2900 Exam Three Flashcards

1
Q

what is SIRS?

A

systemic inflammatory response syndrome

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2
Q

what are diagnostic criteria for SIRS?

A

temperature above 100.4 or below 96.8
tachycardia greater than 90 BPM
respiratory rate greater than 20/min
WBCs greater than 12000, less than 4000, or with greater than 10% as immature forms

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3
Q

what is sepsis?

A

SIRS plus confirmed bloodstream infection. sepsis is the body’s amplified response to an infection

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4
Q

what is septic shock?

A

sepsis induced hypotension (less than 90 SBP) despite adequate fluid and vasopressor resuscitation

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5
Q

what is MODS?

A

multiple organ dysfunction syndrome, it is dysfunction of the organs due to severe hypoperfusion. It is the end result of uncorrected SIRS and sepsis

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6
Q

what might fluid status and blood glucose look like in a sepsis patient?

A

positive fluid balance (fluid retention)

hyperglycemia (greater than `140 mg/dl) in the absence of diabetes

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7
Q

urine output will be less than what value in sepsis?

A

less than 0.5 ml/kg/hr for at least two hours despite fluid resuscitation

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8
Q

what are normal lactate levels?

A

between 0.5 and 1.0 mmol/L

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9
Q

what are lactate levels like in sepsis? what value is considered severe septic lactate?

A

septic: between 2 and 4, considered severe over 4 mmol/L

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10
Q

treatment for shock focuses on what two things?

A

volume expansion and vessel tightening

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11
Q

in what types of shock do you not want to focus on volume expansion?

A

cardiogenic and neurogenic

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12
Q

what are the initial types of fluid used for fluid replacement in shock?

A

normal saline and lactated ringers (crystalloids)

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13
Q

what do crystalloid fluids do in the body?

A

add more fluid to the intravascular system to increase preload, stroke volume, and cardiac output

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14
Q

what is the 3:1 rule for giving crystalloids and why do we use it?

A

give 3 ml of crystalloids for every 1 ml of fluid lost, because these fluids easily diffuse out through the capillary wall

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15
Q

what are the two types of colloids that can be used in shock treatment?

A

albumin and hetastarch

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16
Q

what does albumin do?

A

keep fluid in the bloodstream

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17
Q

what does hetastarch do?

A

increases the volume of blood plasma to help red blood cells circulate through the body

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18
Q

what are things to monitor for when giving colloids?

A

anaphylaxis and fluid volume overload

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19
Q

what should be done to large amounts of fluid before giving them?

A

warm them up, because hypothermia can alter clotting enzymes

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20
Q

what types of shock can be given blood or blood products?

A

all types

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21
Q

what do packed red blood cells do in the body?

A

replace fluids and provide hemoglobin

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22
Q

when are platelets given?

A

for patients with uncontrollable bleeding and low platelets

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23
Q

when is fresh frozen plasma given?

A

when patients need clotting factors

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24
Q

what should the nurse ask the patient about before giving a transfusion?

A

if they’ve had a previous transfusion and if they had any adverse responses to it

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25
Q

what is the number one vasopressor of choice to be given for shock? what does it do?

A

norepinephrine: increases perfusion and BP

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26
Q

what kind of vasopressor is given only in neurogenic shock?

A

phenylephrine

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27
Q

what are some examples of vasopressors with inotropic effects?

A

dobutamine and dopamine

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28
Q

what are some vasodilators used in shock?

A

nitroglycerine and sodium nitroprusside

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29
Q

why are corticosteroids sometimes given for shock?

A

to decrease inflammation and increase BP and HR

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30
Q

what is an intraaortic balloon pump?

A

a device that helps provide temporary circulatory assistance to a sick heart. Helps improve coronary blood flow

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31
Q

how does an intraaortic balloon pump help?

A

it reduces afterload on the heart

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32
Q

what is MAP?

A

mean arterial pressure, its the amount of pressure needed to perfuse organs adequately

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33
Q

what MAP is needed for adequate perfusion?

A

greater than 60 mmHg

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34
Q

how do you calculate MAP?

A

(SBP + 2DBP)/3

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35
Q

why do serum lactate levels go up in sepsis?

A

because cells arent getting enough oxygen and/or glucose, so they switch to anaerobic metabolism. lactic acid is produced as a byproduct of anaerobic metabolism

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36
Q

what are risk factors for sepsis?

A
Suppressed Immune System
Extreme age (old or young)
People who have received organ transplant
Surgical procedure recently
Indwelling devices
Sickness (chronic)
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37
Q

what are the most common sites of sepsis?

A

GI tract
respiratory tract (#1)
urinary tract

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38
Q

what are early signs of sepsis? note you may not always see this stage

A

“warm” stage early: warm flushed skin, decreased BP, increased HR/RR, fever, increased CO, anxiety, restlessness

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39
Q

what are late signs of sepsis?

