penetration, changing the negative pressure to positive pressure and causing the lung to collapse

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55
Q

what are manifestations of pneumothorax?

A
tachypnea
dyspnea
respiratory distress 
air hunger
decreased O2 sats
decreased or absent breath sounds 
decreased chest wall movement
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56
Q

what is a hemothorax?

A

accumulation of blood in pleural space due to injury

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57
Q

what are manifestations of hemothorax?

A

dyspnea
diminished or absent breath sounds
decreased hemoglobin
shock

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58
Q

what is a tension pneumothorax?

A

air enters the pleural space but cannot escape, causing increasing pressure on the lung and heart, eventually pushing them into the space of the unaffected lung

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59
Q

what are manifestations of tension pneumothorax?

A
cyanosis
air hunger
agitation
tracheal deviation
neck vein distention 
hyperressonance
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60
Q

what is a flail chest?

A

fracture of two or more adjacent ribs in two or more places, causing an unstable chest wall

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61
Q

what are manifestations of flail chest?

A

paradoxical chest movements
respiratory distress
tachycardia

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62
Q

what is cardiac tamponade?

A

blood collecting in the pericardial sac, compressing the myocardium and preventing ventricular filling

63
Q

what are manifestations of cardiac tamponade?

A

muffled/distant heart sounds
hypotension
neck vein distention
increased central venous pressure

64
Q

what are risk factors for abdominal injury?

A

MVA
blows
falls
stab wounds

65
Q

what are manifestations of abdominal trauma?

A
guarding/splinting
hard and distended abdomen
decreased bowel sounds
abrasions
bruising
pain
hematemesis
hematuria 
hypovolemic shock
ecchymosis around umbilicus and flanks
66
Q

what indicates a need for CPR?

A

absent pulse
absent breathing
unresponsiveness

67
Q

what are the two types of wound disruption?

A

dehiscence and evisceration

68
Q

what is dehiscence?

A

wound pulling apart at suture lines

69
Q

how will the client describe wound dehiscence?

A

might say they heard a pop or felt something give away

70
Q

how does a nurse prevent wound dehiscence?

A

have the patient splint surgical incision with a pillow and exhale while moving to not strain the incision

71
Q

what should the nurse do if dehiscence occurs?

A

call the physician, cover the site with sterile gauze soaked in saline, and position the patient flat with knees bent

72
Q

what is evisceration?

A

organs or intestines protruding out from a wound/incision

73
Q

what should the nurse do if the patient is experiencing evisceration?

A

call the surgeon, cover the wound with gauze soaked in sterile saline, and position them on their back with knees bent

74
Q

what are four major neurotransmitters that can play a role in mental health?

A

dopamine
norepinephrine
serotonin
gaba

75
Q

what is too much dopamine linked to? too little?

A

too much: schizophrenia and addiction

too little: parkinsonianism and depression

76
Q

what is too little norepinephrine linked to?

A

depression

77
Q

what is too much serotonin linked to? too little?

A

too much: schizophrenia

too little: depression and bipolar

78
Q

what is too little GABA associated with?

A

panic attacks

79
Q

what is delirium?

A

a sudden cognitive impairment that is typically reversible

80
Q

what are causes of delirium?

A
hospitalization, especially in the ICU
sleep deprivation
drug toxicity or withdrawal
CVA or head injury
sensory deprivation
acid base imbalance
hypoglycemia
infection
dementia (increases risk)
81
Q

what are manifestations and onset of delirium?

A

onset: develops over a couple of days
manifestations: hyperactive, hypoactive, impulsivity, aggression, decreased attention span, confusion, withdrawal, hallucination, insomnia, cognitive impairment

82
Q

what is schizophrenia?

A

a psychotic disorder in which the patient loses touch with reality

83
Q

what are risk factors/epidemiological factors for development of schizophrenia?

A

living in an urban area
being a male
first degree relatives with schizophrenia
father older than 60

84
Q

how much more likely is someone to develop schizophrenia if a first degree relative has it?

A

ten times more likely

85
Q

what does the neurotransmitter theory speculate about schizophrenia?

A

that changes/excess of dopamine, serotonin, norepi, and GABA can cause schizophrenia

86
Q

what is typically seen in neuroimaging studies of schizophrenic patients?

A

loss of overall brain volume
increased size of lateral and third ventricles
reduced brain symmetry
reduced cortical tissue

87
Q

what are some immune abnormalities that are often present in those with schizophrenia?

