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A220 Flying > 220 General > Flashcards

220 General Flashcards

1
Q

Gear speeds

A

250 - max extension and operating
220 - max retraction

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2
Q

Turbulence pen speed

A

280/.75 (lower)

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3
Q

FLAP SPEEDS

A

230 -1
210 -2
210 -3
190 -4
170 -5

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4
Q

PFCC on FFOD

A

“POPMD”
Pouches sealed (2) - docs and elementary work
O2
Pins (3)
Mics
Door, Documents

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5
Q

Emergency equip check (7 items)

A

Hood, axe, extinguisher, flashlights (2) and gloves, vests (3),
Escape rope and hatch

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6
Q

Fuel burns

A

30 Air

10 Ground 2 engine

2 APU

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7
Q

Max landing weight

A

57833

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8
Q

Thrust Limits related to oil temp

A

Below -6C: idle
-6C to 21C: 30% N1
21C to 49C: 50% N1

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9
Q

Wingspan

A

115’1”

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10
Q

Ice shedding on ground

A

Whenever 3*C or below and visible moisture in any form is present.

60% N1 momentarily, every 30 mins. First run-up during taxi done as soon as possible. Heavy snow, min 10 seconds and more frequent.

Max 43kt crosswind, 18kt tailwind

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11
Q

APU bleed max

A

23000

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12
Q

“Fuel imbalance” indication at _______

A

454

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13
Q

Limitations with fuel >2830 in either wing..

A
  • APU must be monitored
  • Left engine started first
  • If center tank <10670, transfer into centre tank
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14
Q

Normal allocations of ADSPs 1-4

A

1 - CA PFD
2 - FO PFD
3 - ISI
4 - backup

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15
Q

APU fuel is fed from where?

A

LH fuel tank, L or R boost pumps or LH ejector

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16
Q

Engine fire button action (7)

A

-bottles armed
• Fuel shut‐off,
• Hydraulic shut‐off
• FADEC commands engine shut‐down,
• Fan air valve closes,
• Bleed air (PRSOV) closes,
• VFG deactivates.

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17
Q

Max TOW

A

67.5/69.8 (125-133)

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18
Q

Tire Limit speed

A

195

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19
Q

Cowl anti-ice on when?

A

OAT 10C or below and visible moisture in any form is present (at or below 1500 AGL)

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20
Q

Wing anti-ice on when, on ground?

A

OAT 5C or below and visible moisture in any form.

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21
Q

QRH must be used for what procedure?

A

Smoke/Fire/Fumes

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22
Q

Max Fuel

A

17400

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23
Q

Min Oil Temp for start

A

-40C

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24
Q

Max APU Start attempts

A

3/hour, 2 min delay between

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25
Q

Max Take-off parameters (Time/EGT)

A

5 mins (10 if single engine)/1054C

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26
Q

Oil Temp in flight

A

49C to 163C (can go to 174 for up to 20min)
49C minimum for take-off

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27
Q

Oil Pressure min/max

A

50.3 - 175.3

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28
Q

If -20 or below and wet/contaminated what must be remembered

A

If turnaround > 2 hours, cycle reversers at least twice, must take-off within 5 mins, otherwise repeat.

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29
Q

Max start attempts before 30 min cooling

A

3 attempts, or 4 mins continuous cranking

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30
Q

Engine wind limits

A

43 kts cross, 18 tailwind for starting or ice shedding

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31
Q

Oil consumption limits

A

.4 gt/hr (.38L)

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32
Q

No derate or flex when?

A

Windshear, downdrafts
Contaminated
Anti-skid or AT inop

(Can derate with anti-ice on, but no flex)

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33
Q

Pushing TOGA button does what?

A

Arms AT if not previously armed,

  • sets FD to pitch guidance, and
  • synchronizes heading bug
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34
Q

Cold soaking and hydraulics

A

temperatures below -40°C, hydraulics must be warmed up so that HYD 3 reservoir temperature is at least -6°C for take off

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35
Q

No Wing Anti ice when?

