251 Final Review

Question 1

In venipuncture, the tourniquet should be applied:

Answer 1

superior to site of puncture

Question 2

The vein used most often for intravenous administration of contrast media is the:

Answer 2

medial cubital

Question 3

The purpose of placing your index finger above the injection site and the thumb below is to:

Answer 3

secure the vein from rolling

Question 4

While selecting the site for insertion, the R.T. should keep which of the following in mind:

Answer 4

locate a straight portion of an accessible vein

Question 5

A result from a collection of contrast media beneath the skin due to a puncture in the vein wall is called:

Answer 5

extravasation

Question 6

Contrast media should be checked a minimum of ____ times prior to administering to a patient.

Answer 6

3

Question 7

The needle should always be inserted at the puncture site with the:

Answer 7

bevel side upward

Question 8

Before administering a test amount of contrast, the RT should first make sure to:

Answer 8

Remove the tourniquet

Question 9

When inserting the needle, it most commonly will enter the skin at a:

Answer 9

25-35 degree angle

Question 10

After contrast media administration, the patient experiences dyspnea and laryngeal swelling. This type of reaction would require which of the following interventions?

Answer 10

medication

Question 11

After contrast media administration, the patient experiences simple uticaria and tingling of the finger tips. This type of reaction would be considered which of the following types of reaction?

Answer 11

minor

Question 12

After removing the needle, pressure should be applied on the site of the needle insertion for a minumum of:

Answer 12

3 minutes

Question 13

To avoid an air embolism and before inserting a butterfly or attaching an IV tubing to a catheter, the R.T. must do which of the following?

Answer 13

flush contrast through tubing to end

Question 14

To avoid blood from gushing out the end of the catheter end after insertion, the R.T. must do which of the following?

Answer 14

apply pressure with one finger at tip while holding catheter in place with other fingers

Question 15

Before performing venipuncture, the R.T. should know or obtain information about the patient, which of the following is not necessary?

Answer 15

prior episodes of cystitis

Question 16

Before administering contrast media, the R.T should check laboratory results to ensure the patient has normal kidney function. The creatinine results should be within what range?

Answer 16

.6- 1.2

Question 17

Especially in an outpatient facility, the RT should always ensure which if the following prior to administering contrast media?

Answer 17

a physician with ALS is within close proximity

Question 18

Once the contrast filled syringe and needle or catheter is in place and the vein is accessible, the R.T. should administer:

Answer 18

1 cc of contrast and then evaluate site

Question 19

Which of the following agents is best and most often used to clean the site prior to inserting the needle?

Answer 19

alcohol

Question 20

The proper way to clean the site of insertion is by wiping _______.

Answer 20

from center out medially to laterally

Question 21

The three dimensional volume of tissue corresponding to a picture elements is called a:

Answer 21

voxel

Question 22

After use, an imaging plate is:

Answer 22

Erased

Question 23

An advantage of direct-capture digital radiography is:

Answer 23

No loss of resolution from converting analog to digital data

Question 24

The annotation for identification of the patient’s left or right side ______.

Answer 24

Should be used in conjunction with the technologist’s markers

Question 25

Automatic rescaling means that images are manipulated and produced, regardless of the amount of exposure, with ______.

Answer 25

Uniform contrast and density

Question 26

A wider window width increases the range of densities and, therefore:

Answer 26

Lowers contrast

Question 27

Digital imaging systems that have built in area detectors are referred to as:

Answer 27

direct digital imaging

Question 28

When an image reader is unable to detect image exposure borders (collimated field) as a result of misalignment to image receptor borders, which of the following occurs?

Answer 28

The reader reads all information outside the borders creating an unacceptable image

Question 29

Contrast enhancement post processing works by:

Answer 29

Manipulating the gray-scale values of pixels in the image

Question 30

In order to convert analog signals to digital, a CCD is required. T / F

Answer 30

True

Question 31

The active element in a CR imaging plate storage phosphor is ______.

