2900 Exam One Flashcards

1
Q

what are some different classifications of genetic disorders?

A

single gene (dominant, recessive, x linked), multifactorial, chromosomal disorders

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2
Q

what do genetic tests help with?

A

diagnosis of disease or risk assessment for developing a disease

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3
Q

what does GINA stand for and do?

A

Genetic Information Non-discrimination Act

it prevents discrimination in healthcare coverage and employment based on genetic information

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4
Q

what is a genetic counselor?

A

a specialist trained in both genetics and counseling to help people at all stages of the genetic testing process

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5
Q

what is gene therapy?

A

experimental therapy that uses targeted genes to treat or prevent diseases

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6
Q

what are some risk factors for genetic disease that might come up in a genetic health history?

A

disease in more than one close relative
disease that does not usually affect a certain gender
disease occurring at earlier age than expected
combination of certain diseases in a family

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7
Q

what are some manifestations of COPD?

A
shortness of breath
cough
recurrent infections
poor nutrition
respiratory acidosis
chest pain
mucus production
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8
Q

what are some questions we could ask a COPD patient to assess severity of symptoms?

A

activity tolerance/SOB at rest
appetite
sputum production and appearance

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9
Q

what are some common treatments for COPD exacerbation?

A
oxygen
humidifiers and nebulizers
SABAs
corticosteroids
antibiotics
CPAP
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10
Q

what is the best oxygen administration method for COPD patients and why?

A

venturi mask, because it can deliver a fixed amount of oxygen at lower levels independent of the patient’s respiratory rate

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11
Q

what are two methods of breathing retraining used for COPD patients?

A

pursed lip breathing

diaphragmatic breathing

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12
Q

what is PEEP?

A

positive end expiratory pressure. a method of mechanical ventilation to prevent alveolar collapse

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13
Q

what are some nutrition recommendations for COPD?

A

rest and do respiratory treatments before eating
small frequent meals with snacks
high calorie, high protein meals
ensure adequate fluid intake between meals

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14
Q

what is included in pulmonary rehabilitation?

A

smoking cessation or avoidance
exercise training
nutrition counseling
education

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15
Q

what kind of exercise training is usually done for COPD patients?

A

focus on ambulation and some work on upper body muscles

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16
Q

what is ARDS?

A

acute respiratory distress syndrome, which is a sudden progressive acute respiratory failure. the alveolar-capillary membrane becomes damaged and more permeable to intravascular fluid

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17
Q

what are some direct lung injury methods from which ARDS can develop?

A
aspiration
pneumonia
sepsis
embolism
oxygen toxicity
inhalation of toxic substances
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18
Q

what are some indirect lung injury methods from which ARDS can develop?

A
also sepsis
trauma
pancreatitis 
DIV
extensive time on cardiopulmonary bypass 
opioid overdose 
head injury
shock
transfusion reaction
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19
Q

what are early signs of ARDS?

A
dyspnea
tachypnea
cough
crackles
mild hypoxemia
respiratory alkalosis
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20
Q

what are later signs of ARDS?

A
increasing dyspnea
retractions
decreased lung compliance
decreased functional residual capacity
hypoxemia 
white lung on x-ray
pleural effusion
organ dysfunction
pulmonary edema
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21
Q

what is the goal for care of ARDS?

A

maintaining airway and monitoring respiratory status

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22
Q

what breathing assistance do most ARDS patients have?

A

mechanical ventilation (PEEP)

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23
Q

what positioning strategies might help with ARDS?

A

prone and lateral rotation

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24
Q

what are important things to monitor for ARDS patients?

A
ABGs 
lung sounds
hemodynamics 
fluid balance 
nutrition status
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25
Q

what are some complications that can develop because of ARDS?

A
infection
oxygen toxicity
paralytic ileus 
AKI
decreased cardiac output
respiratory failure 
pulmonary emboli or fibrosis 
ventilator associated pneumonia
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26
Q

what are some vasopressor drugs used for treatment of ARDS?