A

Above 15 TAT

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36
Q

Min speeds for RAT

A

148 electrics
115 hydraulics

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37
Q

Max altitude for wing A/I test

A

31000 (do for 3 mins)

38
Q

FBW Pitch compensation to?

A

33 degrees bank

39
Q

60 degrees bank displays when over ___ and gone when below ___

A

40, 30

40
Q

Starter aborts when (5)

A

Hot or hung
Loss of EGT data
N1 locked rotor
Igniter or fuel ctrl fail

41
Q

when EDM activates automatically, what happens? (7)

A
  • Masks
  • Belts
  • AP and AT on
  • HDG mode present heading
  • 15000’ set, idle descent VMO-5
  • Aural ‘EMERGENCY DESCENT’ and EICAS
  • 7700
42
Q

When is ROLLOUT active on an autoland?

A

2 seconds after WOW

43
Q

When is the ROLLOUT command bar removed on an autoland?

A

Below 30 kts

44
Q

Calls 500 and below on a Cat III LAND 3

A

CA: Inside 1500 AAE “LAND 3” (when displayed)
FO: 500 (monitor or call), “STABLE”

FO: “200” (monitor or announce with no DH)
CA: “ROGER”

or

FO: “APPROACHING MINS” 80 above DH, with DH (monitor or announce)
CA: CONTINUE or GO AROUND FLAPS

FO: “NO RETARD” or silent
CA: “ROGER” (if no retard)

CA: “AUTOPILOT OFF”

45
Q

Reactive windshear between what altitudes?

A

10-1500

46
Q

PRM breakout (set heading 30 degrees away from parallel during approach)

A

AP and FD OFF
CA: Turn to assigned heading and climb/descend
FO: set Hdg and Alt, FLC
CA: AP ON
Speed Man, VFE-5, “FLAP __” (CA)
“POSITIVE RATE” (FO), “GEAR UP” (CA)
Flaps on speed
AFTER GA CHECKLIST

47
Q

Predictive windshear, inhibited on take-off when? Active when?

A

OFF: 80 kts to 50’,
ON: 50’ to 2400’

48
Q

Predictive windshear, active on approach when?

A

2300’ down to 50’

49
Q

Engine operation prohibited in ______________ conditions with temp below __________.

A

Ground fog, -18

50
Q

Design VA

A

300/.80

51
Q

Contamination:

  • Trace of any deposit is ______
  • Frost is ______
A

wet

52
Q

Critical items on power down/up (8 minutes min)

A
  • FAs must log out of CMS
  • termination checklist
  • 3 min blacked out.
  • no PAs or seat belt sign while CMS initializing (8 mins)
  • no changes in electrical power or hyd switches while PBIT running (FLT CTRL IN TEST), approx 2 mins.
  • power up from APU only.
53
Q

Max take-off alternate distance

A

351 NM

54
Q

Must be planned to land with no less than ______ EFOB. If planned EFOB is less, will add ______ fuel.

A

1300, SUPP.

55
Q

For manual landing, autopilot disconnect by _____

A

80 feet

56
Q

Permitted to fly overwater flight legs within ____ of a suitable emergency landing site

A

400nm

57
Q

Ensure arrive at destination _______ 72 hours of ____________

A

within, the last service check

58
Q

Min oxygen for dispatch
2 pers:____
3 pers: ____

A

900 (950 mountainous)
1200 (1300..)

59
Q

Landing gear is extended and retracted hydraulically by pressure from hyd system #_______

A

1

60
Q

The backup for hyd system #1 eng driven pump #1 is ___________

A

Power transfer unit (PTU)

61
Q

The backup for hyd system #2 eng driven pump 2 is ___________

A

AC motor pump (ACMP 2B)

62
Q

Slat system uses pressure from hyd systems ___________

A

2 and #3

63
Q

Max dry crosswind TO _____
Max dry crosswind LDG _____

A

32
29

64
Q

Icing conditions exist in flight when…

A

TAT of 10°C or below, and visible moisture in any form present (except when the SAT is -40°C or below).

65
Q

What must be ensured during an approach and landing in icing conditions, or if there is evidence of ice accretion?

