21. Recombinant DNA Technology Flashcards

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1
Q

What are many human diseases the result of?

A

Individuals being unable to produce for themselves various metabolic chemicals. Many chemicals are proteins, and therefore the product of a gene.

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2
Q

What are the disadvantages from producing large quantities of ‘pure proteins’ from other sources?

A
  • Rejection from immune system

* Considerable cost

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3
Q

What are the advantages from producing large quantities of ‘pure proteins’ from other sources?

A

Being able to cure diseases.
Improved quality of life.
Prolonged lifespan

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4
Q

What is ‘recombinant DNA’?

A

The DNA of 2 organisms that has been combined

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5
Q

What is the resulting organism called which has recombinant DNA?

A

Transgenic/genetically modified organism.

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6
Q

Describe the process of making a protein using gene transfer technology?

A
  1. Isolation of the DNA fragments that have the gene for the desired protein.
  2. Insertion of the new DNA fragment into a vector.
  3. Transformation of DNA into suitable host cells.
  4. Identification of the host cells that have successfully taken up the gene, by gene markers.
  5. Growth/cloning of the population of host cells.
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7
Q

Give examples of methods used to produce DNA fragments

A
  • Conversion of mRNA to cDNA using reverse transcriptase.
  • Using restriction endonucleases to cut fragments containing the desired gene from DNA.
  • Creating the gene in a gene machine which is usually based on a known protein structure.
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8
Q

Describe the process of making DNA from RNA using reverse transcriptase

A
  • A cell that readily produces the protein is selected (e.g. the β-cells from islets of Langerhans from the pancreas produce insulin)
  • These cells have large quantities of the relevant mRNA, which is therefore more easily extracted.
  • Reverse transcriptase is then used to make DNA from RNA. This DNA is known as complementary DNA (cDNA) because it’s made up of the nucleotides that are complementary to the mRNA.
  • To make the other strand of DNA, the enzyme DNA polymerase is used to build up the complementary nucleotides on the cDNA template. This double strand of DNA is the required gene.
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9
Q

What is a restriction endonuclease?

A

Enzymes that bacteria use to defend themselves by cutting up viral DNA.

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10
Q

How do restriction endonucleases produce DNA fragments?

A

Each enzyme cuts a DNA double strand at a specific sequence of bases called a recognition sequence. Sometimes, this cut occurs between 2 opposite base pairs. This leaves 2 straight edges known as blunt ends. Others cut DNA in a staggered fashion. This leaves an uneven cut in which each strand of the DNA has exposed, unpaired bases. If you read 2 sequences of unpaired bases that are opposites of one another they are a palindrome. This is typical of the way restriction endonucleases cut DNA to leave sticky ends.

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11
Q

Describe how the ‘gene machine’ produces DNA fragments

A

•. The amino acid sequence of this protein is determined. From this, the mRNA codons are looked up and the complementary DNA triplets are worked out.
• The desired sequence of nucleotide bases for the gene is fed into a computer.
• The sequence is checked for biosafety and biosecurity.
• The computer designs a series of small, overlapping single strands of nucleotides (oligonucleotides) which can be assembled into the desired gene.
• In an automated process, each of the oligonucleotides
is assembled by adding one nucleotide at a time in the required sequence.
• The oligonucleotides are then joined together to make a gene. This gene doesn’t have introns or other non-coding DNA. The gene is replicated using the polymerase chain reaction.
• The polymerase chain reaction also constructs the complementary strand of nucleotides to make the required double stranded gene. It then multiples this gene many times to give numerous copies.
• Using sticky ends, the gene can then be inserted into a bacterial plasmid. This acts as a vector for the gene allowing it to be stored, cloned or transferred to other organism in the future.
• The genes are checked using standard sequencing techniques and those with errors are rejected.

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12
Q

Give advantages of the gene machine

A

Any sequence of nucleotides can be produced in short time with great accuracy.
DNA free of introns, so can be transcribed and translated by prokaryotic cells.

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13
Q

Define ‘in vivo’ gene cloning

A

Cloning by transferring the fragments to a host cell using a vector.

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14
Q

Define ‘recognition sites’

A

The sequences of DNA cut by restriction endonucleases

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15
Q

Why is it important the same restriction endonuclease is used to cut DNA?

A

If the same restriction endonuclease is used to cut DNA, then all the fragments produce will have ends that are complementary to one another. This means that the single stranded end of into one fragment can be joined to the single-stranded end of another fragment- their ends are sticky. Once the complementary bases of 2 sticky ends have paired up, an enzyme called DNA ligase is used to bind the phosphate-sugar framework of the 2 sections of DNA together.

