2023 Flashcards

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1
Q

what viral agent of gastroenteritis has a single-stranded RNA genome and undergoes two pahses of translation like coronaviruses

A

norovirus

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2
Q

what is a role of the HIV gp120 protein

A

binding to CD4 on host cell surfaces

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3
Q

HIV mutates rapidly during an infection due to errors by which enzyme

A

viral reverse transcriptase

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4
Q

what is the role of the HIV gp41 protein

A

fusion of viral and cellular membranes during viral entry

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5
Q

in a study that I described in class, blood samples were taken monthly over a 39 month period from patients infected with HIV to follow the virus replicating in the patients’ systems and the patients’ antibody response. The patients became infected with HIV in month 0. What is a valid conclusion from the study?

A

month 12 plasma has anti-HIV antibodies that react strongly to month 0 virus but not month 12 virus

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6
Q

how could the adenovirus E1b protein play a role in carcinogenesis

A

binds p53 and prevents activation in response to DNA damage

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7
Q

which of the following is diagnostic for infection with human papilloma virus

A

koilocytic cells

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8
Q

what is the cause of respiratory papillomatosis

A

warts of the oropharnyx caused by human papillomavirus infection

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9
Q

what is not a defining property of herpesviridae family members

A

bring an RNA dependent RNA polymerase into a newly infected cell

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10
Q

which virus is spread by respiratory transmission

A

varicella-zoster virus

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11
Q

infection by which Human Herpes Viruses causes the following oral manifestations: painful sore throat at onset of infection, rash at the junction of hard and soft palates, and white pseudomembrane on the tonsils?

A

EBV only

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12
Q

infection with which herpesvirus is commonly diagnosed by detection of heterophile antibody

A

EBV

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13
Q

during hepatitis B virus infection, infectious viral particles are released from cells. what is a property of these particles

A

42nm diameter particles containing HBs antigen

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14
Q

an individual who had a prior acute infection with HBV that completely resolved would display which of the follow serological properties

A

presence of anti-HBs antibodies combined with lack of detectable HBs and HBe antigens

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15
Q

what virus does not create “giant cells” during the cource of an infection

A

hepatitis A virus

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16
Q

what virus does not invade neurons

A

respiratory syncytial virus

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17
Q

which drug blocks release of influenza A virus from an infected cell

A

tamiflu

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18
Q

how does remdesivir, a drug for treating covid-19 act as an antiviral

A

is a nucleoside analog that inhibits viral RNA-dependent RNA

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19
Q

how does paxlovid, a drug for treating covid-19 act as an antiviral

A

is an inhibitor of viral protease

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20
Q

how does amantidine block infection by influenza A virus

A

inhibits viral disassembly in endosomes

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21
Q

passive immunization is used for all of the following except

A

to elicit production of secretory antibodies

22
Q

which vaccine protects solely or principally by induction of serum antibodies

A

tetanus vaccine

23
Q

what strategy has been used to create a successful vaccine against haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib)

A

creating a vaccine from Hib capsular polysaccharide linked to a diphtheria toxoid molecule as the antigens

24
Q

how does the monoclonal antibody drug, first apporved in november 2020 for treating COVID-19 (with a new version approved more recently) act as an antiviral

A

binds spike (S) protein of SARS-CoB-2, blocking virions from interacting with ACE2 receptor

25
Q

which of the following is not true about Creuzfeldt-jakob disease (CJD)?

A

CJD is highly contagious

26
Q

what disease is caused by the conversion of a normal human protein to a form that aggregates as amyloid fibrils

A

fatal familial insomnia

27
Q

this fungus produces a thick capsule which is observed under the microscope with india ink staining

A

cryptococcus neoformans

28
Q

how does the anti-fungal fluconazole work

A

inhibiting cytochrome P450-dependent 14-alpha-lanosterol demethylation

29
Q

which fungal staining method dissolves host tissue but leaves fungal cells intact

A

potassium hydroxide treatment

30
Q

which characterisitic is not associated with fungi

A

cell walls contain N-acetyl-muramic acid polymers

31
Q

for fungi, to what does the term dimorphism refer

A

capability to grow as a yeast or mold

32
Q

which form of oral candidiasis involves superficial fungal growth with easily removeable plaques of fungi

A

acute pesudomembranous

33
Q

infection by which organism is not associated with the formation of granulomas in the lung

A

sporothrix schenkii

34
Q

which of the following is associated with coccidioides immitis

A

chronic meningitis

35
Q

what is meant by a definitive host when referring to a parasitic organism

A

the host in which the parasite’s sexual reproduction phase occurs

36
Q

what is a property assoicated with plasmodium falciparum

A

invades and lyses red blood cells

37
Q

the anaerobic metabolism of some protozoal pathogens makes them susceptible to which drug

A

metronidazole

38
Q

which genus contains the most commonly sexually transmitted protozoan disease agent

A

trichomonas

39
Q

salmonella-shigella agar (SS) is an example of which type of culture medium used for diagnosis of a bacterial infection

A

selective medium

40
Q

the “specificity” of a diagnositic-test measures the percentage of

A

true negative test results among the total of the true negative plus false positives

41
Q

what is the order of components for an ELISA test for microbial antigen detection in a patient blood serum sample? order reads right to left in answer choices. Step K= enzyme substrate added Step M= patient serum added Step X= enzyme conjugated antibody specific to antigen added

A

laboratory produced antibody specific for antigen bound to well surface; Step M; Step X; Step K

42
Q

what is the basis for a positive test result in a latex agglutination test for a pathogen?

A

presence of pathogen antigens in a sample cause agglutination of latex beads

43
Q

what is the morbidity rate for a disease

A

number of new cases in a specific time period per unit of population

44
Q

what does the term R0 mean with respect to the epidemiology of an infectious disease

A

the number of secondary cases that one cause of the disease would produce in a completely susceptible population

45
Q

in airborne disease transmission, what is a property of droplet nucle

A

particles of 4 micrometers or less in diameter

46
Q

what is true about a propagated epidemic

A

the number of cases begins to fall once the umber of susceptible individuals falls below the threshold density

47
Q

“universal precautions” means that

A

all patients are treated as though they are a source of infectious pathogens

48
Q

what is the spaulding classifcation category of a dental implant

A

critical

49
Q

what compounds are cationic detergents, making them effective wetting agents and emulsifiers that also kill most bacteria but are safe and easy to use even in households

A

quaternary ammonium compounds

50
Q

hexachlorophene is a member of what class of chemical agents used for microbrial control

A

phenolics