A

“cold” stage: cold clammy skin, severe hypotension, increased HR and RR, hypothermia, oliguria (less than 400 ml/day), coma, decreased cardiac output

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40
Q

what are the top two nursing interventions for septic shock/shock?

A
fluid replacement (crystalloids or colloids)
vasopressors if fluid replacement isnt enough (norepinephrine is drug of choice)
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41
Q

how does the nurse evaluate whether fluid resuscitation is successful in shock?

A

check for rising BP, especially SBP, and monitor hemodynamic status

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42
Q

why is it crucial to keep o2 sats above 95 percent in septic shock?

A

patients are at high risk for developing respiratory failure due to ARDS

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43
Q

what must the nurse do in sepsis/septic shock before administering antibiotics?

A

obtain blood cultures

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44
Q

what type of nutrition is preferred in sepsis?

A

enteral nutrition given early

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45
Q

why is nutritional support so important in sepsis?

A

because there is decreased GI perfusion, and nutrition helps preserve GI integrity and prevent stress ulcers

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46
Q

what can sepsis and shock do to blood glucose levels?

A

increase them

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47
Q

why is hyperglycemia bad in shock and sepsis?

A

because it alters the way the immune system and cells work

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48
Q

what might the nurse need to do for hyperglycemia in shock and sepsis? where do we want blood glucose?

A

insulin drip may be needed, want blood glucose less than 180

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49
Q

what lab levels should be monitored closely in shock and sepsis?

A

glucose

lactate

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50
Q

what urine output do we want in shock and sepsis?

A

greater than 30 ml/hour

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51
Q

what respiratory interventions may be needed in shock and sepsis?

A

supplemental oxygen or intubation and mechanical ventilation

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52
Q

what body position should you put someone in shock in?

A

modified trendelenburg: supine with lower half of body elevated 45 degrees

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53
Q

what is cardiogenic shock?

A

condition in which the heart cannot pump enough blood to meet the body’s perfusion needs, leading to inadequate organ perfusion

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54
Q

what is the number one cause of cardiogenic shock?

A

myocardial infarction

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55
Q

what signs and symptoms would you see in cardiogenic shock?

A

signs of either right sided or left sided heart failure
mental status changes/confusion/agitation
decreased urine output and nocturia
pale dusky skin, shiny extremities, edema

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56
Q

what are the three treatment goals with cardiogenic shock?

A

reperfusion (may need cardiac stent)
increase cardiac output (with meds)
ventilation (mechanical ventilation and diuretics)

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57
Q

what lab values will we see specific to cardiogenic shock?

A

increased troponin and BNP, as well as increased lactate

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58
Q

what are some drugs that may be given for cardiogenic shock?

A

diruetics
vasopressors (norepi)
vasopressors with inotropic effects (dopamine, dobutamine)
vasodilators (nitro or sodium nitroprusside)

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59
Q

what surgical intervention might help with cardiogenic shock?

A

placement of intraaortic balloon pump

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60
Q

what is hypovolemic shock?

A

low fluid volume in the intravascular space, leading to inadequate perfusion

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61
Q

what will happen in the body when fluid moves from intravascular to intersititial space?

A

edema, decreased cardiac output, hypotension

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62
Q

what are the two types of hypovolemic shock?

A

relative and absolute

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63
Q

what are some causes of relative hypovolemia?

A

internal bleeding
severe burns and third spacing
long bone fractures
sepsis

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64
Q

what are some causes of absolute hypovolemia?

A

massive bleeding
vomiting
excessive urination
diarrhea

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65
Q

how much fluid can the body lose and still compensate?

A

15% loss or less

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66
Q

what will activate in the body once enough fluid has been lost?

A

RAAS

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67
Q

what are overall symptoms of hypovolemic shock?

A
tachycardia
hypotension
increased respirations
decreased urine output
cool clammy skin with poor capillary refill
mental status changes/confusion
low central venous pressure
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68
Q

what are nursing goals with hypovolemic shock?

A
fluid replacement (crystalloids, colloids, blood/blood products)
correct underlying cause of fluid loss 
oxygenation
circulation (stop any active bleeding) 
maintain/monitor for adequate perfusion
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69
Q

what kind of IV access is needed in hypovolemic shock?

A

at least 2 large gauge (18 or larger) IV sites to give fluid fast

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70
Q

how should oxygen be given in hypovolemic shock?

A

100% high flow oxygen through non-rebreather

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71
Q

what is the best position for patients in hypovolemic shock?

A

modified trendelenberg

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72
Q

what labs need to be closely monitored in hypovolemic shock?