Answer 31

barium fluorohalide

Question 32

DICOM is a standard that allows the CPU to communicate to input devices T / F

Answer 32

False

Question 33

Digital image data is acquired through:

Answer 33

direct-capture digital sensors

Question 34

The term used in digital imaging to indicate the exposure latitude (range) is ______.

Answer 34

dynamic range

Question 35

How dark or light a digital image appears on a display monitor is known as:

Answer 35

image brightness

Question 36

"Dose creep” is a phenomena that has occurred with digital imaging technology. Dose creep refers to:

Answer 36

Gradual increase in patient exposure by RT over time caused by depending on rescaling to correct for errors in an attempt to reduce image noise and repeat exposures

Question 37

Each pixel in a digital image:

Answer 37

Is the smallest picture element and has one gray-scale value

Question 38

Digital filtering enhances the contrast resolution of a digital image by:

Answer 38

reassigning an average gray scale value to each pixel according to its neighbor's value

Question 39

Exposure indicators for flat-panel detectors are determined by how much radiation reaches the detector elements or as a result of the histogram analysis. T / F

Answer 39

True

Question 40

High pass filtering removes all frequencies, but ___________ to improve edge enhancement of a digital image.

Answer 40

High frequencies

Question 41

Computers store and display visible images in columns and rows possessing depth, each of these cells is called a:

Answer 41

voxel

Question 42

Digital imaging programs are set with predetermined image quality factors that change the appearance of the image automatically after exposure. This process of modification is called:

Answer 42

rescaling

Question 43

Image noise make a digital image appear:

Answer 43

grainy

Question 44

Imaging plates are composed of:

Answer 44

Photostimulable phosphors

Question 45

As the intensity received on an area detector increases, the density value of the pixel will decrease. T / F

Answer 45

False

Question 46

In digital radiography, the computer can correct for an exposure error:

Answer 46

Up to 50% too high or too low

Question 47

In direct capture radiography, the active matrix array of thin-film transistors (TFTs):

Answer 47

Is part of the image receptor that stores the values of individual pixels

Question 48

A system’s ability to respond to varying levels of exposure, resulting in more detail, is referred to as:

Answer 48

dynamic range

Question 49

Failure of the reader to find the collimation edges of an image ______.

Answer 49

May cause the image to be too bright or too dark

Question 50

ROM is the memory storage where information that is not immediately needed is placed and cannot be edited. T / F

Answer 50

True

Question 51

The higher the sampling frequency (of reader), the more information is extracted from the image receptor thus higher resolution. T / F

Answer 51

True

Question 52

Digital imaging requires specialized software that inform the CPU what to do with the incoming data according to very specific set of instructions called:

Answer 52

algorithms

Question 53

The ability of an imaging system to demonstrate small details of an object is known as:

Answer 53

spatial resolution

Question 54

The S Number exposure indicator used by Fugi, Konica and Philips maintains what type of relationship with the actual radiation exposure received by the image receptor/ detector?

Answer 54

inverse

Question 55

The visibility of small structures can be enhanced by:

Answer 55

Edge enhancement

Question 56

In order to increase contrast resolution of the soft tissue structures of the mediastinum of the chest to better visualize small fine detailed structures, the image can be manipulated by:

Answer 56

increasing the window level and decreasing window width

Question 57

If a PSP plate is processed using the wrong anatomical menu, what could happen?

Answer 57

the EI number might display improperly

Question 58

Quality Control can be best defined as:

Answer 58

A set of tests or tools that measure equipment performance

Question 59

Quality Assurance can be best defined as:

Answer 59

A management responsibility to assess safe and proper performance

Question 60

Testing to check mA linearity is a component of which of the following activities?

Answer 60

quality control

Question 61

Measuring the satisfaction of physicians receiving electronic reports within 24 hours of procedures completed is a part of:

Answer 61

quality management

Question 62

Which of the following areas of the radiographic imaging chain should be routinely checked through quality control to ensure safe and proper operation?

Answer 62

grid uniformity laser printer calibration

Question 63

The department administrator is responsible for which of the following activities?