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16
Q

Why are sticky ends important?

A

Provided the same restriction endonuclease is used, we can combine the DNA of one organism with that of any other organism.

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17
Q

How does the DNA fragment need to be prepared before insertion?

A

For the transcription of any genes to take place, RNA polymerase must attach to the DNA near a gene, to the binding region known as the ‘promoter’. The nucleotide bases of the promotor attach to both RNA polymerase and transcription factors and begin transcription.
Similarly, another region releases RNA polymerase and ends transcription. This region of DNA is known as the ‘terminator’. Both promotor and terminator regions need to be added before DNA insertion.

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18
Q

Describe how DNA is inserted into a plasmid vector

A

Plasmids almost always contain genes for antibiotic resistance, and restriction endonucleases are used at one of these antibiotic-resistance genes to break the plasmid loop.
The restriction endonuclease used is the same as the one that cut out the DNA fragment. This ensures that the sticky ends of the opened up plasmid are complementary to the sticky ends of the DNA fragment.
When the DNA fragments are mixed with the opened up plasmids, they may become incorporated into them. The join is made permanent using the enzyme DNA ligase. These plasmids now have ;’recombinant DNA’.

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19
Q

What does ‘transformation’ mean

A

The incorporated DNA plasmid is reintroduced into host cell. e.g. bacteria.

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20
Q

What makes the membrane of the host cell permeable to the vector?

A
  • Increased temperatures

- Calcium ions

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21
Q

Why might not all of the bacterial cells will possess the DNA fragments with the desired gene for the desired protein?

A
  • Only a few bacterial cells take up the plasmids when the 2 are mixed together
  • Some plasmids will have closed up without incorporating the DNA fragment.
  • Sometimes the DNA fragment ends join together to form its own plasmid.
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22
Q

Describe how to find out which bacterial cells have taken up the plasmid, using the gene for antibiotic resistance, which is unaffected by the introduction of a new gene.

A
  • All the bacterial cells are grown on a medium containing the antibiotic
  • Bacterial cells that have taken up the plasmids will have acquired the gene for antibiotic resistance.
  • These bacterial cells are able to break down the antibiotic and therefore survive.
  • The bacterial cells that have not taken up the plasmids will not be resistant to ampicillin and therefore die.
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23
Q

What is the role of marker genes?

A

Marker genes identify whether a gene has been taken up by plasmids, involves using a 2nd, separate gene on the plasmid.

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24
Q

How do antibiotic resistant genes act as markers to show whether a gene has been incorporated into a plasmid?

A

Replica plating: This process uses the other antibiotic-resistance gene in the plasmid: the gene that was cut in order to incorporate the required gene. The bacteria that has taken up the gene will no longer be resistant to the antibiotic. Problem with testing with antibiotic, such as tetracycline, is that it will destroy the cells containing the required genes, however can use replica technique instead.

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25
Q

How do fluorescent proteins act as markers to show whether a gene has been incorporated into a plasmid?

A

Transfer of gene from a jellyfish: produces protein (GFP). The gene to be cloned is transplanted into the centre of the GFP gene. Any bacterial cell that has taken up the plasmid with the gene to be cloned will not produce GFP and fluoresce. Bacterial cells that have not taken up the gene will continue to produce GFP and fluoresce.

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26
Q

How enzymes act as markers to show whether a gene has been incorporated into a plasmid?

A

E.g. the gene producing the enzyme lactase- will turn colourless substrate blue. The required gene is transplanted into the gene that marks lactase. If a plasmid with the required gene is present in a bacterial cell, the colonies grown from it won’t produce lactase. Therefore, when the bacterial cells are grown on the colourless substrate they will be unable to change its colour. These bacteria can be discounted.

27
Q

Explain the role of a vector during in vivo gene cloning

A

A vector transports genes from one organism into another.

28
Q

Give one advantage of using fluorescent gene markers rather than antibiotic gene markers.

A

Results quickly and easier because with antibiotic resistance markers, the bacterial cells with the required gene are killed, so replica plating is necessary to obtain cells with the gene. With fluorescent gene markers, the bacterial cells are not killed and so there’s no need to carry out replica plating.

29
Q

Define ‘in vitro’ gene cloning

A

Uses the polymerase chain reaction

30
Q

What does PCR mean?

A

Polymerase Chain Reaction

31
Q

What does PCR do?