A
hemoglobin
hematocrit 
ABGs
lactate 
liver enzymes
CBC
electrolytes, BUN, creatinine
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73
Q

what happens in anaphylactic shock?

A

introduction of an allergen leads to release of massive amounts of histamine

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74
Q

what are signs and symptoms in anaphylactic shock?

A

vasodilation, causing decreased BP and CO
decreased HR
increased capillary permeability (intravascular fluid loss and edema)
itching
bronchoconstriction
nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain

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75
Q

anaphylactic shock is what type of shock?

A

distributive shock

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76
Q

what happens in distributive shock?

A

the blood is present but the small vessels in the body has a hard time getting it to the organs

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77
Q

what respiratory issue do we worry about with anaphylactic shock?

A

respiratory failure

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78
Q

what is intervention for anaphylactic shock focused on?

A

reversing the effects of histamine (so tightening blood vessels and relaxing airway)

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79
Q

what can the nurse do to prevent anaphylactic shock?

A

always ask patients about their allergies

monitor patient during first dose of antibiotic or other sensitizing drug

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80
Q

if anaphylactic reaction to something occurs, what must the nurse do immediately?

A
remove the allergen if possible
manage the airway and monitor vitals
call rapid response
trendelenberg position
give drugs as needed
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81
Q

what drug should be given for anaphylaxis/allergy that involves the airway?

A

epinephrine

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82
Q

what are some other drugs that can be given for allergic reactions?

A

albuterol
antihistamines
corticosteroids

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83
Q

what is biphasic anaphylaxis?

A

when patient recovers but has a relapse/second reaction, even if not re-exposed to allergen. continue monitoring patient

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84
Q

what should the patient be taught regarding anaphylaxis?

A
avoid allergen
wear medical alert bracelet
always carry epi-pen
go to ED after using epi-pen
throw away epi pen when expired 
know how to prepare and administer epi
massage injection site for 10 seconds for faster absorption
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85
Q

what is neurogenic shock?

A

when the sympathetic nervous system loses its ability to stimulate nerve impulses, usually because of spinal cord injury. the patient then experiences massive vasodilation with decreased BP and HR because parasympathetic nervous system takes over

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86
Q

neurogenic shock is what kind of shock?

A

distributive shock

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87
Q

what are manifestations of neurogenic shock?

A

hypotension and bradycardia
venous pooling (DVT risk)
warm dry extremities but cold core (hypothermia)

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88
Q

what are nursing management priorities for neurogenic shock?

A
manage ABCs
protect spine (if spinal cord injury)
assess and manage airway
maintain tissue perfusion
keep them warm
monitor urine output (risk for retention)
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89
Q

what are considerations for fluid resuscitation in neurogenic shock?

A

crystalloids can help, but must be given with caution. fluid loss is not the issue so patient can easily get fluid overloaded

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90
Q

what drugs might be given in neurogenic shock to increase HR?

A

vasopressors and positive inotropes

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91
Q

what drug can be given in neurogenic shock to help with bradycardia?

A

atropine

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92
Q

how can DVT be prevented in neurogenic shock?

A

ROM
compression stockings
anticoagulants
SCDs

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93
Q

what is a vasopressor specifically used for neurogenic shock?

A

phenylephrine

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94
Q

which system usually shows signs of dysfunction first in SIRS and MODS?

A

respiratory system

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95
Q

what are top nursing management goals for SIRS and MODS?

A

prevent and treat infection
maintain tissue oxygenation
nutritional support

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96
Q

what is the goal of nutritional support in SIRS/MODS?

A

preserving organ function!

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97
Q

what are some labs that will be specifically monitored in septic shock?

A

cultures and coagulation tests

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98
Q

what are tests that will be done/monitored in cardiogenic and obstructive shock?

A
ECG
echocardiogram
CT
cardiac cath
chest x-ray
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99
Q

what are major defining manifestations of DKA?

A
uncontrolled hyperglycemia (greater than 300 mg/dL)
dehydration
metabolic acidosis 
ketones in blood and urine
kussmaul respirations
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100
Q

is onset for DKA rapid or slow?

A

rapid onset

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101
Q

what are defining characteristics of HHS?

A

hyperglycemia greater than 600 mg/dL
hyperosmolarity and dehydration
absence of ketosis
osmotic diuresis

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102
Q

what is onset like for HHS?

A

gradual, usually occurring over several days

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103
Q

who is normally affected by HHS and why?

A

type two diabetics, often over the age of 60. type 2 diabetics are more likely to be affected because their body has enough endogenous insulin to prevent full ketosis

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104
Q

what are manifestations of hypoglycemia?

A
cold clammy skin
dizziness 
decreased alertness
shakiness/faintness
jitters
vision issues
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105
Q

what are general manifestations of diabetes?

