2023.01 Flashcards
Q1 Regarding Article 71-3 (Pilot Competency Assessment etc.) of the Civil Aeronautics Act, a pilot is approved to have passed the pilot competency assessment for the category of aircraft which the
person intends to operate and is not required to take the pilot competency assessment by the pilot
competency assessor in the following cases. Which one is incorrect?
(1) When the person has obtained a flight instructor certificate
(2) When the person has obtained a pilot competence certificate
(3) When the person’s pilot competence certificate rating has changed
(4) When the person has passed a competency assessment conducted by a Japanese air carrier
based on its operation manual
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Q2 Which of the following statements is incorrect as the response to be made in the event of failure of the telecommunication device during flight under the instrument flight rules concerning Article 206 (Air
Navigation in Case of Communication Equipment Failure) of the Regulation for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act?
(1) The aircraft was in visual meteoralogical conditions, and landed at the nearest airport, etc., where it was deemed possible to land safely.
(2) The aircraft was in visual meteorological conditions. However, since the pilot was not sure whether or not the visual meteorological conditions would be maintained until the aircraft landed at the nearest airport, the aircraft headed for the destination in accordance with the obtained clearance.
(3) Since the aircraft was in instrument meteorological conditions, it headed for the destination in accordance with the obtained clearance, and immediately changed its altitude from the ast altitude
designated to the altitude specified in the notified flight plan.
(4) Since the aircraft was flying on a course deviating from an approved course in accordance with
instructions from the control authorities, the aircraft headed for the nearest reporting point on the approved course and returned to the course.
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Q3 Which of the following statements on the aviation medical certification is incorrect?
(1) The beginning date of the period of validity of an aviation medical certificate shall be the date when a medical examination was taken (starting date of the examination). However, the beginning date for the renewal shall be the issuance date.
If a new aviation medical certificate is issued for renewal and is received, the period of validity of the old aviation medical certificate before renewal is regarded as having expired even if the period of validity has not expired, and only the new aviation medical certificate after renewal is valid.
(3) No member of the flight crew of an aircraft shail, when he/she becomes physically unfit under the medical examination standards, engage in air navigation services, even if his/her aviation medical certificate is still valid.
(4= If the airman having an aviation medical certificate has changed his/her registered domicile, address or name, he/she may apply for its reissuance.
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Q4 How many of the following statements (a) to (d) on the operation of aircraft lights in accordance with the Civil Aeronautics Act and the Regulation for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act are correct? Choose from (1) to (4) below.
(a) The anti-collision and navigation lights (position lights) werelit during navigation in a night flight. To prevent dazzling in clouds, only the anti-collision lights were turned off.
(b) Since the apron floodlights were lit, the anti-collision lights and navigation lights (position lights) were turned off after engine shutdown.
(c) While taxiing in an airport at night, aircraft equipped with LOGO lights must have them lit.
(d) During the time of airport operation at night, the navigation lights (position lights) must be lit without
exception even while the aircraft is parked.
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
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Q5 Which of the following statements regarding the authority, etc. of the pilot-in-command is incorrect?
(1) The pilot-in-command may, when a danger occurs or he/she deems a danger to be likely to occur to the aircraft or passengers, order the passengers on board regarding the procedures for evacuation or other matters necessary for safety.
(2) The pilot-in-command may, when any person conducts a safety impeding act during flight of the aircraft, order another passenger to restrain that person.
(3) The pilot-in-command shall, when an emergent danger occurs to the aircraft during flight, employ every possible means necessary for rescuing passengers and preventing injury or damage to persons or objects on the land or water.
(4) The pilot-in-command shail direct and supervise those who perform their duties on board the aircraft.
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Q6 Of the aircraft from (1) to (4) that must be boarded by two flight crew capable of performing pilotage of the corresponding aircraft, which of the following statements is correct according to Article 65 (Flight crew to Be on Board Aircraft) of the Civil Aeronautics Act?
(1) Aircraft for which, because of its structure, complete handling of engines and airframes cannot be provided only by the pilot
(2) Aircraft which is engaged in a non-stop flight over a section of 550 kilometers or more (other than that which is equipped with navigation equipment or the like as specified by Ordinances of Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism)
(3) Aircraft which is used for air transport of passengers and which engages ina flight, the duration of which exceeds 3 hours
(4) Aircraft which is used for air transport of passengers and engages in flights under instrument flight tules
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Q7 Which of the following explanations of aerodrome markings such as those installed at land airports, as specified in Article 79 (Criteria for Establishing Airports) of the Regulation for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act, is incorrect?
(1) Runway threshold markings are installed on runways for instrument landing of land-based aerodromes, etc.
(2) If runway threshold markings are installed, vertical stripes are laid according to the classification of runway widths, and the number of vertical stripes is 16 on runways with a width of 60 meters.
