2022.11 Flashcards
Q1 Which of the following is not consistent with the requirements under Article 1 (Purpose of This Act) of the Civil Aeronautics Act?
(1) Conform to the provisions of the Convention on International Civil Aviation as well as the Annexes hereto.
(2) Ensure the Safety of aircraft and Prevent problems arising from navigation of aircraft.
(3) Ensure transportation Safety and improve convenience for users of aircraft by ensuring economic
management of businesses run using the aircraft.
(4) Enhance public welfare by promoting the development of civil and general aviation.
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Q2 Which of the following statements is not Consistent with the requirements under Article 68 (Standards of Crew Assignment) of the Civil Aeronautics Act?
(1) The conditions on the route navigated by the aircraft and the distance between airports, etc. used on that route shall be taken into account.
(2) The assigned hours and work hours other than the assigned hours shall be allotted in a manner not to impede the safety of navigation of the aircraft due to fatigue.
(3) Concerning the pilot, the number of other pilots who are also on duty and the presence of crew- members other than pilots who are on board the same aircraft shall be taken into account.
(4) If passengers are to be transported, the flight duration on the navigation route shall be considered for the number of cabin crew members.
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Q3 Which of the following statements on the aviation medical certification is incorrect?
(1) The beginning date of the period of validity of an aviation medical certificate shall be the date when a medical examination is taken (starting date of the examination). However, the beginning date for the renewal shall be the issuance date.
(2) If a new aviation medical certificate is issued for renewal and is received, the period of validity of the old aviation medical certificate before renewal is regarded as having expired even if the period of validity has not expired, and only the new aviation medical certificate after renewal is valid.
(3) No member of the flight crew of an aircraft shall, when he/she becomes physically unfit to the medical examination standards, engage in air navigation services, even if his/her aviation medical certificate is still valid.
(4) If the airman having an aviation medical certificate has changed his/her registered domicile, address or name, he/she may apply for its reissuance.
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Q4 How many of the following statements (a) to (d) regarding Aviation English Proficiency Certification are correct? Choose from (1) to (4) below.
(a) In the case where an aircraft is used for air transport services and requires two pilots, even if the aircraft is operated only inside Japan, the pilot in command is required to obtain an aviation English proficiency certificate.
(b) When a flight operation that requires an aviation English proficiency certificate is carried out using
an aircraft that requires two pilots, only one of the pilots needs to have an aviation English proficiency certificate.
(c) The categories of aircraft that require an aviation English proficiency certificate are airplane and
airship.
(d) The validity period of aviation English proficiency certificate varies depending on the certified
levels.
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
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Q5 Which of the following statements on the speeds prescribed under Article 179 (Speed Limitation in Air Traffic Control Zones etc.) of the Regulation for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act is correct?
(1) The indicated air speed is 250 knots in the air traffic control zone.
(2) The indicated air speed is 250 knots in the air traffic information zone.
(3) The indicated air speed is 250 knots in the approach control area.
(4) The indicated air speed is 250 knots in all airspaces at altitudes not more than 3,000 meters.
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Q6 The following are provisions of Article 149 (Equipment for Recording Aircraft Operational Parameters) of the Regulation for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act. Which one is correct as a description of the period of operation of the devices required to be installed?
(1) The cockpit voice recorder shall be operated continuously over the period from the commencement of the take-off run to the completion of the landing run.
(2) The flight data recorder shall be operated continuously over the period from the commencement of engine operation for the purpose of flight to the cessation of engine operation.
(3) Any device capable of recording the content of data link communication shall be operated continuously for the same period as the period required for the cockpit voice recorder.
(4) Even if the aircraft is required to be equipped with a device for recording aircraft operations, the recording device need not be actuated during operation with the aircrew only.
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Q7 Which of the following explanations of aerodrome markings such as those installed at land airports, as specified in Article 79 (Criteria for Establishing Airports) of the Regulation for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act, is incorrect?
(1) Runway threshold markings are installed on runways for instrumental landing of land-based aerodromes, etc.
(2) If runway threshold markings are installed, vertical stripes are laid according to the classification of tunway widths, and the number of vertical stripes is 16 on runways with a width of 60 meters.
(3) Stopway markings are installed on paved overrun areas that are constructed only with the aim of reducing damage to aircraft caused by deviation from a runway of land-based aerodromes, etc.
(4) Touchdown zone markings are installed only on runways for instrumental landing with a length of 1,200 meters or more of land-based aerodromes, etc.
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Q8 How many of the following statements (a) to (d) on the right of way between aircraft are correct? Choose from (1) to (4) below.
(a) The rights of way of an aeroplane and rotorcraft are of the same order. However, if the aircraft is towing an object, it has the right of way over an aeroplane or rotorcraft that is not towing an object. (b) Except during an avoidance maneuver in accordance with a TCAS RA, an aircraft having the right
of way must maintain its course, altitude and speed.