A
polyuria
polyphagia
polydipsia
weight loss
GI issues
blurred vision
weakness
headaches
kussmaul respirations
fruity breath odor
metabolic acidosis
mental status changes
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106
Q

what are risk factors for DKA?

A

undiagnosed or untreated T1DM
reduced or missed insulin dose
emotional stress
illness/infection/surgery/trauma

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107
Q

what is the number one cause of DKA?

A

infection

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108
Q

how does increased hormone production lead to DKA?

A

it stimulates the liver to produce glucose and decreases the effects of insulin

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109
Q

what are risk factors for HHS?

A

undiagnosed T2DM
inadequate fluid intake or poor kidney function
age over 50
infection or stress
medical condition like MI, CVA, or sepsis

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110
Q

what are the three key treatment elements for DKA?

A

hydration
insulin
electrolytes

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111
Q

what needs to be remembered for fluid administration with DKA?

A

IV access needed
need rapid isotonic fluid administration (normally 0.45 or 0.9% NaCl)
monitor for adequate urine output
monitor for fluid volume excess

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112
Q

how do we calculate insulin needs for DKA?

A

0.1 unit/kg/hour

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113
Q

what should be done to insulin infusion when serum glucose approaches 250 mg/dL? why?

A

5-10% glucose should be added to infusion to prevent hypoglycemia and prevent risk of cerebral edema

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114
Q

what is the blood glucose goal for DKA treatment?

A

less than 200 mg/dL

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115
Q

how often should BG be checked in DKA?

A

hourly

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116
Q

what will potassium levels look like initially in DKA and how will they change?

A

they will initially be elevated, but will decrease as insulin is administered and potassium shifts back into the cell. monitor for hypokalemia

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117
Q

what electrolyte should be included in all IV fluids for DKA patients?

A

potassium

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118
Q

when administering potassium, what else should be monitored?

A

cardiac rhythm

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119
Q

what should the nurse teach diabetic clients to do when ill to avoid DKA?

A
monitor BG every four hours
continue taking insulin/diabetes meds
drink 4 oz liquid every 30 minutes
meet carb needs with soft foods 6-8 times/day
test urine for ketones
rest
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120
Q

when should a sick diabetic patient call their provider? (worrisome s/s)

A
if BG over 240
if fever over 101.5
feeling disoriented/confused
breathing rapidly
vomiting more than once
more than 5 episodes of diarrhea in a day
illness longer than 2 days
121
Q

what is a mechanical bowel obstruction?

A

when the bowel is blocked by something outside or inside the intestines

122
Q

what are some causes of mechanical bowel obstructions?

A
adhesions
tumors
hernias
fecal impactions
strictures
diverticulitis
123
Q

what is the most common cause of mechanical bowel obstruction?

A

surgical adhesions

124
Q

what is a volvulus?

A

an intestinal obstruction where the bowel twists upon itself

125
Q

how are complete mechanical obstructions taken care of?

126
Q

what causes non-mechanical obstruction?

A

diminished peristalsis, often due to paralytic ileus

127
Q

what is the focus of bowel obstruction treatment?

A

fluid and electrolyte balance
decompressing the bowel
relief or removal of obstruction

128
Q

what are the four hallmark signs of intestinal obstruction?

A

colicky abdominal pain
vomiting
distention
constipation

129
Q

what does “colicky” mean?

A

pain that comes and goes

130
Q

what is obstipation?

A

inability to pass stool or flatus for more than eight hours despite feeling the urge to defecate

131
Q

what is the difference in onset between small and large bowel obstructions?

A

small bowel has rapid onset

large bowel has gradual onset

132
Q

what is the difference in vomiting between small and large bowel obstruction?

A

small bowel has frequent, often projectile vomiting that may contain bile
large bowel has delayed or absent vomiting. If present, will have a more fecal smell

133
Q

what is the difference in pain between small and large bowel obstructions?

A

small: colicky/intermittent
large: persistent cramping

134
Q

what is the difference in bowel movements for small and large bowel obstructions?

A

small: some feces may pass
large: complete constipation

135
Q

what lab results might be seen with bowel obstruction?

A

increased BUN, hgb, hct, and creatinine due to dehydration
potential increased WBC
potential metabolic imbalances
orthostatic vitals
decreased urine output and increased urine SG

136
Q

what will an endoscopy help determine in bowel obstruction?

A

cause/location of obstruction

137
Q

what needs to be closely monitored and prevented with bowel obstruction?

A

fluid and electrolyte imbalances or deficiencies

138
Q

what are some key nursing cares for non-mechanical bowel obstructions? (think paralytic ileus)

A
NPO for bowel rest
NG tube for decompression
assess bowel sounds
oral hygeine
IV fluids and electrolyte replacement
manage pain
ambulation
semi-fowlers position
139
Q

what kind of suction will an NG tube for bowel obstruction have?