Answer 63

creating quality assessment plan

Question 64

When assessing the operation and integrity of view boxes, an R.T. should evaluate:

Answer 64

all

Question 65

To test the congruency of the collimator light or collimator alignment, an R.T. would perform which of the following tests:

Answer 65

nine penny test

Question 66

The collimator light should identify exactly where the non-visible x-ray field will fall, however the collimator light can be off center by no more than:

Answer 66

2% of the SID

Question 67

Reciprocity testing measures:

Answer 67

mas values at different ma and time stations

Question 68

MA linearity testing can measure:

Answer 68

the doubling effect of mA stations

Question 69

When testing viewboxes for light intensity, a photometer measures the light emanating from the surface of the viewbox cover. What is the preferred light intensity?

Answer 69

500 candelas

Question 70

The spin top test can be used to measure:

Answer 70

rectifier performance timer accuracy

Question 71

If an R.T. does not have the access to a sensitometer, the R.T. could use which of the following devices to make a reproducible sensitometric image every day?

Answer 71

penetrometer

Question 72

Quality Improvement programs include quality assurance, quality control and:

Answer 72

evaluation and improvement of all clinical processes

Question 73

In addition to quality control, quality assurance includes:

Answer 73

education and training preventative maintenance equipment specifications

Question 74

When calculating the contrast index, it is the difference between the step closest to 2.2 but not over and the step closest to _______ but not under.

Answer 74

.45

Question 75

Another term used to describe the alignment between two devices, such as grid and tabletop is:

Answer 75

congruency

Question 76

Sensitometric testing for a chemical processor is best performed:

Answer 76

before the first case

Question 77

When inspecting the integrity of a portable unit, the R.T. must check:

Answer 77

the high tension cables electrical shock potential

Question 78

Exposure rate should be within ___% of other imaging rooms.

Answer 78

10

Question 79

Testing to check kV accuracy must not deviate more than ____%.

Answer 79

5

Question 80

Which of the following test tools measure film/ screen contact of a cassette ?

Answer 80

wire mesh

Question 81

As part of the imaging chain, tomographic units must be evaluated quarterly to ensure tomographic plane height. T / F

Answer 81

False

Question 82

A Wisconsin test cassette is used to measure mA linearity. T / F

Answer 82

False

Question 83

A densitometer creates a consistent finished image used in sensitometry. T / F

Answer 83

False

Question 84

KV Accuracy testing should be conducted quarterly. T / F

Answer 84

False

Question 85

A slit/pinhole camera test tool is used to evaluate:

Answer 85

focal spot size

Question 86

To measure half value layer of inherent filtration effects on an x-ray tube, an R.T. would:

Answer 86

Place dosimeter on the table and make multiple exposures using various thicknesses of filtration

Question 87

According to the law, radiation output measures for radiographic units must be done only after repairs. T / F

Answer 87

False

Question 88

To ensure that the results of quality control testing are accurate the densitometer should be calibrated within ______ % of its original settings.

Answer 88

1 %

Question 89

Repeat Image analysis provides information about:

Answer 89

individual technical performance equipment problems understanding exposure factor issues

Question 90

Laser printers should undergo quality control checks:

Answer 90

quarterly

Question 91

If the speed (MD) is 1.10 and on Day 6, while the speed index is 1.28. It is acceptable. T / F

Answer 91

False

Question 92

Exposure timers greater than .01 seconds should be calibrated so they are within +/- ______% of its intended value.

Answer 92

5 %

Question 93

The star pattern test tool is used to measure the accuracy and integrity of:

Answer 93

resolution

Question 94

When testing the perpendicularity of the beam alignment, it should be within ____ degree(s) of perpendicular.

Answer 94

1 degrees

Question 95

If you were testing 60 kV and the test indicates 54 kV, it is acceptable. T / F

Answer 95

False

Question 96

If the radiation output of room 1 was .65 mR, at 50 kV, 5 mAs at 40 inches and using the same exposure in room 2 resulted in a radiation output of .71, the reproducibility is acceptable. T / F

Answer 96

True