(3) Stopway markings (chevron markings) are installed on paved overrun areas that are constructed only with the aim of reducing damage to aircraft caused by deviation from a runway of land-based aerodromes, etc.
(4) Touchdown zone markings are installed only on runways for instrument landing with a length of 1,200 meters or more of land-based aerodromes, etc.
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Q8 How many of the following statements (a) to (d) on the right of way between aircraft are correct? Choose from (1) to (4) below.
(a) The rights of way of an aeroplane and rotorcraft are of the same order. However, if the aircraft is towing an object, it has the right of way over an aeroplane or rotorcraft that is not towing an object.
(b) Except during an avoidance manoeuver in accordance with RA of TCAS, an aircraft having the right of way must maintain its course, altitude and speed.
(c) Between aircraft approaching the airport for landing, aircraft approaching under the instrument flight rules shall have the right of way over aircraft intending to land under the visual flight rules.
(d) When the flight paths of two aircraft with equal priority intersect or come close to each other, the aircraft that sees the other aircraft to its left shall yield its flight path to the other.
(1) 1 (2) 2 3) 3 (4) 4
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Q9 Which of the following statements on the meteorological conditions of an airport in a contro! zone in take-off or landing in accordance with visual flight rules at the airport is correct?
(1) Flight visibility is 8,000 meters or more.
(2) Ground visibility or flight visibility is 5,000 meters or more.
(3) The height of clouds is 300 meters or more above the ground surface or water surface.
(4) The height of clouds is 150 meters or more above the aerodrome altitude, and the aircraft canfly
away from the clouds.
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Q10 Which of the following statement regarding airworthiness certification is incorrect?
(1) Airworthiness certification shall specify the use and operating limitations of aircraft.
(2) The period of validity of an airworthiness certificate shall be one year; provided, however, that the
period of validity of such airworthiness certificate with regard to aircraft used for air transport services shall be the period specified by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.
(3) No aircraft may be used for air navigation unless they are granted valid airworthiness certification; provided, however, that the same shall not apply to any person when permitted performing test flights etc. by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.
(4) Anew airworthiness certificate must be obtained when the aircraft registration is transferred.
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Q11 How many of the following items (a) to (d) are knowledge and skills a pilot-in-command should
possess pursuant to Article 72 (Requirements of Pilot-in-Command on Board an Aircraft Used for Air
Transport Services) of the Civil Aeronautics Act are correct? Choose from (1) to (4) below. (a) Pre-flight checks
(b) Aviation English Proficiency Certification
(c) Supervision of flight crew-members and cabin crew-members
(d) Safety management of aircraft operations including measures to deter safety-threatening behavior etc. and crisis measures
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
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Q12 Which of the following statements regarding the recent flight experience of a pilot engaged in operating aircraft used for air transport services is correct?
(1) engaged in operating aircraft used for air transport services must have experience of six night-time take-offs and six night-time landings in aircraft of the same type used for air transport services, within the 180 days prior to the day on which the pilot is carrying out pilot duties.
(2) Flight crew members carrying out instrument flight shail have instrument flight experience (including simulator flight) of 5 hours or longer within the 180 days prior to the day of the flight.
(3) Flight crew members carrying out instrument flight shall have instrument flight experience {including simulator flight) of 3 hours or longer within the 90 days prior to the day of the flight.
(4) A pilot engaged in operating aircraft used for air transport services must have experience of three take-offs and three landings in aircraft of the same type used for air transport services, or of a similar type to the said type, within the 90 days prior to the day on which the pilot is carrying out pilot duties.
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Q13 Which of the following statements on the speeds described under Article 179 (Speed Limitation in Air Traffic Contro! Zones) of the Regulation for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act is incorrect?
(1) The indicated air speed is 200 knots in the air traffic control zone.
(2) No provisions are set forth for the air traffic information zone.
(3) The indicated air speed is 250 knots at altitudes not more than 3,000 meters in the approach
control area.
(4) Speed limitations are not defined for each aircraft category and engine model.
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Q14 How many of the following events (a) to (d) that fall under the stipulations in Article 166-4 (Reporting on Cases that are Likely to Cause an Accident) of the Regulation for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act are correct? Choose from (1) to (4) below.
(a) Landing on a runway different from a runway designated by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism, or an attempt to land on such a runway
(b) A case where the cowling, wing tip, or any other part of the aircraft other than the landing gear comes in contact with the ground surface in landing
(c) (d)
Abnormal decompression inside an aircraft
Acase where aircraft crew become unable to perform services normally during flight due to injury or illness
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
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Q15 Which of the following provisionsof Article 198-2 (Flights that may Interfere with the Safety in Air Traffic Control) of the Regulation for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act is incorrect?
(1) Flight involving frequent changes in aircraft attitude
(2) Flight that induces stali
(3) Flight that radically changes altitude
(4) Extremely high speed flight
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