A

intermittent

140
Q

how often should an NG tube be irrigated?

A

every four hours

141
Q

what should the nurse monitor in the client with an NG tube?

A
gastric output
vitals
skin integrity
weight
intake and output
142
Q

how often should oral hygiene be done for a client with an NG tube?

A

every two hours

143
Q

what nursing cares should be done for a client with a mechanical bowel obstruction?

A

prepare for surgery

withhold oral intake until peristalsis resumes

144
Q

what is parenteral nutrition?

A

IV administration of nutrition that bypasses the GI tract to deliver nutrients to the body. people can be on it for as long as necessary

145
Q

what is special about the TPN solution?

A

it is sterile and specifically made for each patient each day

146
Q

what are some common indications for administration of TPN?

A
complicated surgery or trauma
bowel obstruction 
GI fistulas
critically ill patients
acute pancreatitis
147
Q

what supplies the bulk of calories in TPN?

A

carbs (dextrose and fat emulsion)

148
Q

when is central parenteral nutrition used?

A

for long term support or when patient has high calorie needs.

149
Q

how is central parenteral nutrition administered?

A

through a CVC or PICC line with a tip in the superior vena cava

150
Q

when is peripheral parenteral nutrition administered?

A

when short term nutritional support is needed
when protein/calorie needs arent as high
when a CVC is too big a risk
as a supplement to oral intake

151
Q

what is the biggest complication that can develop from TPN administration?

A

refeeding syndrome

152
Q

how does refeeding syndrome manifest and what issues can it cause?

A

manifests as fluid retention and electrolyte imbalances

it can cause dysrhythmias, respiratory arrest, and neurological disturbances

153
Q

how long is TPN good for?

154
Q

how long should TPN be out of refrigeration before adminstration?

A

30 minutes

155
Q

how often should TPN tubing be changed?

A

every 24 hours

156
Q

how should TPN flow be regulated?

A

by using an IV pump

157
Q

what are important things to monitor in the patient receiving TPN?

A
vitals
daily weights
intake and output
blood glucose
BUN
electrolytes
158
Q

what are the two most common causes of acute liver failure?

A

viral hepatitis and drugs/toxins

159
Q

what three major things characterize acute liver failure?

A

jaundice
coagulopathy
encephalopathy

160
Q

hepatitis A

A

occurs in crowded conditions and passes on through fecal matter

161
Q

hepatitis B

A

passed through contaminated needles, syringes, blood products, or sexual activity with an infected partner

162
Q

hepatitis C

A

passed through blood and blood products

163
Q

will hepatitis manifest immediately?

A

no, so patient can be contagious with no symptoms

164
Q

what are symptoms of acute hepatitis?

A
anorexia
weight loss 
fatigue
lethargy 
jaundice 
low fever
dark urine
clay colored stool
165
Q

what is jaundice?

A

yellow coloring of body tissues due to altered bilirubin metabolism

166
Q

what is bilirubin?

A

an orange/yellow pigment made in the liver by hemoglobin breakdown

167
Q

what is icterus?

A

yellowing of the eyes from bilirubin buildup

168
Q

what can the accumulation of bile salts cause?

A

generalized itching (pruritus)

169
Q

what changes in lab values will be seen with acute liver failure?

A
increased AST
increased ALT
decreased albumin
increased bilirubins
prolonged prothrombin time
170
Q

what is the most definitive diagnostic test for liver failure?

A

liver biopsy

171
Q

what are the two methods of liver biopsy?

A

open and closed method

172
Q

what are some nursing cares for patients post liver biopsy?

A

have patient lie on right side for several hours to apply pressure on site
assess for bleeding
assess for pain
assess for signs of pneumothorax

173
Q

how long is the convalescent phase in acute viral hepatitis?

A

2-3 months on average

174
Q

what are the four key items for management of acute viral hepatitis?

A

well balanced diet
rest
vitamin supplements
avoid alcohol and drugs

175
Q

what infection precautions should be followed for hepatitis?

A

contact precautions

176
Q

what is the most common cause of acute liver failure?

A

drugs (normally combo of alcohol and acetaminophen)

177
Q

how is acute liver failure defined?

A

rapid onset of severe liver dysfunction in patient with no prior history of liver disease. often occurs with hepatic encephalopathy

178
Q

what are signs of hepatic encephalopathy?

A

changes in mentation
changes in neuro and mental responsiveness
impaired consciousness
inappropriate behavior

179
Q

hepatic encephalopathy coexists with an increase in what substance in the body?

180
Q

what is the goal in treating hepatic encephalopathy?