A

Copies DNA fragments

32
Q

List key requirements for PCR

A
  • DNA fragment
  • DNA polymerase, e.g. taq polymerase
  • Primers, short sequences of nucleotides complementary to those at the end of DNA fragments
  • Nucleotides
  • Thermocycler- computer controlled machine, varies temperatures.
33
Q

Describe the process of PCR

A
  1. Separation of the DNA strand: DNA fragments, primers and DNA polymerase placed in a thermocycler. Temp increased to 95*, causing the 2 strands of DNA to separate due to breaking of hydrogen bonds.
  2. Addition of primers: mixture cooled to 55*, causing primers to anneal to their complementary bases at the end of the DNA fragment. Primers provide sequences for DNA polymerase to start copying DNA, which can only attach nucleotides to the end of an existing chain. Primers also prevent DNA strands re-joining.
  3. DNA synthesis: temp increased to 72*, optimum temp for DNA polymerase to add nucleotides along both strands. Begins at primer, ends at end of chain.
34
Q

What are the advantages of in vitro gene cloning? (PCR)

A
  • Extremely rapid- 100 billion copies of DNA made within hours. Valuable when only minute amount of DNA availbale, e.g. at a crime, no time loss.
  • Doesn’t require living cells- no complex culturing techniques requiring time/effort needed.
35
Q

What are the advantages of in vivo gene cloning? (vector transformation)

A
  • Useful when wish to insert a gene into another organism as involves the use of vectors, useful in gene therapy.
  • Almost no risk of contamination, same enzyme used
  • Very accurate, almost no errors
  • Cuts out specific/desirable gene only
  • Produces transformed bacteria that can be used to produce large quantities of gene products, e.g. proteins for commercial or medial use
36
Q

What are primers

A

Short pieces of DNA that have set bases complementary to those at the end of the DNA fragment to be copied

37
Q

Explain why 2 different primers are required

A

DNA sequences at opposite ends of the 2 strands are different.

38
Q

It’s important in the PCR that the fragments of DNA used are not contaminated with any other biological material. Suggest why.

A

Biological contaminants may contain DNA, which would be copied.

39
Q

What is a DNA probe?

A

A short, single-stranded length of DNA that has some sort of label attached that makes it easily identifiable.

40
Q

What are the 2 most common types of probe?

A
  • Radioactively labelled probes, made up of the isotope 32P. The probe is identified using an X-ray film exposed by radioactivity.
  • Fluorescently labelled probes, which emit light under certain conditions, e.g. when the probe binds to the target DNA sequence.
41
Q

How are DNA probes used to identify particular alleles of genes?

A
  • A DNA probe is made that has base sequences complementary to the part of the base sequence of the DNA that makes up the allele of the gene that we want to find.
  • The double stranded DNA is treated to separate its 2 strands.
  • The separated DNA strands are mixed with the probe, which binds to the complementary base sequence on one of the strands (DNA hybridisation)
  • The site at which the probe binds can be identified by radioactivity/fluoresce that the probe emits.
42
Q

How is DNA separated before probes can attach?

A

DNA heated until the 2 strands of DNA separate (denaturation).

43
Q

Describe the process in which we locate specific alleles of genes

A
  • The sequence of nucleotides on the allele is determined by DNA sequencing. Genetic libraries now store DNA sequences responsible for genetic diseases.
  • A fragment of DNA with complementary bases to the allele of the gene is produced.
  • Multiple copies of the DNA probe is formed by PCR.
  • A DNA probe is made by attaching a marker to the DNA fragment.
  • DNA is heated to separate into 2 strands and cooled in a mixture containing many DNA probes.
  • If the DNA contains the allele one of the probes is likely to bind to it as it has the base sequences complementary to the allele.
  • DNA is washed clean of any unattached probes.
  • The remaining hybridised DNA will now be fluorescently/radioactively labelled.
  • The allele is detected by a special microscope or X-ray
44
Q

Why is it important to genetically screen heterozygous/carriers of a gene?

A

Screening can determine the probabilities of a couple having offspring with a genetic disorder. As a result, potential parents who are at risk can obtain advice from a genetic counsellor about the implications of having children, based on family history and screening.

45
Q

How is it possible to test simultaneously for many different genetic diseases?

A

It’s possible to fix hundreds of different DNA probes in an array on a glass slide. By adding DNA to the array, any complementary DNA sequences will bind to one or more probes. Diseases can be diagnosed by detecting fluoresce that occurs were binding takes place.

46
Q

2 mutations occur to inactivate a tumour suppressor gene, activate an oncogene and cause cancer. Some people can inherit one mutated tumour suppressor gene, increasing their risk of cancer. How might genetic screening help such individuals?

A

If a mutated gene is detected by genetic screening, individuals can make informed decisions about their lifestyle and future treatment. They can choose to give up smoking, lose weight, eat healthily and avoid mutagens as far as possible. They can get check ups regularly, early diagnosis and increased chance of successful treatment.