A

decreased production of T cell interleukin 2
decreased lymphocytes
presence of antibrain cell antibodies

88
Q

what are common positive manifestations of schizophrenia?

A
disheveled appearance
aggression
hallucinations
hearing voices
suicidal ideation/attempts 
violence
89
Q

what are common positive manifestations of schizophrenia related specifically to speech?

A

echolalia (repeating what others say)
clang associations
word salad
neologisms (words that only have a meaning to the patient)

90
Q

what are common negative manifestations of schizophrenia?

A
flat affect 
poverty of speech
apathy
lack of motivation
decreased movement
decreased interest in hygiene
91
Q

what are some possible pathophysiological explanations for depression?

A

deficiency of serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine.
decreased activity in the neocortex and increased activity in the limbic system
endocrine and hormonal changes/imbalances

92
Q

what are some risk factors/epidemiological factors for depression?

A
17% of people report it
women twice as frequently affected as men
genetic component 
postpartum women especially at risk
rural living
chronic illness
trauma or abuse in childhood 
menopausal or postmenopausal 
use of certain medications
93
Q

what are three reasons for why patients starting a new antidepressant are at increased risk for suicide in the first few weeks?

A
  1. the meds dont reach therapeutic effect for 3-4 weeks
  2. antidepressants interfere with brain chemistry and there is no perfect science to it
  3. patient may get more sleep and rest in those weeks, and then have more energy to carry out suicide plans
94
Q

how long must patients experience manifestations of PTSD to get a diagnosis?

A

at least one month

95
Q

are men or women more likely to suffer PTSD?

96
Q

what are some pathophysiological factors for PTSD?

A

patho is not fully understood, but in PTSD, patients have chronic autonomic hyperactivity due to stress.
Genetics are a factor
smaller hippocampus (which regulates fear and rage) is seen in PTSD patients
amygdala (fight or flight) plays a role
patients often have a smaller prefrontal cortex, which normally suppresses the stress response

97
Q

what are risk factors for PTSD?

A

experiencing a threat of death or serious injury (especially war situations)
being female
intense or long lasting trauma
childhood trauma/abuse/neglect
anxiety and depression
lack of support system
first degree relatives with mental health issues

98
Q

what are clinical manifestations of PTSD?

A
flashbacks
insomnia
hyperarousal
hypervigilance 
responding to triggering events like the initial trauma
reduced mastery of life skills
bad dreams
intrusive thoughts and reliving initial trauma
feelings of guilt and blame
99
Q

how long does it take for antidepressants to become therapeutic in the body?

100
Q

what drug class is the first choice for depression treatment today?

101
Q

what do SSRIs do?

A

increase serotonin levels in the brain

102
Q

what are side effects of SSRIs?

A

decreased libido
serotonin syndrome
suicide

103
Q

why are SSRIs more desirable than other depression meds?

A

they are less toxic and have less unpleasant side effects

104
Q

what are manifestations of serotonin syndrome?

A
confusion
GI issues
agitation
fever 
anxiety
hallucinations
diaphoresis
tremors
105
Q

what is an example of a tricyclic antidepressant?

A

amitriptyline

106
Q

what are some side effects of amitiptyline?

A

anticholinergic symptoms
sedation
cardiotoxicity/MI/serious cardiac issues

107
Q

why are MAOIs usually the last choice for depression treatment?

A

because they can have serious/fatal dietary interactions with foods containing tyramine (hypertensive crisis possible)

108
Q

what is an example of a MAOI?

A

phenylzine (nardil)

109
Q

what do SNRIs do in the body?

A

increase serotonin and norepinephrine

110
Q

why are SNRIs a good second choice for depression treatment?

A

because they have less serious side effects than TCAs and MAOIs

111
Q

what are some examples of SNRIs?

A

venlafaxine

duloxetine

112
Q

what do benzodiazapines do in the body?

A

decrease anxiety and promote muscle relaxation

113
Q

what are adverse effects of benzos?

A
sedation
dependence
fatigue
respiratory depression
weakness
114
Q

what are some examples of benzodiazapines?

A

diazepam

lorazepam

115
Q

who should use extra caution when taking benzodiazapines?

A

elderly people and those who have never taken them before

116
Q

what is lithium most commonly used for?

A

bipolar disorder

117
Q

why should lithium levels be watched closely?

A

because it has a narrow therapeutic window and lithium toxicity is a risk

118
Q

what is an example of an anticonvulsant that can also be used as a mental health adjunct?

119
Q

what do antipsychotics do in the body?

A

block dopamine in the brain

120
Q

why are doctors trying to reduce the use of first generation antipsychotics?

