220 General Flashcards
1
Q
Gear speeds
A
250 - max extension and operating
220 - max retraction
2
Q
Turbulence pen speed
A
280/.75 (lower)
3
Q
FLAP SPEEDS
A
230 -1
210 -2
210 -3
190 -4
170 -5
4
Q
PFCC on FFOD
A
“POPMD”
Pouches sealed (2) - docs and elementary work
O2
Pins (3)
Mics
Door, Documents
5
Q
Emergency equip check (7 items)
A
Hood, axe, extinguisher, flashlights (2) and gloves, vests (3),
Escape rope and hatch
6
Q
Fuel burns
A
30 Air
10 Ground 2 engine
2 APU
7
Q
Max landing weight
A
57833
8
Q
Thrust Limits related to oil temp
A
Below -6C: idle
-6C to 21C: 30% N1
21C to 49C: 50% N1
9
Q
Wingspan
A
115’1”
10
Q
Ice shedding on ground
A
Whenever 3*C or below and visible moisture in any form is present.
60% N1 momentarily, every 30 mins. First run-up during taxi done as soon as possible. Heavy snow, min 10 seconds and more frequent.
Max 43kt crosswind, 18kt tailwind
11
Q
APU bleed max
A
23000
12
Q
“Fuel imbalance” indication at _______
A
454
13
Q
Limitations with fuel >2830 in either wing..
A
- APU must be monitored
- Left engine started first
- If center tank <10670, transfer into centre tank
14
Q
Normal allocations of ADSPs 1-4
A
1 - CA PFD
2 - FO PFD
3 - ISI
4 - backup
15
Q
APU fuel is fed from where?
A
LH fuel tank, L or R boost pumps or LH ejector
16
Q
Engine fire button action (7)
A
-bottles armed
• Fuel shut‐off,
• Hydraulic shut‐off
• FADEC commands engine shut‐down,
• Fan air valve closes,
• Bleed air (PRSOV) closes,
• VFG deactivates.
17
Q
Max TOW
A
67.5/69.8 (125-133)
18
Q
Tire Limit speed
A
195
19
Q
Cowl anti-ice on when?
A
OAT 10C or below and visible moisture in any form is present (at or below 1500 AGL)
20
Q
Wing anti-ice on when, on ground?
A
OAT 5C or below and visible moisture in any form.
21
Q
QRH must be used for what procedure?
A
Smoke/Fire/Fumes
22
Q
Max Fuel
A
17400
23
Q
Min Oil Temp for start
A
-40C
24
Q
Max APU Start attempts
A
3/hour, 2 min delay between
25
Max Take-off parameters (Time/EGT)
5 mins (10 if single engine)/1054C
26
Oil Temp in flight
49C to 163C (can go to 174 for up to 20min)
49C minimum for take-off
27
Oil Pressure min/max
50.3 - 175.3
28
If -20 or below and wet/contaminated what must be remembered
If turnaround \> 2 hours, cycle reversers at least twice, must take-off within 5 mins, otherwise repeat.
29
Max start attempts before 30 min cooling
3 attempts, or 4 mins continuous cranking
30
Engine wind limits
43 kts cross, 18 tailwind for starting or ice shedding
31
Oil consumption limits
.4 gt/hr (.38L)
32
No derate or flex when?
Windshear, downdrafts
Contaminated
Anti-skid or AT inop
(Can derate with anti-ice on, but no flex)
33
Pushing TOGA button does what? (3)
* Arms AT (if not previously armed)
* sets FD to pitch guidance, and
* synchronizes heading bug
34
Cold soaking and hydraulics
temperatures below -40°C, hydraulics must be warmed up so that HYD 3 reservoir temperature is at least -6°C for take off
35
No Wing Anti ice when?
Above 15 TAT
36
Min speeds for RAT
148 electrics
115 hydraulics
37
Max altitude for wing A/I test
31000 (do for 3 mins)
38
FBW Pitch compensation to?
33 degrees bank
39
60 degrees bank displays when over ___ and gone when below \_\_\_
40, 30
40
Starter aborts when (5)
Hot or hung
Loss of EGT data
N1 locked rotor
Igniter or fuel ctrl fail
41
when EDM activates automatically, what happens? (7)
- Masks
- Belts
- AP and AT on
- HDG mode present heading
- 15000' set, idle descent VMO-5
- Aural 'EMERGENCY DESCENT' and EICAS
- 7700
42
When is ROLLOUT active on an autoland?
2 seconds after WOW
43
When is the ROLLOUT command bar removed on an autoland?
Below 30 kts
44
Calls 500 and below on a Cat III LAND 3
CA: Inside 1500 AAE "LAND 3" (when displayed)
FO: 500 (monitor or call), "STABLE"
FO: "200" (monitor or announce with no DH)
CA: "ROGER"
or
FO: "APPROACHING MINS" 80 above DH, with DH (monitor or announce)
CA: CONTINUE or GO AROUND FLAPS
FO: "NO RETARD" or silent
CA: "ROGER" (if no retard)
CA: "AUTOPILOT OFF"
45
Reactive windshear between what altitudes?
10-1500
46
PRM breakout (set heading 30 degrees away from parallel during approach)
AP and FD OFF
CA: Turn to assigned heading and climb/descend
FO: set Hdg and Alt, FLC
CA: AP ON
Speed Man, VFE-5, "FLAP \_\_" (CA)
"POSITIVE RATE" (FO), "GEAR UP" (CA)
Flaps on speed
AFTER GA CHECKLIST
47
Predictive windshear, inhibited on take-off when? Active when?
OFF: 80 kts to 50',
ON: 50' to 2400'
48
Predictive windshear, active on approach when?
2300' down to 50'
49
Engine operation prohibited in ______________ conditions with temp below __________.