A

dopamine
dobutamine
norepinephrine

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27
Q

normal calcium lab values

A

8.6-10.2 mg/dL

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28
Q

normal carbon dioxide lab values

A

23-29 mEq/L

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29
Q

normal chloride lab values

A

96-106 mEq/L

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30
Q

normal creatinine lab values

A

0.6-1.3 mg/dL

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31
Q

normal glucose lab values

A

70-99 mg/dL

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32
Q

normal BUN lab values

A

6-20 mg/dL

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33
Q

normal magnesium lab values

A

1.5-2.5 mEq/L

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34
Q

normal GFR

A

greater than 60 mL/min

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35
Q

normal bilirubin lab values

A

0.2-1.2 mg/dL

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36
Q

normal hemoglobin lab values men and women

A

men 13-16 g/dL

women 11-15 g/dL

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37
Q

normal hematocrit lab values men and women

A

men 38-48%

women 35-45%

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38
Q

normal WBC level

A

4000-11,000 cells/microliter of blood

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39
Q

what is the difference between preterm labor and preterm contractions?

A

preterm labor: cervical change and uterine contractions

preterm contractions: only contractions without cervical change

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40
Q

what are some risk factors for preterm labor?

A
history of past preterm birth
pregnant with multiples
being overweight or underweight before getting pregnant 
uterine or cervical anomalies
having an eating disorder
family history of preterm birth
smoking
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41
Q

what are some clinical manifestations of preterm labor?

A
cramping
pelvic pressure
vaginal discomfort
increased vaginal discharge
loss of fluid
vaginal bleeding
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42
Q

what are pharmacological interventions for preterm labor?

A

betamethasone to promote fetal lung maturity
tocolytics to to suppress uterine contractions
fluids to calm uterine contractions

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43
Q

what are nursing actions when a client is in suspected preterm labor?

A
continuous external fetal monitoring and TOCO
monitor/measure blood loss
urinalysis looking for a UTI
large bore IV and fluids
notify MD
hydration
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44
Q

what should clients be taught in regards to preterm labor?

A

symptoms of PTL

what do to if suspected: stop activity, lie down, drink water, wait one hour, call doctor if symptoms worsen

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45
Q

definition of gestational hypertension

A

hypertension without proteinuria or other systemic preeclampsia findings after 20 weeks gestation

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46
Q

definition of preeclampsia?

A

hypertension with proteinuria after 20 weeks gestation in a woman who didn’t have either previously

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47
Q

what is HELLP syndrome?

A

a severe variant of preeclampsia

characterized by hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets

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48
Q

how will hemoglobin levels look different in preeclampsia and HELLP?

A

they may be increased in preeclampsia

they will be decreased in HELLP

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49
Q

what are some risks in teen pregnancy?

A

hypertension
anemia
preeclampsia
preterm labor

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50
Q

what are some risk factors for preeclampsia?

A
first pregnancy
age over 40
more than 7 years between pregnancies
family history 
obesity
GDM/any other diabetes
multifetal pregnancy 
previous preeclampsia or hypertension
renal disease
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51
Q

what are lab/clinical findings with preeclampsia?

A
increased hct 
hypertension
increased creatinine
increased liver enzymes 
proteinuria
decreased platelets
52
Q

what are assessment findings for preeclampsia?

A
headache
edema
RUQ or epigastric pain
hyperreflexia
seizures
visual disturbances
water retention
increased BP
proteinuria
53
Q

why is magnesium sulfate used in preeclampsia?

A

its a CNS depressant that can prevent and treat seizure activity

54
Q

what are signs of magnesium toxicity?

A

decreased BP
decreased urine output
respirations less than 12/minute
absent deep tendon reflexes

55
Q

what other meds might be used in preeclampsia?

A

meds to control blood pressure, like labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine

56
Q

what is the antidote to magnesium sulfate?

A

calcium gluconate

57
Q

what are some risk factors for bleeding during the third trimester?

A
previous c-section
advanced maternal age 
multiparity 
smoking
hypertension
cocaine use
abdominal trauma 
PROM
58
Q

what is placenta previa?

A

when the placenta is low lying and partially or fully covers the cervix. may or may not separate from the uterine wall

59
Q

what is placental abruption?

A

early separation of the placenta from the uterus

60
Q

what are assessment findings with placenta previa?

A

painless bright red bleeding
low lying placenta
soft/relaxed/non-tender uterus

61
Q

what are assessment findings for placental abruption?

A

bleeding
cramping and pain
uterine tenderness and rigidity
contractions

62
Q

what are interventions for placenta previa?

A

observation and bed rest if bleeding stops
type and screen blood
initiate large bore IV access
emergency c-section if necessary

63
Q

what are interventions for placental abruption?