A

VREF, VAC and VGA speeds must be increased by 5 KIAS if landing flap 5

66
Q

If the total passenger count indicates more passengers than the LDF but within tolerance, what must be done?

A

Adjust the ZFW by 80kg per extra passenger

67
Q

Second segment climb starts ___________, and continues up to at least ___________ and is flown at _______ with config as__________

A

once the landing gear is up
400 AGL
V2
Flap in TO position

68
Q

For a passenger evacuation using the ECL, both pilots must____________

A

Select the ECL on their respective DUs, DU2 and DU3

69
Q

What are trhe PWS 1) caution and 2) warning indications (per phase of flight)?

A

1) Caution for take-off and approach:
“MONITOR RADAR DISPLAY”
2): Warning for Take off and climbout (50’ to 2400’):
“WINDSHEAR AHEAD, WINDSHEAR AHEAD”

Warning for Approach and landing (2300’ to 50’):
“GO AROUND, WINDSHEAR AHEAD”

70
Q

The minimum fuel quantity for go-around is ______ kg per wing (with the airplane level) and at a maximum airplane climb attitude of 10 degrees nose up.

A

442

71
Q

Following bank angles permitted at green dot:

Maximum bank angle of _____° at altitudes up to ________ ft.

Maximum bank angle of _____° at altitudes above _______ ft.

A

30 degrees, 31,500
15 degrees, 31,500

72
Q

Points to remember for
RNP AR approaches (5)

A

Verify auth’d on 10-10
Verify “RNP AR APP” displayed prior to first wpt
Speed MAN prior to IAF
AP flown
Final flap prior to FAF

73
Q

If flying LNAV/VNAV mins vs LPV what must be remembered?

A

Change arrival data box from LPV to RNP

74
Q

WAI test limit based on

TAT or

SAT?

A

TAT

75
Q

Fuel transfer switch goes which way to accomplish moving fuel to right tank?

A

MAN XFR -R (select where you want fuel to go

76
Q

Take off with tail wind:
limits and considerations

A

Max 15 knots, high wind procedure if over 10 knots

77
Q

Landing with tailwind:
limits and considerations

A

-Max 15 knots
-no flap 4 landings beyond 10kt tailwind,
-prohibited beyond 10 with any failed system where a Non-Normal code is required.

78
Q

When would ‘TOO LOW GEAR’ sound on a normal approach?

A

below 1000’ AGL when the flaps are at 4, and gear not selected down.

79
Q

Autoland is permitted during Cat I operations provided:

A

-LAND 2 or LAND 3 is displayed on the ASA
-Autoland wind limits apply

80
Q

Can we conduct a manual landing from a CAT II approach?

A

Only if AL not available, APPR2 required, disconnect between DH and 80’

81
Q

What are the FD modes during windshear escape (take-off and approach)

A

Take-off: TO/WSHR
Approach: GA/WSHR

These remain active until another selection is made!

82
Q

For EDM to activate automatically

A

Aircraft alt above F250
Cabin Alt above 14,500

83
Q

When major things happen when aircraft enters terrain caution or warning range ?

A

-PLAN display to MAP with TERRAIN overlay
-WXR cancelled
-scale to 10NM
-“CAUTION TERRAIN’ or “TERRAIN TERRAIN, PULL UP, PULL UP”

84
Q

“CAUTION, TERRAIN” sounds ____ seconds before terrain conflict.

A

60

85
Q

“TERRAIN, TERRAIN, PULL UP PULLUP” sounds ____ seconds before terrain conflict.

A

30

86
Q

For TAWS, orange indicates _____ below and _____ above and red indicates exceeding _____ above aircraft

A

500, 2000
2000

87
Q

Flaps only extend at which lever positions?

A

2,3,4,5

88
Q

Slats deploy (further) at which lever positions

A

1,4,5

89
Q

220 eye to wheel height in feet?

A

21’

90
Q

Altimeter limit on pre flight cross check

A

maximum allowable difference between Captain’s and FO altitude display and field elevation is 75 ft

A220 Flying (3 decks)

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