2023.03 Flashcards
Q1 Which of the following statements is correct as the explanation of obstacle markings?
(1) Any person who has installed an object with the height of 60 meters or more above the ground or the water must install obstacle markings upon the object pursuant to the provisions of Order of the
Ministry of Land, infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.
(2) Obstacle markings must be installed on all chimneys, steel towers, columns, and other objects
whose width is extremely narrow compare to their height, which are considered difficult to be
perceived from aircraft in the light of day.
(3) Obstacte markings must include paint colors, flags and signs.
(4) Obstacle markings must be installed on objects which require installation of high intensity
obstruction lights.
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Q2 Which of the following statements is incorrect as the response to be made in the event of failure of the telecommunication device during flight under the instrument flight rules concerning Article 206 (Air
Navigation in Case of Communication System Failure) of the Regulation for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act?
(1) The aircraft was in visual meteorological conditions, and landed at the nearest airport, etc., where it was deemed possible to land safely.
(2) The aircraft was in visual meteorological conditions. However, since the pilot was not sure whether or not the visual meteorological conditions would be maintained until the aircraft landed at the nearest airport, the aircraft headed for the destination in accordance with the obtained clearance.
(3) Since the aircraft was in instrument meteorological conditions, it headed for the destination in accordance with the obtained clearance, and immediately changed its altitude from the last altitude
designated to the altitude specified in the notified flight plan.
(4) Since the aircraft was flying on a course deviating from an approved course in accordance with
instructions from the control authorities, the aircraft headed for the nearest reporting point on the approved course and returned to the course.
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Q3 Which of the following statements on the aviation medical certification is incorrect?
(1) The beginning date of the period of validity of an aviation medical certificate shall be the date when a medical examination was taken (starting date of the examination). However, the beginning date for the renewal shall be the issuance date.
(2) If a new aviation medical certificate is issued for renewal and is received, the period of vatidity of the old aviation medical certificate before renewal is regarded as having expired even if the period of validity has not expired, and only the new aviation medical certificate after renewal is valid.
(3) No member of the flight crew of an aircraft shall, when he/she becomes physically unfit under the medical examination standards, engage in air navigation services, even if hisher aviation medical certificate is still valid.
(4) If the airman having an aviation medical certificate has changed his/her registered domicile, address or name, he/she may apply for its reissuance.
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Q4 How many of the following statements (a) to (d) on the operation of aircraft lights in accordance with the Civil Aeronautics Act and the Regulation for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act are correct? Choose from (1) to (4) below. a
(a) The anti-collision lights, and navigation lights (position lights) were lit during navigation in a night flight. To prevent dazzling in clouds, only the anti-collision lights were turned off.
(b) Since the apron floodlights were lit at night, the anti-collision lights and navigation lights (position lights) were turned off after engine shutdown.
(c) While taxiing in an airport at night, aircraft equipped with LOGO lights must have themlit.
(d) During the time of airport operation at night, the navigation lights (position lights) must be lit without
exception even while the aircraft is parked.
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
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Q5 Which of the follawing statements regarding the authority, etc. of the pilot-in-command is incorrect?
(1) The pilot-in-command may, when a danger occurs or he/she deems a danger to be likely to occur to the aircraft or passengers, order the passengers on board regarding the procedures for evacuation or other matters necessary for safety.
(2) The pilot-in-command may, when any person conducts a safety impeding act during flight of the aircraft, order another passenger to restrain that person.
(3) The pilot-in-command shall, when an emergent danger occurs to the aircraft during flight, employ every possible means necessary for rescuing passengers and preventing injury or damage to persons or objects on the land or water.
(4) The pilot-in-command shall direct and supervise those who perform their duties on board the aircraft.
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Q6 Of the aircraft from (1) to (4) that must be boarded by two flight crew capable of performing pilotage of the corresponding aircraft, which of the following statements is correct according to Article 65 (Flight crew to Be on Board Aircraft) of the Civil Aeronautics Act?
(1) Aircraft for which, because of its structure, complete handling of engines and airframes cannot be Provided only by the pilot
(2) Aircraft which is engaged in a non-stop flight over a section of 550 kilometers or more (other than that which is equipped with navigation equipment or the like as specified by Ordinances of Ministry
of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism)
(3) Aircraft which is used for air transport of passengers and which engages ina flight, the duration of
which exceeds 3 hours
(4) Aircraft which is used for air transport of passengers and engages in flights under instrument flight
rules
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Q7 Which of the following explanations of aerodrome markings such as those installed at landairports, as specified in Article 79 (Criteria for Establishing Airports) of the Regulation for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act, is incorrect?
(1) Runway threshold markings are installed on runways for instrument landing of land-based aerodromes, etc.
(2) If runway threshold markings are instailed, vertical stripes are laid according to the classification of widths, and the number of vertical stripes is 16 on runways with a width of 60 meters.