A

if 30-34 weeks, monitor closely

if at term or bleeding is severe, proceed to immediate birth and monitor closely

64
Q

what are risk factors for gestational diabetes?

A
obesity
age over 25
previous macrosomic infant 
hypertension 
family history of diabetes 
fasting glucose over 140
65
Q

what are normal screening parameters for a one hour GTT?

A

less than 130-140 mg/dL

66
Q

what is needed for a positive diagnosis of GDM?

A

exceeding two or more parameters in the 3 hour glucose tolerance test

67
Q

where should fasting blood sugar levels be in GDM?

A

between 65 and 95 mg/dL

68
Q

where should blood sugar be one hour after a meal in GDM?

A

less than 130-140 mg/dL

69
Q

what is the normal treatment regimen for GDM?

A

diet restrictions and exercise

oral antidiabetics and insulin if lifestyle modifications dont work

70
Q

what are later risks to the mother with GDM?

A

likelihood of GDM in later pregnancies

higher chance of developing T2DM later in life

71
Q

what is the first intervention to be tried when late decelerations are noted on the fetal strip?

A

reposition the mother and administer oxygen

72
Q

What are common indications for c-section?

A

complete placenta previa or placental abruption
malpresentation of fetus
non-reassuring fetal status
history of c-section

73
Q

what are risk factors associated with c-section?

A
hemorrhage 
UTI
infection
fetal injury 
wound dehiscence
74
Q

what is betametasone for and when is it given?

A

it promotes fetal lung maturity and should be given 24-48 hours before delivery

75
Q

what is a trial of labor?

A

observing woman and baby for a reasonable period of time in active labor to assess safety of vaginal birth

76
Q

when is a trial of labor often done?

A

when a vaginal birth after caesarian is being attempted

77
Q

what drug is most commonly given to treat postpartum hemorrhage?

A

carboprost tromethamine

78
Q

what are some common complications of a labor epidural?

A

maternal hypotension
fetal bradycardia
nausea/vomiting

79
Q

what equipment/supplies should be ready in preparation for a preterm birth?

A

resuscitation equipment

betamethasone

80
Q

what is the difference between a benign and malignant tumor?

A

benign: well-differentiated lump
malignant: out of control growth, can easily invade and metastasize

81
Q

what nursing action should the nurse always take before administering chemotherapy?

A

make sure that catheter/PICC line/port are in the right place so there isnt an extravasation of chemo into the tissues

82
Q

what are some nursing cares to remember for patients receiving radiation therapy?

A

radiation can cause effects on the skin like a sunburn (redness and dryness) and its important to take care of the skin and keep it hydrated and intact

83
Q

what things will the nurse need to help the patient receiving chemo/radiation manage?

A
nausea
vomiting
anorexia 
diarrhea 
constipation
84
Q

what tests and body systems will the nurse need to monitor in the patient receiving chemo/radiation?

A
liver function
immunity/WBCs
platelets
skin status
kidney function
neuro status
cardiac and respiratory systems
85
Q

what are priority nursing/interprofessional cares for patients with superior vena cava syndrome?

A

radiation therapy to the site of obstruction, chemo to shrink the tumor, or a stent to treat the obstruction

86
Q

what are manifestations of superior vena cava syndrome?

A

facial/periorbital edema
distended head/neck/chest veins
headaches
seizures

87
Q

what are priority cares for patients with SIADH?

A

correct sodium water imbalance through fluid restriction, salt tablets, and possible Lasix therapy

88
Q

what needs to be remembered about sodium levels with SIADH?

A

it will be low initially because of water retention. monitor it closely and don’t correct it rapidly, because that can cause seizures or death

89
Q

what are some key manifestations of SIADH?

A

water retention
low sodium
nausea/vomiting
seizures

90
Q

what are some key manifestations of cardiac tamponade?

A
heavy feeling in chest
SOB
tachycardia
dysphagia
distant heart sounds
diaphoresis
anxiety
decreased LOC
91
Q

what is the main treatment to correct cardiac tamponade?

A

draining fluid from around the heart (pericardiocentesis)

92
Q

what are nursing cares to be performed with cardiac tamponade?

A

oxygen
IV fluids
vasopressor therapy to relieve pressure on heart

93
Q

how much should healthy adults void in one day?