A

reduce ammonia formation

181
Q

what drug reduces ammonia formation? how?

A

Lactulose: its a laxative like drug that traps ammonia in the gut and then expels it in feces

182
Q

what is asterixis?

A

a flapping tremor of the arms and hands that is characteristic of hepatic encephalopathy

183
Q

why is safety a priority for patients with hepatic encephalopathy?

A

because they are at very high risk for falls

184
Q

what is cirrhosis?

A

extensive scarring of the liver caused by necrotic injury or prolonged inflammatory response. normal liver tissue is replaced with fibrotic tissue. cirrhosis is end stage liver disease

185
Q

what are expected findings in cirrhosis?

A
fatigue
weight loss
abdominal pain
distention
pruritus 
confusion and mental changes
ascites
jaundice/icterus
186
Q

what are other integumentary changes in cirrhosis?

A

petechiae
ecchymoses
spider angiomas

187
Q

what is fetor hepaticus?

A

liver breath, a fruity or musty odor from digestive by-products that the body cannot break down

188
Q

why is bruising and bleeding an issue in cirrhosis?

A

because the liver can no longer adequately make clotting factors

189
Q

why do many cirrhosis patients have breathing issues?

A

because of ascites and plasma volume excess

190
Q

what should the nurse do/assess in relation to fluid balance for cirrhosis patients?

A
monitor for indications of fluid volume excess
strict intake and output
daily weights
assess ascites and peripheral edema
restrict fluid and sodium if necessary
191
Q

what nutrients are especially important for clients with cirrhosis?

A

carbs and protein

192
Q

how often should abdominal girth be measured and how should it be measured for the patient with ascites?

A

measured daily over the largest part of the abdomen

193
Q

what is a t-tube?

A

a tube placed in the bile duct that helps drain bile from the liver

194
Q

what will stool look like if client has impaired bile production or movement?

A

greasy, fatty, pale/white stool

195
Q

how does a t-tube bag drain and how should it be stored?

A

it drains by gravity and should rest at or below the client’s waist level

196
Q

what amount of drainage from a t-tube would warrant a call to the physician?

A

over 500 ml/day

197
Q

what should t-tube drainage NOT be like?

A

should not be thick, foul smelling, or bloody

198
Q

what is necessary for a nurse to clamp or flush a t-tube?

A

physician order

199
Q

what are some common causes of fractures?

A

falls and accidents
twisting injuries
disease processes like cancer or osteoporosis

200
Q

how long do fractures take to heal?

A

3-12 weeks (shorter time for kids, longer for adults)

201
Q

what are some complications of fractures?

A

infection (osteomyelitis)
compartment syndrome
fat embolism
nerve and vessel damage

202
Q

open fracture

A

fracture where bone breaks through the skin

203
Q

closed fracture

A

fracture that does not pierce skin

204
Q

complete fracture

A

bone is broken all the way through

205
Q

incomplete fracture

A

bone doesnt break all the way through

206
Q

greenstick fracture

A

one side of bone is bent and the other side is fractured

207
Q

who is most likely to get a greenstick fracture?

208
Q

comminuted fracture

A

bone is broken into many fragments

209
Q

transverse fracture

A

broken straight across the bone

210
Q

oblique fracture

A

fracture is slanted across the bone at an angle

211
Q

spiral fracture

A

fracture that twists around the bone

212
Q

what is the most definitive diagnostic tool for a fracture?

213
Q

what are common manifestations of a fracture?

A
bruising
pain and swelling
reduced movement
odd appearance of limb
crackling sound from bone fragments
edema and erythema 
neurovascular abnormalities
214
Q

what do we want to assess for neurovascular status with a fracture?

A

area distal to the fracture to check for perfusion/pulses

215
Q

what are the 6 P’s of neurovascular assessment for fractures?

A
pain
pallor
paralysis
paresthesia
pulselessness
poikilothermia (inability to regulate body temp)
216
Q

how often should neurovascular assessment be done with a new cast?

A

every hour

217
Q

how should the nurse initially immobilize a fracture?

A

with a splint above and below the fracture site to decrease pain, bleeding, and nerve damage

218
Q

what should the nurse do if the fracture is open/compound?

A

cover it with a sterile dressing

219
Q

how should the extremity be positioned initially with a fracture?

A

elevated to decrease swelling

220
Q

how can pain be managed initially with a fracture?

A

ice and pain meds

221
Q

why should the patient with a new fracture be kept NPO?

A

in case surgical procedure needed

222
Q

how long after the onset of compartment syndrome will it become irreversible?

A

6-12 hours

223
Q

what is the earliest sign of compartment syndrome? what is the latest?

A

pain is the earliest sign, pulselessness is a late sign

224
Q

how should the extremity be positioned if the nurse suspects compartment syndrome?