(c) When two aircraft are approaching an airport for landing, one shall not cut in front of or overtake the other on the final approach path.
(d) When the flight paths of two aircraft with equal priority intersect or come close to each other, the aircraft that sees the other to its right shall yield its flight path to the other.
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
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Q9 Of the aircraft from (a) to (d) that must be boarded by two aircrew capable of performing pilotage of the corresponding aircraft, how many are correct statements according to Article 65 (Aircrew to Be on Board the Aircraft) of the Civil Aeronautics Act? Choose from (1) to (4) below,
(a) Aircraft requiring two people for pilotage due to structural considerations
(b) Aircraft requiring two people for pilotage for flights in line with special methods and rules and
engaging in such flights
(c) Aircraft used for passenger transport and engaging in flights under instrument flight rules (d) Aircraft used for passenger transport and engaging in flights exceeding three hours
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
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Q10 Which of the following statements regarding the recent flight experience of a pilot engaged in
operating aircraft used for air transport services is correct?
(1) A pilot engaged in operating aircraft used for air transport services must have experience of six
night-time take-offs and six night-time landings in aircraft of the same type used for air transport services, or of a similar type to the said type, within the 180 days prior to the day on which the pilot is carrying out pilot duties.
(2) Flight crew-members carrying out instrument flight shall have instrument flight experience (including simulated instrument flight) of 5 hours or longer within the 180 days prior to the day of the flight.
(3) Flight crew-members carrying out instrument flight shall have instrument flight experience {including simulated instrument flight) of 3 hours or longer within the 90 days prior to the day of the flight.
(4) A pilot engaged in operating aircraft used for air transport services must have experience of three take-offs and three landings in aircraft of the same type used for air transport services, or of a similar type to the said type, within the 90 days prior to the day on which the pilot is carrying out pilot duties.
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Q11 Regarding Article 71-3 (Pilot Competency Assessment etc.) of the Civil Aeronautics Act, a pilot is approved to have passed pilot competency assessment for the category of aircraft which the person intends to operate and is not required to take the pilot competency assessment by the pilot competency assessor in the following cases. Which one is incorrect?
(1) When the person has obtained a flight instructor certificate
(2) When the person has obtained a pilot competence certificate
(3) When the person’s pilot competence certificate rating has changed.
(4) When the person has passed a competency assessment conducted by a Japanese air carrier
based on its operation manual
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Q12 Which of the following statements regarding the obligation, authority, etc. of the pilot-in-command is incorrect?
(1) The pilot-in-command may, when a danger occurs or he/she deems to a danger to be likely to occur to the aircraft or passengers, order the passengers on board regarding the procedures for evacuation or other matters necessary for safety.
(2) The pilot-in-command may, when any person conducts a safety impeding act during flight of the aircraft, order another passenger to restrain that person.
(3) The pilot-in-command shall, when an emergent danger occurs to the aircraft during flight, employ every possible means necessary for rescuing passengers and preventing injury or damage to persons or objects on the land or water.
(4) The pilot-in-command shall direct and supervise those who perform their duties on board the aircraft.
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Q13 Which of the following statements on airworthiness certification is correct?
(1) Airworthiness certification describes the categories of aircraft use or aircraft operating limitations.
(2) The period of validity of an airworthiness certificate is to be one year; however, the period of validity of that airworthiness certificate with regard to aircraft used for aerial work services or air transport services is indefinite.
(3) No person may operate an aircraft unless it has a valid airworthiness certificate; provided,
however, that the same does not apply to any person when permitted to perform test flights, etc. by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.
(4) Anew airworthiness certificate must be obtained when the aircraft registration is transferred.
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Q14 How many of the following events (a) to (d) fall under the stipulations in Article 166-4 (Reporting on Cases that are Likely to Cause an Accident) of the Regulation for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act are correct? Choose from (1) to (4) below.
(a) Abnormal decompression inside an aircraft
(b) Overrun, undershoot or deviation from a runway (limited to when an aircraft is unable to taxi
(c) Asituation requiring reporting of minimum fuel
(d) A situation in which an aircraft cowling, wing tip or any part other than landing gear touches the
ground during landing
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
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Q15 Which of the following statements relating to Navigation Rules in the Vicinity of Airport of the Regulation for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act is incorrect?
(1) An aircraft under instrument flight rules shall not take off when the meteorological conditions at the airport, etc. do not meet the minimum conditions for take-off.
(2) Even in the case that the meteorological conditions do not meet the minimum conditions for continuing the landing approach at the airport, etc., when an aircraft passes a specific location above the approach height threshold, the landing approach may be continued to the approach height threshold when instrument flight rules are being used for landing.
(3) The landing approach shall not be continued when instrument flight rules are being used for landing and the position of an aircraft cannot be confirmed by means of continuous visual contact and recognition of visua! references at the approach height threshold or a tower altitude.
(4) An aircraft shall follow the approach procedure based on the instrument flight rules and the flight procedure established for the relevant airport, etc.
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