A

usually 1-2 liters

94
Q

prerenal causes of AKI

A
cardiac issues like MI
internal or external bleeding
dehydration
burns
anything that hinders perfusion to kidneys
95
Q

intrarenal causes of AKI

A

nephrotoxic drugs

96
Q

postrenal causes of AKI

A

blocked urinary tract
renal caliculi
enlarged prostate

97
Q

a 24 hour urine collection looks at..

A

creatinine clearance level

98
Q

what is a normal GFR

A

90 ml/min or greater

99
Q

what are some other ways to assess the kidneys and their function?

A
urinalysis
BUN
serum electrolytes
renal ultrasounds 
renal scan
CT scan
renal biopsy
100
Q

what will urine output look like in the oliguric stage of AKI?

A

less than 400 ml/day

101
Q

what are some nursing interventions to consider for patients with AKI?

A

low protein diet
monitoring safety due to possible confusion
skin care and pressure ulcer prevention
mouth care
daily weights and monitoring fluid status

102
Q

what are interventions for hyperkalemia?

A
regular insulin + IV glucose
sodium bicarb
calcium gluconate
hemodialysis
kayexalate 
ventassa  
potassium restricted diet
103
Q

what does kayaxalate do?

A

produces osmotic diarrhea to remove potassium from the body

104
Q

what does veltassa do?

A

bind potassium in the GI tract

105
Q

what are nutrition interventions for AKI?

A

limit protein: get energy from carb and fat sources
regulate potassium and sodium, limit phosphates
30-40% of calories from fat
monitor strict intake and output

106
Q

how much might patients void in the oliguric stage of AKI?

A

3-6 liters/day

107
Q

AKI patients are at risk for which acid/base imbalance?

A

metabolic acidosis

108
Q

what are some manifestations of metabolic acidosis in AKI patients?

A

decreased pH
confusion
Kussmaul breathing

109
Q

what are some reasons to do PD?

A
immediate initiation
lower infection risk
easier on heart
less dietary restrictions
better for diabetics
110
Q

what are some reasons for HD?

A

rapid fluid removal
better urea/creatinine clearance
better potassium removal
less protein loss

111
Q

what are some complications of PD?

A
peritonitis
exit site infection
hernias
bleeding
protein loss
pulmonary complications
hyperglycemia
112
Q

what are some complications of HD?

A
hypotension
cramps
infection
vascular access problems
blood loss
hepatitis
disequilibrium syndrome
113
Q

what is disequilibrium syndrome?

A

cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure as a result of hemodialysis

114
Q

what causes most cases of hypercalcemia?

A

hyperparathyroidism

115
Q

what effect does hypercalcemia have on the body?

A

sedative effects (reduced excitability of muscles and nerves)

116
Q

what are other general manifestations of hypercalcemia?

A
reduced muscle/nerve excitability
fatigue
confusion
lethargy
weakness
hallucinations 
coma
dysrhythmias
117
Q

What dysrhythmias are most common in hypercalcemia?

A

heart block

v-tach

118
Q

what are some interventions for mild hypercalcemia?

A

stop eating so much calcium and stop taking meds with calcium
increase weight bearing activity
drink 3-4 liters of fluid daily to promote calcium excretion

119
Q

what are some some interventions for severe hypercalcemia?

A
IV saline to maintain urine output
watch for fluid overload
bisphosphonates
calcitonin to increase calcium excretion
dialysis in very severe cases
120
Q

what are some nursing interventions for respiratory acidosis?

A

give oxygen
encourage coughing/deep breathing/spirometry
no respiratory depressing drugs
watch potassium levels closely
give antibiotics if acidosis is caused by pneumonia

121
Q

what are some nursing interventions for respiratory alkalosis?

A

paper bag breathing
monitor calcium and potassium levels (can be severely decreased)
teach breathing techniques to slow respirations

122
Q

what are some nursing interventions for metabolic acidosis?

A
watch electrolyte levels
monitor neuro status
monitor intake and output
monitor respiratory status
treat underlying cause
123
Q

what are some nursing interventions for metabolic alkalosis?

A

anti-emetics
treat cause of alkalosis
stop suctioning or diuretics if underlying cause
monitor ABGs

124
Q

what part of the brain controls thermoregulation?

A

hypothalamus

125
Q

what are some things that can lower core body temp?

A

drug use
alcohol use
hypothyroidism