A

at heart level

225
Q

what kind of fractures are most likely to have fat embolism as a complication?

A

long bone fracture

226
Q

what are some signs and symptoms of fat embolism?

A

changes in mental status

increased respirations and difficulty breathing

227
Q

what is a closed reduction for a fracture?

A

manual resetting of the bone done under general anesthesia, with a cast placed afterward

228
Q

what are some general cares/instructions for after a cast is placed?

A

put ice on it for the first 48 hours and have patient wiggle fingers to prevent stiffness and improve circulation
elevate above heart for first 24 hours
monitor for infection and keep cast clean

229
Q

why should a nurse only use her palms when handling a new cast?

A

because they don’t dry fully for about 48 hours, and nurse could indent cast with fingertips

230
Q

what is an internal open reduction for a fracture?

A

setting the bone on the inside using pins, rods, or plates

231
Q

what is an external open reduction?

A

bone set on the outside of the skin using metal braces and screws

232
Q

what is a key concern with external open reduction?

233
Q

what is traction?

A

applying a pulling force to an injured or diseased extremity or body part to help align the bone

234
Q

what are benefits of traction?

A

reduces pain and muscle spasm
immobilizes joint
keeps fracture or dislocation from becoming more severe
prevents soft tissue damage
expands a joint before an arthroscopic procedure

235
Q

what are some things to remember about traction weights?

A

they should hang freely, and never rest on the floor

never remove the weights

236
Q

what are things that should be closely monitored for the client in traction?

A
pin care (look for foul drainage or smell)
maintain skin integrity
monitor the 6 P's looking for compartment syndrome
237
Q

what is skin traction?

A

tape, boots, or splints used for 2-3 days until patient can do skeletal traction or surgery. decreases muscle spasms

238
Q

what is bucks traction?

A

a type of skin traction used for fractures of the hip and femur before hip surgery

239
Q

what is skeletal traction?

A

traction that aligns bones and joints to allow for healing

240
Q

how will the patient on skeletal traction move? (and not move)

A

patients cannot move from side to side, but can lift using a trapeze bar and are encouraged to do isometric exercises

241
Q

what are isometric exercises?

A

exercises in which joint angle and muscle length do not change during contraction

242
Q

what will usually be done for orthopedic surgery patients to prevent VTE?

A

prophylactic anticoagulants
compression stockings
SCDs
dorsiflexion and plantar flexion of feet and ankle

243
Q

what are some ways to minimize infection risk for patients with fractures?

A
post op antibiotics
wound cleaning and debridement
monitor labs and vitals
encourage coughing and deep breathing
encourage nutrient and fluid intake
244
Q

what can be done to prevent fat embolism?

A

reposition patient as little as possible until fracture is stabilized to reduce risk of fat droplet dislodging

245
Q

what might be seen if the patient has a fat embolism?

A
confusion
tachypnea
cyanosis
dyspnea
apprehension
246
Q

what are some treatments when patient has a fat embolism?

A

fluid resuscitation
correct acidosis
blood transfusion

247
Q

what is a sprain?

A

an injury to a ligament around a joint from a twisting motion

248
Q

how should sprains be treated?

A

rest
ice
compression
elevate

249
Q

what is a dislocation?

A

the surface of the joint separates, and the affected limb might be shorter and internally rotated

250
Q

what is arthroplasty?

A

reconstruction or replacement of a joint

251
Q

what are some post-op management items for arthroplasty?

A
vitals
intake and output
pain meds
PT
monitor respiratory and encourage breathing
watch for bleeding
252
Q

what are some things to remember for after a hip replacement?

A

do not flex hip more than 90 degrees
do not cross legs at knees/ankles
do not adduct hips
do not put on shoes without adaptive device

253
Q

what are nursing cares for after an amputation?

A

monitor vitals
assess for hemorrhage
use sterile technique for dressing changes
properly bandage limb

254
Q

what is a compression bandage?

A

a bandage used after amputation to reduce edema and minimize pain for quicker healing. should be worn at all times except when bathing

255
Q

what is autonomic dysreflexia?

A

uncompensated cardiovascular reaction mediated by the SNS due to stimulation of sensory receptors below level of spinal cord injury

256
Q

what are the most common causes of autonomic dysreflexia?

A

distended bladder or rectum

257
Q

what are manifestations of autonomic dysreflexia?

A
hypertension
bradycardia
throbbing headache
diaphoresis
flushing of skin above and below level of injury
258
Q

what are the worst complications of autonomic dysreflexia?

A

stroke, MI, and death

259
Q

what are nursing interventions for autonomic dysreflexia?