47
Q

Why is personalised medicine a key advantage to genetic screening?

A

Allows doctors to provide advice and healthcare based on an individual’s genotype. Some gene’s mean its more/less easy to treat a condition. Doctors can give exact dose of drug for desired outcome. Saves money on overprescribing and avoids false hope.

48
Q

Give 2 examples of personalised medicine

A
  • Painkillers: need a specific enzyme to activate them, half the population have genes for function of enzyme.
  • Vitamin E- can reduce/increase the risk of CVD with different genotypes
49
Q

What is genetic counselling?

A

A special form of social work where advice and information are given to help people make decisions about themselves or their children. One important aspect is research into family history of an inherited disease and how it affects offspring. Gives information about the emotional, psychological, medical, social and economic effects of the disease.

50
Q

In the case if cancer, what can screening help to detect?

A
  • Oncogene mutations: determines the type of cancer and hence effective drug/treatment
  • Gene changes that predict when patients are likely to benefit from treatments and have the best chance of survival
  • A single cancer cell amongst millions of normal cells, thus identifying patients at a risk of relapse.
51
Q

What is genetic fingerprinting?

A

A diagnostic tool used widely in forensic science, plant and animal breeding, and medical diagnosis.

52
Q

What are ‘variable number tandem repeats’?

A

Non-coding DNA bases. Every individual has a different length and pattern of VNTRs, except identical twins. More closely related individuals, closer VNTR pattern. Basis of genetic fingerprinting.

53
Q

What is gel electrophoresis?

A

Method used to separate DNA fragments according to size. DNA fragments on agar gel, voltage applied. The resistance of the gel means larger fragments, slower movement. Final position determined by X-ray.

54
Q

Only DNA fragments up to around 500 bases long can be sequenced this way. Explain how longer fragments are sequenced?

A

Larger genes and whole genomes must be cut into smaller fragments by restriction endonucleases.

55
Q

Describe the process of gel electrophoresis

A
  • DNA extracted from sample
  • Restriction endonucleases cut DNA into fragments
  • Fragments separated using gel electrophoresis. When voltage applied, larger fragments move furthest.
  • DNA fragments transferred from gel to nylon membrane.
  • Radioactive DNA probes added to label the fragments, which attach to specific fragments.
  • The membrane is attached to an X-ray film.
  • Development of X-ray film reveals dark bands where radioactive DNA probes have attached.
56
Q

Describe how genetic fingerprinting is used in paternity testing

A

Children inherit half material from mother, half from father. Each band on a DNA fingerprint should have a corresponding band in their parents fingerprint.

57
Q

Describe how genetic fingerprinting is used in determining genetic variability of a population

A

The more closely 2 individuals are related, the closer the resemblance of their genetic fingerprints. Population with similar fingerprints, has little genetic diversity.

58
Q

Describe how genetic fingerprinting is used in forensic science

A

DNA, e.g. blood, taken from crime scene and matched with individuals DNA.

59
Q

How far is forensic fingerprinting limited?

A

Proves someone was present at scene, although doesn’t prove they committed the crime. The DNA could also belong to a close relative or be contaminated after the crime.

60
Q

Describe how genetic fingerprinting can be used in medical diagnosis

A

A sample of DNA from a person with the allele for a disease can be cut with restriction endonuclease and DNA fingerprint prepared. This can then be matched with fingerprints of individuals with various forms of the disease and those without the disease. Probability and time of developing symptoms can be determined.

61
Q

How is genetic fingerprinting used in plant/animal breeding?

A

Genetic fingerprinting identifies a desirable gene. Individuals with this allele can be selected for breeding in order to increase probability of having offspring with the characteristic.

62
Q

Explain how genetic fingerprinting can be used to avoid interbreeding

A

Genetic fingerprints cam determine how closely any 2 individuals are related. The closer the match between their fingerprints, the closer they are related. Therefore, to avoid the problems caused by interbreeding, it’s advisable to mate animals whose genetic fingerprints differ the most.

63
Q

Suggest how chemicals that affect the action of restriction endonucleases can alter the genetic fingerprint of a DNA sample

A

The chemicals may inhibit some of the restriction endonucleases, which would then fail to cut some sections of DNA. There would therefore be a greater number of longer DNA fragments than normal and the fingerprint would be different.

64
Q

Suggest how the genetic fingerprint of someone with the allele for Huntington’s disease may differ from someone who doesn’t have the allele

A

In a person with the allele for Huntington’s disease, some DNA fragments would be larger than those in a person without the allele because of the extra repeating units on the gene. These will travel a shorter distance in the electrophoresis gel and so there will be more thick bands near the start of the fingerprint.