A

because they have many adverse side effects

121
Q

what are some of the major side effects of first generation antipsychotics?

A

weight gain
increased WBCs
sexual dysfunction
tardive dyskinesias

122
Q

what are some examples of first gen antipsychotics?

A

chlorpromazine

haloperidol

123
Q

why are second generation antipsychotics more desirable?

A

less side effects, and no extrapyramidal symptoms

124
Q

what are some examples of second generation antipsychotics?

A

risperidone

lurasidone

125
Q

explain the pathophysiology of alcohol abuse and withdrawal

A

alcohol stimulates the reward pathway in the brain (much like dopamine) while also depressing the CNS. When someone goes into withdrawal, there is an imbalance of GABA and glutamate, and the CNS becomes increasingly irritable

126
Q

what neurotransmitter deficiency increases risk for substance abuse?

127
Q

what are early manifestations of alcohol withdrawal (12-24 hours after last drink)?

A

irritability, diaphoresis, headache, tachycardia, anxiety

128
Q

what are common manifestations of alcohol withdrawal 24-72 hours after the last drink?

A

seizures, tremors, hallucinations, insomnia

129
Q

what is a life threating side effect of alcohol withdrawal that can set in 3-5 days after the last drink?

A

delirium tremens

130
Q

what are manifestations of delirium tremens?

A

tremulousness, disorientation, hallucinations, fever

131
Q

what are risk factors for alcoholism?

A

genetics (dopamine receptor insufficency)

chronic use

132
Q

what specific gene is linked to alcoholism?

133
Q

what are risk factors for alcohol withdrawal syndrome?

A

previous withdrawal/DTs/chemical dependency treatment
age over 40
genetics
comorbid conditions or comorbid substance use
history of mood disorders
over 10 years of alcholism
hypertension (SBP over 140)

134
Q

why does alcohol use increase risk for hypertension?

A

because alcohol damages blood vessels and nerves

135
Q

what scale is used to measure alcohol withdrawal?

A

CIWA scale

136
Q

what does a nurse do with a CIWA score above 8?

A

typically give benzodiazapines on a sliding scale per prescription

137
Q

what does a nurse do with a CIWA score below 8?

A

keep reassessing the patient using the CIWA scale

138
Q

why are benzodiazapines used in the acute setting for alcoholics?

A

because they fill the same/similar role in the CNS that alcohol does in order to prevent delirium tremens

139
Q

what kind of infection is chlamydia?

140
Q

what are manifestations of chlamydia? (in both men and women)

A

often none (silent infection)
if symptoms present..
men will have painful urination
women will have painful urination and vaginal discharge

141
Q

chlamydia is a leading cause of what?

A

infertility in women

142
Q

gonorrhea is what kind of infection?

A

bacterial (gram negative)

143
Q

what are manifestations of gonorrhea?

A

painful urination
vaginal discharge
itching
genital pruritus

144
Q

trichomoniasis is what kind of infection?

A

parasitic (caused by a protozoan)

145
Q

what are manifestations of trichomoniasis?

A

often no symptoms, but if present:

men: burning with urination and ejaculation
women: painful urination, vaginal itching, painful intercourse, yellow green discharge

146
Q

what kind of infection is herpes?

A

viral infection

147
Q

what are the two types of HSV and how are they different?

A

HSV-1 usually manifests as cold sores around the mouth, while HSV-2 usually manifests as genital warts

148
Q

what are manifestations of HSV?

A

burning, itching, tingling at site of infection. Then vesicles/ulcerations that form and rupture, which can be painful and associated with flu-like symptoms

149
Q

what kind of infection is syphilis?

150
Q

what is the initial manifestation of syphilis?

A

chancre (skin lesion that looks like a scab)

151
Q

what are secondary manifestations of syphilis?

A
rash
malaise
sore throat
fever
anorexia 
GI issues
genital warts
152
Q

what are tertiary manifestations/complications of syphilis?

A

granulomatous lesions that form in the neurological system, what can cause mental status changes, hearing and vision loss, meningitis, stroke, dementia, ataxia, and other sensory changes. overall physical and mental deterioration will occur if untreated

153
Q

what are general risk factors for the development of an STD?

A

women more than men (except for syphilis)
age between 15 and 25
incarceration
incorrect or lack of condom use
sharing needles when doing drugs
high risk sexual behavior/having multiple partners

154
Q

what should a patient always be instructed to do when it is discovered they have an STD?

A

tell their partner(s) about STD