A

elevate HOB to 45 degrees or sit patient upright
determine the cause
call PCP
do bladder scan and relieve bladder or constipation if indicated

260
Q

what are some drugs that can be given for autonomic hyperreflexia if symptoms persist after cause is eliminated?

A

nitroglycerine
nitroprusside
hydralazine

261
Q

what are manifestations of pneumothorax?

A

dyspnea
decreased movement of affected chest wall
diminished or absent breath sounds on affected side

262
Q

what is the primary intervention done for pneumothorax?

A

chest tube placement

263
Q

what is common emergency treatment for pneumothorax?

A

cover the wound with an occlusive dressing on three sides

264
Q

what is tidaling?

A

the movement of fluid in chest tube chamber as the client breathes in and out

265
Q

what might rapid bubbling in the chest tube chamber indicate?

A

an air leak somewhere in the system

266
Q

what are manifestations of tension pneumothorax?

A
cyanosis
air hunger
extreme agitation
tracheal deviation away from affected side
neck vein distention
267
Q

what are emergency interventions for tension pneumothorax?

A

needle decompression followed by a chest tube insertion with drainage system

268
Q

in what order should the patient be assessed if they are unresponsive?

A

circulation, airway, breathing

269
Q

in what order should the patient be assessed if they are responsive?

A

airway, breathing, circulation

270
Q

what is the most important part of CPR?

A

chest compressions

271
Q

what are the A-G components of a primary survey in care of an emergency patient?

A
alertness and airway
breathing
circulation
disability
exposure/environmental control
facilitate adjuncts, involve family
get resuscitation adjuncts
272
Q

how is disability assessed?

A

assessing LOC/response to stimuli/glasgow coma/pupil reactivity

273
Q

what are some resuscitation adjuncts that might be needed in emergency patient care?

A
labs
ECG
NG or orogastric tube
ventilation monitoring and support
manage pain
emotional support for families
provide comfort
274
Q

what is included in secondary survey once the patient is more stable?

A

history, head to toe, complete skin inspection

275
Q

what are priority cares for a client with hypothermia?

A

ABCs
rewarming
correcting dehydration and acidosis
treat cardiac dysrhythmias

276
Q

what is involved in passive rewarming?

A

removing wet clothes
warming the area
using heat lamps
warm blankets

277
Q

what is involved in active rearming?

A

warm IV fluids
heated humidified oxygen
warm water immersion
cardiopulmonary bypass

278
Q

what are nursing interventions for heat exhaustion?

A
remove patient from heat/sun
give cool drink (ideally with electrolytes)
remove excess clothing
get a fan
wet sheet over patient
279
Q

why should tylenol not be given to the patient with heat exhaustion?

A

because it is not effective on fever caused by heat exhaustion

280
Q

what are the two types of abdominal trauma?

A

blunt and penetrating

281
Q

what is a risk if the liver or spleen is penetrated?

A

profuse bleeding and hypovolemic shock

282
Q

what are signs and symptoms of abdominal trauma?

A
guarding/splinting
distended/hard abdomen
decreased or absent bowel sounds
bruising
pain
hematemesis or hematuria
decreased urine output
283
Q

what is cullens sign?

A

ecchymosis around the umbilicus

284
Q

what is grey turners sign?

A

ecchymosis around the flanks

285
Q

what is the best diagnostic tool for abdominal trauma?

A

abdominal ultrasound

286
Q

what are nursing interventions for suspected or confirmed renal trauma?

A
assess cardiovascular status and monitor for shock
ensure adequate fluid intake
monitor intake and output
pain relief
monitor for hematuria and myoglobinuria
287
Q

what is the most common tick-borne disease?

A

lyme disease

288
Q

what are manifestations of lyme disease?

A

flu like symptoms (headache, stiff neck, fatigue)

bulls eye rash around tick site

289
Q

what are long term issues if lyme disease is not treated?

A

arthritis
heart disease
peripheral radiculoneuropathy

290
Q

what is the treatment for lyme disease?

A

doxycycline

291
Q

how should a tick be removed?

A

ASAP with tweezers

292
Q

what are common treatments for poison ingestion?

A

activated charcoal
dermal cleansing
eye irrigation
gastric lavage

293
Q

what is gastric lavage?

A

using a tube passed into the stomach to sequentially administer and remove small volumes of liquid

294
Q

what should not be done for frostbitten skin?

A

do not squeeze, massage, or scrub area

avoid heavy blankets/clothing

295
Q

what should be done for frostbite?

A

rewarm slowly by immersing in warm water

give analgesia

296
Q

how should pin sites for halo vest be cleaned?

A

twice daily with half strength peroxide/normal saline

297
Q

when is a TLSO brace used?

A

when patients have stable thoracic or lumbar spine injuries

298
Q

when is a TLSO brace worn?

A

whenever a patient is out of bed