(3) Stopway markings (chevron markings) are installed on paved overrun areas that are constructed only with the aim of reducing damage to aircraft caused by deviation from a runway of land-based aerodromes, etc.
(4) Touchdown zone markings are installed only on runways for instrument landing with a length of 1,200 meters or more of land-based aerodromes, etc.
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Q8 How many of the following statements (a) to (d) on the right of way between aircrafts are correct? Choose from (1) to (4) below.
(a) The rights of way of an aeroplane and rotorcraft are of the same order. However, if the aircraft is towing an object, it has the right of way over an aeroplane or rotorcraft that is not towing an object.
(b) Except during an avoidance manoeuver in accordance with RA of TCAS, an aircraft having the right of way must maintain its course, altitude and speed.
(c) Between aircrafts approaching the airport for landing, aircraft approaching under the instrument flight rules shail have the right of way over aircraft intending to land under the visual flight rules.
(d) When the flight paths of two aircrafts with equal priority intersect or come close to each other, the aircraft that sees the other aircraft to its left shall yield its flight path to the other.
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
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Q9 Which of the following statements on the meteorological conditions of an airport in a control zone in take-off or landing in accordance with visual flight rules at the airport is correct?
(1) Flight visibility is 8,000 meters or more.
(2) Ground visibility or flight visibility is 5,000 meters or more.
(3) The height of clouds is 300 meters or more above the ground surface or water surface.
(4) The height of clouds is 150 meters or more above the aerodrome altitude, and the aircraft can fly
away from the clouds.
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Q10 Which of the following statement regarding airworthiness certification is incorrect?
(1) Airworthiness certification shall specify the use and operating of aircraft.
(2) The period of validity of an airworthiness certificate shall be one year; provided, however, that the
period of validity of such airworthiness certificate with regard to aircraft used for air transport services shall be the period specified by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.
(3) No aircraft may be used for air navigation unless they are granted valid airworthiness certification; provided, however, that the same shall not apply to any person when permitted performing test flights etc. by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.
(4) A new airworthiness certificate must be obtained when the aircraft registration is transferred.
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Q11 How many of the following items (a) to (d) are knowledge and skills a pilot-in-command should possess pursuant to Article 72 (Requirements of Pilot-in-Command on Board an Aircraft Used for Air Transport Services) of the Civil Aeronautics Act are correct? Choose from (1) to (4) below.
(a) Pre-flight checks
(b) Aviation English Proficiency Certification
(c) Supervision of flight crew-members and cabin crew-members
(d) Safety management of aircraft operations including measures to deter safety-threatening behavior
etc. and crisis measures
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
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Q12 Which of the following statements regarding the recent flight experience of a pilot engaged in
operating aircraft used for air transport services is correct?
(1) A pilot engaged in operating aircraft used for air transport services must have experience of six
night-time take-offs and six night-time landings in aircraft of the same type used for air transport services, or of a similar type to the said type, within the 180 days prior to the day on which the pilot is carrying out pilot duties.
(2) Flight crew-members carrying out instrument flight shall have instrument flight experience
(including simulated instrument flight) of 5 hours or longer within the 180 days prior to the day of the flight.
(3) Flight crew-members carrying out instrument flight shall have instrument flight experience (including simulated instrument flight) of 3 hours or longer within the 90 daysprior to the day of the flight.
(4) Apilot engaged in operating aircraft used for air transport services must have experience of three take-offs and three landings in aircraft of the same type used for air transport services, or of a similar type to the said type, within the 90 days prior to the day on which the pilot is carrying out pilot duties.
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Q13 Which of the following statements is correct as the description of a measure to be taken by the pilot- in-commanid if the aircraft flies in violation of air traffic instructions due to unavoidable circumstances such as change in weather conditions, etc.?
(1) Land at the nearest aerodrome and report to control authorities in writing withoutdelay.
(2) Notify the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism to that effect after arriving at the
destination.
(3) Report to the air traffic control provider that issued the instruction without delay.
(4) Report to the flight dispatcher without delay.
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Q14 How many of the following events (a) to (d) that fall under the stipulations in Article 166-4 (Reporting on Cases that are Likely to Cause an Accident) of the Regulation for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act are correct? Choose from (1) to (4) below.
(a) Landing on a runway different from a runway designated by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism, or an attempt to land on such a runway
(b) A case where the cowling, wing tip, or any other part of the aircraft other than the landing gear comes in contact with the ground surface in landing
(c) Abnormal decompression inside an aircraft
(d) Acase where aircraft crew become unable to perform services normally during flight due to injury
or illness
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
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Q15 Which of the following items is not mentioned in Article 198-2 (Flights that may Interfere with the Safety in Air Traffic Control) of theRegulation for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act?
(1) Flight involving frequent changes in aircraft attitude (2) Flight that induces stall
(3) Flight that radically changes altitude
(4) Extremely high speed flight
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