Ground fog, -18
50
Design VA
300/.80
51
Contamination:
- Trace of any deposit is ______
- Frost is \_\_\_\_\_\_
wet
52
Critical items on power down/up (8 minutes min)
- FAs must log out of CMS
- termination checklist
- 3 min blacked out.
- no PAs or seat belt sign while CMS initializing (8 mins)
- no changes in electrical power or hyd switches while PBIT running (FLT CTRL IN TEST), approx 2 mins.
- power up from APU only.
53
Max take-off alternate distance
351 NM
54
Must be planned to land with no less than ______ EFOB. If planned EFOB is less, will add ______ fuel.
1300, SUPP.
55
For manual landing, autopilot disconnect by \_\_\_\_\_
80 feet
56
Permitted to fly overwater flight legs within ____ of a suitable emergency landing site
400nm
57
Ensure arrive at destination _______ 72 hours of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
within, the last service check
58
Min oxygen for dispatch
2 pers:____
3 pers: ____
900 (950 mountainous)
1200 (1300..)
59
Landing gear is extended and retracted hydraulically by pressure from hyd system #\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
1
60
The backup for hyd system #1 eng driven pump #1 is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Power transfer unit (PTU)
61
The backup for hyd system #2 eng driven pump 2 is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
AC motor pump (ACMP 2B)
62
Slat system uses pressure from hyd systems \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
#2 and #3
63
Max dry crosswind TO _____
Max dry crosswind LDG \_\_\_\_\_
32
29
64
Icing conditions exist in flight when…
TAT of 10°C or below, and visible moisture in any form present (except when the SAT is -40°C or below).
65
What must be ensured during an approach and landing in icing conditions, or if there is evidence of ice accretion?
VREF, VAC and VGA speeds must be increased by 5 KIAS if landing flap 5
66
If the total passenger count indicates more passengers than the LDF but within tolerance, what must be done?
Adjust the ZFW by 80kg per extra passenger
67
Second segment climb starts ___________, and continues up to at least ___________ and is flown at _______ with config as\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
once the landing gear is up
400 AGL
V2
Flap in TO position
68
For a passenger evacuation using the ECL, both pilots must\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Select the ECL on their respective DUs, DU2 and DU3
69
What are trhe PWS 1) caution and 2) warning indications (per phase of flight)?
1) Caution for take-off and approach:
"MONITOR RADAR DISPLAY"
2): Warning for Take off and climbout (50’ to 2400’):
“WINDSHEAR AHEAD, WINDSHEAR AHEAD”
Warning for Approach and landing (2300’ to 50’):
“GO AROUND, WINDSHEAR AHEAD”
70
The minimum fuel quantity for go-around is ______ kg per wing (with the airplane level) and at a maximum airplane climb attitude of 10 degrees nose up.
442
71
Following bank angles permitted at green dot:
Maximum bank angle of ______° at altitudes up to ________ ft.
Maximum bank angle of _______° at altitudes above _______ ft.
30 degrees, 31,500
15 degrees, 31,500
72
Points to remember for
RNP AR approaches (5)
Verify auth’d on 10-10
Verify “RNP AR APP” displayed prior to first wpt
Speed MAN prior to IAF
AP flown
Final flap prior to FAF
73
If flying LNAV/VNAV mins vs LPV what must be remembered?
Change arrival data box from LPV to RNP
74
WAI test limit based on
TAT or
SAT?
TAT
75
Fuel transfer switch goes which way to accomplish moving fuel *to right* tank?
MAN XFR -R (select where you want fuel to *go*
76
Take off with tail wind:
limits and considerations
Max 15 knots, high wind procedure if over 10 knots
77
Landing with tailwind:
limits and considerations
-Max 15 knots
-no flap 4 landings beyond 10kt tailwind,
-prohibited beyond 10 with any failed system where a Non-Normal code is required.
78
When would 'TOO LOW GEAR' sound on a normal approach?
below 1000' AGL when the flaps are at 4, and gear not selected down.
79
Autoland is permitted during Cat I operations provided:
-LAND 2 or LAND 3 is displayed on the ASA
-Autoland wind limits apply
80
Can we conduct a manual landing from a CAT II approach?
Only if AL not available, APPR2 required, disconnect between DH and 80’
81
What are the FD modes during windshear escape (take-off and approach)
Take-off: TO/WSHR
Approach: GA/WSHR
These remain active until another selection is made!
82
For EDM to activate automatically
Aircraft alt above F250
Cabin Alt above 14,500
83
When major things happen when aircraft enters terrain caution or warning range ?
-PLAN display to MAP with TERRAIN overlay
-WXR cancelled
-scale to 10NM
-"CAUTION TERRAIN' or "TERRAIN TERRAIN, PULL UP, PULL UP"
84
"CAUTION, TERRAIN" sounds ____ seconds before terrain conflict.
60
85
"TERRAIN, TERRAIN, PULL UP PULLUP" sounds ____ seconds before terrain conflict.
30
86
For TAWS, orange indicates _____ below and _____ above and red indicates exceeding _____ above aircraft
500, 2000
2000
87
Flaps only extend at which lever positions?
2,3,4,5
88
Slats deploy (further) at which lever positions
1,4,5
89
220 eye to wheel height in feet?
21'
90
Altimeter limit on pre flight cross check
maximum allowable difference between Captain’s and FO altitude display and field elevation is 75 ft
91
Altimeter limit in cruise
200' (RVSM)
92
During take-off phase what speeds are targeted for all engines _____ and single engine _____?
V2 +10 (all engine)
V2 (single engine)
93
On take-off rotation, bank angles in excess of ____ and pitch in excess of ___ may result in striking aircraft nacelle/tail
15 degrees bank
10 degrees pitch
